Chapter 16

Assessment, Careers, and Business

1. Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional are known as the
*a. Big 6.
b. Fundamental Principles of Employee Selection.
c. Modal Sequence of Employee Development.
d. Briggs-Myers Typological Constructs.
Topic: Strong Interest Inventory

2. Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional personality types

are measured by the
a. NEO-PI-R.
b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
c. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs Test.
*d. Self-Directed Search.
Topic: Strong Interest Inventory

3. From the perspective of an employer, psychological assessment tools can provide

assistance in which of the following areas?
a. selection of employees
b. identification of job assignments for new and continuing employees
c. screening of job applicants to interview
*d. all of the above represent areas of assistance to employers
Topic: Introduction

4. Strong Interest Inventory scores relate to examinee’s interests relative to

a. the skills required for a particular job.
b. the educational level required for a particular job.
c. the probability of success at a particular job based on academic achievement.
*d. the interests of people actually employed in various occupations.
Topic: Measures of interest

5. The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)

a. is administered only by clinical and counseling psychologists.
b. was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
*c. taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
d. all of the above
Topic: Measures of ability and aptitude

6. The process of selection based on an evaluation of certain minimal criteria is referred to as

a. classification.
b. placement.
*c. screening.
d. interviewing.
Topic: Screening, selection, classification, and placement

7. The term that implies “acceptance” or “rejection” in regard to personnel issues is

*a. selection.
b. placement.
 c. classification.
d. screening.
Topic: Screening, selection, classification, and placement

8. Application forms used in employment settings

*a. are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
b. have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies.
c. have been found to be ineffective if they are pretested on the company’s employees.
d. are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later
obtained through interviews, tests, and other methods.
Topic: The application form

9. Letters of recommendation used in employment settings

a. are generally not very useful since they are typically too positive in tone.
*b. are useful in the preliminary screening of applicants.
c. have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools for employee selection.
d. are more useful if they are open-ended rather than structured.
Topic: Letters of recommendation

10. Vocational assessment that entails performance samples

*a. may take the form of a leaderless group situation.
b. are used extensively in the hiring of doormen and doorwomen.
c. generally take the form of paper-and-pencil tasks.
d. have been heavily criticized for their use in measuring problem solving and decision
making.
Topic: Performance tests

11. In the evaluation of worker productivity,

a. final course grades in job training classes are highly predictive of future worker
production and job tenure.
*b. peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent.
c. peer ratings tend to be lower and more critical than ratings by superiors.
d. the leniency effect and the halo effect rarely result in rating errors.
Topic: Productivity

12. Which represents an example of validity generalization?

a. validating a projective personality technique for use in determining leadership ability
and integrity
b. selecting standardized instruments that are situation-specific for making promotion
decisions
*c. determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for secretarial
work can be meaningfully applied to the work of a truck driver
d. creating situational performance samples that more closely simulate actual job
requirements of clerical and assembly-line workers
Topic: Close-Up: Validity Generalization and the GATB

13. Race-norming entails

a. including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test.
*b. adjusting an individual testtaker’s score to reflect that person’s standing in his or her
own racial group.
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery
 14. Which are not typically used in pre-employment screening?
a. application blanks
b. letters of recommendation
c. interviews
*d. aptitude measures
Topic: Screening, selection, classification, and placement

15. Which is NOT a benefit of portfolio assessment in the workplace?

a. It provides a window into the thinking patterns of the perspective employee.
b. The prospective employer can view a wide array of the applicant’s work.
c. It encourages the potential employer to consider a wide range of characteristics in
assessing the applicant.
*d. Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically depressed
areas carries with it federal tax benefits.
Topic: Portfolio assessment

16. An assessment that requires the assessees to demonstrate abilities under specific
circumstances is referred to as
a. portfolio assessment.
*b. performance assessment.
c. curriculum-based assessment.
d. authentic assessment.
Topic: Performance tests

17. Performance assessments

a. provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their strengths
and weaknesses.
b. involve a thorough background check with previous employers.
*c. provide a job-related sample of behavior.
d. are usually not standardized.
Topic: Performance tests

18. Computer simulations and video games have earned a place in vocational assessment,
especially with regard to
a. portfolio evaluations.
*b. performance testing.
c. the measurement of interests.
d. none of the above
Topic: Performance tests

19. Which does not belong?

a. an “in-basket” task
b. a computerized jet fighter simulation
c. a typing test
*d. a polygraph test
Topic: Performance tests

20. The practice of adjusting test scores to reflect an individual’s level of performance within a
racial group is referred to as
a. racial bias.
b. reverse discrimination.
*c. race-norming.
d. intercept bias.
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery
 21. In the late 1980s, a nationwide controversy concerned the race-norming of the
a. MMPI-2.
*b. General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
c. WISC-III.
d. Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery

22. Criterion validity of the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) tends to be low, probably
because of
a. the low test-retest reliability of the GATB.
*b. the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
c. a limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables.
d. scoring that is based in part on the race of the testtaker.
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery

23. Race-norming of the General Aptitude Test (GATB) was viewed as appropriate by the
National Academy of Sciences because
*a. the criterion-related validity of the test for blacks and whites is represented by
different regression lines.
b. blacks and whites are being held to the same standards.
c. blacks are more likely than whites to come from disadvantaged backgrounds, and
race-norming the test compensates to some degree for that disadvantage.
d. so few minority group members take the test that race-norming is done only rarely.
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery

24. The question of whether the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) should be race-normed
was resolved when
a. the National Academy of Sciences issued a report on the test.
b. the Department of Labor stopped offering the test for employers.
*c. Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
d. there was a public outcry against the use of the GATB.
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery

25. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General Aptitude Test Battery
a. must no longer be administered.
b. must produce equal mean scores for all races.
*c. could no longer be race-normed.
d. violate the civil rights of minority groups.
Topic: The General Aptitude Test Battery

26. Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?

a. Myers
*b. Strong
c. Jung
d. Mooney
Topic: The Strong Interest Inventory

27. Based on recent research, which of the following is TRUE of Strong Interest Inventory
related to its use with respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds?
*a. The evidence supports the use of the Strong with particularly college-educated
respondents from diverse backgrounds.
b. The evidence does NOT support the use of the Strong with respondents from diverse
backgrounds.
c. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds has
not been investigated.
 d. The question of the use of the Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds is
a mute question as the test author specifically recommends that his test not be used
with these types of respondents.
Topic: Strong Interest Inventory

28. The Strong Interest Inventory measures which of the following?

a. vocational aptitudes
*b. vocational interests
c. vocational interests and aptitudes
d. vocational interests and general mental ability
Topic: Strong Interest Inventory

29. Items such as “I get along well with others” AND “I enjoy math” would be types of items
appearing on which of the following vocational assessment instruments?
a. WISC-III
b. General Aptitude Test Battery
c. Minnesota Clerical Test
*d. Strong Interest Inventory
Topic: Strong Interest Inventory

30. Bizot and Goldman (1993) examined the predictive criterion validity of interest inventories
and ability tests in relation to future job performance and job satisfaction. They concluded
a. interest is predictive of job performance.
*b. aptitude is predictive of job performance.
c. interest is predictive of job satisfaction.
d. all of the above
Topic: Assessment of ability, aptitude, interest, and personality

31. Bizot and Goldman (1993) found that ________________ scores in high school are
predictive of _______________ in adulthood.
a. interest test; job satisfaction
b. interest test; job performance
c. ability test; job satisfaction
*d. ability test; job performance
Topic: Assessment of ability, aptitude, interest, and personality

32. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on the theoretical work of
a. Freud.
b. Skinner.
*c. Jung.
d. Holland.
Topic: Measures of personality

33. The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess

*a. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
b. ability to work with people and ability to work alone.
c. interest in intellectual as opposed to routine, nondemanding work.
d. active managerial style as distinct from passive managerial style.
Topic: Motivation

34. The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess two characteristics. Factor
analysis indicates that two factors are in fact present on the test and correspond to the two
types of motivation postulated by the test developers. This is an example of which type of
evidence?
 a. internal consistency
*b. construct validity
c. face validity
d. test-retest reliability
Topic: Motivation

35. Drug testing is used by approximately ________ of companies in the United States.
a. 5%
b. 15%
c. 30%
*d. 45%
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

36. One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is

a. a new employee in a large company.
*b. a current employee in a small service organization.
c. completing military service.
d. a current employee in a large company.
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

37. Employees who are subjected to drug testing have expressed concerns about
a. the accuracy of the drug testing.
b. unconstitutional search and seizure.
c. violation of privacy rights.
*d. all of the above
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

38. A false-positive drug test result may mean that

a. the person is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually left the
person’s system.
b. an impaired individual may go undetected when there is a danger of injury because
of the impairment.
*c. the person consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
d. none of the above
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

39. A false-negative drug test result may indicate that

a. the person is taking depression medication.
b. the person ate poppy-seed cookies for dessert.
*c. an impaired individual may go undetected.
d. none of the above
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

40. Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more
acceptable way than drug testing to detect impairment. The video game–style assessment
is an example of
a. an assessment center.
b. an authentic assessment.
*c. a performance assessment.
d. an aptitude test.
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity
 41. Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more
acceptable way than drug testing to detect impairment. Which is an advantage of the
video game–style approach?
a. immediate feedback concerning impairment
b. improved employee satisfaction
c. demonstrated effectiveness in reducing accidents
*d. all of the above
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

42. According to your text, a ___________ is defined as “a task, an undertaking, or an activity

performed for pay.”
a. career
b. occupation
*c. job
d. vocation
Topic: Screening, selection, classification, and placement

43. Résumés and application forms are best classified as ________ instruments.
a. placement
*b. screening
c. hiring
d. classification
Topic: The résumé and the letter of application

44. How do application forms differ from résumés?

a. Application forms are often used for screening purposes; résumés are used for
selection.
b. Application forms offer relevant background information regarding education and
employment history; résumés typically do not.
*c. Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
d. Application forms are often used as a basis for later interviewing; résumés are not.
Topic: The résumé and the letter of application

45. According to your text, the most complete picture of a job applicant’s actual abilities can
be obtained best from
*a. portfolio assessment.
b. a personal interview.
c. a detailed résumé.
d. letters of recommendation.
Topic: Portfolio assessment

46. According to your text, the typical objective of a performance test is

a. to compare an employee’s performance with that of other employees.
b. to assess the speed of an employee in completing a particular job-related task.
c. to determine the accuracy of an employee’s performance under stressful conditions.
*d. to obtain a job-related performance sample.
Topic: Performance tests

47. Which is NOT true of the Minnesota Clerical Test (MCT)?

a. It is often used as a screening tool.
*b. It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
c. It measures both speed and accuracy.
d. It can be administered and scored quickly.
Topic: Performance tests
 48. The 1956 Management Progress Study (MPS) at American Telephone and Telegraph
(AT&T)
*a. represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an industrial
setting.
b. was a longitudinal study with assessments of both management and
nonmanagement employees.
c. was headed by Donald Super who developed a series of Super tests as a result.
d. all of the above
Topic: The assessment centers

49. An assessment center is

a. a specific place in an organization staffed by the industrial/organizational
psychologist.
b. a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques.
c. a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
*d. b and c
Topic: The assessment centers

50. Which best exemplifies the inappropriate use of a physical measure in employee
screening?
a. testing an industrial worker’s hearing
b. testing a police officer’s speed and agility
*c. measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
d. using a polygraph test to assess a cashier’s integrity and honesty
Topic: Physical tests

51. How are aptitude tests different from achievement tests?

*a. Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning.
b. Aptitude tests are typically more limited and focused in the content of the items
presented.
c. Aptitude tests measure prior learning; achievement tests, past learning.
d. Aptitude tests are primarily paper-and-pencil; achievement tests are computerized.
Topic: Measures of ability and aptitude

52. The Hand-Tool Dexterity Test and the O’Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test would most
likely be used by an employer interested in
a. understanding a worker’s motivation to respond quickly and accurately.
*b. assessing a worker’s ability to physically manipulate materials.
c. finding the best employee for a position on an assembly line.
d. questionable administration practices.
Topic: Measures of ability and aptitude

53. According to your text, the Strong Interest Inventory was developed primarily on the
assumption that
a. if an examinee has many outside interests, he or she will experience less on-the-job
stress.
*b. if an examinee’s interests match those of people already in the field, the examinee
may be well suited for the job.
c. all people in a particular field will work well together if they share similar interests.
d. the more interests an examinee has, the more adaptable he or she will be to various
job-related situations.
Topic: The Strong Interest Inventory

54. The longitudinal study by Bizot and Goldman showed that eight years after their
completion, interest inventories administered in high school
 a. had predicted job performance.
b. had predicted job satisfaction.
*c. had predicted neither job performance nor job satisfaction.
d. had predicted the number of promotions received.
Topic: Measures of interest

55. Which is true of the role of personality measures in industrial/organizational psychology?

*a. The same personality test may not be equally suited for every job.
b. The distinction between task-related and people-related aspects of a job is artificial,
and therefore the same personality tests can be used for any job.
c. The comprehensive nature of the MMPI-2 makes it widely used in I/O settings.
d. There is a trend toward phasing out the use of personality tests in I/O settings
because of improper use.
Topic: Personality measures

56. Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be

a. invalid.
b. more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
*c. predictive of future job performance.
d. poorly correlated with self-ratings.
Topic: Productivity

57. Which is not a key component of organizational commitment?

a. loyalty and involvement in the organization
b. a value system consistent with that of the organization
*c. length of time with the organization
d. the amount of special effort one would exert on behalf of the organization
Topic: Organizational commitment

58. Which of the following is TRUE of the Organizational Commitment Questionnaire (OCQ)?
a. The OCQ represents the most widely used instrument to assess organizational
commitment.
b. The OCQ possesses strong construct validity.
c. The OCQ represents a 15-item Guttman scale.
*d. all of the above
Topic: Organizational commitment

59. The assessment of Organizational Commitment may include which of the following
components?
a. feelings of loyalty
b. number of days absent
*c. both a and b
d. solely an attitudinal and not a behavioral component
Topic: Organizational commitment

60. Which of the following are related to organizational commitment?

a. absenteeism and lack of ethical review of employee behavior
b. lack of ethical review of employee behavior
c. quality of work
*d. all of the above
Topic: Organizational commitment

61. Which of the following is NOT a reflection of the organizational culture?

a. role of the manager
 b. receiving “free parking” after 25 years working in the organization
c. the annual Christmas party
*d. all of the above are reflections of an organizational culture
Topic: Organizational culture

62. Which statement best describes the current status of measures of organizational culture?
a. There are many instruments but few with adequate reliability and validity.
*b. There are very few instruments with demonstrated reliability and validity.
c. There are currently no available instruments to assess this area.
d. None of the above accurately describes the current status of instruments that assess
organizational culture.
Topic: Organizational culture

63. Organizational culture refers primarily to

a. a company’s physical work setting.
b. the types of people who work at the company.
c. the formal and informal ceremonies and privileges within the organization.
*d. all of the above
Topic: Organizational culture

64. As presented in the chapter’s Everyday Psychometrics entry, which of the following
assessment tool are included in the approach developed by one of your textbook authors
for the assessment of corporate and organizational culture?
a. individual interview
b. rating scale
*c. focus group
d. all of the above represent tools used in this assessment approach
Topic: Everyday Psychometrics: Assessment of corporate and organizational culture

65. Which of the following best describes the focus of the assessment tool presented in the
Everyday Psychometrics entry for the chapter on Assessment, Careers, and Business?
*a. organizational culture
b. personality characteristics of managers
c. organizational commitment
d. all of the above
Topic: Everyday Psychometrics: Assessment of corporate and organizational culture

66. An employee’s level of organizational commitment is most closely tied to

a. how the organization represents itself to those outside.
b. the physical setting.
*c. the values held by the organization.
d. specific privileges offered by the company.
Topic: Organizational commitment; organizational culture

67. Which is true of drug testing in work settings?

*a. Large companies are more likely to test than small companies.
b. Random drug testing is commonplace in private service-oriented companies.
c. Only about 20% of all companies conduct drug testing because of its high cost.
d. Small companies typically test more than large ones because of the higher stake they
have in each employee.
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

68. Which is NOT a criticism of drug testing?

a. It may violate the constitutional rights of employees.
 b. False positives and false negatives are always a possibility.
*c. Any benefits of drug testing tend to be outweighed by the costliness of the
procedure.
d. The most commonly used methods are not specific regarding when the drug was
taken or how much impairment occurred.
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

69. The best conclusion about the validity of integrity tests is that
a. the tests have little validity and should not be used in the workplace.
b. the tests have validity if used only as a screening measure in retail outlets such as
The Gap and Home Depot.
*c. professionally developed tests have the best chance of meeting acceptable validity
standards.
d. none of the above
Topic: Integrity tests

70. Rating on the basis of a sole criterion is called

a. classification.
b. placement.
*c. screening.
d. selection.
Topic: Overview

71. Employers use the résumé and the cover letter to assess all the following except
a. the appropriateness of career objectives.
b. perceived sincerity.
*c. work-related thought processes.
d. prior job-related experience.
Topic: The résumé and the letter of application: The application form

72. A highly useful method of quick screening that provides a biographical sketch of the
applicant is the
a. written interview.
b. portfolio.
*c. application blank.
d. home visit.
Topic: The résumé and the letter of application: The application form

73. Letters of recommendation are unique in that they provide detailed information about
a. educational background.
b. dreams and fantasy life.
*c. past performance.
d. writing skills.
Topic: Letters of recommendation: Interviews

74. An aptitude test that includes both psychomotor and paper-and-pencil tasks is the
a. Bennet Mechanical Comprehension Test.
*b. General Aptitude Test Battery.
c. Minnesota Clerical Test.
d. O’Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test.
Topic: Measures of ability and aptitude

75. The NAS report regarding correction of test bias in the General Aptitude Test Battery
(GATB) concluded that
 a. race-norming was an unreasonable method for the correction.
b. raw scores had to be converted into interpretable standard scores.
c. test coefficients were too low to be acceptable criterion-related validity evidence.
*d. nothing had to be changed in the practice of scoring the tests.
Topic: Measures of ability and aptitude

76. A limitation of using ratings to measure productivity is a reasonable possibility of

a. irresponsibility in rating.
*b. rater bias.
c. low predictive efficiency.
d. none of the above
Topic: Productivity

77. Which best exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

a. a bonus for reaching a quota
b. the recognition by others of one’s work
*c. one’s satisfaction with one’s own work products
d. all of the above
Topic: Motivation

78. According to Vroom’s expectancy theory of motivation, employees will expend energy
*a. to achieve an outcome they desire.
b. to experience feelings of accomplishment.
c. to satisfy a higher category of need.
d. to receive recognition for performance.
Topic: Motivation

79. In addition to measuring feeling states, measures of job satisfaction usually measure
a. knowledge necessary for successful job performance.
b. strength of one’s loyalty to the organization.
*c. perception of one’s role in the organization.
d. all of the above
Topic: Attitude

80. The term used to represent the strength of one’s loyalty to an organization is
a. attitudinal fortitude.
b. motivational alliance.
*c. organizational commitment.
d. job satisfaction.
Topic: Attitude

81. Which of the following represents a contemporary measure of job satisfaction?

a. match between an organizational culture and the employee’s cultural background
b. evaluation of the actual work being performed and the work schedule
c. aspects of well-being
*d. all of the above
Topic: Attitude: Job satisfaction

82. Random drug testing is relatively unusual in

a. government agencies.
b. large companies.
c. the military.
*d. the music industry.
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

83. Which is true of the Immunoassay method for detecting drug use?
a. It determines the degree of impairment that occurred as a consequence of the drug
use.
b. It determines the precise amount of the drug that was ingested.
*c. It determines which drug in a particular category was taken.
d. It determines when the drug was taken.
Topic: Drug testing and tests of integrity

84. As a result of legislation, most employment settings are prohibited from using
a. drug tests.
b. personality-based measures.
c. physical tests.
*d. lie detectors.
Topic: Tests of integrity

85. According to White, a higher norm of stealing by employees sometimes results from the
use of
a. random drug testing.
*b. preemployment honesty testing.
c. job satisfaction tests.
d. Elton John recordings as background music in retail stores.
Topic: Tests of integrity

86. Maslow’s hierarchical theory as it relates to worker motivation would suggest that
a. employees expend energy in ways designed to achieve the outcome they desire.
b. the more money a worker earns, the more money the worker strives to earn.
*c. once workers feel secure in their positions and accepted by their co-workers, they
strive to earn recognition for their accomplishments.
d. an extremely high-risk situation may not lead to feelings of accomplishment because
of a high probability of failure.
Topic: Assessment of productivity, motivation, and attitude

87. At what age are students’ interests thought to be sufficiently formed to be useful in course
and career planning?
a. 10 years
*b. 15 years
c. 18 years
d. 25 years
Topic: Productivity, motivation, attitude, and culture

88. Which of the following is TRUE of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?

*a. Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular.
b. The test has strong reliability.
c. The test has strong validity.
d. The test is widely used as an adjunct to random drug testing.
Topic: Measures of personality

89. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) was based on the work of which theorist?
a. Fritz Perls
*b. Carl Jung
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Carl Strong
Topic: Focus groups

90. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills measures

a. personal living skills.
b. home and community living skills.
c. employment skills.
*d. all of the above
Topic: The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills

91. What is the age range for the Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills?
a. 5–15
b. 4–21
c. 16-adulthood
*d. any age
Topic: The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills

92. On the Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills, for an assessee to be judged as “independent,”
he or she must perform the task with good quality at least __________% of the time, when
needed, without reminder.
a. 50
*b. 75
c. 90
d. 99
Topic: The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills

93. Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced sense of personal accomplishment

are all symptoms of which of the following?
a. personality disorder
*b. burnout
c. underemployment
d. all of the above
Topic: Burnout

94. Which type of decision carries with it less implication of acceptance or rejection than
selection?
a. classification
b. placement
*c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Topic: Screening, selection, classification, and placement

95. The Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory is most useful for measuring which of the
following?
a. knowledge of other cultures
*b. readiness to take a new job or to be relocated to a position in another country
c. aptitude for mastering a foreign language
d. academic preparation and social skills relevant to labor negotiations in at least 12
different cultures.
Topic: Other measures

96. The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is which type of test?

a. norm-referenced
*b. criterion-referenced
c. objective
d. performance-based
Topic: Other measures

97. Which of the following is NOT measured by the Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory?
a. emotional resilience
b. flexibility/openness
c. perceptual acuity and personal autonomy
*d. receptive communication and accent
Topic: Other measures

98. The Goal Instability Scale, The Life Satisfaction Index, and the Interpersonal Support
Evaluations List are all used by counselors for which of the following purposes?
a. job selection
b. job assignment
*c. retirement planning
d. all of the above
Topic: Other measures

99. A person who is evaluated and either accepted or rejected for a position has gone through
a __________ process.
a. screening
*b. selection
c. classification
d. all of the above
Topic: Screening, selection, classification, and placement

100. Which of the following instruments focuses on occupations that require four or more years
of college or graduate school?
a. the Strong Interest Inventory
b. the Career Interest Inventory
*c. the Campbell Interest and Skill Survey
d. the Jackson Vocational Interest Survey
Topic: Occupational choice

101. Which of the following is TRUE of qualitative research?

a. It always involves large numbers of subjects.
b. It allows the psychologist to use statistical analyses of the data obtained.
*c. It can lead to the development of hypotheses and provides detailed information.
d. all of the above
Topic: Qualitative research

102. Motivation research includes

a. focus groups.
b. individual interviews.
*c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Topic: Consumer research

103. Engineering psychologists may have worked on the design of which of the following?
a. an airplane cockpit
b. a machine
c. a child’s car seat
*d. all of the above
Topic: Ergonomic assessment
104. In consumer assessment, survey research can be accomplished by
a. face-to-face interviews.
b. telephone interviews.
c. mail questionnaires.
*d. all of the above
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

105. Perhaps the most widely used form of survey research is

a. the face-to-face personal interview.
*b. the telephone interview.
c. the mail questionnaire.
d. the fax questionnaire.
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

106. Which type of survey research provides the opportunity to collect the largest amount of
data in the most economical fashion?
*a. the mail survey
b. the telephone survey
c. the personal interview
d. the mall intercept
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

107. __________ attempts to locate products within the framework of an “attribute space” based
on consumer perceptions of similarities and differences among products.
a. Likert scaling
b. Guttman scaling
*c. Multidimensional scaling
d. Aggregate scaling
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

108. Which attitude research method involves repeated judgments of a concept against a series
of descriptive bipolar adjectives on a seven-point scale?
*a. semantic differential
b. multidimensional scaling
c. aggregate scaling
d. word association
Topic: Measuring attitudes surveys

109. Just another facial tissue___/___/__/___/____/___/ A very special facial tissue.

The above item is an example of which type of scale?
a. Likert
b. Guttman
*c. Osgood semantic differential
d. word association
Topic: Attitude measurement: semantic differential

110. If a consumer assessment expert develops a survey that includes only questions that can
be answered “yes” or “no” such as “Do you like the new packaging for Wild Berry Cereal”
he/she has developed which type of specialized survey?
a. Likert survey
*b. poll
c. semantic differential survey
d. word association survey
Topic: Measuring attitudes: Surveys
111. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of a survey?
*a. Questions typically change from one respondent to another depending on their
response.
b. Surveys can be administered online.
c. Surveys can possess adequate reliability and validity.
d. all of the above
Topic: Measuring attitudes: Surveys

112. Which of the following type of survey would a consumer assessment specialist working
for a drug company NOT recommend to use to assess attitudes toward a new birth control
pill?
a. mail
*b. face-to-face
c. online
d. all of the above have pros and cons so the assessment specialist might recommend
each equally
Topic: Measuring attitudes: Surveys

113. Which of the following type of survey holds the greatest potential for easy access and
feedback?
a. mail
b. face-to-face
*c. online
d. telephone
Topic: Measuring attitudes: Surveys

114. Online and telephone surveys have which of the following characteristics in common as
compared to surveys conducted face to face?
a. Online and telephone have higher reliability and validity than surveys conducted
face-to-face.
b. Online and telephone are less cost effective than surveys conducted face-to-face.
*c. Online and telephone surveys lack identity verification while those administered
face-to-face do not.
d. All of the above represent characteristics that online and telephone surveys have in
common as compared to face-to-face interviews.
Topic: Measuring attitudes: Surveys

115. What type of survey is best for obtaining information about which consumers may be
sensitive?
*a. the mail survey
b. the telephone survey
c. the personal interview
d. the mall intercept
Topic: Measuring attitudes: Surveys
116. Which type of survey research suffers most from nonresponse?
*a. the mail survey
b. the telephone survey
c. the personal interview
d. the mall intercept
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

117. Which type of survey would be best for obtaining consumer response to product
demonstrations?
a. the mail survey
b. the telephone survey
*c. the mall intercept
d. the fax survey
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

118. Like Like Somewhat Neutral Somewhat Dislike Dislike

1 2 3 4 5
The above scale is an example of which type of aggregate scaling method?
*a. Likert
b. Guttman
c. Osgood Semantic Differential
d. multidimensional scaling
Topic: Attitude measurement: Likert scales

119. The Likert and Guttman scales are examples of which methods of attitude research?
*a. aggregate scaling methods
b. multidimensional scaling methods
c. the semantic differential technique
d. disaggregate scaling
Topic: Attitude measurement: Likert scales

120. One of the significant ways in which the traditional model of attitudes differs from the
Fishbein model is that
a. the two models define basic terms such as cognition, affect, and overt behavior
differently.
b. the traditional model treats attitudes as being composed of only one component
(affect) whereas the Fishbein model conceptualizes attitudes as having three
components (cognition, affect, and behavior).
*c. the Fishbein model explicitly recognizes that attitudes may have multiple attributes,
while the traditional model assumes one attribute.
d. none of the above
Topic: Attitude measurement: Models

121. Which theory of attitudes makes a clear distinction between “intentions” and “overt
behavior”?
a. traditional
*b. Fishbein
c. functional
d. ephemeral
Topic: Attitude measurement

122. Which of the following is TRUE of the Fishbein model?

*a. “Intentions” mediate between attitudes and overt behavior.
b. “Intentions” are not measured.
c. There is little relationship between “attitude” and “intentions” at the global level.
 d. “Intentions” and “attitude” are the same.
Topic: Attitude measurement

123. A major advantage of individual interviews with consumers is that they

*a. have potential for verbal as well as nonverbal information.
b. are inexpensive.
c. can be conducted quickly.
d. none of the above
Topic: Consumer assessment: Interviews

124. Which of the following scaling methods orders statements according to their relative
importance?
*a. Guttman scaling
b. Likert scaling
c. multidimensional scaling
d. semantic differential scaling
Topic: Guttman scaling

125. Which of the following represents the fastest, least expensive, and most efficient method of
survey research?
a. the door-to-door approach
*b. the telephone interview
c. the focus group
d. the mail questionnaire
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

126. To monitor what really prompts consumers to purchase a particular product at the “point
of choice,” the market researcher should use which of the following?
*a. direct observation
b. focus groups
c. in-depth interviews
d. phone interviews
Topic: Consumer assessment: Behavioral methods

127. Which of the following research methods is best in terms of providing information useful
in making inferences about cause-and-effect relationships in consumer psychology?
a. a focus group
*b. an experimental design
c. behavioral observation
d. brain wave research
Topic: Consumer assessment

128. Focus groups usually consist of how many participants?

a. 2–5
*b. 6–12
c. 13–20
d. 21–30
Topic: Focus groups

129. Consumer psychologists often choose surveys and polls over other measurement methods
because
a. they can analyze motives with respect to consumer behavior and attitudes.
b. they can determine whether a rise in sales is due to effective advertising.
c. they can examine in depth a group of consumer reactions.
 *d. they can gain information about opinions of large numbers of people.
Topic: Consumer assessment: Surveys

130. Which of the following is TRUE of a focus group?

a. The participants are randomly selected.
b. A free-flowing discussion is avoided.
c. The group consists of 20–25 participants.
*d. A trained moderator leads the group.
Topic: Focus groups

131. The concept BASIC IDS applies to which of the following?

a. experimental research investigating clinical mental health issues
*b. dimensional qualitative research
c. non-dimensional qualitative research
d. experimental research investigating consumer behavior
Topic: Focus groups

132. What represents a disadvantage(s) of focus groups as compared to other tools in the
assessment of consumer behavior?
*a. lower reliability
b. limited applicability in consumer research
c. open-ended nature
d. all of the above represent disadvantages of focus groups
Topic: Focus groups

133. An interview that involves considerable probing of an individual consumer’s beliefs and
attitudes is called
*a. a depth interview.
b. an attitude survey.
c. a face-to-face interview.
d. a focal interview.
Topic: Consumer assessment: Qualitative methods

134. A consumer psychologist may choose to use a one-on-one interview because

a. it produces data that are quantifiable.
*b. it provides a detailed source of information.
c. it is the most time- and cost-effective approach.
d. it consists of only structured questions.
Topic: Consumer assessment: Qualitative methods