Dogar Brothers 2020 PDF Books Free Download PDF

Page 1
Hello readers here you will learn solved objective type question answers
of Dogar Brothers solved question answers learn here with using this PDF
Book. This PDF Book will help you for preparation of ECAT important
subjects that are the part of Engineering College Admission Test.
Sr. No. Subjects Page No’s

1 English MCQS With Answers 03
2 Math MCQS With Answers 86
3 Physics MCQS With Answers 193
4 Chemistry MCQS With Answers 281
‫ے‬
‫دیےئگںیہ۔ہیامتم‬‫اساتکبںیمآوکپٹسیٹیکایتریےکےیللمکملحدشہامییسویکز ئ‬
‫ونسٹآیکپایتریےکےیلتہبامہںیہاورانامییسویکزیکدمدےسآوکپایتریںیمیھبآاسین‬
‫وہیگ۔ویکہکنامتموساالتےکوجاباتوموجدںیہ۔ارگآوکپڈورگبرادرزیکیسکیھباتکبیک‬
‫رضورتوہوتآپوکوہامتماتکںیبوسٹفاکیپںیمبلکلفریںیلمیگ۔‬
Page 2
English MCQS With Solved Answers
I told the tailor to put red buttons ----- the dress he is making for me.
A. in
B. at
C. on (Answer)
D. over
E. none
Either Sana or her friends ------ present there.

A. was
B. were (Answer)
C. is
D. none
We often watch ---- television.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. none (Answer)
We congratulate you ---- your achievement.

A. for
B. to
C. on (Answer)
D. at
E. by
My friend is a couch potato. What does the idiom/phrase “couch potato” means?
A. active person
B. busy person
C. lazy person (Answer)
D. angry person
Passive voice of “They broke up the table for firewood” is ---------------------?

A. The table broke up for firewood by them.
Page 3
B. The table has broken up for firewood by them.
C. The table had broken up for firewood by them.
D. The table was broken up for firewood by them. (Answer)
Sana! Please ------ a tea ?

A. Taken
B. Drank
C. Have (Answer)
D. Put
He is worried ----- his future.

A. for
B. of
C. about (Answer)
D. from
E. with
Antonym of GUMPTION is -------------?

A. Apathy (Answer)
B. Nerve
C. Initiative
D. Sagacity
Antonym of RECONDITE is-------------?

A. Hermetic
B. Manifest (Answer)
C. Pedantic
D. Occult
Antonym of ENORMOUS is-------------?

A. Fragile
B. Weak
C. Tiny (Answer)
D. Soft
Antonym of ARTIFICIAL is --------------?

A. Red
Page 4
B. Solid
C. Truthful
D. Natural (Answer)
Antonym of EXPAND is -------------?

A. Congest
B. Conclude
C. Convert
D. Condense (Answer)
She is interested ----- drawing and painting.

A. of
B. at
C. in (Answer)
D. with
E. on
Please do not get angry -- me.

A. with (Answer)
B. on
C. at
D. towards
-- the night mysterious creatures prowl.

A. in (Answer)
B. at
C. on
D. along
You should not jest ------ his poverty.

A. on
B. with
C. at (Answer)
D. of
Sana is not known ------ me.

A. to (Answer)
Page 5
B. on
C. at
D. with
I am proud ------ my brother.

A. with
B. of (Answer)
C. to
D. at
E. on
Head is covered ---- hair.

A. of
B. with (Answer)
C. at
D. by
E. from
The weather was --------- the exceptionally poor harvest.

A. accused of
B. blamed for (Answer)
C. found fault with for
D. condemned for
Do you mean to say you exchanged that lovely car ---- this?
A. with
B. on
C. by
D. for (Answer)
When the meeting had finished, they went ----- the plan once again.
A. down
B. on
C. up
D. over (Answer)
Antonym of PRODIGAL is -------------?
Page 6
A. Spendthrift
B. Squandering
C. Thrifty (Answer)
D. Wanton
Antonym of WEAN is -------------?

A. Attach (Answer)
B. Detach
C. Discourage
D. Halt
Antonym of FRIVOLOUS is -------------?

A. Trivial
B. Silly
C. Petty
D. Wise (Answer)
Antonym of DUCTILE is -------------?

A. Docile
B. Pliable
C. Stiff (Answer)
D. Supple
Antonym of DEVIANT is -------------?

A. Bent
B. Devious
C. Regular (Answer)
D. Atypical
Antonym of CURTAIL is -------------?

A. Cramp
B. Prolong (Answer)
C. Chop
D. Clip
Antonym of DEXTEROUS is -------------?

A. Inexpert (Answer)
Page 7
B. Acute
C. Active
D. Able
Antonym of DOCILE is -------------?

A. Pliable
B. Pliant
C. Quiet
D. Unyielding (Answer)
Antonym of SARTORIAL is -------------?

A. Homespun (Answer)
B. Cheerful
C. Inelegant
D. Sincere
Antonym of PIQUE is -------------?

A. Hurt
B. Irk
C. Joy (Answer)
D. Huff
I don’t see any ----- in arriving early at the theatre if the show doesn’t start until 9 o’clock.
A. aim
B. reason
C. cause
D. point (Answer)
She is teaching two classes and is examining at a literature exam tomorrow. -------, she is chairing a meeting at
Islamabad.
A. at the top of it
B. on the top of it
C. on top of it
D. at top (Answer)
They are anxious ------ his health.

A. for
Page 8
B. at
C. about (Answer)
D. on
There is still no cure ----- AIDS.

A. of
B. to
C. for (Answer)
D. with
Synonym of “blissful” is ---------?

A. maudlin
B. dour
C. beatific (Answer)
D. moot
E. modish
Synonym of “celibate” is ---------?

A. single (Answer)
B. double
C. married
D. bald
E. hypocritical
Synonym of “homogenous” is ---------?

A. heterogeneous
B. motley
C. scrambled
D. different
E. similar (Answer)
Synonym of “garrulous” is ---------?

A. laconic
B. strangling
C. ecstatic
D. frozen
E. wordy (Answer)
Page 9
Synonym of “vestige” is ---------?
A. clothing
B. trace (Answer)
C. under-garment
D. hallway
E. hope
Synonym of “mores” is ---------?

A. morals
B. customs (Answer)
C. taxes
D. fiscal year
E. swamp
Antonym of NIGGARDLY is -------------?

A. Generous (Answer)
B. Chintzy
C. Closefisted
D. Skimpy
Antonym of PHILISTINE is -------------?

A. Smutty
B. Uncultured
C. Uncultured
D. Cultured (Answer)
Antonym of QUIESCENT is -------------?

A. Asleep
B. Active (Answer)
C. Deactivated
D. Fallow
Antonym of FOREMOST is -------------?

A. Unimportant (Answer)
B. Hindmost
C. Disposed
Page 10
D. Mature
Antonym of FALLACIOUS is -------------?

A. Credit
B. Clean
C. Truthful (Answer)
D. Dishonest
Antonym of PARSIMONY is -------------?

A. Verbosity
B. Generosity (Answer)
C. Clan
D. Tenderness
Antonym of DOLEFUL is -------------?

A. Vivacious (Answer)
B. Witty
C. Empty
D. Full
Antonym of TACIT is -------------?

A. Punish
B. Dictated (Answer)
C. Grand
D. Small
Antonym of MITE is -------------?

A. Bit
B. Bug
C. Insect
D. Whole (Answer)
Antonym of NEBULOUS is -------------?

A. Misty
B. Apparent (Answer)
C. Murky
D. Shadowy
Page 11
Synonym of “pelt” is ---------?
A. to throw things at (Answer)
B. touch softly
C. place in layers
D. remove from
Synonym of “sumptuous” is ---------?

A. swampy
B. irritable
C. meagre
D. fancy
E. lavish (Answer)
Synonym of “ captious” is ---------?

A. prominent
B. carping (Answer)
C. critical
D. caustic
E. epigrammatic
Synonym of “indigence” is ---------?

A. nativity
B. tolerance
C. gossiping
D. poverty (Answer)
E. eating
Synonym of “incorrigible” is ---------?

A. commendable
B. incorruptible
C. unchangeable (Answer)
D. overbearing
Synonym of “intractable” is ---------?

A. hard to manage (Answer)
B. barbaric
Page 12
C. flawless
D. elusive
Synonym of “patois” is ---------?

A. glib talk
B. slang
C. computer language
D. local dialect (Answer)
Synonym of “bifurcate” is ---------?

A. to fork or divide (Answer)
B. belch
C. think meditatively
D. explain at length
Synonym of “syllogism” is ---------?

A. harmony
B. word division
C. sensible observation
D. reasoning method (Answer)
Synonym of “countenance” is ---------?

A. opposition
B. proper conduct
C. agreeable quality
D. facial expression (Answer)
LIQUID: HYDRAULICS::
A. motion: dynamics (Answer)
B. water: hydroponics
C. data: statistics
D. music: eurythmics
Ocean currents play a -------role in setting long-term climate---------.

A. vital … date
B. important … variations
C. major … patterns (Answer)
Page 13
D. unusual … changes
Antonym of DENIGRATE is -------------?

A. Asperse
B. Besmirch
C. Boost (Answer)
D. Vilify
Antonym of ELATED is -------------?

A. Roused
B. Blissful
C. Sad (Answer)
D. Happy
Antonym of INGEST is -------------?

A. Disgorge (Answer)
B. Disrupt
C. Absorb
D. Devour
Antonym of LUCID is -------------?

A. Evident
B. Obvious
C. Explicit
D. Vague (Answer)
Antonym of INORDINATE is -------------?

A. Dizzying
B. Wasteful
C. Wanton
D. Moderate (Answer)
Antonym of SENILE is -------------?

A. Doting
B. Anile
C. Alert (Answer)
D. Ancient
Page 14
Antonym of GARBLED is -------------?
A. Slant
B. Unscramble (Answer)
C. Obscure
D. Pervert
Synonym of Enigma is -------------?

A. Question
B. Puzzle (Answer)
C. Answer
D. Content
Synonym of Incredulous is -------------?

A. Dishonest
B. Honest
C. Reliable
D. Unreliable (Answer)
Synonym of Vituperate is -------------?

A. Abuse (Answer)
B, Appreciate
C. Copy
D. Encourage
Synonym of BRIEF is -------------?

A. Small
B. Short (Answer)
C. Little
D. Limited
Synonym of EMBEZZLE is -------------?

A. Remunerate
B. Clear
C. Balance
D. Misappropriate (Answer)
Page 15
Synonym of ALERT is -------------?
A. Intelligent
B. Energetic
C. Observant
D. Watchful (Answer)
Synonym of ARROGANT is -------------?

A. Conceited (Answer)
B. Humble
C. Progressive
D. Noble
1.Which of the following must be true? (Answer)

A. W flies the Monday morning flight
B. X flies the Monday afternoon flight
C. Y flies the Tuesday morning flight
D. W flies the Thursday morning flight
E. Z flies the Thursday afternoon flight (Answer)
2.If X flies on Friday morning, which of the following must be true? (Answer)
A. X does not fly on Monday afternoon
B. V flies on Friday afternoon (Answer)
C. W flies Thursday morning
D. Y flies Thursday morning
E. Neither W nor Y flies Thursday morning
3.If X flies only one morning flight during the week, which of the following must be true? (Answer)
A. W flies exactly two days during the week (Answer)
B. X flies exactly three days during the week
C. Y flies only one day during the week
D. Z flies Monday afternoon and Friday afternoon
E. X flies more times during the week than V
Synonym of “pastime” is ---------?

A. antiquity
B. memory
C. recreation (Answer)
Page 16
D. tardiness
Synonym of “ineluctable” is ---------?

A. subtle
B. inevitable (Answer)
C. incapable
D. insoluble
Synonym of “subterranean” is ---------?

A. underground (Answer)
B. stealthy
C. built up
D. cavernous
Synonym of “infinite” is ---------?

A. verbal
B. indefinite
C. endless (Answer)
D. strange
E. vague
Synonym of “fastidious” is ---------?

A. speedy
B. precise
C. squeamish (Answer)
D. hungry
E. slow
Synonym of “demise” is ---------?

A. residence
B. dismissal
C. accident
D. act
E. death (Answer)
Synonym of “filch” is ---------?

A. pretend
Page 17
B. dirty
C. embarrass
D. steal (Answer)
E. honor
Synonym of “disconcert” is ---------?

A. sing in harmony
B. pretend
C. cancel program
D. confuse (Answer)
E. interrupt
Synonym of “virago” is ---------?

A. bacillus
B. chastity
C. shrew (Answer)
D. wanton
E. tirade
Synonym of “persiflage” is ---------?

A. banter (Answer)
B. oppression
C. sarcasm
D. bigotry
E. simile
Synonym of “loquacious” is ---------?

A. situated
B. gregarious
C. taciturn
D. antisocial
E. garrulous (Answer)
Synonym of “tractable” is ---------?

A. practicable
B. amenable (Answer)
C. indisposed
Page 18
D. critical
E. artistic
Synonym of “saturnine” is ---------?

A. planetary
B. gloomy (Answer)
C. astronomic
D. hopeful
E. temperate
Synonym of “vindictive” is ---------?

A. revengeful (Answer)
B. triumphant
C. strategic
D. demonstrative
E. bigoted
Danish came out ---- his office, looking tired and worried.
A. with
B. from
C. at
D. of (Answer)
E. to
We are sensible ----- the difficulties he faces?

A. to
B. of (Answer)
C. with
D. at
E. on
Synonym of ” Lambast ” is -------------?

A. Entomb
B. Reprimand (Answer)
C. Cease
D. Forbear
E. Adore
Page 19
Antonym of ” Perspicacious ” is -------------?
A. Sagacious
B. Discerning
C. Astute
D. Dull (Answer)
E. Canny
Synonym of ” Boulevard ” is -------------?

A. Vortex
B. Turbulence
C. Avenue (Answer)
D. Whirlpool
E. Turmoil
Memon, --------- of former information minister Nisar Memon, had entered politics in 2003?
A. the daughter
B. a daughter (Answer)
C. daughter
D. none
Synonym of ” prevalence ” is ---------?

A. Felony
B. Transgression
C. Sabotage
D. Commonness (Answer)
E. Flouting
Synonym of ” Manoeuvre ” is ---------?

A. Stultify
B. Intrigue (Answer)
C. Stupefy
D. Fatigue
Synonym of ” Calm ” is ---------?

A. Nervous
B. Serene (Answer)
Page 20
C. Agitated
D. Faint
Synonym of ” Affinity ” is ---------?

A. Loathe
B. Aversion
C. Antipathy
D. Sympathy (Answer)
E. Blood Relationship
Synonym of ” Kowtow ” is ---------?

A. Prostrate (Answer)
B. Debar
C. Nullify
D. Hoard
E. Blush
I’ve never -- to England.

A. Been (Answer)
B. Went
C. Going
D. Go
Look! The bus --------.

A. Leaves
B. Leaving
C. Does leave
D. Is leaving (Answer)
I didn’t ------ TV last night.

A. Not watched
B. Watched
C. Watch (Answer)
D. Watching
-------there a restaurant near here?

A. Are
Page 21
B. Have
C. Do
D. Is (Answer)
Antonym of ” Heartfelt ” is -------------?

A. Loving
B. Insincere (Answer)
C. Unhealthy
D. Humorous
E. Heartly
He was upbraided ------- his slovenly appearance?

A. of
B. for (Answer)
C. with
D. to
E. from
Antonym of ” Meticulous ” is -------------?

A. Fussy
B. Painstaking
C. Scrupulous
D. Sloppy (Answer)
E. Conscientious
Synonym of ” Blush ” is -------------?

A. Negotiate
B. Detain
C. Redden (Answer)
D. Inter
E. Taunt
Antonym of ” Sloppy ” is -------------?

A. Careful (Answer)
B. Slapdash
C. Haphazard
D. Slovenly
Page 22
E. Heedless
I saw the horse jump ------ the fence.

A. Behind
B. On
C. Over (Answer)
D. To
I found my car keys ------ my pocket.

A. On
B. In (Answer)
C. At
D. From
I purchased a cupboard -------- my new house.

A. To
B. at
C. Until
D. For (Answer)
Qadri informed that all of the PAT members ------- soon take back their nomination forms?
A. may
B. will
C. would (Answer)
D. shall
E. none
Synonym of Sumptuous is -------------?

A. Swampy
B. Irritable
C. Meager
D. Splendid (Answer)
Synonym of handful is -------------?

A. Busy person
B. Bad Event
C. Body part
Page 23
D. Small number (Answer)
Synonym of PEEL is -------------?

A. Dance
B. Surprise
C. Pull Off (Answer)
D. Look at
Synonym of Slap is -------------?

A. Drop of water
B. Hit (Answer)
C. Vegetable
D. Journey
Synonym of brutal is -------------?

A. Mixed together
B. Noisy
C. Relating to teeth
D. Cruel (Answer)
Passive Voice of ” The baby has lost her doll”?

A. Her doll was lost by the baby
B. Her doll had been lost by the baby
C. Her doll has been lost by the baby (Answer)
D. Her doll will have been lost by the baby
E. Her doll has lost by the baby.
Antonym of ” Taciturn ” is ---------?

A. reticent
B. introverted
C. meek
D. Loquacious (Answer)
Salman Khan -------- a part of the upcoming Race 4?

A. will also be (Answer)
B. also will be
C. will be also
Page 24
D. will also
Antonym of “Serene” is ---------?

A. Tranquil
B. Calm
C. Placid
D. Anxious (Answer)
Synonym of ” Ruse ” is ---------?

A. Affinity
B. Ploy (Answer)
C. Bribe
D. Goosebump
Her father ----- yesterday?

A. dead
B. died (Answer)
C. has died
D. was died
E. had died
Passive Voice of “She will build this house” ?

A. This house would be built by her
B. This house would have been built by her
C. This house will be built by her (Answer)
D. This house will have been by her
His father-in-law is a doctor. “father-in-law is ---------?

A. Abstract Noun
B. Collection Noun
C. Material Noun
D. Compound Noun (Answer)
E. Concrete Noun
Synonym of ” Uproar ” is ---------?

A. Acquiescence
B. Calm
Page 25
C. Turmoil (Answer)
D. Placid
He took his brother ---- the hand.

A. from
B. with
C. at
D. by (Answer)
E. on
This date is worth ---------.

A. remember
B. to remember
C. remembered
D. remembering (Answer)
E. None
I suspect him ---- stealing the pen.

A. for
B. of (Answer)
C. over
D. by
E. on
The prisoner was bound ----- the stake.

A. with
B. of
C. to.. (Answer)
D. at
E. on
It is no use --------- again.

A. to try
B. try
C. trying (Answer)
D. tried
E. None
Page 26
The ring was ------- by thieves.
A. steal
B. stole
C. stolen (Answer)
D. stealing
He got ------ his illness in two weeks.

A. over (Answer)
B. on
C. at
D. by
There was no heir ------ the throne.

A. to (Answer)
B. with
C. him
D. over
The rains have set ------.

A. In (Answer)
B. Of
C. On
D. Out
Usman was broken--------from his old friends.

A. with
B. of
C. away (Answer)
D. in
His people built many memorials -- his greatness.

A. for
B. of
C. to (Answer)
D. with
Page 27
The wheels of the truck press -- the road.
A. on
B. against (Answer)
C. upon
D. over
Synonym of “harass” is ---------?

A. annoy (Answer)
B. harness
C. involve
D. injure
E. consider
Synonym of “mollify” is ---------?

A. sweeten
B. appease (Answer)
C. applaud
D. worry
E. discourage
Synonym of “tortuous” is ---------?

A. winding (Answer)
B. sadistic
C. cruel
D. like a turtle
E. carefree
Synonym of “inculcate” is ---------?

A. corroborate
B. lack
C. teach (Answer)
D. destroy
E. avenge
Synonym of “tawdry” is ---------?

A. refined
B. yellow-orange
Page 28
C. ancient
D. forward
E. gaudy (Answer)
Synonym of “debilitate” is ---------?

A. argue
B. engage
C. remove hair
D. soothe
E. enfeeble (Answer)
Synonym of “abettor” is ---------?

A. gambler
B. slaughter-house
C. encourager (Answer)
D. factor
E. author
Synonym of “impeccable” is ---------?

A. poverty-stricken
B. faultless (Answer)
C. dirty
D. criminal
E. impervious
Synonym of “retrospect” is ---------?

A. special kind of telescope
B. microscope
C. prism
D. review of the past (Answer)
E. forecast of future events
Synonym of “propensity” is ---------?

A. inclination (Answer)
B. intelligence
C. probity
D. dishonesty
Page 29
E. act
Synonym of “expiated” is ---------?

A. vapid
B. assumed
C. disinclined
D. atoned (Answer)
E. eroded
Synonym of “penury” is ---------?

A. custom
B. poverty (Answer)
C. numismatics
D. affluence
E. criminology
Synonym of “chicanery” is ---------?

A. foulness
B. aroma
C. chastity
D. trickery (Answer)
E. poultry
Synonym of “nepotism” is ---------?

A. favoritism (Answer)
B. pool
C. philosophy
D. rule of despot
E. hedonism
Synonym of “erudite” is ---------?

A. rough
B. unpolished
C. scholarly (Answer)
D. magnificent
E. ornate
Page 30
Synonym of “tenacity” is ---------?
A. persistence (Answer)
B. game played on grass
C. large town
D. indifference
E. ecstasy
Synonym of “professedly” is ---------?

A. meekly
B. cruelly
C. bravely
D. pedantically
E. ostensibly (Answer)
Synonym of “patent” is ---------?

A. insincere
B. fatherly
C. morbid
D. obvious (Answer)
Synonym of “impart” is ---------?

A. to inflict
B. take sides
C. communicate (Answer)
D. defy
We’re lost. -------- knows where we are.

A. Either of us
B. Neither of us (Answer)
C. Not any of us
D. None of above
You ------- not worry about me.

A. would
B. need (Answer)
C. could
D. shall
Page 31
E. can
Translate this passage ---- English.

A. to
B. in
C. into (Answer)
D. on
He succeeded ---- killing the tiger.

A. by
B. with
C. on
D. in (Answer)
E. of
Would you mind ----- a picture with you?

A. take
B. to take
C. taking (Answer)
E. taken
My brother was trembling ---- cold.

A. from
B. with (Answer)
C. of
D. by
Can you switch off ---- television, please?

A. a
B. an
C. the (Answer)
D. none
Thank you. That was --- very nice dinner.

A. an
B. a (Answer)
C. the
Page 32
D. none
I am now quite-------and hearty.

A. Hail
B. Hale (Answer)
C. Hell
D. Hall
Who is known as the Poet of Nature?

A. William Black
B. William Shakespeare
C. William Wordsworth (Answer)
D. William Butler Yeats
Synonym of Ridiculous is -------------?

A. silly (Answer)
B. Glorious
C. Frivolous
D. None of these
Synonym of Stunning is -------------?

A. Magician
B. Beautiful (Answer)
C. Vain
D. None of these
Prime Minister has arrived ---- London.

A. at
B. to
C. in (Answer)
D. from
E. none
He tried to park his car but ----- space wasn’t big enough.
A. a
B. an
C. the (Answer)
Page 33
D. none
The Synonym of “Diligent” is----------?

A. Hardworking (Answer)
B. Witty
C. Deliberate
D. Lazy
I did not ---- to university yesterday.

A. went
B. go (Answer)
C. gone
D. going
He is now ashamed ---- his conduct.

A. from
B. with
C. of (Answer)
D. by
E. at
He always comes ----- home late.

A. to
B. at
C. Both A & B
D. None of above (Answer)
I ------ lie from now on.

A. don’t
B. didn’t
C. haven’t
D. won’t (Answer)
E. hadn’t
I am shy ----- my teacher.

A. with
B. from
Page 34
C. of (Answer)
D. to
E. none
---- you call your friend yesterday?

A. Have
B. Had
C. Will
D. Did (Answer)
E. Do
She turned heads wherever she went. What does the idiom/phrase “turn heads” mean?
A. too pleased
B. get angry
C. attract a lot of attention (Answer)
D. not knowing what to say
E. get acquainted
I looked ---- you at the party, but I didn’t see you.

A. to
B. at
C. for (Answer)
D. on
E. none
I saw you dancing ----- party.

A. at
B. at a
C. at the (Answer)
D. in
E. in the
A person who is controlled by wife called

A. Henpeck (Answer)
B. Connoisseur
C. Somnambulist
D. None of these
Page 35
Synonym of Exemplify is -------------?
A. Reprehensible
B. Illustrate (Answer)
C. Empty
D. Finish
Synonym of Infringe is -------------?

A. Breach (Answer)
B. Escape
C. Hard
D. Bound
ill-gotten meaning ?
A. No required
B. Taken through legal way
C. Acquired by illegal or unfair means (Answer)
d. Very ill
Past Tense of ”Find” is--------?

A. Find
B. Found (Answer)
C. Founded
D. Both B and C
The--------- of war is expected very soon.

A. Cessation (Answer)
B. Cession
C. Session
D. cestion
Antonym of BRUSQUE is -------------?

A. Corrupt
B. Brash
C. energetic
D. Courteous (Answer)
Page 36
You must bear-------his pranks.
A. with (Answer)
B. In
C. some of
D. All
Synonym of PARAGON is -------------?

A. Model (Answer)
B. Virtue
C. Square
D. None
Caravan : desert ::
A. Boat: Cruise (Answer)
B. Book: Library
C. Midnight: Noon
D. NONE
Salutation : Farewell ::
A. Birth: Death (Answer)
B. Army: Navy
C. Noon: Midnight
D. Lunch: Dinner
Synonym of Abrupt is -------------?

A. Sudden (Answer)
B. Noisy
C. Calm
D All of these
Choose the correct spelling for the missing word: My ------------ needs to be paid every month.
A. Morgage
B. Morguage
C. Mortgage (Answer)
D. Morgauge
He is very poor. What is “Very” in this sentence?
Page 37
A. Adjective
B. Noun
C. Adverb (Answer)
D. None
A small enclosure for cattle, sheep, poultry etc. is called as ----------?

A. Cellar
B. Sty
C. Pen (Answer)
D. Lair
One-Trick Pony means:

A. A person having one special feature, talent, or area of experti (Answer)
B. Doing work dishonesty
C. Unlawful paropaganda
D. Clever planning for enemy
Nobody -------- that old man had fallen.

A. noted
B. knew
C. noticed (Answer)
D. none of these
Afridi plays the Harmonium and the sitar is-------also.

A. Played
B. Played by he
C. Played by him (Answer)
D. None of these
I am tired-------waiting.
A. Of (Answer)
B. By
C. With
D. From
I always praise him for his merits, but he always turns---------you pointing out your demerits
A. at
Page 38
B. to (Answer)
C. on
D. for
He is serious-------visiting Islamabad.
A. Of (Answer)
B. For
C. To
D. On
We are accountable ---------God for our actions.

A. with
B. on
C. in
D. to (Answer)
I am famous -------honesty where javed is notorious for dishonesty.

A. for (Answer)
B. to
C. upon
D. in
” Infallible ” refers to the one who is free from all ---------?

A. cares & worries
B. cares & failures
C. mistakes & failures (Answer)
D. Worries & troubles
We decided to do all the task ------ instead of waiting for help.

A. of our own
B. by ourselves (Answer)
C. ours
D. All
action of killing King is called------------?

A. regicide (Answer)
B. suicide
Page 39
C. patricide
D. parricide
He did not give up the fight even though he was badly bruised.
A. The fight did not give up by him even though he was badly bruised.
B. The fight had not given up by him even though he was badly bruised.
C. The fight was not given up by him even though he was badly bruised. (Answer)
D. The fight was not being given up by him even though he was badly bruised.
We should avoid tranquilizer in order to have a good health.

A. Tranquilizer should avoided by us in order to have good health.
B. Tranquilizer should been avoided by us in order to have a good health.
C. Tranquilizer should be avoid by us in order to have a good health.
D. Tranquilizer should be avoided by us in order to have a good health. (Answer)
His wife upbraided him for his irresponsible handling of the family finance.
A. He upbraided by his wife for his irresponsible handling of the family finance.
B. He was upbraided by his wife for his irresponsible handling of the family finance. (Answer)
C. He has upbraided by his wife for his irresponsible handling of the family finance.
D. He were upbraided by his wife for his irresponsible handling of the family finance.
She never understood me, whenever I said Something.

A. Whenever I said something, I never understood by her.
B. Whenever I said something, I had never understood by her.
C. Whenever I said something, I was being never understood by her.
D. Whenever I said something I was never understood by her. (Answer)
When I am alone, I hear the footsteps of my friend in my imagination.

A. The footsteps of my friend heard by me, when I am alone.
B. The footsteps of my friend is heard by me when I am alone.
C. The footsteps of my friend are heard by me when I am alone. (Answer)
D. The footsteps of my friend was heard by me when I am alone.
When the men coughed he realized that the men were quite near to him.
A. When the men coughed it realized by him that the men were quiet near to him.
B. When the men coughed it had realized by him that the men were quite near to him.
C. When the men coughed it was realized by him that the men were quite near to him. (Answer)
Page 40
D. When the men coughed it is realized by him the men ere quite near to him.
I’m getting late ------ office.

A. From
B. For (Answer)
C. To
D. In
Antonym of ” Applicable ” is -------------?

A. Irrelevant (Answer)
B. Minimifidian
C. Incredulous
D. Cynical
E. Upset
Look, It -------.
A. rains
B. is raining (Answer)
C. has been raining
D. had been raining
We can’t believe it. The story is ---- believable.

A. In
B. Un (Answer)
C. Dis
D. None
I ------ Sidra yesterday.

A. have seen
B. saw (Answer)
C. had seen
D. seen
It is ------- today.
A. too much hot
B. so much hot
C. too hot (Answer)
Page 41
D. more hotter
My father wanted --------- study.

A. that I
B. me to (Answer)
C. that I must
D. that I should
E. None
Which parts of speech shows the relationship of noun or pronoun with the rest of the sentence?
A. Preposition (Answer)
B. Conjunction
C. Adverb
D. Interjection
She’s angry ------ you.

A. On
B. For
C. With (Answer)
D. To
His office is always in apple-pie order. What does the idiom/phrase “apple-pie order” means?
A. Neat & tidy (Answer)
B. Disordered
C. Mismanaged
D. Ornamental
there is a limit-------- everything in life

A. to (Answer)
B. on
C. in
D. with
Antonym of “Lenient” is -------------?

A. easy-going
B. long-suffering
C. Strict (Answer)
Page 42
D. Liberal
E. Moderate
I’m ------ pleased with it.

A. Much
B. Very (Answer)
C. Too
D. None
---------- you work very hard, you cannot pass. (KPPSC 2018 paper)
A. Unless (Answer)
B. Until
C. While
D. As if
Antonym of ” Pessimistic ” is -------------?

A. Devoted
B. Cheat
C. Despondent
D. Hopeful (Answer)
E. Defeatist
Pronoun is used to avoid unnecessary repetition of ------------ in a sentence?

A. Verb
B. Adjective
C. Noun (Answer)
D. Preposition
Which parts of speech describes where, when and how an action happens?
A. Adjective
B. Conjunction
C. Verb
D. Adverb (Answer)
E. Preposition
He cut his finger-------- the knife

A. By
B. with (Answer)
Page 43
C. through
D. From
Fear of closed places:

A. Claustrophobia (Answer)
B. Misogynist
C. Ambidextrous
D. Philanthropy
Synonym of backbone is -------------?

A. front bone
B. spine
C. back
D. B & C both (Answer)
Synonym of Kidnap is -------------?

A. Appaling
B. Abduct (Answer)
C. Renounce
D. All the above
Synonym of abandon is -------------?

A. Leave (Answer)
B. Abstract
C. Abduct
D. None of these
What is the Synonym of “Ravage?

A. Annoy
B. Ruin (Answer)
C. Popular
D. Predator
He want five thousand dollars to buy a car. He won’t be satisfied with less. What is “less” in this sentence?
A. Noun (Answer)
B. Verb
C. Adverb
Page 44
D. Adjective
The population of Pakistan is less than that of China. What is “less” in this sentence?
A. Noun
B. Verb
C. Adverb (Answer)
D. Adjective
You are paying less attention to your studies than you used to do. What is “less” in this sentence?
A. Noun
B. Verb
C. Adverb
D. Adjective (Answer)
Antonym of FALLACY is ---------?

A. Abandon
B. Blunder
C. Truth (Answer)
D. Error
The man --------- you met is an anchorperson.

A. who
B. whose
C. whom (Answer)
D. which
“Hold one’s horse” means----------?

A. Keep one’s expectations
B. Keep one’s gift
C. Have patience (Answer)
D. High on energy
“Give cold shoulder” means----------?

A. To support
B. Cold meat
C. To ignore (Answer)
D. Shiver
Page 45
Synonym of “GAINSAY” is -------------?
A. Suppress
B. Oppose (Answer)
C. Yielding
D. animation
He has been working---------morning.

A. For
B. Since (Answer)
C. at
D. by
Word nearest in meaning to Obscene is------------?-(PMS 2018)

A. Dirty
B. indecent
C. unhealthy
D. evident
E. Both A & B (Answer)
Antonym of ” Chaste ” is -------------?

A. Shrewd
B. Talkative
C. Aspirant
D. Promiscuous (Answer)
E. Celibate
Synonym of ” Persecuter ” is -------------?

A. Oppressor (Answer)
B. Hasty
C. Patient
D. Tycoon
E. Jubilant
Synonym of ” Moratorium ” is -------------?

A. Austerity
B. Embargo (Answer)
Page 46
C. Lienancy
D. Sereness
E. Celibacy
Synonym of ” Tyrant ” is -------------?

A. Suspicious
B. Persecuter (Answer)
C. Victim
D. Sagacious
E. Chatter box
The public were deeply sceptical -------- some of the proposals?

A. For
B. With
C. About (Answer)
D. Of
E. From
Antonym of ” Celibate ” is -------------?

A. Chaste
B. Ascetic
C. Monastic
D. Married (Answer)
E. Genious
The same considerations are equally applicable ------ accident claims?

A. to (Answer)
B. in
C. on
D. of
E. with
Antonym of ” Sceptical ” is -------------?

A. Unconvinced
B. Scoffing
C. Certain (Answer)
D. Reticent
Page 47
E. Scapegoat
Synonym of ” Pledge ” is -------------?

A. Outclass
B. Vow (Answer)
C. Plunder
D. Compensate
E. Atone
Parents expect more ----- their children?

A. with
B. of (Answer)
C. from
D. to
I have been working here ------- ten years?

A. from
B. since
C. for (Answer)
D. with
There is no point ---- arguing?

A. to
B. over
C. in (Answer)
D. on
E. from
I have already ----- a new manager?

A. find
B. finded
C. founded
D. found (Answer)
E. none
To catch a tartar means:

A. To meet with disaster
Page 48
B. To catch a dangerous person (Answer)
C. To deal with a person who is more than one’s match
D. None of above
To make clean breast of means

A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To destroy before it blooms
D. To confess without of reserves (Answer)
Synonym of ” Undergo ” is -------------?

A. Lambast
B. Theive
C. Lay to rest
D. Experience (Answer)
E. Proclaim
Antonym of ” Dismantle ” is -------------?

A. Vie
B. Raze
C. Outclass
D. Level
E. Build (Answer)
Synonym of ” Assailant ” is -------------?

A. Jubilant
B. Turncoat
C. Assaulter (Answer)
D. Reticent
E. Cop
Antonym of ” Provoke ” is -------------?

A. Arouse
B. Induce
C. Evoke
D. Produce
E. Allay (Answer)
Page 49
Fakhar Zaman appeared settled ------ the crease?
A. on
B. at (Answer)
C. in
D. none
Synonym of ” Sagacious ” is -------------?

A. Spendthrift
B. Dumb
C. Wise (Answer)
D. Furious
E. Alert
Antonym of ” Incur ” is ------------?

A. Attract
B. Invite
C. Earn
D. Suffer
E. Avoid (Answer)
Synonym of ” Plunder ” is -------------?

A. Loot (Answer)
B. Blush
C. Expedite
D. Ease
E. Contradict
Antonym of ” Astute ” is -------------?

A. Shrewd
B. Discerning
C. Canny
D. Whirlwind
E. Stupid (Answer)
Synonym of ” Vie ” is -------------?

A. Compete (Answer)
Page 50
B. Kowtow
C. Censure
D. Sanction
E. Wink
I don’t want to argue ------you?

A. at
B. to
C. of
D. with (Answer)
E. from
Synonym of ” Outclass ” is -------------?

A. Surpass (Answer)
B. Humiliate
C. Incur
D. Detest
E. Defect
I was aware ------ the problems parents were facing?

A. of (Answer)
B. with
C. to
D. from
E. at
Synonym of ” Raze ” is -------------?

A. Level (Answer)
B. Defect
C. Pluck
D. Taunt
E. Fire
She likes cars. “Car” is ------?

A. Proper Noun
B. Compound Noun
C. Common Noun (Answer)
Page 51
D. Concrete Noun
E. Verbal Noun
The club usually empties ----- about two in the morning?

A. off
B. at
C. in
D. out (Answer)
E. on
Synonym of “frustration” is ---------?

A. satiety
B. facility
C. thwart (Answer)
D. nostalgia
E. lethargy
Synonym of “phlegmatic” is ---------?

A. stolid (Answer)
B. respiratory
C. animated
D. pneumatic
E. aroused
Synonym of “punctilious” is ---------?

A. scrupulous (Answer)
B. varied
C. ready
D. prompt
E. vicarious
Synonym of “frugality” is ---------?

A. extravagance
B. ripening
C. thrift (Answer)
D. resentment
E. miserliness
Page 52
Synonym of “unequaled” is ---------?
A. outstanding (Answer)
B. different
C. praised
D. unique
E. strange
Synonym of “adversity” is ---------?

A. opponent
B. hardship (Answer)
C. opening
D. public announcement
E. agency
Synonym of YEARN is -------------?

A. Require (Answer)
B. Extra
C. Unwanted
D. Muted
Synonym of ZEST is -------------?

A. Passive
B. Enthusiasm (Answer)
C. Disgust
D. Various
Synonym of ZEALOT is -------------?

A. Fanatic (Answer)
B. Apathy
C. Liberal
D. Impious
Synonym of EXUDE is -------------?

A. Ooze (Answer)
B. Overflow
C. Wither
Page 53
D. Evaporate
Synonym of PREVARICATE is -------------?

A. Truth
B. Early
C. Lie (Answer)
D. Delay
Synonym of PRECARIOUS is -------------?

A. Safe
B. Brittle
C. Perilous (Answer)
D. none of these
Synonym of DELEGATE is -------------?

A. Representative (Answer)
B. Officer
C. Member
D. Servant
Synonym of LETHARGY is -------------?

A. Serenity
B. Laxity (Answer)
C. Active
D. Bold
Synonym of EMACIATED is -------------?

A. very fat
B. very thin (Answer)
C. very small
D. very heavy
Synonym of CIRCUITOUS is -------------?

A. Direct
B. Strong
C. Cyclic (Answer)
D. Weak
Page 54
CORPOREAL: SPIRITUAL ::
A. mesa: plateau
B. moron: savant (Answer)
C. foreigner: immigrant
D. pedagogue: teacher
HOPE : ASPIRES ::
A. love: elevates
B. film: flam
C. fib: lie (Answer)
D. fake: ordinary
CIRCUITOUS : ROUTER ::
A. problematic : solution
B. devious : argument (Answer)
C. elliptical : brevity
D. judicious : selection
E. profound : depth
Synonym of WIELD -------------?

A. Abstain
B. Avoid
C. Forgo
D. Exert (Answer)
Synonym of WANE -------------?

A. Employ
B. Decline (Answer)
C. Rise
D. Revive
Synonym of WARY is -------------?

A. Heedless
B. Negligent
C. Prudent (Answer)
D. Reckless
Page 55
Synonym of VAGRANT is -------------?
A. Roving (Answer)
B. Stable
C. Honoured
D. Stubborn
Synonym of VALOUR is -------------?

A. Stable
B. Coward
C. Heroism (Answer)
D. Fear
Synonym of YOKE is -------------?

A. Detach
B. Harness (Answer)
C. Release
D. Liberate
Synonym of YELL is -------------?

A. Shackle
B. Hitch
C. Whisper
D. Shout (Answer)
Synonym of “wraith” is ---------?

A. apparition (Answer)
B. garland
C. Christmas decoration
D. anger
E. excitement
Synonym of “disparity” is ---------?

A. argumentation
B. difference (Answer)
C. belittlement
D. harmony
Page 56
E. discord
Synonym of “variegate” is ---------?

A. set type
B. multi-color (Answer)
C. differ
D. reject
E. reply-in-kind
Synonym of “prognosis” is ---------?

A. scheme
B. forecast (Answer)
C. preface
D. identification of a disease
Synonym of “chagrin” is ---------?

A. chin
B. mortification (Answer)
C. elation
D. intuition
E. chamber
Synonym of “reticence” is ---------?

A. reserve (Answer)
B. retention
C. regret
D. brazenness
E. hostility
Synonym of “cynosure” is ---------?

A. obscurity
B. center of attention (Answer)
C. certainty
D. clown
Synonym of “tenable” is ---------?

A. experimental
Page 57
B. long lasting
C. flimsy
D. defensible (Answer)
Synonym of “paroxysm” is ---------?

A. spasm (Answer)
B. furor
C. paralysis
D. fear
Synonym of “incommunicado” is ---------?

A. close-mouthed
B. disguised
C. irreconcilable
D. without means of communication (Answer)
TEN: DECIMAL
A. seven: septet
B. four: quartet
C. two: binary (Answer)
D. five: quince
MUNDANE: SPIRITUAL ::
A. common: ghostly
B. worldly: unworldly (Answer)
C. routine: novel
D. secular: clerical
ARMY: LOGISTICS ::
A. business: strategy (Answer)
B. soldier: students
C. war: logic
D. team: individual
GRAVITY: PULL ::
A. iron: metal
B. north pole: directions
Page 58
C. magnetism: attraction (Answer)
D. dust: desert
FILTER: WATER ::
A. curtail: activity
B. expunge: book
C. edit: text
D. censor: play (Answer)
LIGHT: BLIND ::
A. speech: dumb (Answer)
B. language: deaf
C. tongue: sound
D. voice: vibration
PAIN: SEDATIVE ::
A. comfort: stimulant
B. grief: consolation (Answer)
C. trance: narcotic
D. ache: extraction
DIVA: OPERA ::
A. producer: theatre
B. director: drama
C. conductor: bus
D. thespian: play (Answer)
GRAIN: SALT ::
A. shard: pottery
B. shred: wood
C. blades: grass
D. chip: glass (Answer)
SYMPHONY: COMPOSER ::
A. Leonardo: music
B. Fresco: painter (Answer)
C. Colours: pallet
Page 59
D. Art: appreciation
Synonym of “wrangler” is ---------?

A. lawman
B. cowboy (Answer)
C. inventor
D. arbitrator
Synonym of “quorum” is ---------?

A. public meeting
B. all the participants
C. necessary number of members (Answer)
D. document
Synonym of “vapid” is ---------?

A. steamy
B. helter skelter
C. lively
D. boring (Answer)
Synonym of “senescent” is ---------?

A. sensitive
B. ageing (Answer)
C. sleepy
D. sweet smelling
Synonym of “broach” is ---------?

A. to decorate
B. bridge
C. offend
D. introduce (Answer)
Synonym of “legion” is ---------?

A. distance
B. rampage
C. multitude (Answer)
D. motto
Page 60
Synonym of “decorous” is ---------?
A. adorned
B. ugly
C. insane
D. proper (Answer)
E. childish
Synonym of “pedagogue” is ---------?

A. demagogue
B. peddler
C. bicyclist
D. teacher (Answer)
E. pupil
Synonym of “staid” is ---------?

A. weary
B. remaining
C. sedate (Answer)
D. afraid
E. unkempt
Synonym of “chasten” is ---------?

A. discipline (Answer)
B. pursue
C. sanctify
D. stop
E. start
Synonym of “reclusive” is ---------?

A. snobbish
B. scholarly
C. silent
D. hermit-like (Answer)
Synonym of “flux” is ---------?

A. continuous flow (Answer)
Page 61
B. gradual curve
C. substitute
D. shimmering light
Synonym of “haggard” is ---------?

A. gaunt (Answer)
B. irascible
C. wise
D. sluggish
E. witty
I cannot concentrate, here is too much ----------.

A. detraction (Answer)
B. distraction
C. people
D. sound
E. contraction
I will have to study very hard, ----- I can pass the exam.
A. such
B. therefore
C. in order
D. so that (Answer)
He has to got to Canada for the next ------ of his training.

A. stand
B. point
C. step
D. stage (Answer)
We arrived ---- the village at night.

A. to
B. in
C. at (Answer)
D. of
Synonym of “tranquillity” is ---------?
Page 62
A. balance
B. patience
C. calmness (Answer)
D. beauty
Synonym of “iota” is ---------?

A. something owed
B. ancient coin
C. small amount (Answer)
D. punctuation mark
Synonym of “redoubt” is ---------?

A. fortification (Answer)
B. rearguard
C. trench
D. camp
Day: Night ::
A. Dark: Black
B. Good: Rough
C. Kind: Cruel (Answer)
D. Shining: Bright
Joke: Laughter ::
A. Cry: Sorrow
B. Disease: Medicine
C. Death: Life
D. Miracle: Surprise (Answer)
Hiss: Snake ::
A. Notes: Music
B. Splash: Water
C. Trumpet: Elephant (Answer)
D. Cat: Mew
Lust: Sex ::
A. Friend: Foe
Page 63
B. Lamp: Light
C. Anger: Pugnacity (Answer)
D. Hoard: Amass
Sodium: Salt ::
A. Potassium: Phosphorous
B. Calcium: Marble (Answer)
C. Lime: Limestone
D. Room: House
DISTANCE: MILE ::
A. liquid: litre (Answer)
B. bushel: corn
C. weight: scale
D. fame: television
INDIGENT: WEALTHY ::
A. angry: rich
B. native: affluent
C. gauche: graceful (Answer)
D. scholarly: erudite
AFTER: BEFORE ::
A. first: second
B. present: past
C. contemporary: historic
D. successor: predecessor (Answer)
PORK: PIG ::
A. rooster: chicken
B. mutton: sheep (Answer)
C. steer: beef
D. lobster: crustacean
WAN: COLOUR ::
A. corpulent: weight
B. insipid: flavour (Answer)
Page 64
C. pallid: complexion
D. enigmatic: puzzle
FISH : TROUT ::
A. Hair : Black
B. Bird : Aviary
C. Tiger : Carnivorous
D. Mammal : Cow (Answer)
KNIFE : CUT ::
A. Winter : Summer
B. Sword : Sharp
C. Run : Fast
D. Drill : Hole (Answer)
SKETCH : ARTIST ::
A. Secret : Confident
B. Cell : Prisoner
C. Palette : Painter
D. Draft : Writer (Answer)
E. Lawyer : Court room
COLLAGE : IMAGES ::
A. Cement : Building
B. Medley : Songs (Answer)
C. Furniture : Sofa
D. Grains : Tree
E. Book : Volumes
FISH : SCALES ::
A. Book : Papers
B. Snake : Fangs
C. Birds : Feather (Answer)
D. Car : Wheels
E. Cat : Claws
IRON : BLACKSMITH ::
Page 65
A. Cotton : Cloth
B. Food : Gourmet
C. Clay : Potter (Answer)
D. Silver : Miner
E. Gold : Miser
Orthopedic: Bone ::
A. Psychiatry: Mind (Answer)
B. Skin: Allergy
C. Antibiotics: Fever
D. Fracture: Plaster
Mask: Disguise ::
A. Clothes: Necessity
B. Building: Offices
C. Make-up: Beautify (Answer)
D. Radio: News
Words: Poetry ::
A. Dictionary Letters
B. Notes: Music (Answer)
C. Wheat: Food
D. Planet: Sun
Cobbler: Leather ::
A. Shirt: Boutique
B: Television: Engineer
C. Woodcutter: Furniture
D. Mason: Stone (Answer)
Synonym of “indenture” is ---------?

A. contract (Answer)
B. protection
C. teeth
D. space
Synonym of “inexplicable” is ---------?
Page 66
A. frustrating
B. questionable
C. unexplainable (Answer)
D. entangled
Synonym of “felicitous” is ---------?

A. misleading
B. graceless
C. appropriate (Answer)
D. egotistical
Synonym of “rendition” is ---------?

A. interpretation (Answer)
B. imitation
C. report
D. reparation
Synonym of “plausible” is ---------?

A. apparently believable (Answer)
B. workable
C. true
D. somewhat evasive
Synonym of “incontrovertible” is ---------?

A. long established
B. beyond dispute (Answer)
C. lacking control
D. non-negotiable
Synonym of “congruent” is ---------?

A. energetic
B. crude
C. contrary
D. coinciding exactly (Answer)
Synonym of “sagacity” is ---------?

A. attentiveness
Page 67
B. courage
C. wisdom (Answer)
D. thoughtfulness
Synonym of “comely” is ---------?

A. peaceful
B. attractive (Answer)
C. fun loving
D. modest
Synonym of “eschew” is ---------?

A. to avoid (Answer)
B. argue
C. forget
D. spit out
COMPLAIN : CARP ::
A. supply : donate
B. argue : debate
C. grumble : accuse
D. drink : guzzle (Answer)
E. pacify : intervene
REDOUBTABLE : AWE ::
A. tart : pungency
B. tacit : solitude
C. despicable : contempt (Answer)
D. engrossing : obliviousness
E. venerable : renown
My friend says, “I can’t help you, sorry. I have a lot of work to do.”
A. My friend says I can’t help you because I have a lot of work to do.
B. My friend says he can’t help me because he has a lot of work to do. (Answer)
C. My friend says he can’t help me because he have a lot of work to do.
D. My friend says that I can’t help you I have a lot of work to do.
My friend said to me,” I will meet you tonight.”
Page 68
A. My friend told me that I will meet you tonight.
B. My friend told that he will meet me tonight.
C. My friend told me that he would meet me that night. (Answer)
D. My friend said to me that he will meet me that night.
She said,” I visited Peshawar yesterday.”

A. She said that she had visited Peshawar the previous day. (Answer)
B. She said that I had visited Peshawar yesterday.
C. She said that she visited Peshawar yesterday.
D. She said that she has visited Peshawar the previous day.
Ahmad said,” I have a dental appointment this evening.”

A. Ahmad said that he have a dental appointment this evening.
B. Ahmad said that he had a dental appointment this evening.
C. Ahmad said that he has a dental appointment this evening.
D. Ahmad said that he had a dental appointment that evening. (Answer)
He said, “I need your help now.”

A. He said he need my help now.
B. He said that he needed my help then. (Answer)
C. He said that I needed your help now.
D. None of these
My friend said,” I will meet you tomorrow.”

A. My friend said that he will meet me tomorrow.
B. My friend said that he would meet me the next day (Answer).
C. My friend said he would meet me tomorrow.
D. My friend said that he will meet me tomorrow.
He said,”I need some money.”

A. He said that I need some money.
B. He said that he need some money.
C. He said that he needed some money. (Answer)
D. He said that I needed some money.
He said.”I am studying now.”

A. He said that I am studying then.
Page 69
B. He said that I was studying then.
C. He said that he was studying then (Answer).
D. He said that he was studying now.
He writes --- ink.

A. WITH
B. IN (Answer)
C. FOR
D. ON
Idiom “A slap on the wrist” means?

A. Hard Punishment
B. Beating Someone
C. Warning or Small Punishment (Answer)
D. Make someone sad
Idiom “To cut long story short” means?

A. Tell the story briefly
B. Come to the point (Answer)
C. Miss the main points
D. None of above
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Apocryphal ” while others are synonyms?
A. Genuine (Answer)
B. Mythical
C. Obscure
D. Unsubstantiated
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Prosaic ” while others are synonyms?
A. Pedestrian
B. Prosy
C. Tedious
D. Interesting (Answer)
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Raucous” while others are synonyms?
A. Hoarse
B. Subdued (Answer)
Page 70
C. Strident
D. Discordant
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Picayune ” while others are synonyms?
A. Piddling
B. Trifling
C. Colossal (Answer)
D. Trivial
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Flaunt ” while others are synonyms?
A. Cover (Answer)
B. Brandish
C. Display
D. Exhibit
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Welter ” while others are synonyms?
A. Clutter
B. Fuddle Jumble
D. Order (Answer)
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Eclat ” while others are synonyms?
A. Eminence
B. Esteem
C. Plaudit
D. Dullness (Answer)
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Minuscule ” while others are synonyms?
A. Diminutive
B. Lilliputian
C. Miniature
D. Majuscule (Answer)
Which one of the following is antonym of ” IMPOVERISHED ” while others are synonyms?
A. broke
B. destitute
C. impecunious
D. wealthy (Answer)
Page 71
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Flummox ” while others are synonyms?
A. Baffle
B. Confound
C. Perplex
D. Enlighten (Answer)
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Epitome ” while others are synonyms?
A. antithesis (Answer)
B. abridgment
C. abstract
D. compendium
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Perdition ” while others are synonyms?
A. Heaven (Answer)
B. Doom
C. Hell
D. Infernal
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Mordant ” while others are synonyms?
A. acerbic
B. caustic
C. corrosive
D. pleasant (Answer)
Please wait for me. I will be finished ------- five or ten minutes.
A. at
B. in (Answer)
C. by
D. from
The railway track runs ------ the river.

A. over
B. across (Answer)
C. by
D. on
Page 72
Which one of the following is antonym of ” Perpetrator ” while others are synonyms?
A. Culprit
B. felon
C. Police (Answer)
D. miscreant
Antonym of GREGARIOUS is ------------?

A. Talkative
B. Lonesome (Answer)
C. Cheerful
D. Boring
Antonym of ONEROUS is ------------?

A. Light (Answer)
B. Difficult
C. Burfensome
D. Fluent
Antonym of HYPOCRISY------------?
A. Doubt
B. Uprightness (Answer)
C. Budensome
D. Fluent
Antonym of “Paucity” is------------?

A. Scarcity
B. Surplus (Answer)
C. Presence
D. Shallow
“De novo” means-----------?

A. Calm in arm
B. New (Answer)
C. Prominent
D. To any extent
“Inter alia” means-----------?
Page 73
A. In between (Answer)
B. By the fact
C. Under concentration
D. At the end
The market is nearer to them than --------.

A. we
B. us (Answer)
C. ours
D. ourselves
“En-route” means---------?
A. oneway direction
B. On the way (Answer)
C. Long distance
D. None of these
Idiom ” To make amend for” means-----------?

A. Make possible effort
B. To compensate for damage (Answer)
C. To bring chance in something
D. None of these
The practice of taking someone else’s work or ideas and passing them off as one’s own is known as ------------?
A. Cuckold
B. Despotism
C. Plagiarism (Answer)
D. Epicure
A person who talks in his/her sleep is known as -----------?

A. Bourgeois
B. Insomnist
C. ventriloquist
D. Somniloquist (Answer)
secretly listening to a conversation is called --------?

A. Eavesdrop (Answer)
Page 74
B. Overhearing
C. Pigeonholing
D. Spying
A disease that is liable to be transmitted to people through the environment is known as -----------?
A. Contagious
B. Infectious (Answer)
C. Fatal
D. Incurable
A disease spreading from one person or organism to another by contact is known as --------?
A. Contagious (Answer)
B. Infectious
C. Unanimous
D. Fatal
Something that is hard but liable to break easily is known as -------?

A. Brittle (Answer)
B. Flexible
C. Resilient
D. Supple
A person fluent in two languages is known as ---------?

A. Bilingual (Answer)
B. Bigot
C. Bigamy
D. Brittle
The action or practice of persuading someone to do something by using force or threats is known as ---------?
A. Coercion (Answer)
B. Conviction
C. Confession
D. Cajolement
A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land is known as ---------?
A. Gulf
B. Isthmus (Answer)
Page 75
C. Peninsula
D. Continent
Government by a small group of all powerful persons is known as ---------?

A. Dictatorship
B. Monarchy
C. Oligarchy (Answer)
D. Anarchy
“Brain Drain” means----------?

A. Mad Person
B. Migration Of Skilled Person To Other Country (Answer)
C. Emigration Of Intellectuals
D. None
A person who helps another commit a crime is known as ----------?

A. Accomplice (Answer)
B. Amateur
C. Cuckold
D. Changeling
A sad poem usually written to praise and express sorrow for someone who is dead is known as --------?
A. Elegy (Answer)
B. Oad
C. Sestina
D. Epic
A long poem narrating achievements of a hero or legendary figures is known as -----------?

A. Epic (Answer)
B. Elegy
C. Ode
D. Sestina
A form of written language for blind people is known as ----------?

A. Braille (Answer)
B. Elysium
C. Epicure
Page 76
D. Arson
A medicine taken or given to counteract a particular poison is known as -----------?

A. antidote
B. antitoxin
C. Adderall
D. A & B (Answer)
One who eats everything indiscriminately is known as ---------?

A. Albumen
B. Adept
C. Omnivorous (Answer)
D. Amphibian
One who is present everywhere is known as ------------?

A. Omnipotent
B. Omniscient
C. Omnipresent (Answer)
D. None of the above
Something which is incapable of being seen through is known as -------------?

A. Non-transparent
B. Blurred
C. Opaque
D. All of the above (Answer)
Something which is capable of being seen through is known as -------------?

A. Opaque
B. Coarse
C. Ambiguous
D. Transparent (Answer)
One who is unable to pay debts owed is known as ----------?

A. Foreclosed
B. Insolvent
C. Bankrupt
Page 77
Antonym of Felicity is -------------?
A. Sadness (Answer)
B. Powerful
C. Narrow
D. Opaque
Antonym of Credulous is -------------?

A. Respectfull
B. Hardworking
C. Skeptical (Answer)
D. Frugal
A person who collects or has a great love of books is known as --------?

A. Bibliophile (Answer)
B. Pluviophile
C. Cosmopolitan
D. Changeling
Forcing someone to make payment for not revealing discreditable secrets is known as --------------?
A. Blackmail (Answer)
B. Despotism
C. Assassin
D. Elysium
The offence of marrying someone while already married to another person is known as ---------?
A. Bigamy (Answer)
B. Coupe
C. Bigot
C. Biped
A large enclosure for confining birds is known as ---------?

A. Aviary (Answer)
B. Columbary
C. Volary
D. All of the above
Page 78
Items of business to be considered at a meeting is called ----------?
A. Agenda (Answer)
B. Bulletin
C. Elysium
D. Epicture
Science of heavenly bodies is known as -------?

A. Astronomy (Answer)
B. Anatomy
C. Ecology
D. Astrology
Art of judging influence of stars upon human affairs is known as -------?

A. Astrology (Answer)
B. Paleontology
C. Meteorology
D. Geology
The hundredth anniversary of a significant event is known as --------?

A. Centenary (Answer)
B. Elysium
C. Assassin
One who is familiar with and at ease in many different countries and cultures is known as ---------------?
A. Cosmopolitan (Answer)
B. Unsophisticated
C. Provincial
D. All of the above
Government by old people is termed as ------------?

A. Monarchy
B. Gerontocracy (Answer)
C. Paedocracy
D. Autocracy
A book giving information on all branches of knowledge is known as -------?
Page 79
A. Encyclopedia (Answer)
B. Cynic
C. Desperado
D. Elysium
A group of associated or similar things is known as -------------?

A. Constellation (Answer)
B. Plainness
C. Elysium
A person who is recovering after an illness or medical treatment is known as ------------?

A. Convalescent (Answer)
B. Regressing
C. Faltering
D. Failing
A person who abstains from marriage and sexual relations is known as ----------?
A. Celibate (Answer)
B. Promiscuous
C. Immoral
D. Vile
Leaving one’s country and go to live in a foreign land is known as ---------?

A. Emigrate (Answer)
B. Eradicate
C. Immigrate
D. Extempore
One who looks on the dark side of the things is known as --------?
A. Optimist
B. Patricide
C. Pessimist (Answer)
D. Philanthropist
One who looks on the bright side of things is known as --------?

A. Pessimist
Page 80
B. Novice
C. Optimist (Answer)
D. Credulous
Something that is liable to be easily broken is known as --------?

A. Brittle (Answer)
B. Resilient
C. Flexible
A letter which is not claimed by anybody is known as -------?

A. Dead Letter (Answer)
B. Adjustment Letter
C. Complaint Letter
D. Acknowledgment Letter
A composition which bears no name of the writer is known as ---------?

A. Anonymous (Answer)
B. Identified
C. Signed
D. Apostate
Is this is the bus, ------ goes to the Sadar Bazar?

A. that
B. who
C. which (Answer)
D. To arrive
He bought a three ----------- suit.

A. Hundred-Dollars
B. Hundreds-Dollar
C. Hundred-Dollar (Answer)
D. Hundreds-Dollars
The idiom “To burry the hatchet” mean?

A. To make peace (Answer)
B. To make a foolish choice
Page 81
C. To make a wrong decision
D. To lose something
Antonym of ATTRACT is -------------?

A. Repel (Answer)
B. Demote
C. Expel
D. None of these
Antonym of ADAPT is -------------?

A. Applaud
B. Unfit (Answer)
C. Approve
D. None of these
Antonym of APATHY is -------------?

A. Sleep
B. Conclude
C. Zeal (Answer)
D. None of these
Complete the idiom “Hell hath no fury like a-----------?

A. A women scorned (Answer)
B. A burnned women
C. A women forgotten
D. A devil’s advocate
Foreign phrase ” De Jure” means?

A. By law (Answer)
B. Successful
C. Illegal
D. Compromising
Synonym of Abject is -------------?

A. Disgusting
B. Squalid
C. Contemptible
Page 82
D. All of these (Answer)
Idiom “Tie the knot” means?

A. Friendship
B. Getting married (Answer)
C. Enmity
D. Criticism
Antonym of ARCHETYPE is -------------?

A. Origin
B. Copy (Answer)
C. Generous
D. Factory
Antonym of Abridge is -------------?

A. Subdue
B. Augment (Answer)
C. Encourage
D. Elaborate
Antonym of PATHOLOGICAL is -------------?

A. Sick
B. Healthy (Answer)
C. Chemicals
D. Selective
The book is------the mug and pen.

A. In
B. Among
C. Between (Answer)
D. Of
A good judge never jumps ---------the conclusion.

A. In
B. To (Answer)
C. on
D. At
Page 83
The Students protested ----- the ill-treatment of their leader.
A. over
B. to
C. against
D. for (Answer)
A Game which no one wins called---------?

A. Tie
B. Draw (Answer)
C. loss
D. toss
If--------the match,I will go to “KPK (Peshawar) to meet the sports board chairperson.
A. I will win
B. I win (Answer)
C. I wins
D. I shall win
The Government ruled by Women is called?

A. Petticoat government (Answer)
B. Corporatocracy
C. Patriarchy
D. None of these
the killing of one’s mother called--------?

A. matricide (Answer)
B. parricide
C. regicide
D. patricide
killing of a large group of people called---------?

A. filicide
B. fratricide
C. genocide (Answer)
D. homicide
Page 84
A community of people smaller than a village
A. hamlet (Answer)
B. aviary
C. apiary
D. none of these
Page 85
Math MCQS With Solved Answers
What is 2+2÷2×2-2?
A. 0
B. -2
C. 2 (Answer)
D. 1
If a > b and b > a. Then ?
A. a = b
B. a ≠ b
C. Cannot be evaluated (Answer)
D. None
18 men can eat 20 kg of rice in 3 days. How long will 6 men take to eat 40 kg of rice?
A. 20
B. 18 (Answer)
C. 32
D. 20
In a fort there is sufficient food for 600 men for a month. If 400 more men arrive the fort then how long the
food is sufficient for now?
A. 20 days
B. 18 days (Answer)
C. 28 days
D. 36 days
If 25 men can eat 150 kg of wheat in 30 days then 45 men can eat 450 kg of wheat in how many days?
A. 13 days
B. 50 days (Answer)
Page 86
C. 15 days
D. 18 days
In a hostel mess there is enough food provisions for 1200 boarders for a month. After 15 days half of them
leave due to vacations. How long will the food provisions now last?
A. 20 days
B. 30 days (Answer)
C. 35 days
D. 50 days
Certain quantity of food is sufficient for certain number of men for 13 days. After 1 day 2/5 of them desert
how long will the food now last?
A. 20 days (Answer)
B. 25 days
C. 18 days
D. 16 days
A group of people has provisions for 29 days for 24 men. If after 4 days 1/6 of them desert then food will last
for?
A. 25 days
B. 28 days
C. 30 days (Answer)
D. 32 days
In a fort the food was sufficient for two months. After half a month
A. 1.5 months
B. 40 days
C. 2 months
D. 50 days (Answer)
15 cattle can graze a field in 20 days 20 cattle can graze 3 such field in how many days?
A. 30
Page 87
B. 45 (Answer)
C. 60
D. 50
5kg food is consumed by 50 chickens in 2 days. 60 chickens will consume how much food in 6 days. (Answer)
A. 2 kg
B. 6 kg
C. 15 kg
D. 18 kg (Answer)
At any army camp the provisions were stored for 40 days but ten days after the no. of soldiers become double.
Now the food lasts for x days. What is x?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 15 (Answer)
A family of 12 people had enough provision for 15 days. But 3 guests came for 2 days. How long the provisions
will last for?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 12
D. 12.5 (Answer)
At an inn there are provisions sufficient for 20 days for 40 people. At the end of every 10 days 5 people leave
off. How many days the provision will be sufficient for new?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. none (Answer)
A garrison has provision for 30 days for certain men. If 2/3 of them do not attend the mess then the food will
last for?
Page 88
A. 50 days
B. 90 days (Answer)
C. 65 days
D. 55 days
A garrison has provisions for 40 days. At the end of 5 days half of the men left the garrison. How long the food
will last for?
A. 45 days
B. 35 days
C. 70 days (Answer)
D. 80 days
A camp has provision for 9 days for 500 men. At the end of 3 days 100 more men were admitted. How long
will the food now last?
A. 12 days
B. 5 days (Answer)
C. 9 days
D. 6 days
If 12 members family spend Rs. 850 in 10 days. Then a family of 8 people will spend Rs. 340 in how many days.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6 (Answer)
D. 5
In a camp sufficient food was provided to 500 men to last for 10 days. But after 5 days 200 more men joined.
How long the food will last for after joining the 2000 new men?
A. 3
B. 8
C. 5
D. 1 (Answer)
Page 89
At a ship the food was enough for 50 people. But after 10 days half of the men died due to some viral disease
and the food is sufficient for as long as before. How long the food was sufficient for then?
A. 20 (Answer)
B. 60
C. 70
D. 50
A garrison has sufficient food for 500 people to survive for 6 days. At the end of 2 days 100 men desert. How
long the provisions are sufficient for now?
A. 5 (Answer)
B. 6
C. 4
D. 10
In a hospital there are enough injections sufficient for 15 days. Originally there were 80 patients but 40 more
patients appeared. How many days these injections will be sufficient for now?
A. 10 (Answer)
B. 15
C. 16
D. 12
18 cattle graze a field in 12 days. 6 cattle can graze 3 of such fields in x days. What is x?
A. 90
B. 72
C. 36
D. 108 (Answer)
25 men can consume 250kg of wheat in 20 days. 20 men cang consume how much wheat in 25 days?
A. 300
B. 200
C. 250 (Answer)
D. 350
Page 90
In a ship the provisions are sufficient for 800 men for 50 days. How long will these be sufficient for if there
would have been 200 more men?
A. 40 (Answer)
B. 50
C. 30
D. 56
In a fort there is enough food sufficient for 1200 men for 10 days. How long the food would have last for if
there would have been 1000 men.
A. 15
B. 12 (Answer)
C. 10
D. 20
A shopkeeper earns a profit of 10% after allowing a discount of 20% on the marked price. The cost price of the
article whose marked price is Rs. 880, is =_______ ?
A. Rs. 704
B. Rs. 640
C. Rs. 774 (Answer)
D. Rs. 680
A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price, but allows 30% discount for cash payment. His net loss is
?
A. 8%
B. 10%
C. 16% (Answer)
D. 20%
The marked price of a watch was Rs. 720. A man bought the same for Rs. 550.80, after getting two successive
discounts, the first 10%. What was the second discount rate ?
A. 12%
Page 91
B. 14%
C. 15% (Answer)
D. 18%
A tradesman marks his goods 10% above his cost price. If he allows his customers 10% discount on the marked
price. How much profit or loss does he make, if any ?
A. 1% gain
B. 1% loss (Answer)
C. 5% gain
D. No gain no loss
If the true discount on s sum due 2 years hence at 14% per annum be Rs. 168, the sum due is:________?
A. Rs. 768 (Answer)

B. Rs. 968
C. Rs. 1960
D. Rs. 2400
The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in two equal half-yearly installments at 8% per annum simple interest is:
A. Rs. 1325 (Answer)

B. Rs. 1300
C. Rs. 1350
D. Rs. 1500
The simple interest and the true discount on a certain sum for a given time and at a given rate are Rs. 85 and
Rs. 80 respectively. The sum is:_______?
A. Rs. 1800
B. Rs. 1450
C. Rs. 1360 (Answer)
D. Rs. 6800
The interest on Rs. 750 for 2 years is the same as the true discount on Rs. 960 due 2 years hence. If the rate of
interest is the same in both cases, it is:
Page 92
A. 12%
B. 14% (Answer)
C. 15%
D. 16%
Rs. 20 is the true discount on Rs. 260 due after a certain time. What will be the true discount on the same sum
due after half of the former time, the rate of interest being the same?
A. Rs. 10
B. Rs. 10.40 (Answer)
C. Rs. 15.20
D. Rs. 13
The true discount on Rs. 1760 due after a certain time at 12% per annum is Rs. 160. The time after which it is
due is:
A. 6 months
B. 8 months
C. 9 months
D. 10 months (Answer)
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is
10% per annum, the man:
A. gains Rs. 55
B. gains Rs. 50 (Answer)
C. loses Rs. 30
D. gains Rs. 30
The true discount on a bill due 9 months hence at 16% per annum is Rs. 189. The amount of the bill is:
A. Rs. 1386
B. Rs. 1764 (Answer)
C. Rs. 1575
D. Rs. 2268
Page 93
If Rs. 10 be allowed as true discount on a bill of Rs. 110 due at the end of a certain time, then the discount
allowed on the same sum due at the end of double the time is:
A. Rs. 20
B. Rs. 21.81
C. Rs. 22
D. Rs. 18.33 (Answer)
A man wants to sell his scooter. There are two offers, one at Rs. 12,000 cash and the other a credit of Rs.
12,880 to be paid after 8 months, money being at 18% per annum. Which is the better offer?
A. Rs. 12,000 in cash (Answer)

B. Rs. 12,880 at credit
C. Both are equally good
D. Rs. 18.33
A trader owes a merchant Rs. 10,028 due 1 year hence. The trader wants to settle the account after 3 months.
If the rate of interest 12% per annum, how much cash should he pay?
A. Rs. 9025.20
C. Rs. 9600
D. Rs. 9560
The true discount on Rs. 2562 due 4 months hence is Rs. 122. The rate percent is:_________?
A. 12%
B. 13%
C. 15% (Answer)
D. 14%
A man purchased a cow for Rs. 3000 and sold it the same day for Rs. 3600, allowing the buyer a credit of 2
years. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then the man has a gain of:
A. 0% (Answer)
B. 5%
C. 7.5%
Page 94
D. 10%
Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in 3 years at simple interest. If the interest rate is increased by 3%, it would
amount to how much ?
A. Rs. 992 (Answer)

B. Rs. 1112
C. Rs. 1056
D. Rs. 1182
A sum was put a simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 4% higher rate, it would have
fetched Rs. 60 more. The sum is:
A. Rs.750 (Answer)
B. Rs.700
C. Rs.940
D. Rs.820
A man invests a certain sum of money at 6% per annum simple interest and another sum at 7% per annum
simple interest. His income from interest after 2 years was Rs. 354. One-forth of the first sum is equal to one-
fifth of the second sum. The total sum invested was :
A. Rs.3100
B. Rs.2700 (Answer)
C. Rs.2200
D. Rs.1800
You deposit $600 into a 6 month certificate of deposit. After 6 months the balance is $618. Find the simple
annual interest rate
A. 6% (Answer)
B. 5%
C. 7%
D. 8%
How long will it take for a sum of money to grow from Rs.1250 to Rs.10,000, if it is invested at 12.5% p.a
simple interest?
Page 95
A. 65 years
B. 56 years (Answer)
C. 45 years
D. 57 years
What is the rate of interest at which Rs.150 becomes Rs. 220 in 10 years.
A. 11/3%
B. 14/3% (Answer)
C. 12%
D. 14%
A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is
:________?
A. Rs. 700
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 650
D. Rs. 698 (Answer)
A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 3 years. Had it been put at 2% higher rate, it would have
fetched Rs 360 more. Find the sum. (Answer)
A. Rs.4000
B. Rs.9000
C. Rs.5000
D. Rs.6000 (Answer)
A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9800 after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple
interest. The rate of interest per annum is:
A. 5%
B. 8%
C. 12% (Answer)
D. 15%
Page 96
A sum of Rs. 2500 amounts to Rs. 3875 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest?
A. 12.25%
B. 12%
C. 6%
D. 13.75% (Answer)
A sum of money becomes 7⁄5 of itself in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest. The rate per annum is :
A. 9%
B. 10% (Answer)
C. 11%
D. 12%
If there is a total of 104 weekly instalments and a third deposit, find the interest charged
A. 237.55 (Answer)
B. 337
C. 443
D. 334
What annual installment will discharge a debt of Rs 1092 due in 3 years at 12% simple interest?
A. Rs.325 (Answer)
B. Rs.545
C. Rs.560
D. Rs.550
If the simple interest on a certain sum of money after 3 1⁄8 years is 1⁄4 of the principal, what is the rate of
interest per annum?
A. 6%
B. 4%
C. 8% (Answer)
D. 12%
Page 97
How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 900 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple
interest?
A. 2 years (Answer)
B. 3 years
C. 1 year
D. 4 years
A sum was put a simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 4% higher rate, it would have
fetched Rs. 60 more. The sum is:________?
A. Rs.750 (Answer)
B. Rs.700
C. Rs.820
D. Rs.940
A car is purchased on hire-purchase. The cash price is $21 000 and the terms are a deposit of 10% of the price,
then the balance to be paid off over 60 equal monthly installments. Interest is charged at 12% p.a. What is the
monthly installment?
A. $503
B. $504 (Answer)
C. $505
D. $506
A sum of Rs. 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of Rs.
362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, Rs. 33.50 is earned as interest
from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?
A. 3.46% (Answer)
B. 4.5%
C. 5%
D. 6%
A lends Rs. 1500 to B and a certain sum to C at the same time at 8% per annum simple interest. If after 4 years,
A altogether receives Rs. 1400 as interest from B and C, then the sum lent to C is________?
Page 98
A. Rs.2875 (Answer)
B. Rs.1885
C. Rs.2245
D. Rs.2615
Mr. Tassawar Javed invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple
interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be
Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?

B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 7500
The simple interest on Rs.500 at 6% per annum from May 3rd to July 15th in the same year is_________?
A. Rs.8
B. Rs.6 (Answer)
C. Rs.4
D. Rs.9
An amount of 5,000 is invested at a fixed rate of 8 per cent per annum. What amount will be the value of the
investment in five years time, if the interest is compounded every six months?
A. 7401.22 (Answer)
B. 3456
C. 4567
D. 7890
A father left a will of Rs.35 lakhs between his two daughters aged 8.5 and 16 such that they may get equal
amounts when each of them reach the age of 21 years. The original amount of Rs.35 lakhs has been instructed
to be invested at 10% p.a. simple interest. How much did the elder daughter get at the time of the will?
A. 17.5 lakhs
B. 21 lakhs (Answer)
C. 15 lakhs
D. 20 lakhs
Page 99
What is the present worth of Rs. 132 due in 2 years at 5% simple interest per annum ?
A. Rs. 112
B. Rs. 118.80
C. Rs. 120 (Answer)
D. Rs. 122
Nabeela took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs.
432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest ?
A. 3.6
B. 6 (Answer)
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
A man took a loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years he had to pay Rs. 5400
interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was :
A. Rs. 2000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 15,000 (Answer)
D. Rs. 20,000
A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest What is the rate of interest
?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6% (Answer)
A sum of money amounts to Rs 9800 after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple
interest. The rate of interest per annum is : (Answer)
A. 5%
B. 8%
Page 100
C. 12% (Answer)
D. 15%
A sum of money trebles itself in 15 years, 6 months. In how many years would it double itself ?
A. 6 years 3 months
B. 7 years 9 months (Answer)
C. 8 years 3 months
D. 9 years 6 months
What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and
that for 9 years ?
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 4
C. 2 : 3 (Answer)
D. Data inadequate
An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six
months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes
:_________?
A. 10%
B. 10.25% (Answer)
C. 10.50%
D. None of these
The top of a 15 metre high tower makes an angle of elevation of 60° with the bottom of an electric pole and
angle of elevation of 30° with the top of the pole. What is the height of the electric pole ?
A. 5 metres
B. 8 metres
C. 10 metres (Answer)
D. 12 metres
The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree is √3 times the height of the tree, is
:________?
Page 101
A. 30° (Answer)
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30°. If the tower is 100 m high,
the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is :_________?
A. 149 m
B. 156 m
C. 173 m (Answer)
D. 200 m
If the height of a pole is 2√3 metres and the length of its shadow is 2 metres, find the angle of elevation of the
sun.
A. 50°
B. 60° (Answer)
C. 70°
D. 80°
Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angles of elevation of the top of the
lighthouse as observed from the two ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the
distance between the two ships is :_________?
A. 173 m
B. 200 m
C. 273 m (Answer)
D. 300 m
The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from
the wall. The length of the ladder is :_________?
A. 2.3 m
B. 4.6 m
C. 7.8 m
Page 102
D. 9.2 m (Answer)
Find out the wrong number in the series : 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 96, 720 (Answer)
A. 6
B. 24
C. 96 (Answer)
D. 720
Find the one which does not belong to that group ?
A. Pakistan : Rupee
B. America : Dollar
C. Quwait : Dinar
D. Australia : Pound (Answer)
E. Japan : Yen
A. Regiment (Answer)
B. Lieutenant
C. Colonel
D. Major
E. Brigadiar
A. Pakistani
B. Japanian (Answer)
C. American
D. Brazilian
E. Russian
A. Deal
B. Seal
Page 103
C. Zeal
D. Meal
E. Real (Answer)
A. Oasis
B. Fountain
C. Mirage (Answer)
D. Pond
E. Lake
A. Museum
B. Auction (Answer)
C. Exhibition
D. Botanical park
E. Zoo
A. Lungs
B. Eyes
C. Fingers (Answer)
D. Ears
E. Kidneys
A. Daughter-in-law (Answer)
B. Mother
C. Sister
D. Daughter
E. Neice
Page 104
A. Trapezium
B. Square
C. Triangle
D. Circle
E. Cube (Answer)
A. Sculpture
B. Blacksmith
C. Carpenter
D. Tailor
E. Architect (Answer)
A. Hewat
B. Ceri
C. Rowaj
D. Cereals (Answer)
E. Bjraa
A. Ganga
B. Hirakud (Answer)
C. Yamuna
D. Sutlej
E. Krishna
A. Walk
B. Talk
C. Drink
D. Plank (Answer)
Page 105
E. Lick
A. Baseball (Answer)
B. Boxing
C. Chess
D. Wrestling
E. Squash
A. Skin
B. Eye
C. Leg (Answer)
D. Nose
E. Ear
A. Asteroid
B. Star
C. Planet
D. Comet
E. Rocket (Answer)
A. Part
B. Trap (Answer)
C. Cart
D. Dart
E. Mart
A. Tiruvanantapuram
Page 106
B. Hyderabad
C. Calicut (Answer)
D. Bangalore
E. Bhubaneswar
A. Chameleon (Answer)
B. Crocodile
C. Turtle
D. Allegator
E. Frog
A. CAT
B. DOG
C. TIGER
D. ELEPHANT (Answer)
E. LION
A. B4
B. E25
C. D16
D. I91 (Answer)
E. F36
A. 1P6
B. 2Y4 (Answer)
C. 2T0
D. 1R8
E. 1M3
Page 107
A. YCAEC
B. KOMQO
C. PTRUT (Answer)
D. GKIMK
E. DHFJH
A. OQMS
B. UAWY (Answer)
C. NPLR
D. BDZF
E. FHDJ
A. KMNL
B. PRSQ
C. VWYZ (Answer)
D. JLMK
E. WYZX
A. BDFL (Answer)
B. PRUZ
C. JLOT
D. CHEM
E. IKNS
A. ABB
B. BCC (Answer)
C. CCCDDDD
Page 108
D. DDDEEEEE
E. BBCCC
A. GFI
B. QOR (Answer)
C. LKN
D. YXA
E. TSV
A. PMS
B. ROU
C. GDJ
D. KIM (Answer)
E. EBH
A. A
B. R (Answer)
C. E
D. I
E. O
A. 104
B. 110 (Answer)
C. 108
D. 112
E. 116
Page 109
A. 123
B. 132 (Answer)
C. 231
D. 321
E. 213
A. 11
B. 28
C. 327
D. 416 (Answer)
E. 5125
A. 525
B. 39
C. 24
D. 426 (Answer)
E. 636
A. 358
B. 246
C. 134
D. 862 (Answer)
A. 508
B. 328
C. 608 (Answer)
D. 148
Page 110
A. 30
B. 630 (Answer)
C. 10
D. 520
A. 20
B. 42
C. 58 (Answer)
D. 72
A. 4422
B. 2442
C. 4242 (Answer)
D. 2244
A. 30 (Answer)
B. 27
C. 36
D. 45
A. 42624
B. 37573
C. 84284 (Answer)
D. 93339
A. 35 (Answer)
Page 111
B. 48
C. 75
D. 84
A. 343
B. 121 (Answer)
C. 1331
D. 2197
A. 8
B. 27
C. 64 (Answer)
D. 125
A. 36
B. 49 (Answer)
C. 64
D. 81
A. 41
B. 43
C. 53
D. 57 (Answer)
A. 16
B. 28
C. 36 (Answer)
Page 112
D. 64
A. 27 (Answer)
B. 37
C. 47
D. 67
A. 3
B. 4 (Answer)
C. 5
D. 9
A, B and C enter into a partnership. They invest Rs. 40,000, Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 1,20,000 respectively. At the
end of the first year, B withdraws Rs. 40,000, while at the end of the second year, C withdraws Rs. 80,000. In
what ratio will the profit be shared at the end of 3 years?
A. 2 : 3 : 4
B. 3 : 2 : 4
C. 3: 2 : 1
D. 3: 4 : 7 (Answer)
A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Rs. 42,500. For how much period does
B join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1?
A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
A, B and C enter into a partnership. They invest Rs. 40,000, Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 1,20,000 respectively. At the
end of the first year, B withdraws Rs. 40,000, while at the end of the second year, C withdraws Rs. 80,000. IN
what ratio will the profit be shared at the end of 3 years?
Page 113
A. 2:3:5
B. 3:4:7 (Answer)
C. 4:5:9
D. None of these
Ameen started a business investing Rs. 70,000. Rahim joined him after six months with an amount of Rs.
1,05,000 and sameer joined them with Rs. 1.4 lakhs after another six months. The amount of profit earned
should be distributed in what ratio among Ameen, Rahim and Sameer respectively, 3 years after Ameen
started the business?
A. 7:6:10
B. 12:15:16 (Answer)
C. 42:45:56
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
A and B started business in partnership investing Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 15,000 respectively. After six months, C
joined them with Rs. 20,000. What will be B’s share in the total profit of Rs. 25,000 earned at the end of 2
years from the starting of the business?

B. Rs. 9000
C. Rs. 9500
D. Rs. 10,000
E. None of these
Sameena started a software business by investing Rs. 50,000. After six months, Nida joined her with a capital
of Rs. 80,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 24,500. What was Saneena’s share in the profit?
A. Rs. 9423
B. Rs. 10,250
C. Rs. 12,500
D. Rs. 14,000
E. None of these (Answer)
Page 114
Kamal started a business investing Rs. 9000. After five months, Sameer joined with a capital of Rs. 8000. If at
the end of the year, they earn a profit of Rs. 6970, then what will be the share of Sameer in the profit?
A. Rs. 1883.78
C. Rs. 3690
D. Rs. 3864
A, B, C enter into a partnership investing Rs. 35,000, Rs. 45,000 and Rs. 55,000 respectively. The respective
shares of A, B, C in annual profit of Rs. 40,500 are:
A. Rs. 10,500, Rs. 13,500, Rs. 16,500 (Answer)

B. Rs. 11,500, Rs. 13,000, Rs. 16,000
C. Rs. 11,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 15,500
D. Rs. 11,500, Rs. 12,500, Rs. 16,500
Anees and Raees started a business investing Rs. 22,500 and Rs. 35,000 respectively. Out of a total profit of Rs.
13,800, Raees’s share is:________?
A. Rs. 5400
B. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 9600
P and Q started a business investing Rs. 85,000 and Rs. 15,000 respectively. In what ratio the profit earned
after 2 years be divided between P and Q respectively?
A. 3:4
B. 3:5
C. 15:23
D. 17:23
X and Y started a business with capitals Rs. 20000 and Rs. 25000. After few months Z joined them with a
capital of Rs. 30000. If the share of Z in the annual profit of Rs. 50000 is Rs. 14000, then after how many
months from the beginning did Z join?
Page 115
A. 7
B. 6
C. 3
D. 4
P and Q started a business with respective investments of Rs. 4 lakhs and Rs. 10 lakhs. As P runs the business,
his salary is Rs. 5000 per month. If they earned a profit of Rs. 2 lakhs at the end of the year, then find the ratio
of their earnings?
A. 2 : 5
B. 5 : 2
C. 3 : 5
D. 1 : 1 (Answer)
E. None of these
Four car rental agencies A, B, C and D rented a plot for parking their cars during the night. A parked 15 cars for
12 days, B parked 12 cars for 20 days, C parked 18 cars for 18 days and D parked 16 cars for 15 days. If A paid
Rs. 1125 as rent for parking his cars, what is the total rent paid by all the four agencies?
A. Rs. 4500
B. Rs. 4800
C. Rs. 5250
D. Rs. 6150 (Answer)
E. None of these
A started a business with an investment of Rs. 70000 and after 6 months B joined him investing Rs. 120000. If
the profit at the end of a year is Rs. 52000, then the share of B is?
A. Rs. 28000
C. Rs. 30000
D. Rs. 26000
E. None of these
A, B and C started a business with capitals of Rs. 8000, Rs. 10000 and Rs. 12000 respectively. At the end of the
year, the profit share of B is Rs. 1500. The difference between the profit shares of A and C is?
Page 116
A. Rs. 300
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 500
D. Rs. 600 (Answer)
E. None of these
A and B start a business, with A investing the total capital of Rs.50000, on the condition that B pays A interest
@ 10% per annum on his half of the capital. A is a working partner and receives Rs.1500 per month from the
total profit and any profit remaining is equally shared by both of them. At the end of the year, it was found
that the income of A is twice that of B. Find the total profit for the year?
A. 53000
B. 58000
C. 50000
D. 59000 (Answer)
A and B invests Rs.8000 and Rs.9000 in a business. After 4 months, A withdraws half of his capital and 2
months later, B withdraws one-third of his capital. In what ratio should they share the profits at the end of the
year?
A. 20:23
B. 34:43
C. 32:45 (Answer)
D. 37:45
A and B invests Rs.10000 each, A investing for 8 months and B investing for all the 12 months in the year. If the
total profit at the end of the year is Rs.25000, find their shares?
A. Rs.8000, Rs.17000
B. Rs.9000, Rs.16000
C. Rs.18000, Rs.7000
D. Rs.10000, Rs.15000 (Answer)
A and B starts a business with Rs.8000 each, and after 4 months, B withdraws half of his capital . How should
they share the profits at the end of the 18 months?
Page 117
A. 18:11 (Answer)
B. 22:13
C. 23:12
D. 11:9
A and B start a business with Rs.6000 and Rs.8000 respectively. Hoe should they share their profits at the end
of one year?
A. 1:2
B. 3:4 (Answer)
C. 2:5
D. 3:7
A, B and C invests Rs.2000, Rs.3000 and Rs.4000 in a business. After one year A removed his money; B and C
continued the business for one more year. If the net profit after 2 years be Rs.3200, then A’s share in the
profit is?
A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.600
C. Rs.800
D. Rs.400 (Answer)
Kashif and Nadeem jointly started a business. Kashif invested three times as Nadeem did and invested his
money for double time as compared to Nadeem. Nadeem earned Rs. 4000. If the gain is proportional to the
money invested and the time for which the money is invested then the total gain was?
A. Rs.16000
B. Rs.20000
C. Rs.24000
D. Rs.28000 (Answer)
A is a working partner and B is a sleeping partner in the business. A puts in Rs.15000 and B Rs.25000, A
receives 10% of the profit for managing the business the rest being divided in proportion of their capitals. Out
of a total profit of Rs.9600, money received by A is?
A. Rs.3240
B. Rs.3600
Page 118
C. Rs.3800
D. Rs.4200 (Answer)
The ratio of investments of two partners P and Q is 7:5 and the ratio of their profits is 7:10. If P invested the
money for 5 months, find for how much time did Q invest the money?
A. 7 months
B. 10 months (Answer)
C. 9 months
D. 11 months
A and B start a business jointly. A invests Rs.16000 for 8 months and B remains in the business for 4 months.
Out of the total profit B claims 2/7th share. How much money is contributed by B?
A. Rs.10000
B. Rs.12800 (Answer)
C. Rs.6000
D. Rs.8000
In a partnership between A, B and C. A’s capital is Rs.5000. If his share of a profit of Rs.800 is Rs.200 and C’s
share is Rs.130, what is B’s capital?
A. Rs.3250
B. Rs.6250
C. Rs.10250
A and B invests Rs.3000 and Rs.4000 respectively in a business. If A doubles his capital after 6 months. In what
ratio should A and B divide that year’s profit?
A. 9:10
B. 9:8 (Answer)
C. 3:4
D. 39:49
A and B put in Rs.300 and Rs.400 respectively into a business. A reinvests into the business his share of the
first year’s profit of Rs.210 where as B does not. In what ratio should they divide the second year’s profit?
Page 119
A. 39:40 (Answer)
B. 40:39
C. 3:4
D. 4:3
A and B rent a pasture for 10 months. A put in 80 cows for 7 months. How many can B put in for the remaining
3 months, if he pays half as much again as A?
A. 120
B. 180
C. 200
D. 280 (Answer)
A, B and C enter into partnership. A invests some money at the beginning, B invests double the amount after 6
months, and C invests thrice the amount after 8 months. If the annual gain be Rs.18000. A’s share is?
A. Rs.7500
B. Rs.7200
C. Rs.6000 (Answer)
D. Rs.5750
Three persons invested Rs.9000 in a joint business. The second person invested Rs.1000 more than the first
and the third Rs.1000 more than second. After two years, they gained Rs.5400. How much third person will
get?
A. Rs.2400 (Answer)
B. Rs.3600
C. Rs.2850
D. Rs.2000
A, B and C are partners. A receives 2/3 of profits, B and C dividing the remainder equally. A’s income is
increased by Rs.200 when the rate to profit rises from 5 to 7 percent. Find the Capital of B?
A. Rs.2450
B. Rs.3600
C. Rs.2500 (Answer)
Page 120
D. Rs.3100
Two persons A and B take a field on rent. A puts on it 21 horses for 3 months and 15 cows for 2 months; B puts
15 cows for 6months and 40 sheep for 7 1/2 months. If one day, 3 horses eat as much as 5 cows and 6 cows as
much as 10 sheep, what part of the rent should A pay?
A. 1/3 rd (Answer)
B. 2/5 th
C. 2/3 rd
D. 1/5 th
A, B and C rents a pasture for Rs.870. A put in 12 horses for 8 months, B 16 horses for 9 months and 18 horses
for 6 months. How much should C pay?
A. Rs.270 (Answer)
B. Rs.185
C. Rs.215
D. Rs.380
A began business with Rs.45000 and was joined afterwards by B with Rs.5400. When did B join if the profits at
the end of the year were divided in the ratio of 2:1?
A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 7 months (Answer)
D. 9 months
A, B and C are entered into a partnership. A invested Rs.6500 for 6 months, B invested Rs.8400 for 5 months
and C invested for Rs.10000 for 3 months. A is a working partner and gets 5% of the total profit for the same.
Find the share of C in a total profit of Rs.7400.
A. 1750
B. 1900 (Answer)
C. 8600
D. 10300
Page 121
A, B and C are partners in a business. Their capitals are respectively, Rs.5000, Rs.6000 and Rs.4000. A gets 30%
of the total profit for managing the business. The remaining profit is divided among three in the ratio of their
capitals. In the end of the year, the profit of A is Rs.200 more than the sum of the profits of B and C. Find the
total profit.
A. Rs.4500
B. Rs.5200
C. Rs.1800
D. Rs.3000 (Answer)
If 6 (A’s capital) = 8 (B’s capital) = 10 (C’s capital). Then the ratio of their capitals is:
A. 3:4:5
B. 12:15:20
C. 20:15:12 (Answer)
D. 6:8:10
A, B, C together started a business. A invested Rs.6000 for 5 months B invested Rs.3600 for 6 months and C
Rs.7500 for 3 months. If they get a total profit of Rs.7410. Find the share of A?
A. Rs.3750
B. Rs.3000 (Answer)
C. Rs.3200
D. Rs.2160
A starts business with a capital of Rs.1200 B and C join with some investments after 3 and 6 months
respectively. If the end of a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2:3:5 respectively. What is B’s investment in
the business?
A. Rs.2400 (Answer)
B. Rs.1800
C. Rs.3600
D. Rs.6000
A and B began business with Rs.3000 and Rs.4000 after 8 months, A withdraws Rs.1000 and B advances
Rs.1000 more. At the end of the year, their profits amounted to Rs.630 find the share of A.
Page 122
A. Rs.240 (Answer)
B. Rs.350
C. Rs.340
D. Rs.390
A and B enter into partnership with capital as 7:9. At the end of 8 months, A withdraws. If they receive the
profits in the ratio of 8:9 find how long B’s capital was used?
A. 6 months
B. 8 months
C. 10 months
A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs.25000 and Rs.30000 respectively. After 4 months C also joined
the business with an investment of Rs.35000. What is the share of C in an annual profit of Rs.47000?
A. Rs.18000
B. Rs.15000
C. Rs.17000
A, B, C and D enter into partnership. A subscribes 1/3 of the capital B 1/4, C 1/5 and D the rest. How much
share did A get in a profit of Rs.2460?
A. Rs.480
B. Rs.615
C. Rs.820 (Answer)
D. Rs.740
A, B and C invested Rs.6300, Rs.4200 and Rs.10500 respectively, in a partnership business. Find the share of A
in profit of Rs.12100 after a year?
A. Rs.3630 (Answer)
B. Rs.2840
C. Rs.3200
D. Rs.5600
Page 123
The cost price of an article is 64% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percent after allowing a discount of
12%.
A. 37.5 % (Answer)
B. 38.5 %
C. 42 %
D. 27.5 %
A trader marked the selling price of an article at 10% above the cost price. At the time of selling, he allows
certain discount and suffers a loss of 1%. He allowed a discount of :
A. 10 % (Answer)
B. 10.5 %
C. 11 %
D. 12.5 %
A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at Rs. 36 per kg and sells the
mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit percent is:
A. No profit, no loss
B. 5% (Answer)
C. 8%
D. 10%
When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain
15%?
A. Rs. 21,000
B. Rs. 22,500
C. Rs. 25,300 (Answer)
D. Rs. 25,800
On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball
is:________?
A. Rs. 45
B. Rs. 50
Page 124
C. Rs. 55
D. Rs. 60 (Answer)
A dealer marks his goods 20% above cost price. He then allows some discount on it and makes a profit of 8%.
The rate of discount is: (Answer)
A. 12%
B. 10% (Answer)
C. 6%
D. 4%
A cloth merchant has announced 25% rebate in prices. If one needs to have a rebate of Rs. 40. Then how many
shirts each costing Rs.32 he should purchase?
A. 6
B. 5 (Answer)
C. 10
D. 7
The difference between a discount of 40% on Rs. 500 and two successive discount of 36% and 4% on the same
amount is:________?
A. 0
B. Rs. 2
C. Rs. 1.93
Tarun bought a T.V with 20% discount on the labelled price. Had he bought it with 25% discount? He would
have saved Rs. 500. At what price did he buy the T.V?
A. Rs. 5000
C. Rs. 12000
D. Rs. 16000
A man purchases an electric heater whose printed price is 160 if he received two successive discounts of 20%
and 10% he paid:
Page 125
A. Rs. 112
B. Rs. 129.60
C. Rs. 119.60
The marked price is 10% higher than the cost price. A discount of 10% is given on the marked price, in this kind
of sale the seller
A. Bears no loss no gain

B. gains
C. loses 1% (Answer)
D. None of these
A trader lists his articles 20% above C.P and allows a discount of 10% on cash payment. His gain percent is:
A. 10%
B. 8% (Answer)
C. 5%
D. 6%
While selling the watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount of 5% if he gives a discount of 7 % he earns Rs. 15 less
as profit. The marked price of the watch is:
A. Rs. 697.50
B. Rs. 712.50
C. Rs. 787.50
D. None of these (Answer)
A Shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed. The ratio of the cost
price and the printed price of the book is:
A. 45:56 (Answer)
B. 50:61
C. 99:125
D. None of these
Page 126
A retailer buys a sewing machine at a discount of 15% and sells it for Rs. 1955. Thus, he makes a profit of 15%.
The discount is:
A. Rs. 270
B. Rs. 290
C. Rs. 300 (Answer)
D. None of these
An umbrella marked at Rs. 80 is sold for Rs. 68. The rate of discount is: (Answer)
A. 15% (Answer)
B. 12%
C. 17 11/17%
D. 20 %
Kabir buys an article with 25% discount on its marked price. He makes a profit of 10 % by selling it at Rs. 660.
The marked price is :
A. Rs. 600
B. Rs. 700
C. Rs. 800 (Answer)
D. Rs. 685
The ratio of the prices of three different types of cars is 4:5:7. If the difference between the costliest and the
cheapest cars is Rs. 60000 the price of the car of modest price is:
A. Rs. 80000
C. Rs. 140000
D. Rs. 120000
A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a single discount of:_________?
A. 50%
B. 56.8% (Answer)
C. 60%
D. 70.28%
Page 127
At what price must kashif sell a mixture of 80 kg sugar at Rs. 6.75 per kg with 120 kg at Rs. 8 per kg to gain
20%?
A. Rs. 7.50 per kg

B. Rs. 8.20 per kg
C. Rs. 8.85 per kg
D. Rs. 9 per kg (Answer)
A person bought an article and sold it at a loss of 10 % if he had bought it for 20 % less and sold it for Rs. 55
more he would have had a profit of 40 %. The C.P of the article is:
A. Rs. 200
B. Rs. 225
C. Rs. 250 (Answer)
D. None of these
The cost price of an article which on being sold at a gain of 12 % yields Rs. 6 more than when it is sold at a loss
of 12 % is:
A. Rs. 30
B. Rs. 25 (Answer)
C. Rs. 24
D. Rs. 20
A man sells a car to his friend at 10 % loss. If the friend sells it for Rs. 54000 and gains 20 %. The original C.P of
the car was:_________?
A. Rs. 25000
B. Rs. 37500
D. Rs. 60000
If two mixers and one T.V cost Rs. 7000. While two T.V s and one mixer cost Rs. 9800. The value of one T.V
is:_________?
A. Rs. 2800
Page 128
B. Rs. 2100
D. Rs. 8400
Profit after selling a commodity for Rs. 425 is same as loss after selling it for Rs.355. The cost of the commodity
is:________?
A. Rs. 385
B. Rs. 390 (Answer)
C. Rs. 395
D. Rs. 400
A merchant sold his goods for Rs. 75 at a profit percent equal to C.P. The C.P was:________?
A. Rs. 40
B. Rs. 50 (Answer)
C. Rs. 60
D. Rs. 70
A horse and a cow were sold for Rs. 12000 each. The horse was sold at a loss of 20 % and the cow at a gain of
20 %. The entire transaction resulted in___________?
A. No loss or gain
B. Loss of Rs. 1000 (Answer)
C. Gain of Rs. 1000
D. Gain of Rs. 2000
A man sold two houses for Rs. 7.8 lakhs each. On the one, he gained 5% and on the other, he lost 5%. What
percent is the effect of the sale on the whole?
A. 0.25 % loss (Answer)

B. 0.25 % gain
C. 25% loss
D. 25% gain
When the Price of fans was reduced by 20 %. The number of fans sold increased by 40 %. What was the effect
on the sales of rupees?
Page 129
A. 12 % Increase (Answer)
B. 12 % decrease
C. 30 % increase
D. 40 % increase
When the price of a toy was increased by 20 % of the number of toys sold was decreased by 15 %. What was
the effect on the sales of the shop?
A. 4 % increase
B. 4 % decrease
C. 2 % increase (Answer)
D. 2 % decrease
A owns a house worth Rs. 10000. He sells it to B at a profit of 10% based on the worth of the house. B sells the
house back to A at a loss of 10% in this transaction A gets:
A. No profit No loss
B. Profit of Rs. 1000
C. Profit of Rs. 1100 (Answer)
D. Profit of Rs. 2000
Ramees bought 4 dozen apples at Rs. 12 per dozen and 2 dozen apples at Rs. 16 per dozen. He sold all of them
to earn 20%. At what price per dozen did he sell the apples?
A. Rs. 14.40
B. Rs. 16.00 (Answer)
C. Rs. 16.80
D. Rs. 19.20
Jameel bought paper sheets for Rs. 7200 and spent Rs. 200 on transport. Paying Rs 600 he had 330 boxes
made. Which he said at Rs. 28 each. What is his profit Percentage?
A. 15.5 (Answer)
B. 40
C. 60
D. None of these
Page 130
By selling Toffees at 20 for a rupee, a man loses 40 %. To gain 20 %, for one rupee he must sell?
A. 16 toffees (Answer)
B. 20 toffees
C. 25 toffees
D. 24 toffees
By selling 12 oranges for one rupee, a man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a gain of
20%?
A. 5
B. 8 (Answer)
C. 10
D. 15
A dealer professing to sell at cost price uses a 900 gms weight for a kilogram. His gain percent is:________?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 11 1/9 (Answer)
A man sold 20 articles for Rs. 60 and gained 20%. How many articles did he buy for Rs.60?
A. 22
B. 24 (Answer)
C. 25
D. 26
The C.P of an article is 40% of the S.P. The percent that the S.P is of C.P is:________?
A. 40
B. 60
C. 240
D. 250 (Answer)
Page 131
A man purchased a watch for Rs. 400 and sold it at a gain of 20% of the selling price. The selling price of the
watch is:__________?
A. Rs. 300
B. Rs. 320
C. Rs. 440
D. Rs. 500 (Answer)
If I purchased 11 books for Rs. 10 and sold all at the rate of 10 books for Rs. 11, the profit percent
A. 10%
B. 11%
C. 21% (Answer)
D. 100%
If books bought at prices ranging from Rs. 200 to Rs. 350 are sold at prices ranging from Rs. 300 to Rs. 425.
What is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 8 books?
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 600
C. Cannot be determined
A man sells 320 mangoes at the cost of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is:_________?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25% (Answer)
There would be 10% loss if rice is sold at Rs. 5.40 per kg. At what price per kg should it be sold to earn a profit
of 20%
A. Rs. 6
B. Rs. 6.48
C. Rs. 7.02
Page 132
There would be 10% loss if a toy is said at Rs. 10.80 per piece. At what price should it be sold to earn a profit of
20%?
A. Rs. 12
B. Rs. 12.96
C. Rs. 14.40 (Answer)
D. None of these
A man buys 10 articles for Rs. 8 and Sells them at the rate of Rs. 1.25 per article. His gain is:________?
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 19 ½ %
D. 56 ¼ % (Answer)
A shopkeeper sold an article offering a discount of 5% and earned a profit of 23.5%. What would have been
the percentage of profit earned if no discount was offered?
A. 24.5
B. 28.5
C. 30 (Answer)
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
The cost price of an article is 64% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percent after allowing a discount of
12%?
A. 37.5% (Answer)
B. 48%
C. 50.5%
D. 52%
By selling an umbrella for Rs. 300, a shop keeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the shopkeeper allows a
discount of 10% on the marked price. His gain percent during the sale is:________?
A. 7
Page 133
B. 7.5
C. 8 (Answer)
D. 9
The price of a VCR is marked at Rs. 12,000. If successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 5% be allowed, then at
what price does a customer buy it?
A. Rs. 8400
C. Rs. 8856
D. None of these
Aleem buys 4 horses and 9 cows for Rs. 13,400. If he sells the horses at 10% profit and the cows at 20% profit,
then he earns a total profit of Rs. 1880. The cost of a horse is:_________?
A. Rs. 1000
C. Rs. 2500
D. Rs. 3000
A person purchases 90 clocks and sells 40 clocks at a gain of 10% and 50 clocks at a gain of 20%. If he sold all of
them at a uniform profit of 15%, then he would have got Rs. 40 less. The cost price of each clock
is:_________?
A. Rs.50
B. Rs.60
C. Rs.80 (Answer)
D. Rs.90
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the
two selling prices is:__________?
A. 51:52
B. 52:53 (Answer)
C. 51:53
D. 52:55
Page 134
If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340, the cost of the article
is:________?
A. Rs. 50
B. Rs. 160
C. Rs. 200 (Answer)
D. Rs. 225
A man buys an article for 10% less than its value and sells it for 10% more than its value. His gain or loss
percent is:________?
A. no profit, no loss
B. 20% profit
C. less than 20% profit
D. more than 20% profit (Answer)
A manufacturer sells a pair of glasses to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 18%. The wholesaler sells the same to
retailer at a profit of 20%. The retailer in turn sells them to a customer for Rs. 30.09, there by earning a profit
of 25%. The cost price for the manufacturer is:________?
A. Rs. 15
B. Rs. 16
C. Rs. 17 (Answer)
D. Rs. 18
A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20%. B sells it to C at a profit of 25%. If C pays Rs. 225 for it, the cost price of
the bicycle for A is:________?
A. Rs. 110
B. Rs. 120
C. Rs. 125
D. Rs. 150 (Answer)
A fair price shopkeeper takes 10% profit on his goods. He lost 20% goods during theft. His loss percent
is:________?
A. 8
Page 135
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12 (Answer)
By mixing two brands of tea and selling the mixture at the rate of Rs. 177 per kg. a shopkeeper makes a profit
of 18%. If to every 2 kg of one brand costing Rs. 200 per kg, 3 kg of the other brand is added, then how much
per kg does the other brand cost?
A. Rs. 110
B. Rs. 120
C. Rs. 140
Haroon purchased 30 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 11.50 per kg and 20 kg of wheat at the rate of 14.25 per
kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture. Approximately what price per kg should be sell the mixture to
make 30% profit?
A. Rs. 14.80
B. Rs. 15.40
C. Rs. 15.60
E. Rs. 18.20
By selling 12 toffees for a rupee, a man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should be sell to get a gain of 20%?
A. 5
B. 8 (Answer)
C. 10
D. 15
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5 (Answer)
D. 6
Page 136
On an order of 5 dozen boxes of a consumer product, a retailer receives an extra dozen free. This is equivalent
to allowing him a discount of:________?
A. 15%
B. 16 1/6%
C. 16 2/3% (Answer)
D. 20%
If the selling price of 50 articles is equal to the cost price of 40 articles, then the loss or gain percent is:
A. 20% loss (Answer)

B. 20% gain
C. 25% loss
D. 25% gain
If the cost price of 12 pens is equal to the selling price of 8 pens, the gain percent is:
A. 25%
B. 33 1/3 %
C. 50% (Answer)
D. 66 2/3 %
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by
selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?

B. Rs. 2200
C. Rs. 2400
D. None of these
The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 832 is equal to the loss incurred when the same article is sold for
Rs. 448. What should be the sale price for making 50% profit?
A. Rs. 920
B. Rs. 960 (Answer)
C. Rs. 1060
D. Rs. 1200
Page 137
In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains
constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?
A. 30%
B. 70% (Answer)
C. 100%
D. 250%
If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent:
A. 66 2/3
B. 100 (Answer)
C. 105 1/3
D. 120
A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If the sells it at double the price, the percentage of
profit will be:________?
A. 40
B. 100
C. 120
D. 140 (Answer)
The ratio between the sale price and the cost price of an article is 7:5. What is the ratio between the profit and
the cost price of that article?
A. 2:7
B. 5:2
C. 7:2
D. Data inadequate
The ratio of the cost price and the selling price is 4:5. The profit percent is:__________?
A. 10%
B. 20%
Page 138
C. 25% (Answer)
D. 30%
Jameel brought a scooter for a certain sum of money. He spent 10% of the cost on repairs and sold the scooter
for a profit of Rs. 1100. How much did he spend on repairs if he made a profit of 20%?
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 440
C. Rs. 500 (Answer)
D. Rs. 550
The sale price of an article including the sales tax is Rs. 616. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has
made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is:
A. Rs. 500 (Answer)

B. Rs. 515
C. Rs. 550
D. Rs. 600
Samad purchased 20 dozens of toys at the rate of Rs. 375 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the rate of
Rs. 33. What was his percentage profit?
A. 3.5
B. 4.5
C. 5.6 (Answer)
D. 6.5
A shopkeeper purchased 70 kg of potatoes for Rs. 420 and sold the whole lot at the rate of Rs. 6.50 per kg.
What will be his gain percent?
A. 4 1/6 %
B. 6 1/6 %
C. 8 1/3 % (Answer)
D. 20 %
The successive discounts 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of__________?
Page 139
A. 35%
B. 38%
C. 32% (Answer)
D. 29%
E. None of these
Rahat purchased a refrigerator for Rs. 12500 after getting a discount of 20% on the labelled price. He spent Rs.
125 on transport and Rs. 250 on installation. At what price should it be sold so that the profit earned would be
10% if no discount was offered?
A. Rs. 16500
B. Rs. 15525
C. Rs. 17000
E. None of these
Mahad marks an article 15% above the cost price of Rs. 540. What must be his discount percentage if he sells
it at Rs. 496.80?
A. 18%
B. 21%
C. 20% (Answer)
D. 19%
E. None of these
An article was sold after a discount of 20% and there was a gain of 20%. If the profit made on it was Rs. 6 less
than the discount offered on it, find its selling price?
A. Rs. 72 (Answer)
B. Rs. 90
C. Rs. 66
D. Rs. 96
E. None of these
A trader marks his articles 20% more than the cost price. If he allows 20% discount, then find his gain or loss
percent?
Page 140
A. No profit No loss
B. 4% profit
C. 2% loss
D. 2% profit
Mahad sold an article for Rs. 18000. Had he offered a discount of 10% on the selling price, he would have
earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price of the article?

B. Rs. 16200
C. Rs. 14700
D. Rs. 15900
E. None of these
Rayyan purchased a refrigerator and a mobile phone for Rs. 15000 and Rs. 8000 respectively. He sold the
refrigerator at a loss of 4 percent and the mobile phone at a profit of 10 percent. Overall he make a________?
A. loss of Rs. 200

B. loss of Rs. 100
C. profit of Rs. 100
D. profit of Rs. 200 (Answer)
E. None of these
A shopkeeper sells 400 metres of cloth for Rs. 18000 at a loss of Rs.5 per metre. Find his cost price for one
metre of cloth?
A. Rs. 45
B. Rs. 40
C. Rs. 35
D. Rs. 50 (Answer)
E. None of these
The value of a machine depreciates at 20% per annum. If its present value is Rs. 1,50,000, at what price should
it be sold after two years such that a profit of Rs. 24,000 is made?
A. Rs. 1,10,000
Page 141
B. Rs. 1,20,000 (Answer)
C. Rs. 1,24,000
D. Rs. 1,21,000
E. None of these
After allowing a discount of 15% on the marked price, the selling price is Rs. 6800 for an article. If it was sold at
marked price, there would have been a profit of 60%. The cost price of the article is?
A. Rs. 6400
B. Rs. 5600
D. Rs. 4800
E. None of these
A shopkeeper sells 20% of his stock at 10% profit ans sells the remaining at a loss of 5%. He incurred an overall
loss of Rs. 400. Find the total worth of the stock?
A. Rs. 25000
C. Rs. 15000
D. Rs. 22000
E. None of these
A fruit vendor purchased 20 dozens of bananas at Rs. 15 per dozen. But one-fourth of the bananas were
rotten and had to be thrown away. He sold two-third of the remaining bananas at Rs. 22.50 per dozen. At
what price per dozen should he sell the remaining bananas to make neither a profit nor a loss?
A. Rs. 20
B. Rs. 15 (Answer)
C. Rs. 22.50
D. Rs. 7.50
E. None of these
By selling 99 pens, a trader gains the cost of 33 pens. Find his gain percentage?
A. 33 1/3% (Answer)
B. 50%
Page 142
C. 25%
D. 66 2/3%
E. None of these
A dealer purchases 15 articles for Rs. 25 and sells 12 articles for Rs. 30. Find the profit percentage?
A. 25%
B. 50% (Answer)
C. 20%
D. 5%
E. None of these
If the cost price of 50 articles is equal to the selling price of 40 articles, then the gain or loss percent is?
A. 20% loss
B. 20% profit
C. 10% profit
D. 25% loss
If a trader sold two cars each at Rs. 325475 and gains 12% on the first and loses 12% on the second, then his
profit or loss percent on the whole is_______?
A. 1.44% loss (Answer)

B. 14.4% profit
C. 14.4% loss
D. 0%
E. None of these
Rehman mixed 24 kg of butter at Rs. 150 per kg with 36 kg butter at the rate of Rs. 125 per kg. At what price
per kg should he sell the mixture to make a profit of 40% in the transaction?
A. Rs. 135
B. Rs. 162
C. Rs. 189 (Answer)
D. Rs. 198
E. None of these
Page 143
If an article is sold at 19% profit instead of 12% profit, then the profit would be Rs. 105 more. What is the cost
price?
A. Rs. 1505
B. Rs. 1510
D. Rs. 1490
E. None of these
A shopkeeper loses 15%, if an article is sold for Rs. 102. What should be the selling price of the article to gain
20%?
A. Rs. 150
B. Rs. 144 (Answer)
C. Rs. 138
D. Rs. 132
E. None of these
A trader sells 85 meters of cloth for Rs. 8925 at the profit of Rs. 15 per metre of cloth. What is the cost price of
one metre of cloth?
A. Rs. 80
B. Rs. 85
C. Rs. 90 (Answer)
D. Rs. 95
E. None of these
Raheem bought an old car for Rs. 42000. He spent Rs. 13000 on repairs and sold it for Rs. 64900. What is his
profit percent?
A. 14%
B. 16%
C. 18% (Answer)
D. 22%
E. None of these
Page 144
A person purchased a TV set for Rs. 16000 and a DVD player for Rs. 6250. He sold both the items together for
Rs. 31150. What percentage of profit did he make?
A. 30%
B. 35%
C. 40% (Answer)
D. 45%
E. None of these
The owner of a furniture shop charges his customer 24% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 8339
for a computer table, then what was the cost price of the computer table?
A. Rs. 5725
B. Rs. 5275
C. Rs. 6275
E. None of these
A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at Cost Price but still gets 20% profit by using a false weight.
What weight does he substitute for a kilogram?
A. 855 1/2 grams

B. 833 1/3 grams (Answer)
C. 833 1/2 grams
D. 875 2/7 grams
A shopkeeper buys mangoes at the rate of 4 a rupee and sells them at 3 a rupee. Find his net profit or loss
percent?
A. 20%
B. 28%
C. 33 1/3 % (Answer)
D. 35 2/7 %
A shopkeeper sells two articles at Rs.1000 each, making a profit of 20% on the first article and a loss of 20% on
the second article. Find the net profit or loss that he makes?
Page 145
A. neither profit nor loss
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 4% (Answer)
A shopkeeper buys two articles for Rs.1000 each and then sells them, making 20% profit on the first article and
20% loss on second article. Find the net profit or loss percent?
A. neither profit nor loss (Answer)

B. 1%
C. 2%
D. 3%
By selling an article at Rs.800, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 25%. At what price should he sell the article so
as to make a loss of 25%?
A. Rs.600
B. Rs.480 (Answer)
C. Rs.500
D. Rs.450
By selling an article at Rs.600, a profit of 25% is made. Find its cost price?
A. Rs.350
B. Rs.400
C. Rs.573
D. Rs.480 (Answer)
A person buys an article at Rs.500. At what price should he sell the article so as to make a profit of 20%?
A. Rs.600 (Answer)
B. Rs.500
C. Rs.250
D. Rs.700
A man buys milk at a certain rate per liter and after adding water to it sells the mixture at the same rate. Find
in what ration he much mix water to milk so as to gain 20% on his outlay?
Page 146
A. 1:5 (Answer)
B. 1:20
C. 2:5
D. 1:6
A trader marked the price of the T.V. 30% above the cost price of the T.V. and gave the purchaser 10%
discount on the marked price, thereby gaining Rs.340. Find the cost price of the T.V?
A. Rs.2250
B. Rs.2000 (Answer)
C. Rs.2150
D. Rs.2200
A trader marked the price of a car 20% above the cost price and allowed the purchaser 5% discount on the
marked price there by gained Rs.8400. Find the cost price of the car?
A. Rs.60000 (Answer)
B. Rs.75000
C. Rs.68400
D. Rs.78400
At what price must an article costing Rs.47.50 be marked in order that after deducting 5% from the list price. It
may be sold at a profit of 25% on the cost price?
A. Rs.62.50 (Answer)
B. Rs.72.50
C. Rs.75.00
D. Rs.80.00
A dealer purchased an article at 3/4 of its list price and sold 50% more than the list price. Find his gain
percent?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 100% (Answer)
D. 80%
Page 147
Oranges are bought at 11 for a rupee and an equal number more at 9 a rupee. If these are sold at 10 for a
rupee, find the loss or gain percent?
A. 1% gain
B. 2% gain
C. 1% loss (Answer)
D. 2% loss
If goods be purchased for Rs.840 and one-fourth be sold at a loss of 20% at what gain percent should the
remainder be sold so as to gain 20% on the whole transaction?
A. 30%
B. 33%
C. 33 1/3% (Answer)
D. 35%
A person bought an article and sold it at a loss of 10%. If he had bought it for 20% less and sold it for Rs.75
less, he could have gained 25%. What is the cost price?
A. Rs.250 (Answer)
B. Rs.225
C. Rs.275
D. Rs.200
A man buys an article and sells it at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs.75 less, he
could have gained 25%. What is the cost price?
A. Rs.370
B. Rs.375 (Answer)
C. Rs.350
D. Rs.300
I bought two books; for Rs.480. I sold one at a loss of 15% and other at a gain of 19% and then I found each
book was sold at the same price. Find the cost of the book sold at a loss?
A. Rs.28
Page 148
B. Rs.280 (Answer)
C. Rs.140
D. Rs.70
A man sells two articles for Rs.3600 each and he gains 30% on the first and loses 30% on the next. Find his
total gain or loss?
A. 9% loss (Answer)
B. 400
C. 4000
D. 324
A man buys two articles for Rs.1980 each and he gains 10% on the first and loses 10% on the next. Find his
total gain or loss percent?
A. 1% gain (Answer)
B. 1% loss
C. 10% loss
D. no gain or no loss
A reduction of 20% in the price of salt enables a lady to obtain 10 kgs more for Rs.100, find the original price
per kg?
A. 2 3/2
B. 2 2/3
C. 2.5 (Answer)
D. 3
A reduction of 25% in the price of oil enables a house wife to obtain 5kgs more for Rs.800, what is the reduced
price for kg?
A. Rs.20
B. Rs.30
C. Rs.40 (Answer)
D. Rs.25
Page 149
A reduction of 40% in the price of bananas would enable a man to obtain 64 more for Rs.40, what is reduced
price per dozen?
A. Rs.5
B. Rs.4
C. Rs.2
D. Rs.3 (Answer)
A man purchases 8 pens for Rs.9 and sells 9 pens for Rs.8, how much profit or loss does he make?
A. 20.98% profit
B. 20.98% loss (Answer)
C. 20.89% profit
D. 20.89% loss
A dishonest dealer professes to sell goods at the cost price but uses a false weight and gains 25%. Find his false
weight age?
A. 700 gms
B. 750 gms
C. 800 gms (Answer)
D. 850 gms
Ramees professes to sell his goods at the cost price but he made use of 900 grms instead of a kg, what is the
gain percent?
A. 11%
B. 11 2/9%
C. 11 1/9% (Answer)
D. 10%
A dishonest dealer professes to sell goods at the cost price but uses a weight of 800 grams per kg, what is his
percent?
A. 20%
B. 25% (Answer)
C. 30%
Page 150
D. 15%
A tradesman by means of his false balance defrauds to the extent of 20%? in buying goods as well as by selling
the goods. What percent does he gain on his outlay?
A. 20%
B. 45%
C. 44% (Answer)
D. 48%
Ramees sold two bicycles, each for Rs.990. If he made 10% profit on the first and 10% loss on the second, what
is the total cost of both bicycles?
A. Rs.2000 (Answer)
B. Rs.1980
C. Rs.1891
D. Rs.1750
By selling 50 meters of cloth. I gain the selling price of 15 meters. Find the gain percent?
A. 35%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 42 6/7% (Answer)
The cost price of 13 articles is equal to the selling price of 11 articles. Find the profit percent?
A. 15 5/15%
B. 18 2/11% (Answer)
C. 16 2/3%
D. 30%
By selling 12 pencils for a rupee a man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell in order to gain 20%?
A. 8 (Answer)
B. 9
C. 12
Page 151
D. 16
The C.P of 15 books is equal to the S.P of 18 books. Find his gain% or loss%?
A. 16 2/3% loss (Answer)

B. 100/3% loss
C. 50/3% profit
D. 100/3% loss
The C.P of 10 pens is equal to the S.P of 12 pens. Find his gain % or loss%?
A. 16 2/3% profit
B. 50/6% profit
C. 16 2/3% loss (Answer)
D. 100/3% loss
By selling 150 mangoes, a fruit-seller gains the selling price of 30 mangoes. Find the gain percent?
A. 20%
B. 25% (Answer)
C. 18%
D. 30%
If a man lost 4% by selling oranges at the rate of 12 a rupee at how many a rupee must he sell them to gain
44%?
A. 7
B. 8 (Answer)
C. 9
D. 10
By selling a house for Rs.45000, it was found that 1/8 of the outlay was gained, what ought the selling to price
to have been in order to have lost 5 p.c?
A. Rs.38750
B. Rs.38000 (Answer)
C. Rs.40000
Page 152
D. Rs.42000
A man sells a horse for Rs.800 and loses something, if he had sold it for Rs.980, his gain would have been
double the former loss. Find the cost price of the horse?
A. Rs.900
B. Rs.875
C. Rs.850
D. Rs.860 (Answer)
A trader bought a car at 20% discount on its original price. He sold it at a 40% increase on the price he bought
it. What percent of profit did he make on the original price?
A. 10%
B. 11%
C. 12% (Answer)
D. 15%
What profit percent is made by selling an article at a certain price, if by selling at 2/3rd of that price, there
would be a loss of 20%?
A. 20% (Answer)
B. 25%
C. 13 1/30%
D. 12%
A single discount equivalent to the discount series of 20%, 10% and 5% is_______?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 31.6% (Answer)
D. 33.5%
The list price of an article is Rs.65. A customer pays Rs.56.16 for it. He was given two successive discounts, one
of them being 10%. The other discount is________?
A. 3%
Page 153
B. 4% (Answer)
C. 5%
D. 6%
The sale price sarees listed for Rs.400 after successive discount is 10% and 5% is________?
A. Rs.357
B. Rs.340
C. Rs.342 (Answer)
D. Rs.338
A watch was sold at a loss of 10%. If it was sold for Rs.140 more, there would have been a gain of 4%. What is
the cost price?
A. Rs.1000 (Answer)
B. Rs.1140
C. Rs.860
D. Rs.760
The cost price of a radio is Rs.1500 and it was sold for Rs.1230, find the loss %?
A. 18% (Answer)
B. 9%
C. 15%
D. 6%
An article is bought for Rs.600 and sold for Rs.500, find the loss percent?
A. 16 4/3%
B. 100/3%
C. 16%
D. 16 2/3% (Answer)
An article is bought for Rs.675 and sold for Rs.900, find the gain percent?
A. 16 2/3%
B. 30%
Page 154
C. 33 1/3% (Answer)
D. 33 1/6%
A cycle is bought for Rs.900 and sold for Rs.1080, find the gain percent?
A. 16 2/3%
B. 20% (Answer)
C. 18%
D. 25%
The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The average percent increase of
population per year is:________?
A. 4.37%
B. 5% (Answer)
C. 6%
D. 8.75%
Ramees buys good worth Rs. 6650. He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting the rebate, he pays sales tax @
10%. Find the amount he will have to pay for the goods.
A. Rs. 6876.10 (Answer)

B. Rs. 6999.20
C. Rs. 6654
D. Rs. 7000
Ghafoor went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on
taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax free items?
A. Rs. 15
B. Rs. 15.70
C. Rs. 19.70 (Answer)
D. Rs. 20
Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is paid 120 percent of the sum
paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?
Page 155
A. Rs. 200
B. Rs. 250 (Answer)
C. Rs. 300
D. None of these
Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What
percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
A. 57% (Answer)
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 90%
The tank full of petrol in Haroon’s motorcycle lasts for 10 days, if he starts using 25% more every day for how
many days will the tank full of petrol last?
A. 5days
B. 6days
C. 7days
D. 8days (Answer)
If Mobeen while selling two goats at the same price makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of
10% on the other, he
A. Makes no profit and no loss

B. Makes a profit of 1%
C. Suffers a loss of 1% (Answer)
D. Suffers a loss of 2%
A gardener increases the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing by 20%.
The area of the new garden?
A. Has increase by 20%

B. Has increase by 12% (Answer)
C. Has increase b 8%
D. Is exactly the same as the old area
Page 156
If the price of petral is increased by 20% by what percentage should the consumption be decreased by the
consumer if the expenditure on petrel remains unchanged?
A. 16 2/3% (Answer)
B. 6 2/3%
C. 8%
D. 15%
In a survey it was found that 80% of those surveyed owned a car while 60% of those surveyed owned a mobile
phone, if 55% owned both a car and a Mobile phone, What percent of those surveyed owned a car or a mobile
phone or both?
A. 65%
B. 80%
C. 85% (Answer)
D. 97.5%
Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the
number Y less than that of the number X?
A. 8%
B. 9%
C. 10% (Answer)
D. 11%
In an examination, every candidate took physics or mathematics or both 65.8% took physics and 59.2% took
mathematics the total number of candidates was 2000. How many candidates took both physics and
mathematics?
A. 750
B. 500 (Answer)
C. 250
D. 125
In a company, 60% of the employees are men, of this 40 % are drawing more than Rs. 50000 per year. 36% of
the total employees of the company draw more than Rs.50000 per year then what is the percentage of
Page 157
women who are drawing less than Rs. 5000 per year?
A. 70% (Answer)
B. 60%
C. 40%
D. 30%
A city has a population of 300000 out of which 180000 are males 50% of the population is illiterate if 70 % of
the males are literate, then the number of literate females is_________?
A. 24000 (Answer)
B. 30000
C. 54000
D. 60000
In a test a candidate attempted only 8 Questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions if the
obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many questions were
there in the test?
A. 8
B. 10 (Answer)
C. 15
D. 16
In a town 45% population read magazine A, 55% magazine B, 40% read Magazine C, 30% read magazines A
and B, 15% read magazines B and C, 25% read magazines A and C and 10% read all the three magazines. What
percentage do not read any magazine?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20% (Answer)
D. 25%
Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 60% men and 40% women 70% men and 75% women
cleared the qualifying test and entered the final test where 80% men and 70% women were successful? Which
of the following statements is correct?
Page 158
A. Success rate is higher for women
B. Overall success rate is below 50%
C. More men cleared the examination than women (Answer)
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
The price of a certain item is increased by 15 %. If a consumer wants to keep his expenditure on the item same
as before how much percent must he reduce his consumption of that item?
A. 10 20/23 %
B. 13 1/23 % (Answer)
C. 16 2/3 %
D. 15 %
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 250 % and the denominator is increased by 400 % the resultant
fraction is 7/19. What is the original fraction?
A. 10/19 (Answer)
B. 5/9
C. 9/5
D. 19/7
The value of a plant depreciates by 10 % annually. If the present value of the plant is Rs. 100000, then what
will be its value after 2 years?
A. Rs. 8000
B. Rs 10000
C. Rs. 18000
Three candidates in an election received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the
total votes did the winning candidate get?
A. 11. 6 %
B. 60 %
C. 76. 4 %
Page 159
10 % of the electorate did not cast their votes in an election between two candidates. 10 % of the votes polled
were found invalid. The successful candidate got 54 % of the valid votes and won by a majority of 1620 votes.
The number of voters enrolled on the voter’s list was___________?
A. 25000 (Answer)
B. 33000
C. 35000
D. 40000
In an election between two candidates 75 % of the voters cast their votes. Out of which 2 % of the voters were
declared invalid. A candidate got 9261 votes which were 75 % of the total valid votes. The total number of
voters enrolled in that election was:__________?
A. 10000
B. 16400
C. 16800 (Answer)
D. 18000
In an election between two candidates. One got 55 % of the total valid votes. 20 % of the votes were invalid. If
the total number of votes was 7500. The number of valid votes that the other candidate got was_________?
A. 2700 (Answer)
B. 2900
C. 3000
D. 3100
8 % of the voters in an election did not cast their votes in the election, there were only two candidates. The
winner by obtaining 48 % of the total votes defeated his contestant by 1100 votes. The total number of voters
in the election was_________?
A. 21000
B. 2200
C. 23500
D. 27500 (Answer)
Page 160
A reduction of 20 % in the price of rice enables a person to buy 3.5 kg more rice for Rs. 385. The original price
of rice is:________?
A. Rs. 20 per kg
B. Rs. 22.50 per kg
C. Rs. 25 per kg
D. Rs. 27.50 per kg (Answer)
The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5 % of one number is equal to 8.5 % of the other then the numbers
are:_________?
A. 989, 1501
B. 1011, 1479
C. 1401, 1089
D. 1411, 1079 (Answer)
Of the 1000 inhabitants of a town 60 % are males of whom 20 % are literate. If of all the inhabitants 25 % are
literate. Then what percent of the females of the town are literate?
A. 22. 5 %
B. 27.5 %
C. 32. 5 % (Answer)
D. 37.5 %
In two successive years, 100 and 75 students of a school appeared at the final examination. Respectively 75 %
and 60 % of them passed. The average rate of pass is:_________?
A. 68 4/7 % (Answer)
B. 78 %
C. 80 %
D. 80 4/7 %
The quality of water that should be added to reduce 9 ml. Lotion containing 50 % alcohol to a lotion containing
30 % alcohol is_________?
A. 3 ml
B. 4 ml
Page 161
C. 5 ml
D. 6 ml (Answer)
Fresh grapes contain 80 % water dry grapes contain 10 % water. If the weight of dry grapes is 250 kg. What
was its total weight when it was fresh?
A. 1000 kg
B. 1100 kg
C. 1125 kg (Answer)
D. 1225 kg
Fresh fruit contains 68 % water and dry fruit contains 20 % water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from
100 kg of fresh fruits?
A. 32 kg
B. 40 kg (Answer)
C. 52 kg
D. 80 kg
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 140 % and the denominator is increased by 150 % the resultant
fraction is 4/15 what is the original fraction?
A. 3/5
B. 5/16
C. 2/9
In measuring the sides of a rectangle errors of 5 % and 3 % in excess are made. The error percent in the
calculates area is_________?
A. 8. 35 %
B. 7.15 %
C. 8.15 % (Answer)
D. 6. 25%
The price of petrol is increased by 25 %. By how much percent a car owner should reduce his consumption of
petrol. So that expenditure on petrol would not be increased?
Page 162
A. 25 %
B. 30 %
C. 50 %
D. 20 % (Answer)
If the price of the eraser is reduced by 25% a person buy 2 more erasers for a rupee. How many erasers
available for a rupee?
A. 8
B. 6 (Answer)
C. 4
D. 2
In a school, 40 % of the students play football and 50 % play cricket. If 18 % of the students play neither
football nor cricket, the percentage of students playing both is________?
A. 40 %
B. 32 %
C. 22 %
D. 8 % (Answer)
Out of 100 students, 50 failed in English and 30 in Mathematics. If 12 students fail in both English and
Mathematics. Then the number of students who passed in both the subjects is__________?
A. 26
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32 (Answer)
A dishonest dealer claims to sell his goods at the cost price but uses a false weight of 900 gm for 1 kg what is
his gain percent?
A. 13 %
B. 11 1/9 % (Answer)
C. 11.25 %
D. 12 1/9 %
Page 163
A bucket contains 2 litres more water when it is filled 80 % in comparison when it is filled 66 2/4 % what is the
capacity of the bucket?
A. 10 litres
B. 15 litres (Answer)
C. 66 2/3 litres
D. 20 litres
A period of 4 hrs 30 min is what percent of a day?
A. 18 3/4 % (Answer)
B. 20 %
C. 16 3/4 %
D. 19 %
When a number is first increased by 10 % and then reduced by 10 % the number:__________?
A. does not change

B. decreased by 1 % (Answer)
C. increased by 1 %
D. None of these
Two number is first increased by 10 % and then reduced by 10 % the number:__________?
A. 2:5
B. 4:5 (Answer)
C. 6:7
D. 3:5
If the side of a square is increased by 25 %. Then its area is increased by:__________?
A. 25 %
B. 55%
C. 40.5 %
D. 56.25 % (Answer)
Page 164
A typist uses a paper 30 cm by 15 cm. He leaves a margin of 2.5 cm at the top as well as at the bottom and
1.25 cm on either side. What percentage of paper area is approximately available for typing?
A. 65 %
B. 70 % (Answer)
C. 80 %
D. 60%
The length of a rectangle is increased by 10 % and breadth decreased by 10 % Then the area of a new
rectangle is:_________?
A. neither increased nor decreased

B. increased by 1 %
C. decreased by 1 % (Answer)
D. decreased by 10 %
10 decameters are equal to_______?
A. 1 Hectometers (Answer)
B. 2 Hectometers
C. 3 Hectometers
D. 4 Hectometers
If 17xy+7 =19xy ,then 4xy = ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1/2
D. 14 (Answer)
What is the ratio of Faheem’s salary to Imran’s salary to Naveed’s salary if Faheem makes 80,000 rupees
,Imran 70,000 rupees and Naveed makes 50,000 rupees ?
A. 80:70:60
B. 8:7:5 (Answer)
C. 4:7:5
D. 7:8:5
Page 165
Two numbers are in the ratio 5:4 and their difference is 10.What is the largest number?
A. 40
B. 50 (Answer)
C. 60
D. 30
1 yard =___________?
A. 3 feet (Answer)
B. 6 feet
C. 2.4 feet
D. 12 feet
A and B are two fixed points 5 cm apart and c is a point on AB such that AC = 3 cm. If the length of AC is
increased by 6 % the length of CB is decreased by:_________?
A. 6 %
B. 7 %
C. 8 %
D. 9 % (Answer)
5 % of the income of A is equal to 15 % of the income of B and 10 % of the income of B is equal to 20 % of the
income of c. If the income of C is Rs. 2000. What is the total income of A, B and C?
A. Rs. 14000
B. Rs 16000
D. Rs. 12400
A reduction of 20 % in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 3kg more for Rs. 120. The original price
of sugar per kg is:________?
A. Rs. 15
B. Rs. 12
C. Rs. 10 (Answer)
Page 166
D. Rs. 8
In 50 gm alloy of gold and silver the gold is 80 % by weight. How much gold should be mixed with this alloy so
that the weight of gold would become 95 %?
A. 200 gm
B. 150 gm (Answer)
C. 50 gm
D. 10 gm
The ratio of the number of boys and girls is 3:2 if 20 % of the boys and 30 % of the girls are scholarship holders
then the percentage of students who do not get scholarship is_________?
A. 50
B. 72
C. 75
D. 76 (Answer)
Out of an earning of Rs. 720 Ram spends 65 %. How much does he save?
A. Rs. 350
B. Rs. 390
C. Rs. 252 (Answer)
D. Rs. 316
In an examination, 65 % of the total examinees passed if the number of failures is 420, the total number of
examinees is:_________?
A. 500
B. 1200 (Answer)
C. 1000
D. 1625
Rs. 395 are divided among A, B and C ins such a manner that B gets 25 % more than A and 20 % more than C.
The share of A is:
A. Rs. 198
Page 167
B. Rs. 120 (Answer)
C. Rs. 180
D. Rs. 195
605 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by
each child is 20 % of the total number of children. How many sweets did each child receive?
A. 11 (Answer)
B. 24
C. 45
D. cannot be determined
Two numbers are less than q third number by 30 % and 37 % respectively. How much percent is the second
number less than the first?
A. 10 % (Answer)
B. 15 %
C. 20 %
D. 25 %
The length of a rectangle is increased by 60 %. By what percent would the width have to be decreased to
maintain the same area?
A. 37 ½ % (Answer)
B. 60 %
C. 75 %
D. none of these
If the side of a square is increased by 30 %. Its area is increased by:_________?
A. 9 %
B. 30 %
C. 60 %
D. 69 % (Answer)
The price of an article has been reduced by 25 %. In order to restore the original price, the new price must be
increased by:________?
Page 168
A. 33 1/3 % (Answer)
B. 11 1/9 %
C. 9 1/11 %
D. 66 2/3 %
p is six times as large as q. The percent that q is less than p is:________?
A. 83 1/3 (Answer)
B. 16 2/3
C. 90
D. 60
The population of a town increases 4 % annually but is decreased by emigration annually to the extent of (1/2)
%. What will be the increase percent in three years?
A. 9.8
B. 10
C. 10.5
D. 10.8 (Answer)
A man’s basic pay for a 40 hour week is Rs. 20 overtime is paid for at 25 % above the basic rate, in a certain
week he worked overtime and his total wage was Rs. 25. He therefore worked for a total of:________?
A. 45 hours
B. 47 hours
C. 48 hours (Answer)
D. 50 hours
On decreasing the price of T.V. sets by 30 % its sale is increased by 20 %. What is the effect on the revenue
received by the shopkeeper?
A. 10 % increase
B. 10 % decrease
C. 16 % increase
D. 16 % decrease (Answer)
Page 169
Water tax is increased by 20% but its consumption is decreased by 20 %. Then, the increase or decrease in the
expenditure of the money is:________?
A. No change
B. 5 % decrease
C. 4 % increase
D. 4 % decrease (Answer)
The price of cooking oil has increased by 25 %. The percentage of reduction that a farming should effect in the
use of cooking oil so as not to increase the expenditure on this account is________?
A. 15 %
B. 20 % (Answer)
C. 25%
D. 30%
What will be 80 Percent of a number whose 200 percent is 90?
A. 144
B. 72
C. 36 (Answer)
D. none of these
In an election between two candidates, the candidate who gets 30 % of the votes polled is defeated by 15000
votes. The number of votes polled by the winning candidate is:________?
A. 11250
B. 15000
C. 26250 (Answer)
D. 37500
In a college election, a candidate secured 62 % of the votes and is elected by a majority of 144 votes. The total
number of votes polled is:________?
A. 600 (Answer)
B. 800
C. 925
Page 170
D. 1200
A student who secures 20 % marks in an examination fails by 30 marks. Another student who secures 32 %
marks gets 42 marks more than those required to pass. The percentage of marks required to pass
is:________?
A. 20%
B. 25 % (Answer)
C. 28%
D. 30%
5 % income of a is equal to 15 % income of B and 10 % income of B is equal to 20 % income of C if the income

of c is Rs. 200, then total income of A, B and C is :_________?
A. Rs. 6000
C. Rs. 20000
D. Rs. 14000
75 % of a number when added to 75 is equal to the number. The number is:_______?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 225
D. 300 (Answer)
After spending 40 % in machinery, 25 % in the building, 15 % in raw material and 5 % on furniture, Haris had a
balance of Rs. 1305. The money with him was:________?
A. Rs. 6500
B. Rs. 7225
D. Rs. 1390
A man donated 5 % of his income to a charitable organization and deposited 20 % of the remainder in a bank.
If he now has Rs. 1919 left, what is his income?
Page 171
A. Rs. 2558. 60
C. Rs. 2500
D. Rs. 2300
Raees credits 15 % of his salary in this fixed deposit account and spends 30 % of the remaining amount on
groceries if the cash in hand is Rs. 2380, what is his salary?
A. Rs. 3500
C. Rs. 4500
D. Rs. 5000
The income of a broker remains uncharged though the rate of commission is increased from 4 % to 5 % the
percentage of a slump in business is_______?
A. 8 %
B. 1 %
C. 20 % (Answer)
D. 80 %
The Price of an article is cut by 10%. To restore it to the former value, the new price must be increased
by_______?
A. 10 %
B. 9 1/11 %
C. 11 1/9 % (Answer)
D. 11%
What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have squares that end in the digit 1?
A. 1
B. 14
C. 20 (Answer)
D. 21
The number which exceeds 16% of it by 42 is________?
Page 172
A. 50 (Answer)
B. 52
C. 58
D. 60
The temperature at noon in LHR ,Pakistan was 6 deg on Monday ,4deg on Tuesday,2deg below zero on
Wednesday,3deg below zero on Thursday, 0 deg on Friday ,3 deg on Saturday ,and 6 deg on Sunday. What was
the average temperature at noon for the week ?
A. 14 deg
B. -2 deg
C. 2 deg (Answer)
D. 7 deg
In a class of 120 students , 45 students received a grade of B.What percent of the class received a grade of B ?
A. 75 %
B. 25.6 %
C. 37.5% (Answer)
D. 18.5%
A company has 7348 bars of soap. If the company sells 20% of its bars of soap .how many bars of soap did it
sell?
A. 734.8
B. 1469.6 (Answer)
C. 146950
D. 29390
If eggs cost $.06 each ,how much should a dozen eggs cost ?
A. .56
B. $ .80
C. $ .72 (Answer)
D. $.60
Page 173
If 20 teachers out of a faculty of 80 are transferred, what percentage of the original faculty remains ?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 60
D. 75 (Answer)
The average of two numbers is XY.If one number is equal to X ,the other number is equal to_________?
A. X
B. 2Y
C. XY-X
D. 2 XY -2 X (Answer)
If 35% of a number is 12 less than 50% of that number, then the number is_________?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80 (Answer)
The difference between a number and its two-fifth is 510. What is 10% of that number?
A. 12.75
B. 85 (Answer)
C. 204
D. None of these
Two-fifth of one-third of three-seventh of a number is 15. What is 40% of that number?
A. 72
B. 84
C. 136
D. 140
If 20% of a number, then 120% of that number will be_________?
Page 174
A. 20
B. 120
C. 360
D. 720 (Answer)
45% of 750 – 25% of 480 =__________?
A. 216
B. 217.50 (Answer)
C. 236.50
D. 245
3.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as?
A. 0.35%
B. 3.5%
C. 35%
D. 350% (Answer)
The ratio of the prices of three articles X, Y and Z is 8 : 5 : 3. If the prices of X , Y and Z are increased by 25%,
20% and 33 1/3% respectively, then what would be the ratio of the new prices of X, Y and Z?
A. 5 : 3 : 1
B. 5 : 3 : 2 (Answer)
C. 10 : 7 : 4
D. 10 : 8 : 5
E. None of these
Two tests had the same maximum mark. The pass percentages in the first and the second test were 40% and
45% respectively. A candidate scored 216 marks in the second test and failed by 36 marks in that test. Find the
pass mark in the first test?
A. 136
B. 128
C. 164
D. 214
Page 175
In an election between two candidates A and B, the number of valid votes received by A exceeds those
received by B by 15% of the total number of votes polled. If 20% of the votes polled were invalid and a total of
8720 votes were polled, then how many valid votes did B get?
A. 2160
B. 2420
C. 2834 (Answer)
D. 3150
E. None of these
In an office, totally there are 6400 employees and 65% of the total employees are males. 25% of the males in
the office are at-least 50 years old. Find the number of males aged below 50 years?
A. 1040
B. 2080
C. 3120 (Answer)
D. 4160
E. None of these
The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 2. B’s monthly income is 12% more than C’s monthly
income. If C’s monthly income is Rs. 15000, then find the annual income of A?
A. Rs. 420000
B. Rs. 180000
C. Rs. 201600
E. None of these
There are three numbers. 5/7th of the first number is equal to 48% of the second number. The second number
is 1/9th of the third number. If the third number is 1125, then find 25% of the first number?
A. 168
B. 84
C. 42
D. 21 (Answer)
Page 176
E. None of these
There are two numbers. If 40% of the first number is added to the second number, then the second number
increases to its five-fourth. Find the ratio of the first number to the second number?
A. 8 : 25
B. 25 : 8
C. 8 : 5
D. 5 : 8 (Answer)
E. None of these
Anees spends 40% of his income on rent, 30% of the remaining on medicines and 20% of the remaining on
education. If he saves Rs. 840 every month, then find his monthly salary?
A. Rs. 1800
B. Rs. 2000
C. Rs. 2200
E. None of these
In a group of 80 children and 10 youngsters, each child got sweets that are 15% of the total number of
children and each youngster got sweets that are 25% of the total number of children. How many sweets were
there?
A. 1160 (Answer)
B. 1100
C. 1080
D. 1210
E. None of these
There is a 30% increase in the price of an article in the first year, a 20% decrease in the second year and a 10%
increase in the next year. If the final price of the article is Rs. 2288, then what was the price of the article
initially?
A. Rs. 1500
B. Rs. 1800
Page 177
D. Rs. 2400
E. None of these
In an election only two candidates contested. A candidate secured 70% of the valid votes and won by a
majority of 172 votes. Find the total number of valid votes?
A. 430 (Answer)
B. 570
C. 480
D. 520
E. None of these
In a class of 140 students, 60% of them passed. By what percent is the number of students who passed more
than the number of failed students?
A. 80%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 50% (Answer)
E. None of these
40% of Raees marks is equal to 20% of Rahim’s marks which percent is equal to 30% of Rehman’s marks. If
Rehman’s marks is 80, then find the average marks of Raees and Rahim?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90 (Answer)
E. None of these
Moons salary was first increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. If his present salary is Rs. 7200, then
what was his original salary?
A. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 7400
D. Rs. 7200
Page 178
E. None of these
If 25% of x is 15 less than 15% of 1500, then x is?
A. 720
B. 750
C. 820
D. 840 (Answer)
E. None of these
Amir saves 32% of his monthly salary. If he spends Rs. 27200, then find his savings?
A. 15400
B. 14300
C. 13200
D. 12800 (Answer)
If two positive numbers are in the ratio 1/8 : 1/5, then by what percent is the second number more than the
first?
A. 40%
B. 33 1/3%
C. 60% (Answer)
D. 66 2/3%
E. None of these
If the price of an article went up by 20%, then by what percent should it be brought down to bring it back to its
original price?
A. 16 2/3% (Answer)
B. 20%
C. 22 1/3%
D. 15%
E. None of these
If P gets 25% more than Q, then by what percent does Q get less than P?
Page 179
A. 33 1/3%
B. 30%
C. 20% (Answer)
D. 16 2/3%
E. None of these
If 30% of a number exceeds 20% of it by 18, then find the number?
A. 120
B. 200
C. 180 (Answer)
D. 150
E. None of these
When the numerator of a fraction is decreased by 25% and its denominator is decreased by 20%, the new
fraction obtained is 3/4. Find the original fraction?
A. 5/4
B. 4/7
C. 5/6
D. 6/7
Bilal spends 45% of his monthly income on household items, 25% of his monthly income on buying cloths,
7.5% of his monthly income on medicines and saves the remaining amount which is Rs. 9000. Find his monthly
income.

B. Rs. 36000
C. Rs. 50000
D. Rs. 45000
E. None of these
If 15% of 30% of 50% of a number is 90, then what is the number?
A. 4000 (Answer)
B. 3050
Page 180
C. 4400
D. 4500
E. None of these
If A got 80 marks and B got 60 marks, then what percent of A’s mark is B’s mark?
A. 60%
B. 80%
C. 65%
D. 75% (Answer)
E. None of these
3/20 is what percent of 12/25?
A. 42.75%
B. 31.25% (Answer)
C. 35.5%
D. 40.5%
E. None of these
80 is what percent of 64?
A. 85%
B. 120%
C. 75%
D. 125% (Answer)
E. None of these
64 is what percent of 80?
A. 80%
B. 70%
C. 60%
D. 64% (Answer)
What percent of 125 is 16?
Page 181
A. 10 2/5%
B. 12 3/5%
C. 11 1/5%
Find the 37.5% of 976 =_______?
A. 324
B. 388
C. 366 (Answer)
D. 372
E. None of these
When 5% is lost in grinding wheat, a country has to import 20 million bags; but when only 2% is lost, it has to
import only 15 million bags. Find the quantity of wheat, which grows in the country?
A. 133 1/3 m
B. 150 m
C. 106 2/3 m
D. 166 2/3 m (Answer)
A person was asked to subtract 25% of a number from the original but he subtracted 25 from the number. His
answer was 25 more than correct one. What was the original number?
A. 160
B. 180
C. 225
D. 200 (Answer)
In a school of 850 boys, 44% of Muslims, 28% Hindus, 10% Sikhs and the remaining of other communities. How
many belonged to the other communities?
A. 173
B. 163
C. 153 (Answer)
D. 143
Page 182
A person spends 1/5th of his income on the education of his children, and 20% of the remaining on food. If he
is left with Rs.576 find his income?
A. Rs.900 (Answer)
B. Rs.800
C. Rs.500
D. Rs.1000
In an examination, 47% failed in English and 54% failed in Mathematics. Find the pass percentage in both the
subjects if 31% failed in both the subjects?
A. 70%
B. 37%
C. 53%
D. 30% (Answer)
The salary of a worker is first increased by 30% and afterwards reduced by 30%. What is net change in his
salary?
A. 90% increase
B. 45% increase
C. 9% decrease (Answer)
D. Same as before
The population of a town is 45000; 5/9th of them are males and the rest females 40% of the males are
married. What is the percentage of married females?
A. 60%
B. 50% (Answer)
C. 45%
D. 40%
In an examination 40% failed in Urdu, 45% failed in English. If 25% students failed in both the subjects. Then
the percentage of failed students is________?
A. 15%
B. 65%
Page 183
C. 60% (Answer)
D. 70%
After 38 liters of petrol were poured into the tank, it was still 5% empty. How much petrol must be poured
into the tank in order to fill it?
A. 38 liters
B. 40 liters
C. 38.5 liters
D. 2 liters (Answer)
A candidate who gets 30% of the marks fails by 50 marks. But another candidate who gets 45% marks gets 25
marks more than necessary for passing. Find the number of marks for passing?
A. 150
B. 200 (Answer)
C. 250
D. 275
A man saves 20% of his monthly salary. If an account of dearness of things he is to increase his monthly
expenses by 20%, he is only able to save Rs. 200 per month. What is his monthly salary?
A. Rs.5000 (Answer)
B. Rs.25000
C. Rs.7500
D. Rs.8500
Two numbers are 30% and 37% are less than a third number .How much percent is the second number less
than the first?
A. 15%
B. 12%
C. 10% (Answer)
D. 5%
The price of an article has been reduced by 25%. In order to restore the original price the new price must be
increased by________?
Page 184
A. 33 1/3 % (Answer)
B. 9 1/11 %
C. 11 1/9 %
D. 66 2/3 %
E. None
If cost of sugar increases by 25%. How much percent consumption of sugar should be decreased in order to
keep expenditure fixed?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20% (Answer)
D. 25%
E. None
Nawaz Sahrif spends 10% of his income in house rent, 20% of the rest on his children’s education, 25% of the
rest miscellaneous causes. If he now posses Rs. 1944 then his income is_______?
A. Rs.3600 (Answer)
B. Rs.4000
C. Rs.4500
D. Rs.3000
Masood’s salary is reduced by 10% and then reduced salary is increased by 10%. Find ,how many percentage
his present salary is less as compared to his previous salary?
A. Nothing
B. 10%
C. 1% (Answer)
D. 5%
There were two candidates in an election. Winner candidate received 62% of votes and won the election by
288 votes. Find the number of votes casted to the winning candidate?
A. 456
B. 744 (Answer)
Page 185
C. 912
D. 1200
If population of certain city increases at the rate of 5%. If population in 1981 was 138915, then population in
1978 was__________?
A. 1,20,000 (Answer)
B. 1,10,000
C. 1,00,000
D. 90,000
At an examination in which full marks were 500. A got 10% less than B, B got 25% more than C and C got 20%
less than D. If A got 360 marks, what percentage of full marks was obtained by D?
A. 70%
B. 90%
C. 80% (Answer)
D. 75%
The tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% but its consumption is increased by 10%. Find the decrease
percent in the revenue derived from it?
A. 20%
B. 18%
C. 15%
D. 12% (Answer)
The amount of water (in ml) that should be added to reduce 9 ml. Lotion, containing 50% alcohol, to a lotion
containing 30% alcohol, is__________?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6 (Answer)
A mixture of 70 liters of wine and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make water
12 ½% of the total mixture?
Page 186
A. 12 liters
B. 10 liters
C. 4 liters
D. 2 liters (Answer)
In a factory, there are 40% technicians and 60% non-technicians. If the 60% of the technicians and 40% of non-
technicians are permanent employees, then the percentage of workers who are temporary is________?
A. 32%
B. 42%
C. 52% (Answer)
D. 62%
5% people of a village in Sri Lanka died by bombardment, 15% of the remainder left the village on account of
fear. If now the population is reduced to 3553, how much was it in the beginning?
A. 3800
B. 4200
C. 4400 (Answer)
D. 5500
A salesman’s terms were changed from a flat commission of 5% on all his sales to a fixed salary of Rs.1000 plus
2.5% commission on all sales exceeding Rs. 4,000. If his remuneration as per new scheme was Rs. 600 more
than that by the previous schema, his sales were worth?
A. Rs. 14,000
B. Rs. 12,000 (Answer)
C. Rs. 30,000
D. Rs. 40,000
A and B’s salaries together amount to Rs. 2,000. A spends 95% of his salary and B spends 85% of his. If now
their savings are the same, what is A’s salary?
A. Rs.500
B. Rs.750
C. Rs.1250
Page 187
D. Rs.1500 (Answer)
An engineering student has to secure 36% marks to pass. He gets 130 marks and fails by 14 marks. The
maximum No. of marks obtained by him is_________?
A. 300
B. 400 (Answer)
C. 350
D. 500
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its denominator is diminished by 25% value of the
fraction is 2/15. Find the original fraction.
A. 1/12 (Answer)
B. 1/8
C. 1/6
D. 1/4
Subtracting 10% from X is the same as multiplying X by what number?
A. 80%
B. 90% (Answer)
C. 10%
D. 50%
If the price of gold increases by 50%, find by how much the quantity of ornaments must be reduced, so that
the expenditure may remain the same as before?
A. 27 2/23 %
B. 33 1/3 % (Answer)
C. 30%
D. 19%
A candidate got 35% of the votes polled and he lost to his rival by 2250 votes. How many votes were cast?
A. 7500 (Answer)
B. 5000
Page 188
C. 6000
D. 3500
The tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% and its consumption increased by 15%. The effect on revenue
is_________?
A. It increases by 8%
B. It decreases by 8% (Answer)
C. No change in revenue
D. It increases by 10%
E. None
The salary of a typist was at first raised by 10% and then the same was reduced by 5%. If he presently draws
Rs.1045.What was his original salary?
A. 900
B. 950
C. 1000 (Answer)
D. 975
A sells his goods 50% cheaper than B but 50% dearer than C. The cheapest is_________?
A. A
B. B
C. C (Answer)
D. All Alike
Two numbers are respectively 20% and 25% more than a third number. The percentage that is first of the
second is_________?
A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 96% (Answer)
D. 125%
In an examination 38% of students fail in English and 61% pass in Urdu and 23% fail in both. Find the actual
failure percentage?
Page 189
A. 46%
B. 61%
C. 54% (Answer)
D. 70%
The salary of Mr. X is 30% more than that of Mr. Y . Find what percent of Mr. Y’s salary is less than Mr. X’s?
A. 30%
B. 25 1/13 %
C. 23 1/13 % (Answer)
D. 22 1/13 %
If y exceeds x by 25%, then x is less than y by__________?
A. 16%
B. 16 1/3 %
C. 20% (Answer)
D. 16 3/5 %
If the price has fallen by 10% what percent of its consumption be: increased so that the expenditure may be
the same as before?
A. 11%
B. 10%
C. 11 1/9 % (Answer)
D. 9 1/11 %
96% of the population of a village is 23040. The total population of the village is________?
A. 32256
B. 24000 (Answer)
C. 24936
D. 25640
40 is subtracted from 60% of a number, the result is 50. Find the number?
Page 190
A. 150 (Answer)
B. 140
C. 130
D. 110
85% of a number is added to 24, the result is the same number. Find the number?
A. 150
B. 140
C. 130
D. 160 (Answer)
60% of a number is added to 120, the result is the same number. Find the number?
A. 300 (Answer)
B. 200
C. 400
D. 500
25% of 30% of 45% is equal to__________?
A. 0.03375 (Answer)
B. 0.3375
C. 3.375
D. 33.75
40% of a number is more than 20% of 650 by 190. Find the number?
A. 600
B. 700
C. 800 (Answer)
D. 900
How much is 80% of 40 is greater than 4/5 of 25?
A. 4
B. 6
Page 191
C. 9
D. 12 (Answer)
How much 60% of 50 is greater than 40% of 30?
A. 18 (Answer)
B. 13
C. 15
D. 20
After decreasing 24% in the price of an article costs Rs.912. Find the actual cost of an article?
A. 1400
B. 1300
C. 1200 (Answer)
D. 1100
If y exceeds x by 20%, then x is less than y by_______?
A. 16%
B. 16 1/3 %
C. 16 2/3 % (Answer)
D. 16 3/5 %
Page 192
Physics MCQS With Solved Answers
The SI unit of Heat is----?
A. Watt
B. Volt
C. Joule (Answer)
D. Newton
The branch of science which deals with the properties of matter and energy is called-----?
A. Biology
B. Geography
C. Physics (Answer)
D. Chemistry
Physics is one of the branches of------?

A. Physical sciences (Answer)
B. Biological sciences
C. Social science
D. Life sciences branch
Which branch of science plays an important role in engineering?

A. Biology
B. Chemistry
C. Physics (Answer)
D. All of these
The most fundamental of all sciences which provides basic principles and fundamental laws to other branches
of science is-----?
A. biology
B. physics (Answer)
C. information technology
D. chemistry
The Branch of Physics deals with highly energetic ions is called-----?

A. Elementary articles
B. Article physics
Page 193
C. Ionic physics
D. Plasma physics (Answer)
The-----branch of Physics deals with nuclear particles such as neutrons, protons and nuclear?
A. Solid State Physics
B. Plasma Physics
C. structure is called
D. Nuclear Physics (Answer)
E. Particle Physics
The branch of Physics which deals with properties of gravitational?

A. Field theory (Answer)
B. Acoustics
C. Hydro dynamic
D. Optics
The branch of physics which deals with the living things is called-----?
A. biological sciences (Answer)
B. physical sciences
C. cell systems
D. elementary physics
The physics of moving charge particles is known as-----?

A. Plasma physics
B. Electro-static’s
C. Electro-magnetic
D. Electro-dynamics (Answer)
Study of living science relates with----?

A. Physical science
B. Biological science (Answer)
C. Just living science
D. Organ science
The first book of Physics was written by-----?

A. Kelvin
B. Newton
Page 194
C. Aristotle (Answer)
D. Faraday
Which one of the following is mass?

A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Neutron
D. Photon (Answer)
Name the branch of science which deals with the study of sound and sound waves?
A. Aeronautics
B. Acoustics (Answer)
C. Aerostatics
D. Aetiology
The formula of inter-conversion of centigrade and Fahrenheit scale is------?

A. c-32/9
B. f -32/9 =c/5 (Answer)
C. f-32/9=c/9
D. none
The co efficient of linear expansion is equal to-----?

A. ΔL = αLΔT (Answer)
B. ΔL/LΔT
C. LΔT/ΔL
D. αLΔT-ΔL
The unit of coefficient of linear expansion or volume expansion is-----?

A. K
B. K-1 (Answer)
C. K -2
D. none
linear expansion occurs in-----?

A. solid (Answer)
B. liquid
C. both
Page 195
D. none
When body is in motion, ------ always changes?

A. its velocity
B. its acceleration
C. its position vector (Answer)
D. its momentum
A man is in a car is moving with velocity of 36km/hr. His speed with repect to the car is ----------?
A. 10m/s
B. 36m/s
C. zero (Answer)
D. infinite
Area under velocity time graph represent-----------?

A. force
B. displacement
C. distance (Answer)
D. acceleration
Instantaneous and average velocities become equal when body----------?

A. has zero acceleration (Answer)
B. has uniform acceleration
C. has variable acceleration
D. moves in a circle
Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its---------?

A. volume
B. density
C. mass (Answer)
D. temperature
1st law of motion gives the definition of -------------?

A. rest
B. motion
C. velocity
Page 196
D. force (Answer)
3rd law of motion explains-----------?

A. effect of force
B. existence of a force
C. existence of two forces
D. existence of pair of forces in nature (Answer)
The dimension of force is----------?

A. MLT-2 (Answer)
B. ML2T-2
C. ML2T2
D. ML-2T-2
Which of the following pair has same direction always ?

A. force, displacement
B. force, velocity
C. force, acceleration (Answer)
D. force, momentum
The collision between two bodies be elastic if bodies are---------?

A. solid and soft
B. soft and elastic
C. solid and hard (Answer)
D. hard and elastic
When car takes turn around a curve road, the passengers feel a force acting on them in a direction away from
the center of the curve. It is due to---------?
A. Centripetal force
B. Gravitational force
C. Their inertia
D. Centrifugal force (Answer)
What is the shape of velocity, time graph for constant acceleration ?

A. straight inclined line?
B. parabola
C. inclined curve
Page 197
D. declined curve
Which shows the correct relation between time of flight T and maximum height H ?
A. H=gT2/8 (Answer)
B. H=8T2/g
C. H=8g/T2
D. H=gT2
Taking off rocket can be explained by ---------?

A. 1st law of motion
B. 2nd law of motion
C. Law of conservation of momentum (Answer)
D. law of conservation of energy
What is the angle of projection for which the range and maximum height become equal ?
A. tan-1 ¼
B. tan-1 4 (Answer)
C. tan-1 ½
D. tan-1 2
Distance covered by a freely falling body in 2 seconds will be---------?

A. 4.9 m
B. 19.6 m (Answer)
C. 39.2 m
D. 44.1 m
Flight of a rocket in the space is an example of-----------?

A. second law of motion
B. third law of motion (Answer)
C. first law of motion
D. law of gravitation
At which angle the range of the projectile is maximum----------?

A. 45 (Answer)
B. 60
C. 30
Page 198
D. none
Time rate of change of momentum is equal to----------?

A. force (Answer)
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. both A and C
Why Ballistic missile fails in some circumstances of precision ?

A. due to their shape
B. due to air resistance (Answer)
C. due to angle of projection
D. all of these
A body is moving with uniform velocity. Its-----------?

A. speed changes
B. acceleration changes
C. direction of motion changes
D. displacement from origin changes (Answer)
When velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then---------?
A. acceleration is const
B. acceleration is variable
C. acceleration is zero (Answer)
D. velocity is zero
Slope of velocity time graph is-----------?

A. acceleration (Answer)
B. distance
C. force
D. momentum
Which law of motion is also called law of inertia ?

A. 1st law (Answer)
B. 2nd law
C. 3rd law
D. all 1st, 2nd and 3rd laws
Page 199
Newtons laws do not hold good for particles--------?
A. at rest
B. moving slowly
C. move with high velocity
D. move with velocity comparable to velocity of light (Answer)
2nd law of motion gives the definition of--------?

A. force
B. acceleration (Answer)
C. velocity
D. both force and acceleration
Momentum depends upon---------?

A. force acts on the body
B. mass of the body
C. velocity of the body
D. both mass and velocity of the body (Answer)
When a body moves in a straight line then its displacement coincides with---------?
A. distance (Answer)
B. force
C. acceleration is zero
D. both A and B
Motorcycle safety helmet extends the time of collision hence decreasing the--------?
A. chance of collision
B. force acting
C. velocity
D. impulse (Answer)
During long jump, athlete runs before taking the jump. By doing so he---------?
A. provide him a larger inertia
B. decreases his inertia
C. decreases his momentum
D. increases his momentum (Answer)
Page 200
A body is falling freely under gravity. How much distance it falls during an interval of time between 1st and
2nd seconds of its motion, taking g=10 ?
A. 14 m (Answer)
B. 20 m
C. 5 m
D. 25 m
When collision between the bodies in a system is inelastic in nature then for system ----------?
A. momentum changes but K.E remain conserve
B. K.E changes but momentum remain conserve (Answer)
C. both momentum and K.E changes
D. both momentum and K.E remain conserve
The acceleration in the rocket at any instant is proportional to the nth power of the velocity of the expelled
gases. Where the value of n must be ?
A. -1
B. 1 (Answer)
C. 2
D. -2
Which of the following is not an example of projectile motion ?

A. a gas filled ballon (Answer)
B. bullet fired from gun
C. a football kicked
D. a base ball shot
The thrust on the rocket in the absence of gravitational force of attraction is---------?
A. Constant (Answer)
B. not constant
C. constant if the rate of ejected gases is constant
D. constant for short range rocket.
When two bodies move toward each other with constant speeds the distance between them decreases at the
rate of 6m / sec. If they move in the same direction the distance between them increases at the rate of
4m/sec. Then their speeds are--------?
A. 5m/s, 1m/s (Answer)
B. 3m/s, 3m/s
Page 201
C. 6m/s, 1m/s
D. 4m/s, 2m/s
The distance covered by a body in time t starting from rest is---------?

A. at2/2 (Answer)
B. Vt
C. a2t/2
D. at2
The trajectory (or path) of a projectile is---------?

A. straight line
B. parabola (Answer)
C. hyperbola
D. circle
The force beared by a wall on which water strikes normally at a speed of 10m/sec and at a discharge of
0.0001m3/sec is---------?
A. 1 N (Answer)
B. 10 N
C. 100 N
D. none
The range of the projectile at 30 deg and 60 deg are---------?

A. equal to 45 deg
B. equal to 90 deg
C. equal to each other (Answer)
D. none of the above
Waves transmit -------- from one place to another?

A. energy (Answer)
B. mass
C. both
D. none
The distance between any two consecutive crests or troughs is called----------?

A. frequency
B. period
Page 202
C. Wave length (Answer)
D. phase difference
In vibrating cord the points where the amplitude is maximum, are called ----------?
A. antinodes (Answer)
B. nodes
C. troughs
D. crests
A stationary wave is set up in the air column of a closed pipe. At the closes end of the pipe -----------?
A. always an node in formed (Answer)
B. always an antinode is formed
C. neither node nor antinode is formed
D. sometimes a node and sometimes an antinode is formed
According to Newton sound travel in air under the conditions of-----------?

A. adiabatic
B. isothermal
C. isobaric (Answer)
D. isochoric
Velocity of sound in vacuum is ----------?

A. 332 ms-1
B. 320 ms-1
C. Zero (Answer)
D. 224 ms-1
The velocity of sound is greatest in----------?

A. Water
B. air
C. copper (Answer)
D. ammonia
The velocity of sound in air would become double than its velocity at 0°C at temperature ?
A. 313°C
B. 586°C
C. 819°C (Answer)
Page 203
D. 1172°C
Ultrasonic have---------?
A. frequency in the audible range
B. frequency is greater than 20 kHz (Answer)
C. frequency lower than 20 Hz
D. all of above
The number of beats produced per second is equal to----------?

A. the sum of the frequencies of two tuning forks
B. the difference of the frequencies of two tuning forks (Answer)
C. the ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks
D. the frequency of either of the two tuning forks
Silence zone takes place due to----------?

A. constructive interference
B. destructive interference (Answer)
C. beats
D. resonance
When the source of sound moves away form a stationary listener then ------- occurs?
A. an apparent increase in frequency
B. an apparent decrease in frequency (Answer)
C. an apparent decrease in wavelength
D. no apparent change in frequency
Which one is the correct relation for fundamental frequency of open and closed pipe ?
A. fopen = 2 fclosed (Answer)
B. fclosed = 2fopen
C. fopen = fclosed
D. fopen = 1 / f closed
Newton estimated the speed of sound -----------?

A. 281m/sec (Answer)
B. 333m/sec
C. 340m/sec
D. all of the above
Page 204
The speed of sound in hydrogen is ------- time than that in oxygen?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four time (Answer)
D. Six time
The speed of stationary waves in a stretched string are independent of----------?

A. Number of loops
B. Tension in the string
C. Point where string is plucked
D. both A and C (Answer)
Which phenomena can be applied to estimate the velocity of star with respect to earth ----------?
A. Dopplers effect (Answer)
B. Interference of waves
C. Beats phenomena
D. All of these
The waves that require a material medium for their propagation are called---------?
A. matter waves
B. electromagnetic waves
C. carrier waves
D. mechanical waves (Answer)
When two identical traveling waves are superimposed, the velocity of the resultant wave---------?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unchanged (Answer)
D. becomes zero
If stretching force T of wire increases, then its frequency ---------?

A. decreases
B. increases (Answer)
C. remains the same
D. any of above
Page 205
It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves form the property of ---------?
A. refraction
B. polarization (Answer)
C. interference
D. diffraction
Sound waves do not travel in vacuum because ----------?

A. they are transverse waves
B. they are stationary waves
C. they require material medium for propagation (Answer)
D. they do not have enough energy
Increase in velocity of sound in the air for 1°C rise in temperature is---------?
A. 1.61 ms-1
B. 61.0 ms-1
C. 0.61 ms-1 (Answer)
D. 2.00 ms-1
On loading the prong of a tuning form with wax its frequency----------?

A. increases
B. decreases (Answer)
C. remains unchanged
D. may increase or decrease
The normal ear is the most sensitive in the frequency range----------?

A. 20000 to 30000 hertz
B. 10 to 20 hertz
C. 2000 to 4000 hertz (Answer)
D. 6000 to 8000 hertz
The velocity of sound in air would become double than its velocity at 0°C at temperature--------?
A. 313°C
B. 586°C
C. 819°C (Answer)
D. 1172°C
The periodic alternation of sound between maximum and minimum loudness are called----------?
Page 206
A. silence zone
B. interference
C. beats (Answer)
D. resonance
Beats are the results of----------?

A. diffraction of sound waves
B. constructive and destructive interference (Answer)
C. polarization
D. destructive interference
Doppler effect applies to----------?

A. sound wave only
B. light wave only
C. both sound and light waves (Answer)
D. neither sound nor light wave
A simple pendulum has a bob of mass m and its frequency is f. If we replaced the bob with a heavier one say of
2m then that will be its new frequency ?
A. 1/4f
B. 1/2f
C. frequency lower than 20 Hz (Answer)
D. 2f
In open organ pipe----------?

A. only even harmonics are present
B. only odd harmonics are present
C. both even and odd harmonics are present (Answer)
D. selected harmonics are present
The dimension of elastic modulus is ---------- ?

A. ML-1T-2 (Answer)
B. ML-2T-2
C. MLT-2
D. ML2T-2
Page 207
Waves produced at the surface of water by a pencil executing vibrating motion if held vertically at a frequency
of 50Hz are---------?
A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Periodic
D. both A and C (Answer)
Laplace found that the alternate compressions and rarefactions produced in sound waves follows --------?
A. isothermal law
B. adiabatic law (Answer)
C. isochoric law
D. all of the above
The beats frequency (sensible) for a human car is -----------?

A. 42Hz
B. 7 Hz (Answer)
C. 256Hz
D. 262Hz
Fundamental frequency of stationary waves in open pipe is ------- times the frequency in closed pipe?
A. One
B. Two (Answer)
C. Four time
D. None of these
The current through a metallic conductor is due to the motion of ---------?

A. free electrons (Answer)
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. still under controversy
A wire having very high value of conductance is said to be----------?

A. very good conductor (Answer)
B. moderately good conductor
C. an insulator
D. no specific criterion available
Page 208
Production of heat due to an electric current flowing through a conductor is given by ---------?
A. Joule effect (Answer)
B. Joule Thomsons effect
C. Comptons effect
D. Feed back effect
Three equal resistors connected in series with a source of e m f together dissipate 10 W of power each. What
will be the power dissipated if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of e m f ?
A. 40 W
B. 90W (Answer)
C. 100W
D. 120W
Thermocouples convert----------?
A. heat energy into electrical energy (Answer)
B. heat energy into light energy
C. heat energy into mechanical energy
D. mechanical energy into heat energy
An immersion heater of 400 watts kept on for 5 hours will consume electrical power of ---------?
A. 2KWh (Answer)
B. 20KWh
C. 6KWh
D. 12KWh
Resistance of an ideal insulator is ---------?

A. infinite (Answer)
B. zero
C. finite
D. depends upon nature
Reciprocal of resistivity is called---------?

A. resistance
B. inductance
C. conductivity (Answer)
D. flexibility
Page 209
Circuit which gives continuously varying potential is called ------------?
A. complex network
B. wheat stone bridge
C. potential divider (Answer)
D. all of above
There are three bulbs of 60W 100W and 200W which bulb has thickest filament ?
A. 100W
B. 200W (Answer)
C. 60W
D. all
Specific resistance of a wire----------?

A. will depend on its length
B. will depend on its radius
C. will depend on the type of material of the wire (Answer)
D. will depend on none of the above
In the following figure, the terminal potential is ---------- ?

A. zero (Answer)
B. 2V
C. 12V
D. 36V
Which one of the following materials is useful for making bulb filaments ?
A. constantan
B. nichrome
C. copper
D. tungsten (Answer)
If 1 ampere current flows through 2m long conductor the charge flow through it in 1 hour will be--------?
A. 3600C (Answer)
B. 7200C
C. 1C
D. 2C
Why should a resistance be introduced in a circuit in series deliberately ?
Page 210
A. to increase current
B. to decrease current (Answer)
C. to control current
D. just to give a good look to circuit
All electrical appliances are connected in parallel to each other between the main line and neutral wire to get -
----------?
A. same current
B. same current and potential difference
C. different current but same potential difference (Answer)
D. different current and potential differences
Resistance of a conductor depends upon---------?

A. nature of conductor
B. dimension of conductor
C. physical state of the conductor
D. all of above (Answer)
A wire of uniform area of cross-section A length L and resistance R is cut into two parts. Resistivity of each part
---------?
A. remains the same (Answer)
B. is doubled
C. is halved
D. becomes zero
When same current passes for same time through a thick and thin wire---------?
A. more heat is produced in thick wire
B. more heat is produced in thin wire (Answer)
C. no heat is produced in wire
D. less heat is produced in thick wire
One kilowatt hour is the amount of energy delivered during --------?

A. one second
B. one day
C. one minute
D. one hour (Answer)
Page 211
How much heat does a 40 W bulb generates in one hour ?
A. 144000J (Answer)
B. 144J
C. 1.44J
D. 14J
Resistance of a super conductor is -----------?

A. finite
B. infinite
C. zero (Answer)
D. changes with every conductor
Which one is the best material for making connecting wires ?

A. iron
B. tungsten
C. silver
D. copper (Answer)
Internal resistance is the resistance offered by--------?

A. source of EMF (Answer)
B. conductor
C. resistor
D. capacitor
Three bulbs are rating 40W 60W and 100W designed to work on 220V mains. Which bulb will burn most
brightly if they are connected in series across 220 V mains ?
A. 40 W bulb (Answer)
B. 60 W blub
C. 100 W blub
D. all will burn equally brightly
Resistance of a wire on increasing its temperature will---------?

A. increase with rise in temperature (Answer)
B. decrease with rise in temperature
C. will remain same
D. depends upon altitude of experimentation
Page 212
An electric iron is marked 20 volts 500W. The units consumed by it in using if for 24 hours will be-------?
A. 12 (Answer)
B. 24
C. 5
D. 1100
In liquids and gases the current is due to the motion--------?

A. negative charges
B. positive charges
C. both negative and positive charges (Answer)
D. neutral particles
The graphical representation of Ohms law is----------?

A. hyperbola
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. straight line (Answer)
The resistance of a conductor at absolute zero (OK) is--------?

A. zero almost (Answer)
B. infinite almost
C. no prediction at all
D. may increase or decrease
Electrical energy is measured in----------?

A. watt
B. horse power
C. kilo watt
D. kilowatt hour (Answer)
Electrical energy is converted to heat at the rate of----------?

A. IRt
B. I2R (Answer)
C. I2Rt
D. VIt
A fuse is placed in series with the circuit to protect against---------?
Page 213
A. high power
B. high voltage
C. high current
D. over heating (Answer)
Which one of the following bulbs has the least resistance ?

A. 100 watt
B. 200 watt
C. 300 watt (Answer)
D. 60 watt
Optical active crystals rotates the ---------?

A. vibrating plane
B. polarization plane (Answer)
C. diffraction plane
D. interference plane
In double slit experiment we observe -----------?

A. interference fringes only
B. diffraction fringes only
C. both interference and diffraction fringes (Answer)
D. polirized frringes
Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of the medium ?
A. velocity
B. wavelength
C. amplitude
D. frequency (Answer)
Photoelectric effect was given by ----------?

A. Hertz
B. Fresnel
C. Einstein (Answer)
D. Plank
Longitudinal waves do not exhibit -----------?

A. reflection
Page 214
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. polarization (Answer)
A point source of light placed in a homogeneous medium gives rise to ----------?

A. a cylindrical wave front
B. an elliptical wave front
C. a spherical wave front (Answer)
D. a plane wave front
Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic light ?

A. light form fluorescent tube
B. light form neon lamp
C. light form sodium lamp (Answer)
D. light form simple lamp
When crest of one wave falls over the trough of the other wave this phenomenon is known as--------?
A. polarization
B. constructive interference
C. destructive interference (Answer)
D. diffraction
In Young double slit experiment, if white light is used----------?

A. alternate dark and bright fringes will be seen
B. coloured fringes will be seen (Answer)
C. no interference fringes will be seen
D. impossible to predict
In an interference pattern-----------?
A. bright fringes are wider than dark fringes
B. dark fringes are wider than bright fringe
C. both dark and bright fringes are of equal width (Answer)
D. central fringes are brighter than the outer fringes
The blue colour of the sky is due to----------?

A. diffraction
B. reflection
Page 215
C. polarization
D. scattering (Answer)
When one mirror of a Michelson Interferometer is moved a distance of 0.5 mm we observe 2000 fringes.
What will be wavelength of light used ?
A. 5000 nm
B. 5000A (Answer)
C. 500m
D. 2000um
Wavelength of X-rays falling at glancing angle of 30? on a crystal with atmic spacing 2 x 10-10 for the fist order
diffraction is--------?
A. 4 x 10-10 m
B. 2 x 10-10 m (Answer)
C. 0.02×10-10m
D. 20×10-10m
In a plane polarized light ---------?

A. vibration in all direction
B. vibration in two mutually perpendicular directions
C. vibration take place in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light (Answer)
D. no vibration at all
Which one of the following cannot be polarized ?

A. radio waves
B. ultraviolot rays
C. X-rays
D. sound waves (Answer)
In monochromatic red light a blue book will probably appear to be---------?

A. black (Answer)
B. purple
C. green
D. no scientific reasoning available
In double slit experiment if one of the two slit is covered then--------?

A. no interference fringes are observed (Answer)
Page 216
B. no diffraction fringes are observed
C. no fringes observed
D. interference pattern not disturbed
In the shadow of a ball the central portion appears bright that happens due to---------?
A. Interference
B. Diffraction (Answer)
C. Polarization
D. Refraction
Crystals of a material can behave as---------?

A. Convex lens
B. Interferometer
C. Diffraction grating (Answer)
D. Concave
Which is not optically active ?

A. sugar
B. tartaric acid
C. water (Answer)
D. sodium chlorate
When light incident normally on thin film the path difference depends upon --------?
A. thickness of the film only
B. nature of the film only
C. angle of indidence only
D. all thickness nature and angle of incidence (Answer)
Light reaches the earth form sun in nearly----------?

A. 15 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 8 minutes 30 seconds (Answer)
According to Einstein light travels form one place to another in the form of --------?
A. waves
B. particles
Page 217
C. photons (Answer)
D. it was not his discovery
Central spot of Newtons rings ---------?

A. bright (Answer)
B. dark for large wavelength
C. dark
D. bright for large wavelength
The locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called----------?
A. crest
B. trough
C. wavelength
D. wave front (Answer)
Two sources of light are coherent if they emit rays of--------?

A. same wavelength
B. same amplitude of vibration
C. same wave length with constant phase difference (Answer)
D. same amplitude and wavelength
The velocity of light was determined accurately by--------?

A. Newton
B. Michelson (Answer)
C. Huygen
D. Young
appearance of colour in thin films is due to ----------?

A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. interference (Answer)
D. polarization
A light ray traveling form rarer to denser medium suffers a phase change of---------?
A. 60°
B. 90°
C. 180° (Answer)
Page 218
D. 45°
Diffraction effect is----------?

A. more for a round edge
B. less for a round edge
C. more for a sharp edge (Answer)
D. less for a sharp edge
A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. Its slit spacing or grating element will be equal to ----------?
A. 500 mm
B. 5 x 10-3 mm
C. 2 x 10-5 mm
D. 2 x 10-3 mm (Answer)
Light on passing through a Polaroid is ----------?

A. plane polarized (Answer)
B. un-polarized
C. circularly polarized
D. elliptically polarized
Diffraction fringes are----------?

A. equally spaced
B. distance between them increases
C. distance between then decreases (Answer)
D. they are adjacent with no space in between
A thing that emits its own light is----------?

A. luminous (Answer)
B. non-luminous
C. incandescent
D. bright
Gives the definition of metre in terms of wavelength of red cadmium light ----------?
A. Newton
B. Einstein
C. Michelson (Answer)
D. Galileo
Page 219
Which experiment shows that wavelength of light is smaller than that of sound----------?
A. Diffraction (Answer)
B. Polarization
C. Interference
D. Reflection
When a force is parallel to the direction of motion of the body, then work done on the body is-----------?
A. zero
B. minimum
C. infinity
D. maximum (Answer)
If a body a mass of 2 kg is raised vertically through 2m, then the work done will be ---------?
A. 38.2 J
B. 392.1 J
C. 39.2 J (Answer)
D. 3.92 J
The average power and instantaneous power become equal if work is done at ---------?
A. any rate
B. at variable rate
C. at uniform rate (Answer)
D. at high rate
Proton electron neutron and a particles have same momentum. Which of them have highest K.E ?
A. Proton
B. electron (Answer)
C. neutron
D. a-particle
Work done by variable force is determine by dividing----------?

A. force into small interval
B. displacement into small interval (Answer)
C. both force and displacement into small intervals
D. force into small and displacement into large intervals
Page 220
The escape velocity of a body in gravitational field of earth is independent of---------?
A. its mass
B. the angle at which it is thrown
C. both its mass and the angle at which it is thrown (Answer)
D. gravitational field of earth
The source of geothermal energy is----------?

A. decay of radioactive element in the earth
B. compression of material in the earth
C. residual lost of the earth
D. all as said in A – B and C (Answer)
Work done by the force of friction is----------?

A. always positive
B. always negative (Answer)
C. positive only for small frictional force
D. positive only for large frictional force
If velocity is doubled then---------?

A. momentum increases 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
B. momentum and K.E. remain same
C. momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases constant
D. momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 time (Answer)
Which of the following is not conservative force---------?

A. friction (Answer)
B. electric
C. gravitational
D. magnetic
The consumption of energy by a 60 watt bulb in 2 sec is---------?

A. 120 J (Answer)
B. 60 J
C. 30 J
D. 0.02 J
The escape velocity form the earth surface in km S-1 is----------?
Page 221
A. 4.2 km S-1
B. 7.5 km S-1
C. 9.5 km S-1
D. 1.1 km S-1 (Answer)
If moon radius is 1600 km and g on its surface is 1.6 ms-2 then the escape velocity on the moon is ----------?
A. 1600 ms-1
B. 50.6 ms-1 (Answer)
C. 71.6 ms-1
D. 2263ms-1
When arrow is released form its bow, its energy is transformed from -----------?
A. heat energy to K.E
B. elastic P.E to K.E (Answer)
C. elemical energy to elastic P.E
D. K.E to elastic P.E.
The work done by friction is---------?

A. positive
B. negative (Answer)
C. zero
D. none of these
The dimension of power is--------?

A. [ML2T-3] (Answer)
B. [ML2T-2]
C. [ML2T3]
D. none of these
The dot product of force and velocity is---------?

A. power (Answer)
B. work
C. impulse
D. torque
The source of tidal energy is----------?

A. sun
Page 222
B. earth
C. both A and B
D. moon (Answer)
On a clear day at noon the solar energy reaching the earth is ----------?
A. 1.44kw/m2
B. 1.4kw/m2
C. 1 kw/m2 (Answer)
D. none
Work done will be maximum if the angle between the force F and displacement d is-----------?
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 0°
A field in which the work done in a moving a body along closed path is zero is called--------?
A. electric field
B. conservative field (Answer)
C. electromagnetic field
D. gravitational field
Which of the following types of force can do no work on the particle on which it acts ?
A. frictional force
B. gravitational force
C. elastic force
D. centripetal force (Answer)
An elevator weighing 3.5 x 10-6 N is raised to a height of 1000 m in the absence of friction, the work done is----
-----?
A. 3.5 x 103 J
B. 3.5 x 104 J
C. 3.5 x 106 J
D. 3.5 x 109 J (Answer)
The relation between horse power and watt is---------?

A. 1 hp = 546 watts
Page 223
B. 1 hp = 746 watts (Answer)
C. 1 hp = 1000 watts
D. 1 hp = 946 watts
Slope of work time graph is equal to----------?

A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. power (Answer)
D. energy
Work done on the body equals to the -----------?

A. change in its K.E always
B. change in its P.E always
C. change in its K.E and change in its P.E (Answer)
D. neither change in K.E and nor change in its P.E
The tides raise the mater in the see roughly in a day----------?

A. once
B. twice (Answer)
C. four time
D. eight time
The highest value of escape velocity in solar system is planet----------?

A. Earth
B. Neptune
C. Jupiter (Answer)
D. Moon
Gravitational P.E of a body has----------?

A. no formula
B. a formula mgh only
C. a formula
D. no general formula (Answer)
When the speed of a moving body is doubled then----------?

A. its K.E is doubled
B. its acceleration is doubled
Page 224
C. its P.E is doubled
D. its momentum is doubled (Answer)
One mega watt hour is equal to---------?

A. 36 x 106 J
B. 36 x 1012 J
C. 36 x 109 J
D. 36 x 108 J (Answer)
Work has the dimension as that of same as that of---------?

A. torque (Answer)
B. angular momentum
C. linear momentum
D. power
The relation between the escape velocity V esc and orbital speed Vo is given by--------?
A. V esc = 1/2Vo
B. V esc = -2 Vo (Answer)
C. V esc = Vo
D. V esc = 2Vo
When two protons are brought together-----------?

A. Kinetic energy increases
B. P.E. between them increases (Answer)
C. P.E. between them decreases
D. P.E. between tem does not change
A man lifts vertically a weight of 40kg through 1m in 10s; while a chile lifts vertically a weight of 10kg through
a distance of 1m in 1s. What will be correct inference ?
A. man does more work than child
B. child does more work than man (Answer)
C. both do the same amount of work
D. it is a foolish question
The area under the force displacement graph represents---------?

A. area
B. work done (Answer)
Page 225
C. power
D. none of these
Propulsion force of a rocket is----------?

A. non-conservative force (Answer)
B. conservative force
C. both A and B
D. none of these
Geothermal energy is a ------------ source of energy?

A. non-renewable
B. stable
C. renewable (Answer)
-------- cells converts solar energy into electrical energy?

A. rotory
B. photovoltaic (Answer)
C. galvanic
D. non of these
Biomass can be converted into fuels by----------?

A. direct combustion
B. fermentation
C. both A and B (Answer)
D. none of these
Which of the following substances posses the highest elasticity ?

A. Rubber
B. Steel (Answer)
C. Glass
D. Copper
What are the dimensions of stress ?

A. MLT-2
B. ML-2T-1
C. ML-1T-2 (Answer)
Page 226
D. ML-T-1
Which one of the following physical quantities does not have the dimensions of force per unit area ?
A. Stress
B. Strain (Answer)
C. Youngs modulus
D. Pressure
A wire of length L is stretched by a length E when a force F is applied at one end. If the elastic limit is not
exceeded the amount of energy stored in the wire is---------?
A. FE
B. (FE) (Answer)
C. FE2/L
D. FE2
When a force is applied at one end of an elastic wire it produces at strain ∝ in the wire. If y is the youngs
modulus of the material of the wire the amount of energy stored per unit volume of the wire is given by---------
?
A. Y∝
B. 2Y∝
C. Y∝/2
D. Y∝2 (Answer)
A wire suspended vertically from one end is stretched by attaching a weight of 20N to the lower end. The
weight stretches the wire by 1mm. How much energy is gained by the wire ?
A. 0.01J (Answer)
B. 0.02J
C. 0.04J
D. 1.0J
A certain stress applied to an elastic material produces a certain strain in it. If the elastic limit is not exceeded
the energy gained per unit volume of the material is given by---------?
A. Stress/strain
B. (stress/strain)
C. Stress x strain
D. (Stress / strain) (Answer)
Page 227
The ration stress to strain in youngs modulus of the material then tension is---------?
A. Directly proportional to extension (Answer)
B. Directly proportional to strain
C. Directly proportional to square of amplitude
D. Inversely proportional to extension
A wire is stretched by a force F which causes an extension 1. The energy stored in the wire is----------?
A. The extension of the wire is proportional to the force applied (Answer)
B. The weight of the wire is negligible
C. The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit
D. The cross sectional area of the wire remains constant
Formation of large molecule by joining small molecules is---------?

A. Fusion
B. Polymerization (Answer)
C. Crystallization
D. Subtraction
The energy band occupied by the valence electrons is called----------?

A. Energy state
B. Valence band (Answer)
C. ve energy state
D. conduction band
A ferromagnet will become fully magnetized at---------?

A. High voltage A.C
B. Low voltage A.C
C. Alternating current at its peak value (Answer)
D. D.C current at peak value
Materials in which valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms at low temperature are called----------?
A. Semi conductor
B. Super conductors
C. Insulators (Answer)
D. Conductor
The angular position of cells remains the same for a sample of a crystal. This property is called----------?
Page 228
A. Isotropy
B. Cleavage
C. Homogeneity
D. The external symmetry of form (Answer)
If the density of atoms remain same along any direction in a crystal is called---------?
A. Symmetry
B. Homogeneity (Answer)
C. Isotropy
D. Cleavage
The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily the nature of---------?

A. Electrical insulators alone
B. Electrical conductors alone
C. Electrical semi conductors alone
A completely filled band is called---------?

A. Conduction band
B. Valence band
C. Forbidden band
D. Core band (Answer)
Which one has the greatest energy gap ?

A. Semi conductor
B. Conductor
C. Metals
D. Non metals (Answer)
With increase in temperature the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semi conductor----------?

A. Decreases
B. Increases (Answer)
C. Remains same
D. First increases then decreases
On the basis of band theory of solids the semiconductors have -----------?

A. A party filled valence band and totally empty conduction band
Page 229
B. A completely filled valence band a totally empty conduction band and a very wide forbidden band
C. A completely filled valence band a partially filled conduction band and a narrow forbidden band (Answer)
D. A partly filled valence band a totally empty conduction band and a wide forbidden band
Very weak magnetic fields are detected by----------?

A. Squids (Answer)
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Magnetometer
D. Oscilloscope
Energy needed to magnetize and demagnetize is represented by ---------?

A. Hysteresis curve
B. Hysteresis loop area (Answer)
C. Hysteresis loop
D. Straight line
What is the SI unit of modulus of elasticity of substance ?

A. Nm-2 (Answer)
B. Jm-2
C. Nm-1
D. Being a number it has no unit.
A rubber cord of cross-sectional area 2cm2 has a length of 1m. When a tensile force of 10N is applied the
length of the cord increases by 1cm. What is the youngs modulus of rubber ?
A. 2×108 Nm-2
B. 5×106 Nm-2 (Answer)
C. 0.5×10-6 Nm-2
D. 0.2×10-6Nm-2
A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area of cross-section 3×10-6m2 is extended by 1mm by the application
of a force. If the youngs modulus of steel is 2×1011 Nm-2 the energy stored in the wire is----------?
A. 0.025J
B. 0.50J
C. 0.75J (Answer)
D. 0.100J
Materials that undergo plastic deformation before breaking are called ---------?
Page 230
A. Brittle
B. Ductile (Answer)
C. Amorphous
D. Polymers
A wire obeys Hooks law is of length 11 when it is in equilibrium under a tension F1. Its length becomes 12
when the tension is increased to F2. The energy stored in the wire during this process is----------?
A. (F1+F2) (121+122)
B. (F1+F2) (122-112)
C. (F1+F2) (12-11) (Answer)
D. (F1+F2) (12-11)
Any alteration produced in shapes length or volume when a body is subjected to some external force is called-
---------?
A. Stiffness
B. Toughness
C. Extension
D. Deformation (Answer)
The curie temperature is that at which ----------?

A. Semi-conductor becomes conductors
B. Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic (Answer)
C. Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic
D. Metals become super conductor
Coercive force is the force which opposes ----------?

A. Demagnetization (Answer)
B. Breakage
C. Extension
D. Surface cracking
The bulk properties of materials such as their mode of fracture can be related to their----------?
A. Polymerization
B. Cleavage
C. Microstructure (Answer)
D. Dislocation
Page 231
The breaking of crystals along definite direction is called -----------?
A. Cleavage (Answer)
B. Symmetry
C. Isotropy
D. Homogeneity
In simple cube one atom or molecule lies at its-----------?

A. Force corners
B. Nine corners
C. Eight corners (Answer)
D. Six corners
A vacant or partially filled band is called -----------?

A. Conduction band (Answer)
B. Valence band
C. Forbidden band
D. Empty band
The electrons in conduction band are free to----------?

A. Transport vibrations
B. Transport signals
C. Transport charge (Answer)
D. Transport impulses
Many of the semi conductors are crystals of the type---------?

A. Face centred cubic (Answer)
B. Body centred cubic
C. Simple cubic
D. All of the above
Holes can exist in----------?

A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Semi conductors (Answer)
D. All of the above
In a semiconductors the charge carriers are ----------?
Page 232
A. Holes only
B. Electrons only
C. Electron and holes both (Answer)
D. All of the above
The net charge on n-type material is----------?

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Both positive and negative
D. Neutral (Answer)
Magnetic force acting on a unit positive charge moving perpendicular to the magnetic field with a unit velocity
is called----------?
A. magnetic flux
B. magnetic field intensity
C. magnetic induction (Answer)
D. self inductance
What is the value of the current in a wire of 10cm long at the right angle to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5
Weber/m2 when the force acting on the wire is 5N ?
A. 1A
B. 10A
C. 100A (Answer)
D. 1000A
Two parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite directions----------?

A. repel each other (Answer)
B. attract each other
C. have no effect upon each other
D. they cancel out their individual magnetic fields
A magnetic field----------?
A. always exerts a force on a charged particle
B. never exerts a force on a charged particles
C. exerts a force if the charged particle is moving in the direction of the magnetic field lines
D. exerts a force if the charged particle is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field lines (Answer)
Page 233
Which one of the following material is most suitable for making core of an electromagnet ?
A. air
B. steel
C. Cu-Ni alloy
D. soft iron (Answer)
The relationship between Tesla and smaller unit Gauss of magnetic induction is given by---------?
A. 1T = 103 G
B. 1T = 10-4 G
C. 1T = 10-2 G
D. 1T = 104 G (Answer)
SI unit of flux density is----------?

A. NA-1m-1 (Answer)
B. NAm-1
C. NmA-1
D. NmA-2
The standard vector symbol for flux density is ----------?
A. M
B. L (Answer)
C. H
D. B
An electron enters a region where the electric field E is perpendicular to the magnetic field B. It will suffer no
deflection if---------?
A. E = BeV
B. B = eE/V
C. E = BV (Answer)
D. E = BeV/2
n instrument which can measure potential without drawing any current is-----------?
AA. voltmeter
B. galvanometer
C. cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) (Answer)
D. ammeter
When the coil of the galvanometer is in equilibrium then the deflecting couple is----------?
Page 234
A. zero
B. equal to the restoring couple (Answer)
C. greater than the restoring couple
D. smaller than the restoring couple
Which one of the following is not an electromechanical instrument ?

A. galvanometer
B. voltmeter
C. ammeter
D. AC transformer and DC generator (Answer)
In a multi range ammeter as the range increases -----------?

A. shunt value decreases (Answer)
B. shunt value increases
C. shunt value remains the same
A sensitive galvanometer gives full-scale deflection with 100 mV. If the resistance of the galvanometer is 50?
the maximum current that can flow through safely is---------?
A. 2.0 mA (Answer)
B. 20 mA
C. 200 mA
D. 0.2 mA
Coil of a galvanometer is suspended in a radial magnetic field so that the deflecting torque on the coil is
always----------?
A. BINA cosa
B. BINA sina
C. BINA tana
D. BINA (Answer)
A galvanometer basically is an instrument used to ----------?

A. detect current in a circuit (Answer)
B. measure current flowing through a circuit
C. measure voltage across a circuit
D. measure potential difference between two points in a circuit
Page 235
A wheat stone bridge is said to be balanced when----------?
A. maximum current flows through the galvanometer branch
B. minimum current flows through the galvanometer branch
C. potential difference across galvanometer branch is maximum
D. potential difference across galvanometer branch is zero (Answer)
A particle of mass m charge q and speed V enters a uniform magnetic radius r. The radius r of the circle is-------
--?
A. independent mass m
B. directly proportional to m
C. directly proportional to q
D. directly proportional to B (Answer)
If a current carrying solenoid is suspended freely it will---------?

A. be rotating
B. come to rest in N-S direction (Answer)
C. vibrating like galvanometer needle
D. comes to rest after rotation
A current carrying conductor is placed in a uniform magnetic field parallel to it. The magnetic force
experienced by the conductor is -----------?
A. F=1/B
B. F=1/Bsinθ
C. F/0 (Answer)
D. F=1/Bcosθ
When a particle of charge q and mass m enters into a uniform magnetic field B moving with a velocity v
perpendicular to the direction for the field it describes a circular path of radius----------?
A. R=qB/mV
B. R=mV/qB (Answer)
C. R=qmV/B
D. R=qmB/V
A magnetic compass will be deflected if it is kept near a----------?

A. charge in motion (Answer)
B. charge at rest
C. both
Page 236
D. none
If the plane of the rectangular coil is parallel to the magnetic field (i.e radial magnetic field) the torque on the
coil is-----------?
A. τ = NIAB cosφ
B. τ = NIAB sinφ
C. τ = NIAB tanφ
D. τ = NIAB (Answer)
Magnetic flux and flux density are related by----------?

A. magnetic flux = flux density / area
B. magnetic flux = flux density x area (Answer)
C. flux density = magnetic flux area
D. flux density = magnetic flux x area
The charged particle enters the uniform magnetic field in such a way that its initial velocity is not
perpendicular to the field the orbit will be---------?
A. a circle
B. a spiral
C. an ellipse
D. helix (Answer)
Value of permeability of free space in SI units is----------?

A. 4πx10-9 WbA-1m-1
B. 4πx10-7 WbA-1m-1 (Answer)
C. 4πx10-10 WbA-1m-1
D. 4πx10-8 WbA-1m-1
The magnetic field strength of solenoid is---------?

A. B = μNI
B. B = μN/I
C. B = μnI
D. Both B and C (Answer)
The deflection for 50 division of galvanometer is decreased to 25 divisions by shunt resistance of 12Ω.
Galvanometer resistance is-------?
A. 18Ω
Page 237
B. 30Ω
C. 24Ω
D. 12Ω (Answer)
The sensitivity of a galvanometer is given by---------?

A. C/BAN (Answer)
B. CAN/B
C. BAN/C
D. ABC/N
Minimum current required to produce a deflection of 1 mm on a scale at a distance of 1 meter is---------?

A. 0.1 A
B. 1:00 AM
C. current sensitivity (Answer)
D. 1 m A
While measuring the unknown resistance the help of slide wire bridge a greatest accuracy can be achieved
when---------?
A. a most sensitive galvanometer is used
B. a steady voltage cell is used
C. the balance point is close to the middle of the wire (Answer)
D. a high resistance box is used in one of its gap
An ammeter measures the total current flowing through a circuit when it is connected---------?
A. in series with the circuit (Answer)
B. in parallel with circuit
C. in series with any of the parallel resistances in the circuit
D. in parallel with any of the series resistances in the circuit
The effective way to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is to----------?
A. use a very long and fine suspension
B. use a coil of very large area
C. use a coil with very large number of turns
D. use a very strong magnetic field (Answer)
When an electron moving with a uniform speed in a vacuum enters a magnetic field in a direction
perpendicular to the field the subsequent path of the electron is ----------?
Page 238
A. a straight line parallel to the field
B. a parabola in a plane perpendicular to the field
C. a circle in a plane perpendicular to the field (Answer)
D. a straight line along its initial direction
Galvanometer is a very sensitive device with-----------?

A. very low damping (Answer)
B. very high damping
C. no damping at all
D. radial field disintegration
Heating a magnet will ----------?

A. weaken it (Answer)
B. strengthen it
C. reverse its polarity
D. demagnetize it completely
A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 100? gives half scale deflection for a current of 20mA. What will be
the potential difference across it ?
A. 4 volt
B. 5 volt
C. 2 volt (Answer)
D. 0.4 volt
An alternating current or voltage-----------?

A. fluctuates off and on
B. varies in magnitude alone
C. changes its direction again and again (Answer)
D. changes its magnitude harmonically and reverses its direction of flow after regularly recurring intervals
Electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the speed of----------?

A. λ-rays (Answer)
B. Positive rays
C. Cathode rays
D. More than sound waves
An electromagnetic wave consists of -----------?
Page 239
A. Electric and magnetic fields moving parallel to each other
B. Magnetic field moving with velocity of light in space
C. Electric field moving with velocity of light
D. Electric and magnetic fields moving perpendicular to each other (Answer)
Waves emitted from the antenna are---------?

A. Sound waves
B. Electromagnetic waves (Answer)
C. Radio waves
D. Modulated waves
If capacitance of L-C circuit is made four times then frequency of the circuit becomes----------?
A. Twice
B. One half (Answer)
C. Four times
D. None
The value of the steady current which when flowing through the same resistor produces heat at the same rate
as the mean rate of heat produced by the alternating current is---------?
A. Average current
B. Sinusoidal current
C. r.m.s current (Answer)
D. Net current
An alternating current of the r.m.s value of 4.0 A and frequency 50Hz flows in a circuit containing a 10Ω
resistor. The peak current is then ?
A. 20A
B. 20.66A
C. 6.66A
D. 5.66A (Answer)
A changing magnetic flux produces around itself an induced--------?

A. Magnetic field
B. Electric field
C. Electromagnetic force (Answer)
D. Artificial gravitational field
Page 240
The direction of propagation of an electromagnetic waves is--------?
A. Perpendicular to electric field
B. Perpendicular to both electric and magnetic field (Answer)
C. Perpendicular to magnetic field
D. Parallel to electric and magnetic field
Electromagnetic waves transport----------?

A. Energy (Answer)
B. Momentum
C. Mass
D. Heat
Electromagnetic waves emitted from antenna are--------?

A. Stationary
B. Longitudinal
C. Transverse (Answer)
D. All the above
A capacitor of capacitance 30µF is charged by a constant current of 10mA. If initially, the capacitor was
uncharged what is the time taken for the potential difference across the capacitor to reach 300V ?
A. 0.9sec (Answer)
B. 15 sec
C. 1.5x105sec
D. 0.9x102sec
To find the r.m.s value of an alternating current mathematically we need to have --------?
A. Mean value of I2
B. Square root of mean value of I2 (Answer)
C. Square root of I2
D. Square of 1/2
An alternating current is represented by the equation I = I∫sinπt which of the following equation represents an
alternating current of frequency and amplitude twice that of the above current ?
A. I = 2I∫Sin(πt/2)
B. I = 2I∫Sin(2πt) (Answer)
C. I = 2ISinπt
D. I = I∫sin(2πt)
Page 241
pure resistor circuit the voltage and current are--------?
A. Lagging each other
B. They are at 90? phase difference
C. They have zero phase difference (Answer)
D. No phase difference
When A.C current passes through a capacitor then the current relationship will be--------?
A. The current lead voltage by phase angle is 90 degrees (Answer)
B. The voltage leads current by phase angle is 90 degrees
C. The current lead voltage by phase angle is 45 degrees
D. The voltage leads current by phase angle is 45 degrees
In the capacitive circuit the current----------?

A. Lags behind voltage by π/2
B. Is in phase with voltage
C. Opposite in phase of voltage by π
D. Leads forward the voltage by π/2 (Answer)
A 100µF capacitor with a 12V source in series having frequency 50Hz will offer a capacitive reactance of about-
------?
A. 32Ω (Answer)
B. 62Ω
C. 50Ω
D. 100Ω
If a glass plate is inserted in between the plate of a capacitor in series with a lighted bulb the brightness of the
bulb--------?
A. Remains same
B. Brightness increases (Answer)
C. Brightness decreases
D. No light
A wire of resistance R is coiled inductively so that its inductance is L. The impedance of the coil at a frequency
of f is--------?
A. (R+2πfL)
B. R+1/2πfL
Page 242
C. (R2+f2L2)
D. (R2+4π2f2L2) (Answer)
Ammeter connected in an AC circuit measures-------?

A. The exact value of the current
B. RMS value of the current (Answer)
C. The net value of the current
D. The peak value of the current
When a pure inductor of inductance L and a pure capacitor of capacitance C are connected in parallel to a
sinusoidal potential difference V the potential difference across both L & C will be--------?
A. Same (Answer)
B. Different
C. At L will be more than at C
D. At L will be less than at C
What is the self-inductance of a coil in which an induced emf of 2V is set up when the current changes at the
rate of 4 As-1 ?
A. 0.5 mH
B. 0.5H (Answer)
C. 2.0H
D. 8.0H
The frequency of a circuit consisting of a capacitance C and a resistor R is--------?

A. C/R
B. R/C
C. 1/RC (Answer)
D. 1/ 2RC
A 10Ω electric heater is connected to a 220V 50Hz mains supply. What is the peak value of the potential
difference across the heater element ?
A. 220V
B. 220/ 2V
C. 110V
D. 220 √2V (Answer)
A choke is used as a resistance in---------?
Page 243
A. DC circuit
B. AC circuits (Answer)
C. Both AC and DC circuit
D. Full wave rectifier circuit
At resonance the value of the power factor in an L-C-R series circuit is--------?
A. Zero
B. 2
C. 1 (Answer)
D. Not definite
An A.C series circuit containing 4Ω resistance and 3Ω inductive reactance. The impedance of the circuit is-------
?
A. 1Ω
B. 5Ω (Answer)
C. 7Ω
D. 7Ω
An inductive coil has a resistance of 100Ω. When an AC signal of frequency 1000Hz is fed to the coil the
applied voltage leads the current by 45Ω. What is the inductance of the coil ?
A. 10mH
B. 12mH
C. 16mH (Answer)
D. 20mH
Choose the correct statement. In the case of AC circuit ohms law holds for--------?
A. Peak values of voltage and current
B. Effective values of voltage and current
C. Instantaneous values of voltage and current
The phase angle between the voltage and the current in an AC circuit consisting of a resistance is-------?
A. Zero (Answer)
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 180°
Page 244
n an LCR series circuit, if V is the effective value of the applied voltage VR is the voltage across R VL is the
effective voltage across L & Vc is the effective voltage across C then--------?
IA. V = VR+VL+VC
B. V2 = VR2+VL2+VC2
C. V2 = VR2+(VL-VC)2 (Answer)
D. V2 = VL2+(VR-VC)2
A voltage V = V0 cos ωt is applied across a resistor of resistance R the average power dissipated per cycle in
the resistor is given by------?
A. V√/√2R
B. V/√2√R
C. V02/√2R (Answer)
D. 2/√2√R
Two identical coaxial circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. If the loops approach each
other the current in-------?
A. Each increase
B. Each decrease (Answer)
C. Each remains the same
D. One increases whereas that in the other decreases
An inductor may store energy in --------?

A. Its electric field
B. Its coils
C. Its magnetic field (Answer)
D. Both electric and magnetic fields
Addition of vector obeys-------?

A. Commutative law
B. Distributive law
C. Associative law
D. All given laws in A, B and C (Answer)
The direction of a vector in space is specified by--------?

A. One angle
B. Two angle
C. Three angle (Answer)
Page 245
D. No angle
A vector can be multiplied by a number. The number may be--------?

A. Dimensionless
B. Dimensional scalar
C. Negative
D. All A, B and C are correct (Answer)
Unit vector n^ is along-------?

A. X-axis
B. Normal on a surface (Answer)
C. Y-axis
D. Z-axis
The rectangular coordinate system is also called-------?

A. Polar coordinate system
B. Cartesian coordinate system (Answer)
C. Cylindrical coordinate system
D. Spherical coordinate system
Maximum number of rectangular components are-------?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 (Answer)
D. 4
Cosθi^ + Sinθj^ is a---------?

A. Vector
B. Position Vector
C. Vector in the direction at angle θ with an x-axis
D. The unit vector in the direction at angle θ with an x-axis (Answer)
Maximum number of components of a vector may be--------?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Infinite (Answer)
Page 246
Which one is not correct for a vector A= 2i+2j+3k ?
A. Has direction 45° with an x-axis
B. Has magnitude 2
C. Has magnitude 2 and direction °=45° with a y-axis
D. Has magnitude -2 (Answer)
The resultant of two forces of equal magnitudes is also equal to the magnitude of the forces. The angle
between the two forces is--------?
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120° (Answer)
Three coplanar forces acting on a body keep it in equilibrium. They should therefore be--------?
A. Concurrent (Answer)
B. Non-concurrent
C. Parallel
D. Non-parallel
Which of the following pairs does not have identical dimensions ?

A. Torque and energy
B. Momentum and impulse
C. Energy and work
D. Mass and moment of inertia (Answer)
It is easier to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with a single hand because-------?
A. Accelerating force increases on the wheel
B. Two forces act on the wheel
C. Two hands provide a firm grip
D. The couple acts on the wheel (Answer)
The cross product i^ x j^ is equal to--------?

A. Zero
B. One
C. i^
D. k^ (Answer)
Page 247
The unit vector in the direction of vector A = 2 i^ -2j^ + k^ is--------?
A. 2i^ – 2j^ + k^
B. (2i^ – 2j^ +k^)/9
C. (2i^ – 2j^ +k^)/3 (Answer)
D. (2i^ – 2j^ +k^)/5
The cross product of two vectors is a negative vector when-------?

A. They are parallel vectors
B. They are anti parallel vectors
C. They are a perpendicular vector
D. They are rotated through 270° (Answer)
In which quadrant, the only value of tan will be positive ?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Both 1st and 3rd (Answer)
The magnitude of i^. (j^ x k^) is--------?

A. 0
B. 1 (Answer)
C. -1
D. i^
If A=Ax i^ + Ay j^ + Az K^ B = Bx i^ + By j^ + Bz K^ then-------?
A. A. B = Ax Bx + Ay By + Az Bz (Answer)
B. A. B = Ax By + Ay Bz + Az By
C. A. B = Ay Bz + Az By + Az Bx
D. A. B = Ax Bz + Ay By + Az Bx
A central force is that which---------?

A. Can produce torque
B. Cannot produce torque (Answer)
C. Some time can produce torque some time cannot
D. Has no relation with torque
What is the angle that the given vector makes with y-axis and A=2i+3j ?
Page 248
A. 30°
B. 60° (Answer)
C. 90°
D. 120°
In which quadrant the two rectangular components of a vector have same sign ?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. Both 1st and 3rd (Answer)
D. 4th
Two vectors A and B are making angle θ with each other. The scalar projection of vector B on vector A is
written as------?
A. A.B/A (Answer)
B. A.B/B
C. A.cosθ
D. Both a and b are correct
Two vectors are A = 3i^+2j^ -k^& B = 3i^-2j^ +k^ , then-------?

A. B is anti-parallel to A
B. B is a negative vector of A (Answer)
C. B has a negative magnitude
D. B is perpendicular to A
If A=B, which of the following is not correct ?

A. A.B = A^ B^ (Answer)
B. |A| = |B|
C. |A^| = |B^|
D. AB^ = BA^
I ^. (j^ x k^) is equal to-------?

A. 1 (Answer)
B. i^
C. j^
D. k^
The direction of the vector product is given by-------?
Page 249
A. Head to tail rule
B. Right-hand rule (Answer)
C. Left-hand rule
D. Triangular rule
If east, west, north, south, up and down are representing the direction of unit vectors, then east x south has
the direction along-------?
A. West
B. North
C. Down (Answer)
D. Up
Null vector is a vector which has--------?

A. Zero magnitude
B. No specified direction
C. Both A and B are correct (Answer)
D. Both A and B are not correct
Which one is a unit vector ?

A. ??3 i^ + ??3 j^ + ??3 k^
B. 1/??3 i^ + 1/??3 j^ +1/ ??3 k^
C. ??3 / 3 i^ + ??3 / 3 j^ + ??3 / 3 k^
D. Both B and C are correct (Answer)
An angle between two vectors A and B can be determined by-------?

A. Their dot product (Answer)
B. Their cross product
C. Head to tail rule
D. Right-hand rule
The magnitude of the cross product is equal to the dot product between them. The angle between the two
vectors is--------?
A. 30°
B. 45° (Answer)
C. 60°
D. 180°
Page 250
Torque is defined as-------?
A. Turning effect of force
B. Cross product of position vector and force
C. Product of force and moment arm
D. All A, B and C are correct (Answer)
The dimension of torque is-------?

A. [ML2T-2] (Answer)
B. [MLT-2]
C. [ML2T]
D. [ML-2T-2]
SI unit of torque is-------?

A. N.m (Answer)
B. joule
C. Both a and b are correct
D. Neither a nor b is correct
Torque acting on a body determines--------?

A. Acceleration
B. Linear acceleration
C. Angular acceleration (Answer)
D. Direction of motion of the body
A body in equilibrium---------?
A. Always at rest
B. Always in uniform motion
C. May be at rest or in uniform motion (Answer)
D. May be at rest or in motion
A body will be in complete equilibrium when it is satisfying-------?

A. 1st condition of equilibrium
B. 2nd condition of equilibrium
C. Both Ist and 2nd condition of equilibrium (Answer)
D. Impossible
Which one is not a type of dynamic equilibrium ?
Page 251
A. Rotational equilibrium
B. Translational equilibrium
C. Static equilibrium (Answer)
D. Both A and C are corret answer
According to which one of following law the density of atom is uniform ?

A. J.J.Thomson model (Answer)
B. Rutherfords model
C. Bohrs model
D. All of the above laws contradict the statement
In the nucleus of uranium, the number of neutrons will be -------?

A. 92
B. 235
C. 143
D. Different for different isotopes (Answer)
During fusion of hydrogen into helium--------?

A. Energy is absorbed
B. Energy is released (Answer)
C. Mass is increased due to energy absorption
D. Mass is reduced due to the energy released
One AMU is equal to---------?

A. 1.66 x 10-27kg
B. 166 x 10-15ng
C. 166 x 10-20g
D. All of above (Answer)
For chain reaction to build up the size of the radioactive target should be-------?
A. Greater than the critical size (Answer)
B. Less than the critical size
C. Equal to the critical size
D. All of above can build up a change reaction
Antimatter consists of -------?

A. Antiproton
Page 252
B. Antineutron
C. Positron
Neutron and proton are commonly known as-------?

A. Nucleon (Answer)
B. Meson
C. Boson
D. Quartz
Which one of the following radiation possesses maximum penetrating power ?

A. X-rays
B. B-rays
C. γ-rays (Answer)
D. All have the equal penetrating powe
Electrons---------?
A. Can exist inside the nucleus
B. Cannot exist inside the nucleus
C. Can exist both inside and outside the nucleus
D. Do not know (Answer)
Radioactivity is a --- (A) Spontaneous activity (B) Chemical property-------?

A. A & B
B. B & C
C. C & A (Answer)
D. A B & C
The energy liberated when one atom of U-235 undergoes fission reaction is--------?
A. 200MeV (Answer)
B. 40MeV
C. 30MeV
D. 20MeV
Transuranic elements have an atomic number--------?

A. Greater than 72
Page 253
B. Greater than 82
C. Greater than 92 (Answer)
D. Greater than 102
Nuclear forces exist between ----------?

A. Proton-proton
B. Proton-neutron
C. Neutron-neutron
Mass defect per nucleon is ----------?

A. The binding energy of the nucleus
B. Packing fraction (Answer)
C. The average energy of the nucleus
D. All of above are one and the same thing
The bombardment of nitrogen with alpha particles will produce-------?

A. Neutron
B. Proton (Answer)
C. Electron
D. Positron
The diameter of an atom is approximately--------?

A. 10-12m
B. 10-11m
C. 10-10m (Answer)
D. 10-14m
Radioactive decay obeys which one of the following law ?

A. N=Noe-λt (Answer)
B. N=Noeλt
C. N=Noe-λt/2
D. No=N(1+eλt)
Average energy required to remove one nucleon from the nucleus is called---------?
A. Binding energy per nucleon (Answer)
B. Energy of decay
Page 254
C. Destruction energy
D. All of above
The fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing --------?
A. Iron rods
B. Graphite rods
C. Cadmium rods (Answer)
D. Platinum rods
Which one of the following radiations possesses maximum velocity ?

A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. γ-rays (Answer)
D. All of above have the same speed
The charge on an electron was determine by --------?

A. Ampere
B. Maxwell
C. Millikan (Answer)
D. Thomson
The charge on neutron is--------?

A. Plus 1.6 x 10-19C
B. Zero (Answer)
C. Minus 1.6 x 10-19C
D. No definite charge
A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called a-------?
A. Antiproton
B. Positron (Answer)
C. Gamma rays
D. Photon
Mass of neutron is--------?

A. 1.67 x 10-31 kg
B. 1.67 x 10-27 kg (Answer)
C. 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Page 255
D. 1.67 x 10-19 kg
Nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are------?
A. Isotopes
B. Isobars (Answer)
C. Isotones
D. Isomers
A mass spectrograph (spectrometer) sorts out------?

A. Molecules
B. Ions
C. Elements (Answer)
D. Isotopes
Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is-------?
A. Smaller
B. Greater than 82 (Answer)
C. Same
D. Sometimes smaller some times greater
An alpha particle is emitted from 88Ra226. What is the mass and atomic number of the daughter nucleus ?
A. 224 – 84
B. 220 – 80
C. 222 – 86 (Answer)
D. 226 – 87
The unit of radioactivity curie is equal to---------?

A. 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec
B. 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec (Answer)
C. 3.55 x 1010 disintegration per sec
D. 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec
The unit of radioactivity curie is equal to--------?

A. 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec
B. 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec (Answer)
C. 3.55 x 1010 disintegration per sec
D. 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec
Page 256
During the fission process a large amount of-------?
A. Heat energy is released
B. Nuclear energy is released (Answer)
C. Chemical energy is released
D. Light energy is released
Ina liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type of uranium used is-------?
A. 92U235
B. 92U238 (Answer)
C. 92U234
D. 92U239
Radioactive materials can be identified by measuring their--------?

A. Hardness
B. Density
C. Mass
D. Half life (Answer)
If one or more of the neutrons emitted during fission cab be used to build up further fission then the reaction
is self-sustained and is known as ---------?
A. Fission reaction
B. Fusion reaction
C. Chain reaction (Answer)
D. Chemical reaction
Pair production takes place in the vicinity of a heavy nucleus so that-------?

A. Net energy is conserved
B. Net charge is conserved
C. Net momentum is conserved
During an encounter with an atom alpha particle knocks out -------?

A. Protons
B. Electrons (Answer)
C. Neutrons
D. Nothing
Page 257
The path of alpha particle is--------?
A. Rectilinear
B. Curved
C. Zig-zag or erratic (Answer)
D. Elliptical
Which of the following radiations are suitable for the treatment of an infection in the interior of the body ?
A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. γ-rays (Answer)
D. X-rays
Various types of cancer are treated by---------?

A. Cobalt-60 (Answer)
B. Strontium-90
C. Carbon-14
D. Nickel-63
Sterilization of surgical instruments medical supplies and bandages can be done by exposing them to a beam
of--------?
A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. γ-rays (Answer)
D. B and C have equal antiseptic propertie
The charge on alpha particles is--------?

A. Plus one
B. Plus two (Answer)
C. Minus two
D. Minus one
Alpha particle ionizes an atom---------?

A. Through direct collision
B. Through electrostatic attraction
C. Through electrostatic repulsion (Answer)
D. All of above
Page 258
T.V sets and microwave ovens emit ----------?
A. X-rays (Answer)
B. α-rays
C. β-rays
D. γ-rays
An alpha particle in a single encounter---------?

A. Loses a small fraction of its energy
B. Losses most of its energy (Answer)
C. Loses no energy at all
D. Loses all of its energy
Strontium-90 is used as ---------?

A. α-particle source (Answer)
B. β-particle source
C. γ-rays source
D. Neutron source
The penetration power of alpha particle as compared to beta particle is--------?

A. 10 times more
B. 100 times more (Answer)
C. 100 times less
D. 10 times less
Geiger counter is suitable for ---------?

A. Fast counting
B. Extremely fast counting
C. Slow counting (Answer)
D. All situations
An alpha particle can produce fluorescence in---------?

A. ZnS
B. Barium platinocyanide
C. Calcium tungstate
Page 259
Pair production cannot take place in a vacuum as ---- is not conserved ?
A. Energy
B. Charge
C. Mass
D. MomentumB.
CFC is used in ---------?

A. Refrigeration
B. Aerosol spray
C. Plastic foam industry
Average distance covered by alpha particles in the air before its ionizing power ceases is called its---------?
A. Trajectory
B. Range (Answer)
C. Firing level
D. Limit
Which one of the following possesses greater penetration power ?

A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. γ-rays
D. Neutron-rays (Answer)
The most useful tracer is---------?

A. Sr-90
B. I-131
C. CA-41
D. C-14 (Answer)
X-rays are electromagnetic waves like--------?

A. Light waves
B. Heat waves
C. Microwaves
D. γ-rays (Answer)
The charge on beta particle is--------?
Page 260
A. 1 (Answer)
B. -1
C. +2
D. -2
Why gamma rays are used to kill bacteria to sterilize surgical equipment etc ?
A. Chargeless
B. Massless
C. Highly penetrating (Answer)
D. All of above
Beta particles ionize an atom---------?

A. Due to the electrostatic force of attraction
B. Due to the electrostatic force of repulsion (Answer)
C. Due to a direct collision
D. Due to the gravitational force
Alpha particles possess greater penetration power than that of beta particles due to its-------?
A. Smaller ionization power (Answer)
B. Greater ionization power
C. Neither greater nor smaller ionization power
D. Same ionization power
Pair production cannot take place in a vacuum as --------?

A. Mass is not conserved
B. Energy is not conserved
C. Momentum is not conserved (Answer)
D. The chargee is not conserved
Pair production can take place only with---------?

A. X-rays
B. Gamma rays (Answer)
C. UV-rays
D. IR-rays
A device for producing high-velocity nuclei is --------?

A. Cloud chamber
Page 261
B. Linear accelerator (Answer)
C. A mass spectrograph
D. Wilson cloud chamber
Which of the following will be a better shield against gamma rays ?

A. Ordinary water
B. Heavy water
C. Lead (Answer)
D. Aluminum
The maximum safe limit dose for persons working in a nuclear power station is --------?
A. 1 rem per week
B. 5 rem per week (Answer)
C. 4 rem per week
D. 3 rem per week
Radiations are used for the treatment of skin of a patient is--------?

A. Alpha rays
B. Gamma rays (Answer)
C. Beta rays
D. X-rays
Which branch of science plays an important role in the development of technology and engineering ?
A. Chemistry
B. Physics (Answer)
C. Geology
D. Biology
Which one is not a branch of physical sciences ?

A. Chemistry
B. Astronomy
C. Geology
D. Biology (Answer)
The number of categories in which physical quantities are divided is-------?
A. 1
B. 2 (Answer)
C. 3
Page 262
D. 4
How many types of units are in SI ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 (Answer)
D. 4
In scientific notation, numbers are expressed in--------?

A. Power of ten (Answer)
B. Powers of two
C. Reciprocal
D. Decimal
1024 can be written in scientific notation as-------?

A. 1.024×103 (Answer)
B. 2 Raised to power 10
C. 0.000976
D. 1/0.00097
Prefix deca represents--------?

A. 10 Raised to power 1 (Answer)
B. 10 Raised to power 2
C. 10 Raised to power 3
D. 10 Raised to power -1
The error in measurement may occur due to---------?

A. The inexperience of a person
B. The faulty apprentice
C. Inappropriate method
D. Due to all reasons in A, B and C (Answer)
The uncertainty in a measurement may occur due to--------?

A. Limitation of an instrument
B. Natural variation of the object to be measured
C. Inadequate technique
D. All given in A, B and C (Answer)
Page 263
Random errors can be reduced by--------?
A. Taking zero correction
B. Comparing the instrument with another more accurate one
C. Taking mean of several measurements (Answer)
D. All methods explained in A, B and C
In any measurement the significant figures are-------?

A. All accurately known and all doubtful digits
B. Only accurately known digits
C. Only doubtful digits
D. All accurately known digits and the first doubtful digit (Answer)
A digit zero in a measurement---------?

A. May be significant may not significant (Answer)
B. Always significant
C. Always insignificant sign
D. Significant only if left to a significant figure
Number of significant figures in 0.0173 is---------?

A. 3 (Answer)
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
Smaller the least count of the instrument more is the measurement--------?

A. Accurate
B. Precise (Answer)
C. Accurate and precise
D. None of these
The dimension of force is---------?

A. MLT-1
B. MLT-2 (Answer)
C. ML-1T
D. ML-1T-2
Page 264
ML-1 T-2 is the dimension of--------?
A. Force
B. Pressure (Answer)
C. Momentum
D. Energy
Dimensional analysis is helpful for---------?

A. Deriving a possible formula
B. Checking the homogeneity of a physical equation
C. Verification of laws
D. Only A and B are correct (Answer)
Which equation is not dimensionally correct ?

A. E=mc2
B. Vf=Vi+at
C. S=Vt2 (Answer)
D. S=1/2at2
SI unit of the coefficient of viscosity is----------?

A. Kg.m.S-1
B. Kg m-1.S-1 (Answer)
C. Kg.m.S
D. Kg-1.m-1.S-1
Three students measured the length of a needle with meter rod and recorded as : (i) 0.2145m (ii) 0.21m (iii)
0.214m Which one is a correct record ?
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Only (iii) (Answer)
D. Both (i) and (ii)
Absolute uncertainty in a measurement depends upon-------?

A. The magnitude of the measurement
B. Least count of the instrument (Answer)
C. Percentage error in the measurement
D. All of a, b and C
Page 265
Steradian is the SI unit of--------?
A. Plane angle
B. Solid angle (Answer)
C. Both plane angle and solid angle
D. Neither plane angle nor solid angle
An ideal standard of measurement of a base quantity has characteristics--------?

A. Accessible
B. Invariable
C. Transportable
D. Only a and b are correct (Answer)
Total uncertainty, in the result obtained from the subtraction of two measurements, is equal to--------?
A. Sum of their absolute uncertainties (Answer)
B. The difference of their absolute uncertainties
C. The product of their absolute uncertainties
D. Division of their absolute uncertainties
Which one is the highest power multiple ?

A. Giga (Answer)
B. Beta
C. Mega
D. Deca
One pico stands for---------?

A. 10 raised to power -15
B. 10 raised to power -12 (Answer)
C. 10 raised to power -9
D. 10 raised to power -6
Unit of G is -------?
A. Nm2Kg2
B. Nm2Kg (Answer)
C. Nm2Kg-2
D. None
The unit of force is ----- and its symbol is ------- Which is the correct pair ?
Page 266
A. Newton, n
B. Newton, N
C. newton, n
D. newton, N (Answer)
How many main frontiers of fundamental science ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 (Answer)
D. 4
One light year is equal to--------?

A. 9.5x1015m (Answer)
B. 9.5x1015sec
C. 9.5x1015Km
D. 9.5x1015cm
Which one is the derived quantity in SI units -------?

A. Electric current
B. Electric charge (Answer)
C. Plane angle
D. Amount of substance
Which one is the correct representation of the unit of pressure ?

A. Newton/Meter2
B. newton/meter2 (Answer)
C. Newton/meter2
D. newton/Meter2
Which one is the dimensionally correct equation ?

A. f=vt
B. S=Vit+1/2at2 (Answer)
C. V=St
D. V=f/t
Zero error of the instrument is a type of---------?

A. Random error
Page 267
B. Personal error
C. Systematic error (Answer)
D. Classified error
In multiplication and division of measurement-------?

A. Percentage uncertainties are added (Answer)
B. Absolute uncertainties are added
C. Percentage uncertainties are divided
D. Absolute uncertainties are divided
The number of significant figures in 5.400 is--------?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. None (Answer)
To reduce the uncertainty in the timing experiment-------?

A. Highly precise instrument
B. Conduct at room temperature
C. Count number of vibration
D. Both a and C (Answer)
The number of significant figures in the length of a bar 6200mm measured by meter rod is--------?
A. 4 (Answer)
B. 3
C. 2
D. None of these
The number 76.85 is rounded off up to two significant figures as-------?

A. 76.8
B. 77 (Answer)
C. 76.9
D. None of these
Which of the following is not a correct representation method for prefixes-------?

A. 1mm
B. 10km
Page 268
C. 1000um (Answer)
D. Both A and B
The rotational K.E of the hoop is equal to the-------?

A. its translational K.E (Answer)
B. half than its translational K.E
C. double than its translational K.E
D. four times than its translational K.E
A hoop and disc have same mass and radius. Their rotational K.E are related by an equation-------?
A. K.E hoop = K.E disc
B. K.E hoop = 2K.E disc (Answer)
C. K.E hoop = 1/2K.E disc
D. K.E hoop = 4K.E disc
The critical speed of an artificial satellite is--------?
A. 8 Kms-1
B. 8.1 Kms-1
C. 7.9 Kms-1 (Answer)
D. 8 ms-1
Geostationary satellite completes one rotation around the earth in--------?

A. 3 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours (Answer)
The radius of geostationary orbit from the centre of the earth is nearly-------?
A. 42000km (Answer)
B. 36000km
C. 24000 km
D. 18000 km
According to Einstein, the gravitational interaction is possible between--------?

A. material objects only
B. material objects and electromagnetic radiation only (Answer)
C. electromagnetic radiations
Page 269
One radian is equal to-------?
A. 67.3°
B. 57.3° (Answer)
C. 87.3°
D. 60°
The period of a circular motion is given by--------?

A. T = πv
B. T = πw
C. T = 2πr
D. T = 2πr/v (Answer)
The direction of the linear velocity of a body moving in a circle is-------?

A. along the axis of rotation
B. along the tangent (Answer)
C. directed towards the centre
D. directed away from the centre
hen a body moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity and angular velocity is always--------?
WA. 180°
B. 0°
C. 90° (Answer)
D. 45°
The circumference subtends an angle--------?

A. π radian
B. 2π radian (Answer)
C. π/2 radian
D. 4π radian
The carburettor of a car is an application of--------?

A. Venturi meter
B. Bernoulli equation
C. Both A and B (Answer)
D. None
Page 270
The blood flow is -------- flow at systolic pressure?
A. Laminar (Answer)
B. Turbulent
C. Mixed
D. None
The profile of aeroplane wing which lifts it up is called as-------?

A. Wing shape
B. Aerofoil profile (Answer)
C. Curved profile
D. None of these
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for---------?

A. Laminar flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Both laminar and turbulent flow (Answer)
D. None of these
The density of human blood is nearly equal to------?

A. Water (Answer)
B. Honey
C. Mercury
D. Oil (kerosene)
The speed of the fluid is maximum in the venturi meter at--------?

A. Convergent duct
B. Divergent duct
C. Throat
The normal blood pressure range for a human body is-------?

A. 120 to 80 torr
B. 100 to 80 torr
C. 120 to 60 torr (Answer)
D. 60 to 140 torr
Page 271
For ------ flow the path of the fluid particles cannot be tracked?
A. Laminar
B. Streamline
C. Turbulent (Answer)
D. Both A and B
In vibratory motion---------?
A. P.E. remains constant
B. K.E. remain constant
C. total energy remains constant (Answer)
D. total momentum remains constant
The waveform of S.H.M. is--------?

A. Standing wave
B. Sine wave (Answer)
C. Square wave
D. NoneS.
I unit of frequency is---------?

A. Vibration S-2
B. Radian
C. Hertz (Answer)
D. ms-1
In S.H.M. the velocity of a particle is maximum at--------?

A. mean position (Answer)
B. extreme position
C. middle between the mean and extreme position on the right side
D. middle between the mean and extreme position on the left side
The acceleration of a projection on the diameter for a particle moving along a circle is--------?
A. w2x
B. wx2
C. w2x (Answer)
D. wx2
The total energy of a body executing S.H.M is directly proportional to--------?
Page 272
A. The square root of amplitude
B. The amplitude
C. Reciprocal of amplitude
D. Square of an amplitude (Answer)
The time period of a second pendulum is-------?

A. 4 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 2 seconds (Answer)
D. 6 seconds
The length of the second pendulum is--------?

A. 100 cm
B. 99 cm
C. 99.2 cm (Answer)
D. 98 cm
If the length of the second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become--------?
A. 4 times
B. 6 times
C. 8 times
D. 2 times (Answer)
The force responsible for the vibratory motion of the simple pendulum is---------?
A. mg cosθ
B. mg sinθ (Answer)
C. mg tonθ
D. mg
The frequency of the second pendulum is--------?

A. 1 hertz
B. 0.5 hertz (Answer)
C. 1.5 hertz
D. 2.5 hertz
Simple harmonic motion is a type of--------?

A. Rotational motion
Page 273
B. Circular motion
C. Musical arrangement
D. Vibratory motion (Answer)
The SI unit of force constant is identical with that of---------?

A. Force
B. Pressure
C. Surface tension (Answer)
D. Loudness
When the amplitude of a wave becomes double its energy become---------?

A. Double
B. Four times (Answer)
C. One half
D. None time
A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a lift has time period T when the lift is at rest. When the lift
falls freely, the time period is---------?
A. Infinite (Answer)
B. T/g
C. Zero
D. g/T
The energy of SHM is maximum at--------?

A. Mean position
B. Extreme position
C. In between mean and extreme
D. All positions during SHM (Answer)
The product of the frequency and time period is equal to---------?

A. 1 (Answer)
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The length of the second pendulum is---------?

A. 100 cm
Page 274
B. 99 cm
C. 99.2 cm (Answer)
D. 98 cm
The displacement of SHM is written as X = X`sinθt if the displacement is written by X = Xθ sont then phase
constant will be equal to--------?
A. 0°
B. 45°
C. 90° (Answer)
D. 180°
For what displacement the P.E becomes 1/4 of its maximum value ?
A. x = x’
B. x = x’/2 (Answer)
C. x = x’/4
D. x = x(2)’/2
Which one does not work according to resonance ?

A. T.V
B. Radio
C. Microwave oven
D. Bulb (Answer)
The restoring force acting on the simple pendulum is given by--------?

A. mg sin θ
B. mg sin θ (Answer)
C. mg cos θ
D. mg cos θ
The phase of SHM describes--------?

A. Displacement only
B. The direction of motion only
C. Both displacement and direction of motion (Answer)
D. Neither displacement nor direction of motion
The sharpness of resonance is---------?

A. Directly proportional to the damping force
Page 275
B. Inversely proportional to the damping force (Answer)
C. Equal to the square of damping force
D. Equal to the square of damping force
The natural frequency of simple pendulum depends upon--------?

A. It’s mass
B. It’s length
C. Square of its length
D. The square root of its length (Answer)
Electrical resonance is observed in--------?

A. Radio (Answer)
B. Microwave oven
C. Both in radio and microwave oven
D. Neither in radio nor in a microwave oven
Total distance travelled by a bob of the simple pendulum in one vibration is equal to--------?
A. Amplitude
B. Square of the amplitude
C. 2 x amplitude
D. 4 x amplitude (Answer)
When K.E energy of SHM is maximum its---------?

A. P.E is zero
B. Acceleration is zero
C. Restoring force is zero
D. All P.E acceleration and restoring force are zero (Answer)
In damped harmonic oscillation which one decreases ?

A. Amplitude of vibration
B. Energy of vibration
C. Both amplitude and energy (Answer)
D. Neither amplitude nor energy
Forced vibration is known as-----------?

A. Simple harmonic vibration
B. Natural vibration
Page 276
C. Driven harmonic vibration (Answer)
D. Free vibration
The mass attached to a spring executes ?

A. Vibratory motion
B. Rotatory motion
C. S.H.M
D. Both A and C (Answer)
At Murree Hills (Assume the value of g changes). If we use a simple pendulum as time standard then one-
second duration will-------?
A. Increase (Answer)
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. Is zero
The velocity of the mass attached to a spring is maximum at--------?

A. Mean position (Answer)
B. Extreme position
C. Both A and B
D. None
The projection of the particle moving in a circle with non-uniform speed executes ?
A. S.H.M
B. Vibratory motion
C. Both B and D (Answer)
D. None S.H.M
Displacement of the body in S.H.M is equal to amplitude when the body is at--------?
A. Mean position
B. Elsewhere
C. Extreme position (Answer)
D. None
For a simple pendulu,m the restoring force is caused by--------?

A. Gravity (Answer)
B. Spring
Page 277
C. Hand
D. All of these
The distance covered by a body in one complete vibration is 20cm. What is the amplitude of body ----------?
A. 10 cm
B. 5 cm (Answer)
C. 15 cm
D. 7.5 cm
A cup of milk is placed in a microwave oven. Tell which statements is false. (1) Milk will be heated up only. (2)
Cup will remain cool. (3) Both cup and mild will get hot ?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3 (Answer)
In case of a simple pendulum, the cause of damping is---------?

A. Drag force of air (Answer)
B. Gravity
C. Tension in the string
D. None of these
The energy absorbed by a body is --------- at resonance?

A. Maximum as well minimum
B. Minimum only
C. Maximum only (Answer)
D. 0
The relativistic energy E is equivalent to relativistic mass given by--------?

A. Ec2
B. E/c2 (Answer)
C. E/c
D. c2/E
Which one of the following radiations has the strongest photon?

A. T.V waves
B. Microwaves
Page 278
C. X-rays
D. γ-rays (Answer)
0.001 kg mass will be equivalent to---------?

A. 2.50 GWh
B. 25.00 GWh (Answer)
C. 0.26 GWh
D. 250 GWh
Mark the wrong statement ?

A. a frame of reference which is either at rest or moves with a constant velocity is called an inertial frame of
reference
B. an un-accelerated frame of reference is called an inertial frame of reference
C. all the frames of reference in uniform rectilinear motion are equivalent
D. Newtons laws of motion are valid in an accelerated (non inertial) frame of reference (Answer)
An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at very high (relativistic) speed and finds that the length of meter
stick is--------?
A. greater than one meter
B. less than one meter (Answer)
C. one meter
D. a foolish question
Linear momentum of a photon is--------?

A. zero (Answer)
B. hv/c2
C. hv/c
D. c2/hv
The linear momentum of an X-ray photon of wavelength 0.1A is--------?

A. 6.625x1023N-s (Answer)
B. 66.25x1023N-s
C. 662.5x1023N-s
D. data is insufficient
Stopping potential for a metal surface in case of photoelectric emission depends on-------?
A. the threshold frequency for the metal surface
Page 279
B. the intensity of incident light
C. the frequency of incident light and work function of the metal surface (Answer)
D. all of the above
The existence of Ether wind was experimentally rejected by---------?

A. equal to its rest mass
B. double of its rest mass
C. infinite (Answer)
D. zero
Page 280
Chemistry MCQS With Solved Answers
The soul of chemistry is dealing with------?
A. Internal structural changes in matter
B. Composition of matter
C. Properties of matter
D. Composition and properties of matter (Answer)
The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is called------?

A. tritium (Answer)
B. deuterium
C. protium
D. ortho-hydrogen
Electron was discovered by?

A. Michael Faraday
B. James Maxwell
C. Yuri Gagarin
D. J.J Thomson (Answer)
Sodium carbonate is produced by------?

A. haber process
B. Amonia solvay process (Answer)
C. decons process
D. lead chamber process
Which of the following is a substance?

A. Sea water
B. Brass
C. Tape water
D. Graphite (Answer)
E. Sand
Some substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid states. These substances are
generally-------?
Page 281
A. ionic substances
B. metallic substances (Answer)
C. molecular solids
D. covalent network solids
All of the following substances are crystalline except-------?

A. Ice
B. Diamond
C. Sucrose
D. Plastic (Answer)
Covalent network crystals have-------?

A. higher melting point then molecular crystals (Answer)
B. lower melting point then molecular crystals
C. discrete molecules linked by Van der waals forces
D. hydrogen bonding
What is a mixture of Potassium Nitrate Powdered Charcoal and Sulphur called?

A. Paint
B. Glass
C. Gun Powder (Answer)
D. Cement
Diameter of an atom is in the order of--------?

A. 0.2m
B. 0.2mm
C. 0.2nm (Answer)
D. 0.2pm
An alcohol which can be prepared by fermentation is---------?

A. CH3OH
B. C3H7OH
C. CH3 – CH2 – OH (Answer)
D. C6H5OH
When alcohol reacts with phosphorous halides it geive----------?

A. alkyl halides (Answer)
Page 282
B. alkyl amine
C. alkanes
D. alkynes
Which one of the following compound does not have – OH group----------?

A. ethylene glycol
B. glycerol
C. picric acid
D. ethyl acetate (Answer)
Ethers show functional group isomerism with ---------?

A. aldehydes
B. ketones
C. alcohols (Answer)
D. carboxylic acid
Which one of the following is also known as lactic acid ?

A. 3-Hydroxy propanoic acid
B. 2-Hydroxy propanoic acid (Answer)
C. 2-hydroxy butanoic acid
D. 3-hydroxy butanoic acid
Which one of the following alcohol has greater boiling point----------?

A. ethanol
B. ethylene glaycol
C. glycerol (Answer)
D. methanol
Water gas heated at 450?C and 200 atm pressure in the presence of ZnO+Cr2O3 will produce--------?
A. methanol
B. methanol (Answer)
C. carbonic acid
D. methane
The formula of starch is---------?

A. C12H22O11
B. C6H10O5
Page 283
C. (C6H10O5)n (Answer)
D. C6H12O6
The rectified spirit contains--------?

A. 12% alcohol
B. 90% alcohol
C. 95% alcohol (Answer)
D. 100% alcohol
The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will yield----------?

A. propane
B. Propanol
C. Propanone (Answer)
D. Propanoic acid
The distinction test for primary secondary and tertiary alcohol required to react each of them is---------?
A. Cone. HCI and anhydrous SOCl2
B. Cone. HCI and anhydrous CaCl2
C. Cone. HCI and anhydrous PCl2
D. Cone. HCI and anhydrous ZnCl2 (Answer)
The given dissociation constant (Ka) value 1.3×10-10 is of---------?

A. Alcohol
B. Acetic acid
C. Water
D. Phenol (Answer)
When phenol is heated with concentrated nitric acid the product is--------?
A. Picric acid (Answer)
B. o-nitrophenol
C. 1 3 5 -trinitro benzene
D. p-nitrophenol
Which compound shows hydrogen bonding ?

A. C2H6
B. C2H5Cl
C. CH3OCH3
Page 284
D. C2H5OH (Answer)
Methyl alcohol is not used---------?

A. As a solvent
B. As an antifreezing agent
C. As a substitute for petrol (Answer)
D. For denaturing of ethyl alcoholMass spectrometer is used to determine Mass number of isotopes and--------
--?
A. Atomic number
B. Relative abundance (Answer)
C. Electronic configuration
D. All of the above
The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows----------?

A. Relative abundance
B. Average mass of element
C. Number of isotopes (Answer)
D. Relative isotopic mass
Empirical formula of chloroform is----------?

A. CH2 C12
B. CH3C1
C. CC14
D. CHCL3 (Answer)
Molecular mass of water (18g) means---------?
A. 1-mole molecules of water
B. 1-gram molecule of water
C. 3-gram atoms
D. all (Answer)
Which of the following statements about isotopes is correct ?

A. Isotopes with odd atomic number are abundant
B. Isotopes with odd atomic number and even mass number are abundant
C. Isotopes with even atomic number and even mass number are abundant (Answer)
D. Isotopes with even atomic number and odd mass no are abundant
One mole of CO2 contains?
Page 285
A. 6.022 x 1023 atoms of oxygen
B. 22-gram electrons
C. 6.022 x 1023 atms of carbon
D. both B. & C. (Answer)
The number of isotopes of elements with even mass number and even atomic number are --------?
A. 280
B. 300
C. 154 (Answer)
D. 54
Which of the following terms is not used for ionic compound ?

A. formula unit
B. empirical formula
C. molecular formula (Answer)
D. formula mass
moles of each aluminium and oxygen react with each other to produce aluminium oxide. The amount of
product formed is-----------?
A. 0.18 mole (Answer)
B. 0.27 mole
C. 0.24 mole
D. 0.09 mole
Which one of the following has the maximum number of isotopes ?

A. oxygen
B. carbon
C. tin (Answer)
D. chlorine
Which alcohol will undergo elimination reaction to give alkene in the presence of acidic potassium dichromate
?
A. Primary alcohol
B. Secondary alcohol
C. Tertiary alcohol (Answer)
D. All of above
Page 286
Which compound is also known by the name of carbolic acid ?
A. C2H2OH
B. H2CO3
C. C6H5OH (Answer)
D. H3PO3
Heating phenol with Zn will yield---------?

A. Benzene (Answer)
B. Benzoic acid
C. Phenoxide
D. Cyclohexane
Treating phenol with formaldehyde in the presence of dilute base forms Bakelite. The process involved is-------
--?
A. oxidation
B. elimination
C. condensation polymerization (Answer)
D. additional polymertization
Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by---------?

A. Hydrogenation
B. Hydration
C. Oxidation (Answer)
D. Fermentation
Methanol can be obtained from---------?

A. water gas
B. destructive distillation of wood
C. methane
D. all (Answer)
Absolute alcohol is obtained when rectified spirit is treated with---------?

A. Ca(OH)2
B. CaCO3
C. CaCl2
D. CaO (Answer)
Page 287
Phenol was isolated by Runge from--------?
A. vegetable oil
B. coaltar (Answer)
C. wood
D. none of these
The hydrogenation of phenol in the presence of Ni and heat gives---------?

A. cyclohexane
B. n – hexane
C. 1 – hexanol
D. cyclohexanol (Answer)
Ethanol and methanol can be distinguished by a---------?

A. Iodoform test (Answer)
B. Lucas test
C. Benedicts test
D. Tollens test
The volume occupied by 2.8 g of N2 at STP-----------?

A. 2.24 dm3 (Answer)
B. 22.4 dm3
C. 1.12 dm3
D. 112 dm3
The number of moles of CO2 which contains 16 g of oxygen is---------?

A. 0.25
B. 0.5 (Answer)
C. 0.75
D. 1
How many isotopes have odd atomic number ?

A. 154
B. 280
C. 86 (Answer)
D. 300
Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is----------?
Page 288
A. 80%
B. 30%
C. 40% (Answer)
D. 20%
Mostly elements have fractional atomic masses because of-----------?

A. mass of an atom itself is in fraction
B. atomic masses are average masses of isobars
C. atmoic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their relative abundance
D. atmoic masses are average masses of isotopes
Which of the following is not a macromolecule ?

A. sand
B. haemoglobin
C. diamond
D. maltose (Answer)
Isotopes of the same elements has---------?

A. different number of protons
B. same number of neutrons
C. different number of neutrons (Answer)
D. same mass number (nucleon number)
When cationic molecular ions are allowed to pass through strong magnetic field in mass spectrometer which
of the following ions is fallen---------?
A. lighter (Answer)
B. intermediate
C. heavier
D. are collected at same time
For which of the following compounds the term empirical formula cannot be applied ?
A. NaCl
B. H2O
C. CCI4
D. It can be applied to all mentioned above (Answer)
The properties of an element mosly corresponds to that isotope which has greater---------?
Page 289
A. Mass number
B. Atomic mass
C. Relative abundance (Answer)
D. all of the above
For which mechanisms the first step involved is the same ?

A. E1 + E2
B. E2 + SN2
C. E1 and SN1 (Answer)
D. SN1 and SN2
Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophile because---------?
A. they have an electrophilic carbon
B. they have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving group (Answer)
C. they have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving group
D. they have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving group
Which one of the following reactants will be required to form straight chain alcohol by using Grignard reagent-
-------?
A. formaldehyde
B. ketone
C. ethylene epoxide
D. both A & C (Answer)
Ethylene epoxide treated with Grignards reagent followed by acid hydrolysis yield ---------?
A. primary alcohol (Answer)
B. secondary alcohol
C. tertiary alcohol
D. dihydric alcohol
Alkyl halides undergo a type of reaction---------?

A. Nucleophilic substitution
B. Nucleophilic addition
C. Elimination
D. both A & C (Answer)
Which one of the following is termed as benzul alcohol ?
Page 290
A. C6H5OH
B. C6H5CH(OH)2
C. C6H5CH2OH (Answer)
D. C6H5COOH
Which one of the following is also known as tartaric acid ?

A. 2 3-dihydroxy butance 1 4 -dioic acid (Answer)
B. 2 3 -dihydroxy butanedioic acid
C. 2 3 -dihydroxy butanioc acid
D. 2 2 -dihydroxy butanoic acid
The residue obtained after the crystallization of sugar from concentrated sugar cane juice is called---------?
A. Mother liquor
B. Filterate
C. Extract
D. Molasses (Answer)
The process of fermentation of starch involve many enzymes the sequence of enzymes used are----------?
A. Diastase-maltase-zymase (Answer)
B. Zymase-maltase-diastase
C. Maltase-diastase-zymase
D. Diastase-zymase-maltase
K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 generate----------?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nascent oxygen[O] (Answer)
D. Nascent hydrogen[H]
1 a.m.u =---------?
A. 1.6 x 10-27 kg (Answer)
B. 1.6 x 10-24 kg
C. 1.6 x 10-26 kg
D. 1.6 x 10-28 kg
Which of the following are isoelectronic species ?

A. H+ H H-
B. Li+ Na+ K+
Page 291
C. C1- Br- I
D. F- Ne Na+ (Answer)
Molecular ions are formed by passing-----------?

A. High energy electron beam
B. ? – particle
C. X-rays
Which one is true about isotope ?

A. Same number of neutrons
B. Same mass number
C. Same physical properties
D. Same chemical properties (Answer)
Which of the following ion formation is always exothermic ?

A. Uni-negative (Answer)
B. Uni-positive
C. Di-negative
D. Di-positive
The sample of isotopes of an element which needs not to be vaporized in the vaporization chamer---------?
A. Gas (Answer)
B. Liquid
C. Volatile solid
D. All
Avogadros number may represent---------?

A. volume of particles
B. number of particles
C. mass of particles
Size of molecule depends upon--------?

A. Atomicity
B. Shape of molecule
Page 292
D. Difficult to predict
Which of the following terms is used for the mass of chlorine 35.5 ?
A. relative atomic mass (Answer)
B. mass number
C. atomic weight
D. relative isotopic mass
Which one of the following is not the mono isotopic element ?

A. arsenic
B. uranium (Answer)
C. iodine
D. nickel
The mass of decimole of electrons (NA) is----------?

A. 1.008 mg
B. 0.184 mg
C. 0.054 mg (Answer)
D. 5.4 mg
Which of the following statements is wrong about isotopes ?

A. they possess different mass number
B. they possess different physical properties
C. they possess same chemical properties
D. they possess different position in the periodic table (Answer)
Qualitative analysis is carried out for ---------?

A. identification of elements (Answer)
B. estimation of amounts of elements
C. molar ration of elements
D. molar volume of elements
Combustion analysis is performed to determine---------?

A. Empirical formula (Answer)
B. Molecular mass
C. Molecular formula
D. Formula mass
Page 293
Isotopes differ in---------?
A. properties which depend upon mass (Answer)
B. arrangement of electrons in orbitals
C. chemical properties
D. all of the above
Which of the following methods is used to estimate hydrogen in an organic compound ?

A. Combustion method (Answer)
B. Dumas method
C. Kjeldahls method
D. All of the above methods are for different purposes
The nucleus of an atom of every element will always contain----------?

A. neutrons
B. protons and electrons
C. protons (Answer)
D. protons and neutrons
When 0.5 mole of phosphoric acid is dissolved in aqueous solution how many moles of -ve and +ve ions are
collected altogether ?
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2 (Answer)
Dempsters mass spectrometer has number of zones / parts---------?

A. 5 (Answer)
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
All the following variables are used to describle gases except---------?

A. pressure
B. volume
C. moles
D. density (Answer)
Page 294
Which one of the following molecules does not form alcohol when reacts with Grignard reagent ?
A. formaldehyde
B. acetaldehyde
C. propanone
D. carbondioxide (Answer)
In primary alkyl halides the halogen atom is attached to a carbon which is further attached to how many
carbon atoms---------?
A. two
B. three
C. one (Answer)
D. four
The best method of preparation of alkyl halides is a reaction of alcohol with---------?

A. Zn / HCI
B. SOCl2 / Pyridine (Answer)
C. PCI3
D. PCI5
50% inversion of configuration of molecules take place in a----------?

A. E1 – reaction
B. E2 – reaction
C. SN1 – reaction (Answer)
D. SN2 – reaction
Which alkyl halide has the highest reactivity for a particular alkyl group ?
A. R-F
B. R-C
C. R-Br
D. R-I (Answer)
Which one is not a nucleophile ?

A. C2H5O-
B. SCN-
C. NH3
Page 295
D. H3C+ (Answer)
Which alkyl halide out of the following may follow both SN1 and SN2 mechanism ?
A. CH3-X
B. (CH3)3 C-CH2 – X
C. (CH3)2 CH – X (Answer)
D. (CH3)3 C – X
When two moles of ethyl chloride react with two moles of sodium in the presence of ether what will be
formed ?
A. 2 moles of ethane
B. 1 mole of ethane
C. 2 moles of butane
D. 1 mole of butane (Answer)
When CO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium iodide followed by acid hydrolysis the product formed is ----
-----?
A. propane
B. propanoic acid (Answer)
C. propanal
D. propanol
SN2 reaction can be best carried out with---------?

A. primary alkyl halide (Answer)
B. secondary alkyl halide
C. tertiary alkyl halide
D. all
Methyl alcohol is not used as----------?

A. a solvent
B. an anti freezing agent
C. a substitute for petrol (Answer)
D. for denaturing of ethyl alcohol
Oxygen (molecular weight = 32) diffuses at a rate of 10cm3/min under the same conditions of temperature
and pressure how fast will hydrogen (molecular weight = 2) diffuse ?
A. 20cm3/min
Page 296
B. 40cm3/min (Answer)
C. 160cm3/min
D. 2.5cm3/min
As a substance moves from a solid to a liquid all of the following changes occur except ?
A. molecules become more disordered.
B. K.E of the molecules decreases (Answer)
C. intermolecular forces become weaker.
D. molecules move more frequently.
The rectified spirit is--------?

A. 12% alcohol
B. 90% alcohol
C. 95% alcohol (Answer)
D. 100% alcohol
Which of the following solids show anisotropy----------?

A. Plastic
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. None of the above (Answer)
Butyl chloride gives possible isomers ?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 (Answer)
D. 5
Metallic crystals are soluble in--------?

A. Polar solvent
B. Non polar solvent
C. Fused metal (Answer)
D. None
Paramagnetic behaviour of substance is measured by a balance called----------?

A. Analytical balance
B. Guoys balance (Answer)
Page 297
C. Electrical balance
D. Single beam balance
Which of the following properties prove that cathode rays are material in nature---------?
A. they cast shadow
B. they possess momentum (Answer)
C. they are negatively charged
D. all of the above
When an electron is moving with velocity of 2.188 x 106 ms-1 in the first orbit of Bohrs model of hydrogen.
The de Broglie wavelength of electron is-------?
A. 0.33 nm (Answer)
B. 0.34 nm
C. 0.35 nm
D. 0.36 nm
When methl iodide and ethyl iodide are treated with sodium metal possible major products are obtained ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 (Answer)
D. 4
Which statement is consistent with Hunds rule ?

A. Electrons fill orbitals with parallel spins until all the orbitals of the same energy are half filled then they go
into sub-shells with anti-parallel (opposite) spin. (Answer)
B. The electrons in the same atom cannot have the same four quantum numbers
C. There is maximum of two electrons is an orbital.
D. None
Atomic number of Mn is 25 what is the electronic configuration in the ground state--------?

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p5
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 3d10
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s23d5
Which of the following is mineral fiber ?

A. Teflon
Page 298
B. asbestos (Answer)
C. saran
D. acrylic
The hardest of the following solids is---------?

A. sodium
B. diamond (Answer)
C. graphite
D. magnesium
Which of the solid does not contain covalent bond---------?

A. copper (Answer)
B. ice
C. diamond
D. graphite
The balanced chemical equation for the reaction which occurs when Be is added to water is------?
A. Be+2H2O?Be (OH)2+H2
B. Be+H2O?Be (OH)2+H2
C. Be+H2O?[Be (OH)4]+2+H2
D. no reaction (Answer)
Which of the following theories is superior to others---------?

A. VSEPR
B. VBT
C. MOT (Answer)
Which of the following is not characteristics of reversible reaction---------?

A. whole amount of reactant does not change into product
B. chemical equilibrium is established
C. a catalyst changes the direction of reaction (Answer)
D. rate of forward reaction decreases as reaction proceeds
A solution has pH = 0 its H+ ion concentration is---------?

A. 1 x 10-1
B. 1 x 10-14
Page 299
C. 1 x 10-7
D. 1 (Answer)
Ethyl chloride with nascent hydrogen produces---------?

A. methane
B. ethane (Answer)
C. propane
D. butane
The number of molecules taking part in the rate determining step is called----------?
A. Order of reaction (Answer)
B. Rate of reaction
C. Mole of a reaction
D. Extent of a reaction
What will be the order of reaction of a reaction whose rate can be expressed as R = K [A] [B] ?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two (Answer)
D. Three
What is the order of kinetics in the SN1 mechanism ?

A. Zero
B. First (Answer)
C. Second
D. Third
The rate of E1 reaction depends upon-----------?

A. the concentration of substrate (Answer)
B. the concentration of nucleophile
C. the concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile
D. base the concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile
Elimination bimolecular reactions involve--------------?

A. first order kinetics
B. second order kinetics (Answer)
C. third order kinetics
Page 300
D. zero order kinetics
Grignard reagent is reactive due to----------?

A. the presence of halogen atom
B. the presence of magnesium atom
C. the polarity of C-Mg bond (Answer)
D. all
The ether used in Wurtz synthesis is---------?

A. acidic
B. basic
C. aqueous
D. dry (Answer)
Which one of the following species is not an electrophile ?

A. NH3 (Answer)
B. Br+
C. H+
D. BF3
Which one of the following alcohols will be formed when ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with acetone ?
A. primary alcohol
B. secondary alcohol
C. tertiary alcohol (Answer)
D. dihydric alcohol
1 mole of electron has mass in microgram---------?

A. 1.008 x 10-3
B. 5.5 x 10-4 (Answer)
C. 1.84 x 10-4
D. 1.673 x 10-3
The use of antifreeze in the automobile radiator is an important application of---------?

A. constitutive property
B. additive property
C. colligative property (Answer)
D. intrinsic property
Page 301
At which electrode the reduction of the solution is occurring in Al-Ag cell-------?
A. A
B. Ag (Answer)
C. Both
D. Neither
In which of the following type of reactions energy of reactant is greater than energy of product--------?
A. endothermic
B. exothermic (Answer)
C. unpredictable
D. same
Which of following metals can be displaced by all other metals from its solution ?
A. Ag
B. A
C. Au (Answer)
D. Cu
Which of the elements do not fall in stair case of the modern periodic table---------?
A. Si
B. As
C. Te
Across short period the melting and boiling point increase upto ---------?
A. IIIA group
B. IVA group (Answer)
C. VA group
D. VIA group
Which of the following is the formula of chrome red ?

A. Pb3 O4 (Answer)
B. 2Pb CO3 – Pb (OH)2
C. Pb Cr O4 – Pb (OH)2
D. Pb2O
Page 302
Regular coiling or zigzagging of polypeptide through hydrogen bonding is its----------?
A. Quantum structure
B. Secondary structure (Answer)
C. Tertiary structure
D. Primary structure
In the van der Waals equation (P + n2a / v2) (v – nb) = nRT which of the following statement is not true ?
A. n2a/v correct for the intermolecular forces.
B. nb correct for the volume occupied by gas molecules.
C. at high densities the equation reduces to the ideal gas law (Answer)
D. all of the above statements are correct.
The inhaled breath of diabetics patient contain acetone. A medical student wishes to test for diabetes by
asking patient to bubble their breath through a reagent ?
A. alkaline aquenous iodine (Answer)
B. aqueous bromine
C. Fehling solution
D. aqueous NaOH
When aquious bromine is added to aqueous phenol a creamy white ppt is obtained. What does this reaction
show ?
A. phenol is unsaturated
B. 2-bromophenol is insoluble in water
C. a hydroxy group makes the benzene ring more susceptible to electrophilic attack (Answer)
D. acid-base reaction
If a graph is plotted between temperature on x-axis and volume on y-axis for 1 mole of gas then we get
straight line which cuts the temperature exis at--------?
A. 0?C
B. 273.16K
C. ?273.16 K
D. ?273.16?C (Answer)
Benzene is a good solvent for---------?

A. fats
B. resins
C. iodine
Page 303
D. all the above (Answer)
Which of the following element doesnot show allotropy---------?

A. Carbon
B. Arsenic
C. Nitrogen (Answer)
D. Sulphur
Purines and pyrimidines are---------?

A. Enzymes
B. Nitrogenous bases (Answer)
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipids
All the transition elements show---------?

A. Similar physical properties
B. Similar chemical properties
C. Both A and b
D. None (Answer)
In solids the temperature is the measure of---------?

A. Average kinetic energy of molecules
B. Vibrational kinetic energy (Answer)
C. Translational kinetic energy
Fruit juices and fizzy drinks such as lemonade are often sold in aluminium cans. What is the most important
reason aluminium is a suitable metal ?
A. aluminium can be recycled
B. aluminium has very low density
C. aluminium is the most abundant metal in the earth crust
D. aluminium is resistant to corrosion by organic acids. (Answer)
On heating aldehydes with Fehlings solution we get a precipitate whose colour is---------?
A. pink
B. black
C. yellow
Page 304
D. brick red (Answer)
What is maximum number of electrons in an orbital with m (magnetic quantum number) = 3 ?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2 (Answer)
Which catalyst is used in contact process ?

A. Fe2O3
B. V2O5 (Answer)
C. SO3
D. Ag2O
Which of the following elements has greater 1st ionization energy---------?

A. B
B. C
C. N (Answer)
D. O
Which of the following molecule is polar---------?

A. CCI4
B. CO2
C. BF3
D. none of the above (Answer)
Which of the following points are important in connection with equilibrium constant ?
A. Kc is constant at given temperature
B. Kc is unaffected by change in concentration of reactants or products
C. Kc indicates the extent of reaction but not about the rate of reaction.
Solubility of CaF2 is 2.0×10-4 gdm-3 then Ksp of CaF2 is--------?

A. 4.0 x 10-8
B. 3.2 x 10-11 (Answer)
C. 2.0 x 10-8
D. 4.0 x 10-12
Page 305
The unit of molality is---------?
A. moles dm-3
B. moles kg-1 (Answer)
C. gram dm-3
D. none
A solution can be both----------?

A. dilute and concentrated (Answer)
B. dilute and saturated
C. saturated and unsaturated
D. saturated and super saturated
Consider the following redox reaction. Zn+dil HNO3? Zn (NO3)2 + N2O + H2O The coefficient number of HNO3
in the equation is---------?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10 (Answer)
D. 4
Which of the following elements react with steam to produce H2 gas?

A. Pd
B. Ni
C. Sn
Dehalogenation of ethyl tetrahalide will give----------?

A. ethene
B. ethyne (Answer)
C. ethyl halide
D. all of the above are possible
Upto ---------- C atoms alkanes are gases?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 (Answer)
D. 6
Page 306
Incomplete oxidation of methane in the limited supply of air forms ?
A. CO2 and H2O
B. CH3OH (Answer)
C. CO + H2 + C
D. CO + H2O + C
Order of ease of halogenation in alkane is--------?

A. I2>Cl2>Br2>F2
B. F2>Cl2>I2>Br2
C. F2>Cl2>Br2>I2 (Answer)
D. Cl2>F2>Br2>I2
General formula of alkyne is-------?

A. CnH2n + 2
B. CnH2n – 2 (Answer)
C. CnH2n
D. CnH2n + 2
Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom is---------?

A. halogenation
B. dehalogenation
C. dehydrohalogenation (Answer)
D. hydrohalogenation
Reactivity due to pi-electrons is present in---------?

A. alkane
B. alkene
C. alkyne
D. both B & C (Answer)
Raney nickel is prepared from ----------- by treating with caustic soda?

A. Ni-Cu alloy
B. Ni-Fe alloy
C. Ni-Al alloy (Answer)
D. Ni-Mg alloy
Page 307
Vinylacetylene combines with HCI to form----------?
A. polyacetylene
B. benzene
C. chloroprene (Answer)
D. divinyl acetylene
Which C-X bond has the highest bond energy per mole ?
A. C-F (Answer)
B. C-C
C. C-Br
D. C-I
The unit of the rate constant (k) is same as that of rate of reaction--------?
A. First order reaction
B. Second order reaction
C. Zero order reaction (Answer)
D. Third order reaction
Acid present in acid rain may be---------?

A. H2SO4
B. HNO3
Which of the following elements conduct electricity and also melts below 100°C ?
A. Aluminium
B. Sodium (Answer)
C. Carbon
D. Sulphur
The compound which is added to leaded gasoline to save engine from lead oxide and lead sulphate deposits is-
--------?
A. Ethylene iodide
B. Ethylene bromide (Answer)
C. Ethylene chloride
D. Ethylene fluoride
Isotopes differs in-----------?
Page 308
A. arrangement of electrons in orbitals
B. position in the periodic table
C. properties depend upon mass
D. chemical properties (Answer)
The volume occupied by 1.4g CO at S.T.P is----------?

A. 22.4 dm3
B. 2.24 dm3
C. 1.12 cm3
D. 1.12 dm3 (Answer)
Which of the following set has all species isoelectronic---------?

A. F – Cl – Br
B. Li+1 – Na+1 – K+1
C. F – Ne – Na+ (Answer)
D. H+ – H- – H
Water absorber used in combustion analysis is----------?

A. 50% KOH
B. Lime water
C. CaCl2
D. Mg (CIO4)2 (Answer)
The type of filtering media used for filtration depending upon----------?

A. Nature of reactants
B. Nature of crucible
C. Nature of product
D. Nature of precipitate (Answer)
A method of separation of components from its solution using Distribution law is ----------?
A. Sublimation
B. Crystallisation
C. Solvent extraction (Answer)
D. Distillation
Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in empty container at 250?(C) The fraction of total pressure
exerted by oxygen is----------?
Page 309
A. one / seventeen
B. sixteen / seventeen
C. one / three (Answer)
D. two / three
The molecules of CO2 in dry ice form---------?

A. Ionic crystal
B. Covalent crystal
C. Molecular crystal (Answer)
D. Any type of crystal
Only London dispersion forces are present among the---------?

A. Molecules of water in liquid state
B. Atoms of helium in gaseous state at high temperature
C. Molecules of hydrogen chloride gas
D. Molecules of solid iodine (Answer)
Quantum number values for 3p orbitals are----------?

A. n=3 l=2
B. n=3 l=0
C. n=3 l=1 (Answer)
D. n=3 l=3
Which specie has unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals--------?

A. O2+2
B. N2-2 (Answer)
C. B2
D. O2-2
For a given process the heat changes at constant pressure (qp) and at constant volume (qv) are related to each
other as----------?
A. qp = qv
B. qp < qv
C. qp > qv (Answer)
D. qp = qv / 2
Page 310
Solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6. Maximum Concentration of Ag+1 ions in the solution is-----
----?
A. 2.0 x 10-10 mol dm-3
B. 1.414 x 10-5 mol dm-3 (Answer)
C. 1.0 x 10-10 mol dm-3
D. 1.0 x 10-5 mol dm-3
Which of the following solution has the highest boiling point ?

A. 5.85% NaCl Solution (Answer)
B. 18.0 % glucose solution
C. 6.0 % urea solution
D. All have same boiling point
Which of the following can be used in laptops ?

A. Silver oxide battery
B. Fuel cell
C. Nickel cadmium cell (Answer)
D. Lead accumulator
Which is the unit of (K) rate constant for zero order reaction ?
A. s-1
B. mol dm-3 s-1 (Answer)
C. mol-1 dm3 s-1
D. mol-2 dm6 s-1
Alkenes are produced from dehalogenation of--------?

A. dihalo alkane
B. trihalo alkane
C. vicinal dihalo alkane (Answer)
D. vicinal trihalo alkane
In unsaturated hydrocarbons electrons favour----------?

A. less reactivity
B. addition reactions (Answer)
C. substitution reactions
D. none
Page 311
Which one is Chloroform---------?
A. CH2Cl2
B. CH3Cl
C. CHCl3 (Answer)
D. CCl4
Which is used for artificial ripening of fruit ?

A. ethane
B. ethene (Answer)
C. ethyne
D. methane
Preparation of vegetable ghee involves---------?

A. halogenation
B. hydroxylation
C. hydrogenation (Answer)
D. hydration
Which is methyl cyanide---------?

A. CH3NH2
B. CH3NO2
C. CH3CN (Answer)
D. CH2 = CH – CN
When one hydrogen atom of alkane is removed then it is called--------?

A. alkene
B. alkyl (Answer)
C. aldehyde
D. saturated hydrocarbon
Sabatier Senderns reaction involve ------- in presence of Ni?

A. Aalkene & H2 (Answer)
B. alkene & O2
C. alkene & N2
D. alkyne & Cl2
Clemmensens reduction infolves the reduction of----------?
Page 312
A. ketone (Answer)
B. aldehyde
C. alkane
D. all of the above
Soda lime is a mixture of----------?

A. CaO and KOH
B. CaO and NaOH (Answer)
C. NaOH and Na2O
D. Na2O and KOH
Which is carnalite--------?
A. KCI
B. NaCI
C. KCI MgCl2 6H2O (Answer)
D. Na2CO3. 10H2O
Which one does not give borax bead test---------?

A. Copper sulphate
B. Barium sulphate
C. Cobalt sulphate
D. Nickel sulphate
The most reactive allotropic form of phosphorus is--------?

A. White (Answer)
B. Redox potential
C. Black
D. Violet
Which molecule has the highest bond energy among the halogens---------?
A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine (Answer)
C. Iodine
D. Bromine
The most paramagnetic element is----------?

A. Iron (Answer)
Page 313
B. Cobalt
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
Which one of the following looks odd---------?

A. H2SO4
B. KMnO4
C. H2S (Answer)
D. K2CrO4
In 1 – pentene -4- yne the carbon exhibit hybridization---------?

A. sp3 – sp2
B. sp2 – sp
C. sp2 – sp
D. sp3 – sp2 – sp (Answer)
When benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450°C yields---------?

A. Phenol
B. Maleic anhydride (Answer)
C. Glyoxal
D. Benzoic acid
Which one of the following will be sulphonated readily ?

A. Chlorobenzene
B. Toluene (Answer)
C. Nitrobenzene
D. Benzene
When CO2 is made to react with ethy1 magnesium iodide in dry ether followed by acid hydrolysis yields-------?
A. Carboxylic acid
B. Ethanoic acid
C. Propanoic acid (Answer)
D. Butanoic acid
Ethy1 chloride on reduction in the presence of Zn/HCI produces----------?
A. n. butane
B. Ethanol
C. Ethane (Answer)
Page 314
D. Diethy1 ether
For industrial preparation of CH3CHO catalytic promoter is---------?

A. PdCl2
B. Cu2Cl2 (Answer)
C. CuCl2
D. PbCl2
Which of the following is not a fatty acid ?

A. Propanoic acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Phthalic acid (Answer)
D. Butanoic acid
Which one of the following fertilizers provides the nitrogen and phosphorus to the plant ?
A. Urea (Answer)
B. Calcium superphosphate
C. Diammonium phosphate
D. Potassium nitrate
Chlorination of water may be harmful if the water contains---------?

A. Ammonia
B. Dissolved oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide (Answer)
D. All
The mass of one mole of electron is--------?

A. 1.008
B. 0.55 (Answer)
C. 0.184
D. 1.637
The number of atoms in a molecule determines--------?

A. macromolecule
B. macromolecule
C. molecularity
D. atomicity (Answer)
Page 315
Which element has same isotopes like palladium----------?
A. Nickel
B. Calcium (Answer)
C. Cadmium
D. Tin
A limiting reactant is one which--------?

A. is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other reactants
B. is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to other reactants
C. gives the maximum amount of the product which is required
D. gives the minimum amount of the product under consideration (Answer)
A safe and more reliable method for drying the crystal is---------?
A. Hot air currents
B. folds of filter paper
C. oven
D. Vacuum desiccator (Answer)
A real gas obeying vander waals equation will resemble the ideal gas if------------?
A. Both a and b are small (Answer)
B. Both a and b are large
C. a is small and b is large
D. a is large and b is small
Plasma is used in---------?

A. Fluorescent bulb
B. Neon signs
C. Lasers
D. All of these (Answer)
Which of the following is pseudo solid-----------?

A. CaF2
B. NaCl
C. Glass (Answer)
D. Diamond
Page 316
Bohrs model is contradicted by---------?
A. Plancks theory
B. Dual nature of matter
C. Heisenbergs uncertainty principle (Answer)
D. All of these
Atomic radius can be determined by---------?

A. X – ray diffraction (Answer)
B. Spectrophotometer
C. Optical microscope
D. Electron microscope
For which system does the equilibrium constant Kc has unit of (concentration)-1---------?
A. N2+3H2 2NH3
B. H2+I2 2HI
C. 2NO2 N2H4 (Answer)
D. PCI5 PCI3+CI2
18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water the relative lowering in vapour pressure is equal to ----------?
A. 8
B. 5.1
C. 6
D. one/fifty one (Answer)
Stronger is the oxidizing agent greater is the----------?

A. Oxidation potential
B. Redox potential
C. e.m.f of cell
D. standard reduction potential (Answer)
Which is true about Zn-Cu galvanic cell ?

A. Reduction occurs at anode
B. K+ ion transfer from salt bridge to left beaker of ZnSO4
C. Oxidation occurs at cathode
D. Anode is negatively charged (Answer)
Nitrates of which pair gives different products on thermal decomposition----------?
Page 317
A. Na K
B. Mg Ca
C. Li Na (Answer)
D. Li Ca
Alkanes containing a methyl group on main chain at 2nd carbon are called--------?
A. iso-alkane (Answer)
B. normal-alkane
C. neo-alkane
D. branched-alkane
Alkanes are also known as--------?

A. saturated hydrocarbon
B. unsaturated hydrocarbon
C. paraffins (Answer)
D. both A & C
Hydrogenolysis results in the formation of--------?

A. alkane (Answer)
B. alkene
C. alkyne
D. aldehydes
Removal of CO2 is called-----------?

A. carboxylation
B. decarboxylation (Answer)
C. esterification
D. hydroxylation
Molozonide is unstable and changes into ozonide on---------?

A. reduction
B. oxidation
C. hydrolysis
D. rearrangement (Answer)
R-Mg-Br is called----------?
A. Grignard reagent
Page 318
B. Metallic alkyl halide
C. Both A & B (Answer)
D. Alkyl
Which of the following is the most reactive---------?

A. ethane
B. ethyne
C. ethene (Answer)
D. benzene
Introduction of nitro group in a molecule is called----------?

A. nitration (Answer)
B. halogenation
C. sulphonation
D. amination
The gas used in manufacturing of urea fertilizer---------?

A. C2H6
B. C2H4
C. C2H2
D. CH4 (Answer)
Which of the following will be acidic-------?

A. propyne
B. 1-butyne
C. ethyne
D. all of the above (Answer)
Keeping in view the size of atom which is in correct order----------?

A. Mg > Sr
B. Ba > Mg (Answer)
C. Lu > Ce
D. CI > 1
Which one is not the use of silicones------------?

A. Lubricant
B. Water repellent film
Page 319
C. Rubber sheet
D. Medicine (Answer)
Chemical composition of cinnabar is----------?

A. FeS2
B. HgS (Answer)
C. PbS
D. ZnS
When chlorine is passed through hot solution of caustic soda the reaction is said as----------?
A. Displacement
B. Reduction
C. Disproportionation reaction (Answer)
D. Double displacement reaction
In the complex [Cr(OH)3(H2O)3] the coordination number is ---------?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6 (Answer)
A great variety of the organic compounds is due to its property of carbon---------?

A. Show tetravalency
B. Exhibit catenation (Answer)
C. Show isomerism
D. Can form multiple bonds
Vinyl acetylene combines with hydrochloric acid produces----------?

A. Diviny1 acetylene
B. Ethylidine dichloride
C. Chloroprene (Answer)
D. 1 – 3 – 3 – trichloro butane
When toluene reacts with chlorine in sunlight the first major product is---------?
A. Benzy1 chloride (Answer)
B. Benzal dichloride
C. O-chlorotoluene
Page 320
D. O-chlorotoluene and P-chlorotoluene
Which one of the following is not a good leaving group ?

A. HSO4-
B. Cl-
C. OH- (Answer)
D. Br-
The process of fermentation involves all the enzymes except---------?

A. Diastase
B. Invertase
C. Zymase
D. Sucrase (Answer)
Which one does not exhibit aldol condensation----------?

A. Ethanal
B. Acetone
C. Benzaldehyde (Answer)
D. Butanone
The common name of propane -1 3-dioic acid is----------?

A. Oxalic acid
B. Succinic acid
C. Malonic acid (Answer)
D. Fumaric acid
Industrial materials thermal power stations are coated with---------?

A. Polyester resins
B. Epoxy paints (Answer)
C. polyamide resins
D. Polyvinyl chloride
Main source of organic compounds is---------?

A. Animal (Answer)
B. Fossil
C. Coal
Page 321
D. Plants
Hydro carbons which burn with smoky flame are called---------?

A. Aliphatic
B. Alicyclic
C. Aromatic (Answer)
D. Aldehyde
Octane number 2 2 4-trimethyl pentane is---------?

A. 100 (Answer)
B. 90
C. 80
D. 70
Geometric isomerism is usually found in----------?

A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes (Answer)
C. Alkynes
D. Esters
Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have--------?
A. Low melting points (Answer)
B. Low vapour pressure
C. High boiling points
D. High electrical conductivity
According to vital force theory--------?

A. Oorganic compounds can be synthesized from inorganic compounds
B. organic compounds cannot be synthesized from inorganic compounds (Answer)
C. organic compounds can be synthesized by animals
D. organic compounds can be synthesized by plants
A double bond consists of ---------?

A. Two sigma bonds
B. Two Pi bonds
C. One sigma and one Pi bonds (Answer)
D. One sigma and two Pi bonds
Page 322
Chemical properties of first member of homologous series with respect to other members are---------?
A. same (Answer)
B. different
C. depends upon number of C atoms
D. depends upon number of H atoms
Compounds having same molecular formula but differ in structural formula are called ---------?
A. polymer
B. monomer
C. isomer (Answer)
D. allotropes
Organic compounds are soluble in ----------?

A. polar solvent
B. non-polar solvent (Answer)
C. alkalies
D. water
Methane is used in power generation in chemical industries being a---------?

A. natural gas
B. good caloric value
C. cheaper (Answer)
D. All
The precess in which larger molecule with higher molecular weight breaks down into smaller moleucles with
lower molecular weight----------?
A. polymerization
B. pyrolysis (Answer)
C. isomerism
D. no such process occurs
The metallic sound produced by engine due to the pre-ignition of fuel is called --------?
A. knocking (Answer)
B. reforming
C. cracking
D. a and c
Page 323
Which of the following can be used as anti-knocking agent ?
A. PbCl2
B. (C2H5)4 Pb (Answer)
C. (C2H5)2 Pb
D. all of the above
Isomerism which is present only in alkene is---------?

A. structural isomerism
B. metamerism
C. cis-trans isomerism (Answer)
D. both b and c
Compound containing benzene ring in their structure are ---------?

A. aliphatic
B. aromatic (Answer)
C. carboxylic acid
D. carbohydrates
Which of the following is an amide--------?

A. R-NH2
B. RCONH2 (Answer)
C. R – NH – R
D. C6H5NH2
Only sigma bonds are present in---------?

A. propene
B. butanoic acid
C. butanal
D. ethoxy ethane (Answer)
The structure of ethyne is---------?

A. angular
B. trigonal
C. linear (Answer)
D. trigonal planar
Page 324
The general formula of cycloalkene is ---------?
A. CnH2n
B. CnH2n+2
C. CnH2n-1
D. CnH2n-2 (Answer)
C5H12 has the number of isomers ----------?

A. one
B. two
C. three (Answer)
D. four
Octane number can be improved by--------?

A. Isomerization
B. Adding (C2H5)4 Pb
C. Adding (CH3)4 Pb
D. All (Answer)
Octane number 2 2 4-trimethyl pentane is--------?

A. 100 (Answer)
B. 90
C. 80
D. 70
Propene can exhibit--------?

A. cis-trans isomerism
B. geometric isomerism
C. both a & b
D. none of the above (Answer)
Pentane and 2-methyl butance have the same--------?

A. Boiling point
B. Melting point
C. Percentage composition (Answer)
D. Structural formula
The first organic compound was synthesized in laboratory by---------?
Page 325
A. Wohler (Answer)
B. Kolbe
C. Berzilius
D. Berthelot
First organic compound synthesized in laboratory was ---------?

A. tartaric acid
B. ethyl alcohol
C. methanol
D. urea (Answer)
Which of the following represents the correct electronic configuration of VII A group elements in the ground
state ?
A. ns2p2
B. ns2p4
C. ns2p5 (Answer)
D. ns2p6
Which is the strongest acid ?

A. HCIO
B. HCIO2
C. HCIO3
D. HCIO4 (Answer)
Bleaching powder is an example of--------?

A. Normal salt
B. Double salt
C. Mixed salt (Answer)
D. Complex
Which of the following oxides of iodine is used for quantitative analysis of CO ?

A. I2O4
B. I4O2
C. I2O5 (Answer)
D. All are equally useful
Which of the halogen has highest electronegativity ?
Page 326
A. Fluorine (Answer)
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
Which of the following statements is incorrect about halogens ?

A. All are non-metals
B. All the halogens have electronic conviguration ns2p5
C. They have high electron attinity and ionization energy
D. All the halogens react with noble gases to form their halides (Answer)
Fluorine can react with---------?

A. Xe
B. Kr
C. Rn
Which of the following is the weakest reducing agent ?

A. HF (Answer)
B. HBr
C. HC
D. HI
In which compound of Xenon the oxidation state of Xenon is + 6?

A. XeF4
B. XeOF4 (Answer)
C. XeOF2
D. Na4XeO6
The anhydride of HCIO4 is---------?

A. Cl2O
B. Cl2O6
C. ClO2
D. Cl2O7 (Answer)
The property of carbon chain formation is called ---------?

A. catenation (Answer)
Page 327
B. hybridization
C. polymerization
D. solvation
The organic compounds having very high molecular weight are called ---------?
A. carboxylic acids
B. ketones
C. aldehydes
D. polymers (Answer)
Rate of reactions of most organic compounds are----------?

A. very slow
B. very fast
C. slow (Answer)
D. no regular character present
Coal is produced after a long time decay of---------?

A. animals
B. fossils
C. wood (Answer)
D. all of the above
Crude oil is blackish coloured liquid produced after the decay of organic matter present between---------?
A. earth layer
B. mountains
C. sedimentary rocks (Answer)
D. rocks
At low temperature and pressure cracking can be done in presence of catalyst--------?

A. Al2O3
B. Fe2O3
C. Al2O3 and SiO2 (Answer)
D. Fe2O3 and SiO2
Which one of the following compounds shows intense knocking ?

A. n-pentane
B. iso-heptane
Page 328
C. iso-octane
D. n-heptane (Answer)
Ether functional group can be represented as ----------?

A. OH
B. R-CO-R
C. R-O-R (Answer)
D. R-COOH
A single atom or group of atoms which gives characteristic properties to a compound is called---------?
A. radical
B. hydrocarbon
C. functional group (Answer)
D. ion
2-propanol and 1-propanol show the isomerism--------?

A. metamerism
B. functional group isomerism
C. geometric isomerism
D. position isomerism (Answer)
The chemical formula of sodium hypochlorite is--------?

A. NaCLO (Answer)
B. NaClO2
C. NaClO3
D. NaClO4
Bleaching powder is not used for bleaching--------?

A. Cotton
B. Costly fabrics (Answer)
C. Linen
D. Paper pulb
Which of the following is not use of compounds of Fluorine--------?

A. SbF3 is used for manufacture of pottery
B. Sodium fluoroacetate is a rat poison
C. Cu F2 is used in ceramic industry
Page 329
Photographic plates are coated with a thin film of ---------?

A. AgNO3
B. AgI
C. AgCl
D. AgBr (Answer)
Indicate the correct statement---------?

A. Cl2 is the strongest oxidizing agent
B. I2 is a volatile solid (Answer)
C. Br2 is more reactive than Cl2
D. Cl2 is insoluble in water
Which one of the following halogens is present in Teflon--------?

A. I2
B. Br2
C. Cl2
D. F2 (Answer)
Which is the paramagnetic oxide of chlorine ?

A. Cl2O7
B. Cl2O6
C. ClO2 (Answer)
D. all
The colour of chlorine gas is--------?

A. pale yellow
B. freenish yellow (Answer)
C. reddish brown
D. grayish black
Which of the following statements is incorrect about fluorine--------?

A. fluorine is restricted to -1 oxidation state
B. fluorine follows octet rule and as well as extended octet rule
C. fluorine has lowest dissociation energy among the halogens
D. both B and C (Answer)
Page 330
Which one of the following is the weakest acid in water---------?
A. HF (Answer)
B. HCI
C. HBr
D. HI
Among the halogens the rare element is--------?

A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Astatine (Answer)
D. Iodine
Vander Waals forces are stronger in--------?

A. F2
B. Cl2
C. Br2
D. I2 (Answer)
The most powerful oxidizing agent among the halogens is---------?

A. F2 (Answer)
B. Cl2
C. Br2
D. I2
The halogen which reacts spontaneously with gold (Au) to form Au+3 is --------?
A. F2
B. Cl2 (Answer)
C. Br2
D. I2
The halogen which reacts very slowly with halogen is--------?

A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine (Answer)
Page 331
The halogen having highest electron affinity is-----------?
A. Fluorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
Bromine can be liberated from KBr solution by the action of --------?

A. Iodine solution
C. NaCl
D. Ki
Consider the following reaction- 2KCIO3 + H2C2O4 + H2SO4 ? K2SO4 + 2H2O + 2CO2 + Oxide Which oxide of
chlorine is produced in the above reaction ?
A. Cl2O
B. ClO2 (Answer)
C. Cl2O6
D. Cl2O7
Consider the following reaction- 3Cl2 + 6NaOH ? NaClO3 + 5NaCl + 3H2O This reaction is--------?
A. Displacement reaction
B. Double displacement reaction
C. Disproportionation reaction (Answer)
D. Reduction reaction
Which of the halogen can displace other three elements ?

A. Flourine (Answer)
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Bromine
Which of the following does not contain phosphorus ?

A. Yolk of egg
B. Bone
C. Nerves
D. Steel (Answer)
Page 332
Which one of the following is not the use of graphite ?
A. Lead pencils
B. Abrasive (Answer)
C. Lubricant
D. Electrode of electrolytic cell
The composition of brown ring in nitrate test is---------?

A. FeSO4.No (Answer)
B. FeSO4.No2
C. FeSO4.No3
D. FeSO4.N2o
Which one of the following compounds usually smells like garlic ?

A. P2O3 (Answer)
B. P2O5
C. H3PO3
D. All have same smell
The element of group VIA which is a non-metal is--------?

A. S (Answer)
B. Se
C. Te
D. Po
Which of the elements show passivity when treated with conc. HNO3?
A. Fe
B. A
C. Cr
The gas which cannot be dried by conc. H2SO4 ?

A. SO2
B. H2S (Answer)
C. CO2
D. C2H4
FeSO4 forms brown ring with--------?
Page 333
A. N2O3
B. NO2
C. NO (Answer)
D. N2O
Oxygen does not react with all except---------?

A. Alkali
B. Acid
C. Water
D. Metals (Answer)
In which compound nitrogen has maximum oxidation state----------?

A. N2O
B. NO2
C. HNO2
D. HNO3 (Answer)
In sp3 hybridization the expected geometry of molecules will be---------?

A. square planar
B. trigonal pyramidal
C. tetrahedral (Answer)
D. linear
In cyano group the carbon atom shows which kind of hybridization----------?

A. sp2
B. sp (Answer)
C. sp3
the fractional distillation of petroleum produces gasoline up to --------?

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20% (Answer)
D. 30%
Which is not heterocyclic compound --------?

A. Furan
Page 334
B. Thiophene
C. Aniline (Answer)
D. Pyridine
Which one is not state function --------?

A. Internal energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Gibbs free energy
D. Work (Answer)
If internal energy of the system is increased ----------?

A. Change in state of the system is increased
B. Temperature of the ystem may rise
C. Chemical reaction may take place
D. All (Answer)
A reaction has values of ?H and ?S which are both positive. The reaction ---------?
A. Is spontaneous
B. Spontaneity is temperature dependent
C. Has an increasing free energy
D. Is non-spontaneous (Answer)
The environment in which a system is studied is ---------?

A. State function
B. phase
C. surrounding (Answer)
D. state
Anything which depends upon initial and final state of a system is--------?
A. environment
B. surrounding
C. state function (Answer)
D. enthalpy
Reaction in which heat evolves is called ----------?

A. endothermic
B. spontaneous
Page 335
C. non-spontaneous
D. exothermic (Answer)
All the elements in group VIA are ---------- in nature?

A. hygroscopic
B. metals
C. polymeric (Answer)
D. all of above
Which allotropic form of phosphorous is the most stable ?

A. White
B. black (Answer)
C. red
D. Violet
The chemical composition of cinnabar is---------?

A. ZnS
B. PbS
C. HgS (Answer)
D. FeS
Oxygen and sulphur resemble in all except--------?

A. Electronic conviguration of valence shell electrons
B. Show allotropy
C. Polymeric
D. Show same oxidation state (Answer)
Arsenic oxides are removed by passing through---------?

A. Ferric hydroxide (Answer)
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Aluminium hydroxide
When sulphuric acid is treated with ethanol sulphuric acid behaves like--------?
A. an acid
B. a dehydrating agent (Answer)
C. an oxidizing agent
Page 336
D. as sulphonating agent
Which one of the followings possesses melting point below 0°C?

A. Nitrogen (Answer)
B. Phosphorus
C. Carbon
D. Bismuth
The most electronegative element among the following is---------?

A. Sb
B. N (Answer)
C. As
D. P
Phosphene gas will be produced if phosphorous acid is subjected to----------?

A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Decomposition
D. Both b & c (Answer)
Which one of following is not a property of pure quartz ?

A. Coloured solid (Answer)
B. Brittle
C. Hard
D. All of above
Pumping of water uphill is--------?

A. spontaneous process
B. non-spontaneous process (Answer)
C. irreversible process
D. reversible process
Which one of the following is a state function --------?

A. pressure
B. temperature
C. enthalpy
Page 337
Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by ----------?

A. glass calorimeter (Answer)
B. manometer
C. Barometer
D. thermometer
Most of thermodynamic parameters are---------?

A. system
B. surrounding
C. phase
D. state functions (Answer)
Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are--------?

A. pressure and temperature
B. pressure and volume
C. heat and work (Answer)
D. heat and volume
Enthalpy change can be---------?

A. calculated by Hess law
B. can be measured by calorimeter
D. none
Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by--------?
A. glass calorimeter
B. bomb calorimeter (Answer)
C. thermometer
D. manometer
When enthalpy of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be---------?
A. endothermic
B. spontaneous
C. non-spontaneous
D. exothermic (Answer)
Page 338
State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon--------?
A. path of reaction
B. initial state
C. final state
D. initial and final state (Answer)
CuSO4 + Zn?ZnSO4+Cu is----------?

A. Spontaneous reaction (Answer)
B. Non-spontaneous reaction
C. Endothermic
D. Exothermic
Which of the following is different with respect to physical appearance ?
A. Arsenic
B. Phosphorus (Answer)
C. Antimony
D. Bismuth
Compounds of nitrogen and phosphorus are mostly--------?

A. ionic
B. covalent (Answer)
C. polar
D. all varieties are possible
SO3 is not absorbed in water directly because---------?

A. Reaction is exothermic (Answer)
B. It is insoluble in water
C. Dilute acid is produced
D. All of above
Which of the following will give phosphoric acid one reaction with water---------?
A. PCI5
B. P2O3
C. P2O5
Phosphorus is a Greek word and it means---------?
Page 339
A. Light bearing (Answer)
B. Fire
C. Impure
D. Tetrahedral
Allotropic form of phosphorus that is poisonous is----------?

A. White (Answer)
B. Red
C. Black
D. Violet
Acetic anhydride can be obtained by treating ethyl alcohol with----------?

A. P2O5
B. H2SO4
D. PCI5
Phosphorous acid upon thermal decomposition yields phosphoric acid and----------?

A. Phosphine (Answer)
B. Phosphorus
C. Water
D. Phosphorus pentoxide
P2O5 is a hygroscopic powder which sublimes at-------?

A. 260°C
B. 360°C (Answer)
C. 630°C
D. 620°C
Phosphoric acid is a weak acid and its basicity is----------?

A. 1
B. 3 (Answer)
C. zero
D. 2
Total energy of a system is---------?

A. P.E + K.E (Answer)
Page 340
B. P.E + heat energy
C. K.E + heat energy
D. P.E + mechanical energy
Unit of heat in SI system is--------?

A. J (Answer)
B. KCaL
C. Cal
D. GJ
-------- is study about energy of a chemical system ?

A. thermochemistry (Answer)
B. thermodynamics
C. chemical kinetics
D. stoichiometry
Which of the following has strongest intermolecular forces of attraction ?

A. Hydrogen (H2)
B. Chlorine (Cl2)
C. lodine (I2) (Answer)
D. Methane (CH4)
When substance moves from a solid to a liquid state all of the following changes occur except---------?
A. Molecules become more disordered
B. K.E of the molecules decreases (Answer)
C. Intermolecular forces become weaker
D. Molecule become further separated
In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110°C the external pressure should be ?
A. Between 760 torr and 1200 torr (Answer)
B. Between 200 torr and 760 torr
C. 765 torr
D. any value of pressure
Vapour pressure of water at 100°C is----------?

A. 55 mm Hg
B. 760 mm Hg (Answer)
Page 341
C. 355 mm Hg
D. 1489 mm Hg
Liquid crystal is discovered by ---------?

A. William Crooks
B. Fredrack Reinitzer (Answer)
C. J.J Thomson
D. Bravis
Hydrogen bonding is involved in----------?

A. Solubility
B. Cleansing action of detergents
C. Biological molecules
D. All (Answer)
Forces of attraction which may be present between all kinds of atoms and molecules are -----------?
A. intramolecular
B. intermolecular
C. van der Waal (Answer)
D. Dipole-induced dipole
The quantity of heat required to convert one mole of liquid into its vapours at its boiling point is called molar
heat of---------?
A. vaporization (Answer)
B. evaporation
C. crystallization
D. sublimation
Water has maximum density at ---------?

A. 0°C
B. 2°C
C. 4°C (Answer)
D. 100°C
Formation of vapours from the surface of a liquid is called--------?

A. vapourization
B. evaporation (Answer)
Page 342
C. condensation
D. cracking
The ttractive forces between the partial positive end of one molecule and partial negative end of other
molecule are called--------?
A. Dipole-dipole forces (Answer)
B. Ion dipole-dipole forces
C. London dispersion forces
D. Debye forces
Vapour pressure is not affected by--------?

A. Surface area (Answer)
B. temperature
C. intermolecular forces
D. atmospheric pressure
Table salt crystallizes with a-----------?

A. Face centered cubic lattice
B. body centered cubic lattice (Answer)
C. simple cubic lattice
D. othorhombic lattice
During which process empty spaces between particles become minimum ?

A. ionization
B. condensation (Answer)
C. fusion
D. evaporation
Which one of the following has highest volatility---------?

A. Diethyl ether (Answer)
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Water
D. Ethylene glycol
If we provide very high amount of heat to a liquid its boiling point will---------?
A. increase
B. remains constant (Answer)
Page 343
C. decrease
D. there will be no boiling
A solid may be made up of---------?

A. Atoms
B. Ions
C. Molecules
D. A, B, and C (Answer)
Amorphous substances posses---------?

A. No definite geometry
B. No definite heat of fusion
C. No sharp melting points (Answer)
D. All of the above
Boiling points of hydrocarbons increase with the increase in number of carbon atoms. It is mainly due to--------
-?
A. More strength of H-bonding
B. More strength of London forces (Answer)
C. Less polarizability
D. All of the above
The phenomenon in which a compound exists in two or more crystalline forms is called --------?
A. Isomorphism
B. Polymorphism (Answer)
C. Anisotropy
D. Allotropy
Bucky balls is an allotropic from of---------?

A. Sulphur
B. Carbon (Answer)
C. Silica
D. Tin
Isomorphic substances have --------?

A. Same physical and chemical properties
B. Same physical and different chemical properties
Page 344
C. Different physical and same chemical properties
D. Different physical and chemical properties (Answer)
The pressure during the molar heat of fusion is kept--------?

A. 0 atmosphere
B. one atmosphere (Answer)
C. 2 atmosphere
D. 10 atmosphere
All the enthalpy changes are--------?

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. May or may not be A or B (Answer)
D. none
Which has strongest bonding in the solid state ?

A. Hydrogen Chloride (HCI)
B. Chlorine (Cl2)
C. Xenon(Xe)
D. Sodium Chloride (NaCI) (Answer)
When the atoms of third layer are arranged in such a way that they directly lie above the atoms of first layer
then this arrangement is called---------?
A. ABAB (hexagonal) (Answer)
B. ABCABC (Cubic)
C. Orthor hombic
D. Rhombohedral
Which one is false for evaporation ?

A. Surface phenomenon
B. Continuous
C. Exothermic (Answer)
D. Cause cooling
Which of the following shows inert pair effect ?

A. boron
Page 345
B. carbon
C. silicon
D. tin (Answer)
Tincal is a mineral of----------?

A. A1
B. Si
C. B (Answer)
D. C
Which one of the following is not a semiconductor ?

A. Si
B. Ge
C. Se
D. Sn (Answer)
The process of aluminium extraction is called---------?

A. Hall process (Answer)
B. Thermite process
C. Haber process
D. Contact process
Aqueous solution of borax above 62°C gives crystals of--------?

A. Na2B4O7.4H2O
B. Na2B4O7.5H2O (Answer)
C. Na2B4O7.2H2O
D. Na2B4O7.10H2O
Which of the following is not a use of silicon ?

A. Lubricants
B. Hydraulic brakes
C. Antifreeze (Answer)
D. Water repellent
CO2 is gas while SiO2 is solid at room temperature?

A. carbon is non-metal while silicon is semi-metal
B. CO2 is an independent molecule while SiO2 has network covalent structure (Answer)
Page 346
C. CO2 forms multiple bond while silicon does not form multiple bonds
D. Silicon has all sigma bonds
Identify the correct statement regarding CO--------?

A. it combines with H2O to form carbonic acid
B. it reacts with red blood cells of haemoglobin (Answer)
C. it is powerful oxidizing agent
D. it is used to prepare aerated drinks
Boric acid cannot be used---------?

A. As antiseptic in medicine
B. For washing eyes
C. In soda bottles (Answer)
D. For enamel and glazes
Which element can form tripositive ion ?

A. Beryllium
B. Carbon
C. Silicon
D. Aluminium (Answer)
Which one of the following does not show hydrogen bonding?
A. Water
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Phenol
D. Diethyl ether (Answer)
Which one is a conductor but is not malleable ?

A. Iron
B. Graphite (Answer)
C. Silver
D. Platinum
The density of water may be---------?

A. Equal to that of ice
B. Greater than that of ice (Answer)
C. Less than that of ice
D. All are possible
Page 347
Steam causes more sever burn than the boiling water because it possesses ---------?
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of vaporization (Answer)
C. Latent heat of sublimation
D. All of the above
The conversion of vapours back into their liquid state is called---------?

A. crystallization
B. evaporization
C. vaporization
D. condensation (Answer)
When water freezes at 0°C its density decreases due to--------?

A. Change of bond angles
B. Cubic structure of ice
C. Empty space present in the structure of ice (Answer)
D. Change of bond length
The boiling point increases down the zero group element due to---------?
A. Ion dipole forces
B. London forces (Answer)
C. Hydrogen bonding
D. Dipole dipole forces
Rising of a wetting liquid in a capillary tube is due to---------?

A. Surface tension
B. Cohesive forces
C. Adhesive forces (Answer)
D. viscosity
The number of formula units in 29.25g of common salt---------?

A. 6.022 x 1023
B. 3.01 x 1023 (Answer)
C. 2 x NA
D. 4 x 6.022 x 1023
Page 348
Liquid gets the shape of the container when it is poured into it. Which one of the following reasons justifies it
?
A. Liquid do not have definite shape
B. Liquid do not have definite volume
C. Lieuid is highly compressible
D. Liquid molecules can slide over each other (Answer)
Molar heat of vaporization of water is---------?

A. 40.7 KJ/mole (Answer)
B. 40.7 J/mole
C. 40.7 cal/mole
D. 40.7 Kcal/mole
Crystallites are present in---------?

A. crystalline solids
B. amorphous solids (Answer)
C. liquid crystals
D. all of the above
A malleable solid is one which can be---------?

A. Converted into wires
B. Converted into thin sheets (Answer)
C. Melted easily
D. All of the above
Crystalline solids can be identified easily from their ----------?

A. Sharp melting point (Answer)
B. Definite geometry
C. Transition temperature
D. Colour
The viscosity of solids is--------?

A. Infinite (Answer)
B. Negligible
C. Medium
D. No concept of viscosity in solid
Page 349
Which solids are called true solids --------?
A. Metallic
B. Amorphous
C. Crystalline (Answer)
D. Vitreous
The number amino acid units for each turn of helix on average are----------?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27 (Answer)
If a physical and chemical change takes place at a constant pressure then the heat change during the process
is called---------?
A. Heat of transition
B. Heat of fusion
C. Enthalpy change (Answer)
D. All of above
The amount of heat absorbed when one mole of a liquid is changed into gas at its boiling point is-----------?
A. Molar heat of sublimation
B. Molar heat of fusion
C. Molar heat of vapourization (Answer)
D. Latent heat of that liquid
All of the following were theorized by Bohr in his description of the atom except---------?
A. Angular momentum of electrons in multiples of h/2?
B. Electrons revolve in discrete circular orbits
C. Energy of each electron is directly proportional to n2
D. Electrons radiate energy continuously in a given orbit. (Answer)
Silicon differ from silica by a group of---------?

A. Ch3 (Answer)
B. OH
C. OCH3
D. O2
Page 350
Boron is non metal while other elements of IIIA group are metals. This is because-------?
A. it has small size
B. it has high nuclear charge
C. it forms molecular addition compounds
The coloured glassy mass in borax bead test is due to the formation of----------?
A. metal borate
B. metal meta borate (Answer)
C. metal boride
D. metal silicate
If temperature of gallium arsenide is increased then its conductivity will----------?

A. decrease
B. increase (Answer)
C. remains constant
D. first decreases then increases
Which of the following will decompose to produce litharge---------?

A. Pb2O
B. Pb3O4 (Answer)
C. PbO2
D. All of the above
Which of the following is metasilicic acid ?

A. H2SnO3
B. H2SiO3 (Answer)
C. H3AsO4
D. H3SbO4
Boron in soil has been considered micronutrient for---------?

A. Soil porocity
B. Proper growth of plants (Answer)
C. Alkalinity of soil
D. All
Page 351
Substance which is found in dried up lakes of Tibet and California is--------?
A. Tincal (Answer)
B. Boric acid
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Colemanite
Which of the following does not give Borax bead test ?

A. Cu
B. Cr
C. Ni
D. A1 (Answer)
The metal which is used in thermite process because of its activity is----------?
A. iron
B. copper
C. aluminium (Answer)
D. zinc
Ozonolysis of benzene produces----------?

A. Glycol
B. Glyoxal (Answer)
C. Vicinal diol
D. Both B & C
Boron is non-netal whereas A1 is metal. It is due to------------?

A. Small size
B. High nuclear charge
D. No authorized justification yet
One of the outstanding features of boron is its ability to form---------?

A. Molecular addition compounds (Answer)
B. Molecular crystals
C. Semiconductors
D. Ionic compounds
Page 352
Borax is a white crystalline solid and it is---------?
A. More soluble in cold water
B. More soluble in hot water (Answer)
C. Insoluble in water
D. Soluble only in organic solvents
Special features of borate glass is that it is---------?

A. Heat resistant (Answer)
B. Low melting
C. Used to prepare chemical garden
D. Green in colour
Aluminium oxide is---------?

A. Acidic oxide
B. Basic oxide
C. Amphoteric oxide (Answer)
D. It does not exists
Which electronic configuration corresponds to an element of group IIIA ?

A. 1s2 2s2 2p3
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 (Answer)
C. 1s2 2s2 2p4
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1
In network of silica (SiO2) each silicon atom is surrounded by ------- atoms of osygen?
A. 4 (Answer)
B. 2
C. 1
D. 6
Orthoboric acid is 2.6% soluble in water at 40?C and ------at 107°C.

A. 26%
B. 27%
C. 37% (Answer)
D. <2.6%
Because of its ability to combine with both oxygen and nitrogen aluminium metal is used-------?
Page 353
A. As nitrometer
B. To remove air bubbles from molten metal (Answer)
C. To produce alloy
D. As insulator
Nitration of chlorobenzene gives----------?
A. o – chloronitrobenzene
B. p – chloronitrobenzene
C. m – chloronitrobenzene
D. A & B (Answer)
By which method the molecular mass of benzene was determined as 78.108 ?

A. Specific gravity method
B. Vapour density method (Answer)
C. X-ray diffraction method
D. Distillation methos
Chlorination of toluene in the presence of sublight produces---------?

A. Benzyl chloride (Answer)
B. o – chlorotoluene
C. p – chlorotoluene
D. benzoic acid
Mixture of catalysts Cr2O3 + A?2O3 + SiO2 at 500?C are used when benzene is prepared from--------?
A. acetylene
B. N-hexane (Answer)
C. Benzene sulphonic acid
D. Sodium benzoate
Which is fused cyclic aromatic compound -----------?

A. diphenyl amine
B. diphenyl methane
C. naphthalene (Answer)
D. biphenyl
Acetophenone is a-----------?
A. Ether
B. Ketone (Answer)
Page 354
C. Aldehyde
D. Ester
Benzene does not undergo----------?

A. Substitution reaction
B. Addition reaction
C. Polymerization reactions (Answer)
D. Oxidation reactions
Nitronium ion is----------?

A. NO3
B. NO
C. NO2-
D. NO2+ (Answer)
Benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450°C it undergoes--------?

A. Substitution reaction
B. Addition reaction
C. Elimination reaction
D. Oxidation reaction (Answer)
The preparation of benzene from acetylene can also be said as---------?

A. Oxidation
B. Polymerization (Answer)
C. Dehydration
D. Condensation
Reacting bromine with benzene in the presence of sunlight will result in--------?
A. The rupturing of benzene ring
B. Substitution reaction
C. Addition reaction (Answer)
D. No-reaction
During sulphonation of benzene H2SO4 generates the electrophile ---------?

A. HSO4-
B. SO2
C. SO3 (Answer)
Page 355
D. H+
Which compound will readily undergo sulphonation ?

A. Benzene
B. Nitro benzene
C. Toluene (Answer)
D. Chlorobenzene
Which one of the following statement is not correct about benzene ?

A. On hydrogenation 208 KJ/mole is liberated
B. C-H bond length in benzene is 1.09 A?
C. Molecular mass of benzene is 78.108
D. Resonance energy of benzene is 150.5 K Cal/mole (Answer)
Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by alkyl group in the presence of alkyl halide & aluminum chloride is
known as---------?
A. Dows process
B. Friedel & Craft acylation
C. Friedel & Craft alkylation (Answer)
D. Clemmenson reduction
Which compound form benzoic acid on oxidation with acidified KMnO4 or K2Cr2O7 ?
A. Toluene
B. Ethyl benzene
C. n-propyl benzene
D. All (Answer)
What is the molecular formula of Benzenetriozonide ?

A. C6H6O9 (Answer)
B. C6H5O8
C. C6H5O9
D. C6H6O6
The hydrolysis of Benzenetrizonide will yield three moles of----------?

A. Glyoxime
B. Benzaldehyde
C. Glycol
Page 356
D. Glyoxal (Answer)
In benzene sulphonic acid the sulphonic group is attached with benzene ring through ----------?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Sulphur (Answer)
D. OH
Aniline is a derivative of benzene which contains---------?

A. Imino group
B. Amino group (Answer)
C. Amide group
D. Nitro group
Which one can form complex ?

A. Na
B. Cr
C. Li (Answer)
D. K
Addition of 2% gypsum in cement--------?

A. Triggers hydration
B. Triggers hydrolysis
C. Prevents rapid hardening (Answer)
D. all of the above
Phenanthrene is a fused polycyclic compound contains ----- benzene rings ?

A. Two
B. Three (Answer)
C. Four
D. Five
How many electrons are there in benzene to form delocalized electron cloud--------?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6 (Answer)
D. 8
Page 357
When benzene is substituted by halogens only which one of the following halogens only which one of the
following halogens is given the number one position in the ring while writing the name of compound ?
A. Bromine
B. Chlorine
C. Fluorine
D. Iodine (Answer)
Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the gas which was produced by destructive distillation of vegetable oil
that is done in--------?
A. The presence of Oxygen
B. The presence of Hydrogen
C. The absence of Oxygen (Answer)
D. The presence of excessive Oxygen
How many moles of H2 are added up when benzene is heated with hydrogen in the presence of platinum ?
A. Two
B. Three (Answer)
C. Four
D. Six
The resonance energy of benzene is---------?

A. 150.5 kJ/mol (Answer)
B. 250.5 kJ/mol
C. 150.5 Cal/mol
D. 250.5 Cal/mol
What catalyst is employed when benzene is prepared from acetylene at 70°C?

A. Cr2O3 + A2O3 + SiO2
B. Raney nickel
C. Organo-nickel (Answer)
D. Ni 250 – 300°C
Which one of the following methods will not give benzene ?

A. Heating sod. Salt of Benzoic acid with soda lime
B. Distilling phenol with Zn dust
C. Chlorobenzene with NaOH at 360°C & 150atm. (Answer)
Page 358
D. Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid with super heated steam
The magnetic quantum number (QN) has its values determined directly by the value of--------?
A. Principal (QN)
B. Azimuthal (QN) (Answer)
C. Spin (QN)
D. Both A & B
The maximum number of electron in a sub shell with ? = 3fs-------?

A. 6
B. 10
C. 14 (Answer)
D. 18
When an atom absorbs energy the lines in the spectrum will appear which are---------?
A. Brighter
B. Darker (Answer)
C. Colourless
D. Hard to locate
Which one is not true about cathode rays ?

A. 9.11×10-31 Kg
B. Cast shadow
C. Heat up the platinum foil
D. Cannot ionize (Answer)
Rutherfords planet like structure was defective and unsatisfactory because---------?

A. Moving e- accelerate towards the nucleus
B. Continuous spectrum
C. behavior of electron remain unexplained
D. all (Answer)
Splitting of spectral lines when atom is subjected to magnetic field is called --------?
A. Zeemans effect (Answer)
B. Starks effect
C. Photo electric effect
Page 359
D. Compton effect
Which one of the following explain the shape of orbitals ---------?

A. Principal of quantum number
B. Azimuthal quantum number (Answer)
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Spin quantum number
Pressure in gas discharge tube was kept--------?

A. 10 torr
B. 1 torr
C. 0.1 torr
D. 0.01 torr (Answer)
Angle of deflection was studied by--------?

A. Hitorff
B. Stoney
C. William Crookes
D. J.Perrin (Answer)
Positive rays give flash on--------?

A. AgNO3 plate
B. AgCl plate
C. ZnO
D. ZnS (Answer)
The ore CaSO4.H2O has the general name--------?

A. Gypsum (Answer)
B. Dolomite
C. Calcite
D. Plaster of Paris
Which one of the following substances conducts electricity by the movement of ions ?
A. Graphite
B. Copper
C. Molten sodium chloride (Answer)
D. Mercury
Page 360
Which one of the following carbonate is water insoluble ?
A. Na2CO3
B. K2CO3
C. (NH4)2CO3
D. CaCO3 (Answer)
In diaphragm cell hydrogen is discharged by the reduction of---------?

A. Water (Answer)
B. HCI
C. Na+
D. NaCl
Gypsum is applied to the soil as a source of--------?

A. Ca and P
B. S and P
C. Ca and S (Answer)
D. we could not apply
Which one of the following alkali metals forms only normal oxide when it reacts with O2 ?
A. Lithium (Answer)
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Rubidium
Which one of the following pairs shown diagonal relationship in the periodic table ?
A. Sodium and Lithium
B. Lithium and magnesium (Answer)
C. Lithium and beryllium
D. Boron and Beryllium
Sodium is not observed in +2 oxidation state because of its---------?

A. high first ionization potential
B. high second ioniation potential (Answer)
C. high ionic radius
D. high electronegativity
Page 361
Magnesium metal does not burn in the vessel containing--------?
A. N2
B. O2
C. N2 and O2
D. Ne (Answer)
Second ionization potential of alkali metals are very high due to--------?
A. being s-block elements
B. inert gas configurations (Answer)
C. ns1 electronic configuration
D. being metals
The value of e/m ratio of electron is--------?

A. 6.02 x 1023 C/kg
B. 1.7588 x 1020 C/kg
C. 9.1095 x 10-31 C/kg
D. 1.7588 x 1011 C/kg (Answer)
Planks theory says energy is emitted---------?

A. In continuous manner
B. Discontinuous manner (Answer)
C. Simultaneously
D. In the form of heat
2nd orbit is ------ away from nucleus of H-atom as compared to 1st orbit is ?
A. 2-times
B. 3-times
C. 4-times (Answer)
D. 6 times
The correct electronic configuration of Cu is ----------?

A. [Ar]4s1
B. [Ar]4s2
C. [Ar]3d104s1 (Answer)
D. [Ar]3d94s2
Atomic orbits having same energy are called--------?
Page 362
A. Degenerate orbitals (Answer)
B. Bonding molecular orbitals
C. Anti bonding molecular orbitals
D. Half filled orbitals
When electrons collide with heavy metals than ------ are produced?
A. Beta-rays
B. Alpha-rays
C. X-rays (Answer)
D. Gamma-rays
Atom with higher atomic number produces X-rays of---------?

A. Shorter wavelength (Answer)
B. Larger wavelength
C. X-ray not produced
D. All are possible
Space around nucleus where finding probability of electrons is maximum is called ----------?
A. Orbital (Answer)
B. Orbit is elliptical
C. subshell
D. Electron cloud
Electronic configuration of K is---------?

A. [Ar]4s2
B. [Ar]4s1 (Answer)
C. [Kr]5s1
D. [He]2s1
Milikan used ------- in his atomizer?

A. Milk
B. Honey
C. Oil (Answer)
D. Water
Spectrum is produced due to--------?
Page 363
A. Different wavelength (Answer)
B. Different colours
C. Different intensities
D. all have little contribution
When electron jump into orbit 1 then series obtained is----------?

A. Lyman (Answer)
B. Paschen
C. Pfund
D. Brackett
Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric filed is called---------?
A. Zeeman effect
B. Stark effect (Answer)
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Compton effect
Three quantum number have been derived from equation of----------?

A. de-Broglie
B. Plancks
C. Schrodinger (Answer)
D. Heisenberg
The letters s p d and f are used to represent which quantum numbers--------?

A. Principal
B. Azimuthal (Answer)
C. Magnetic
D. Spin
The atomic number of an element having maximum number of unpaired electrons in p-subshell is--------?
A. 7 (Answer)
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Colour of fluorescene produced by cathode rays depends upon--------?

A. Temperature
Page 364
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. Composition of glass (Answer)
Positive rays are produced---------?

A. By burning of gas
B. By cooling of the gas
C. By the bombardment of cathode rays on gas molecules (Answer)
D. From anode like cathode rays produced from cathode
The relationship between energy of a photon of light and its frequency is given by--------?
A. de-Broglie duel nature of matter
B. Bohrs model
C. Plancks Quantum theory (Answer)
D. Rutherfords atomic model
The velocity of the photon----------?

A. Is independent of wavelength (Answer)
B. Depends upon source
C. Depends upon its frequency
D. Equals to the square of amplitude
NaOH is named as caustic soda because--------?

A. It corrodes the organic tissues (Answer)
B. It is used in soda water
C. It reacts with chlorine gas
D. It reacts with fats to form soap
Carnalite has chemical formula---------?

A. KCI
B. KCI.MgCl2.6H2O (Answer)
C. Na2B4O7.10H2O
D. CaCO3.MgCO3
Electrolysis of dilute solution of NaCl results at the anode--------?

A. sodium
B. hydrogen
Page 365
C. chlorine
D. oxygen (Answer)
Which ion will have maximum value of heat of hydration ?

A. A1+3 (Answer)
B. Cs+
C. Ba+
D. Mg+2
Which one is natron ?

A. Na2CO3
B. Na2CO3.10H2O
C. Na2CO3.H2O (Answer)
D. NaHCO3
Which one is least ionic in nature and decompose on heating ?

A. LiOH (Answer)
B. NaOH
C. KOH
D. CsOH
The word Alkali means---------?

A. Base
B. Basic salt
C. Ashes (Answer)
D. Spirit
Which element is necessary for normal leaf development ?

A. Si
B. Ba
C. Mg
D. Ca (Answer)
Nitrates of which pair of elements give different products on thermal decomposition ?

A. Na K
B. Mg Ca
C. Li Na (Answer)
Page 366
D. Li Ca
Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water ?

A. Sodium sulphate
B. Potassium sulphate
C. Zinc sulphate
D. Barium sulphate (Answer)
Which one of the following is not an alkali metal ?

A. Francium
B. Caesium
C. Rubidium
D. Radium (Answer)
The element cesium bears resemblance with--------?

A. Ca
B. Cr
C. Both of the above
Downs cell is used to prepare---------?

A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium metal (Answer)
D. Sodium hydroxide
Ammonia may be prepared by heating ammonium chloride with--------?

A. Water
B. NaCl
C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide (Answer)
D. H2SO4
Crystals of Na2CO3. 10H2O when exposed to air---------?

A. Lose water and remain solid (Answer)
B. Gain water and remain solid
C. Gain water and become liquid
D. Remains unchanged
Page 367
Which one of the following gives white precipitate with aqueous solution of BaCl2?
A. NaHCO3
B. NaNO3
C. Na2CO3 (Answer)
D. Na2CrO4
The deliquescence is a property in which a solid----------?

A. Absorbs moisture and remains solid
B. Absorbs moisture and turns to liquid form (Answer)
C. Loses water of crystallization
D. Increases the number of water of crystallization
In diaphragm cell level of brine in anode compartment is kept slightly higher which prevents--------?
A. Hydroxide ions to reach anode (Answer)
B. Chlorine gas to mix
C. Cathode to decay
D. All of the above
Alkali and alkaline earth metals impart colours when heated over burner. It is due to-------?
A. Smaller electronegativity of alkali metals
B. Smaller ionic radius of these metals
C. De-excitation of electrons from higher energy levels to low energy level (Answer)
D. Excitation of electrons from low energy levels to higher energy levels
First ionization potential of alkaline earth metal is greater than alkali metals because----------?
A. They are more reactive
B. They have greater atomic radii
C. They have smaller atomic sizes (Answer)
D. All
Ethanal is prepared industrially by air oxidation of ethylene using palladium chloride as catalyst and ----- as
promoter?
A. PdCl2
B. Cu2Cl2
C. CuCl2 (Answer)
D. PbCl2
Page 368
Acetaldehyele cyanohydrin on acid hydrolysis yields----------?
A. Tartaric acid
B. Propanoic acid
C. Lactic acid (Answer)
D. Valeric acid
Which one exhibits aldol condensation----------?

A. HCHO
B. C6H5CHO
C. Cl3CCHO
D. CH3COCH3 (Answer)
Which of the following is a symmetrical ketone----------?

A. 3 – hexanone
B. acetone (Answer)
C. butanone
D. 2-pentanone
In base catalyzed reaction of carbonyl compound the catalyst----------?

A. increases the nucleophilic character of reagent (Answer)
B. increases electrophilic character of carbonyl compound
C. acidic character of reagent
D. both a and b
A elements are named as alkali metals because--------?

A. Their oxides are basic
B. Their oxide and hydroxides are water soluble
D. They are found in earth
Formula of Chile saltpetre is---------?

A. NaNO3 (Answer)
B. CaCO3
C. Ba (NO3)2
D. NH4Cl
Page 369
The oxides of beryllium BeO is--------?
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Amphoteric (Answer)
D. Neutral
Li is different from its family members due to----------?

A. small size
B. high charge density
C. less electropositivity
Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that of sodium due to--------?
A. Low electronegativity
B. Low electropositivity (Answer)
C. Low charge density
D. Not known yet
Formalin is ------ solution of formaldehyde in water?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 40% (Answer)
D. 60%
Acetone reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin. It is an example of--------?

A. electronphilic addition
B. electrophilic substitution
C. nucleophilic addition (Answer)
D. nucleophilic substitution
Which of the following reactions may be assoclated with aldehyde and ketone ?
A. nucleophile addition
B. polymerization
C. oxidation
Which of the following reagents will react with both aldehydes and ketones ?
Page 370
A. Grignard reagent (Answer)
B. Tollens reagent
C. Fehlings reagent
D. Benedicts reagent
Which of the following do not give aldol condensation reactions ?

A. formaldehyde (Answer)
B. acetaldehyde
C. diemthyl ketone
D. propionaldehyde
Formaldehyde and lactose are combined to produce throat lozenges named as---------?
A. formamint (Answer)
B. lactomint
C. aldomint
D. formalactose
Formula of haloform is---------?

A. HCOX
B. CX4
C. CHX3 (Answer)
D. CH3X
Formalin consists of mixture of formaldehyde methyl alcohol and water Percentage of water in it is--------?
A. 60%
B. 50%
C. 52% (Answer)
D. 8%
On heating aldehydes with Fehlings solution we get a precipitate whose colour is---------?
A. pink
B. black
C. yellow
D. brick red (Answer)
Aldehyde and ketone have same general formula for homologous series---------?
A. CnH2nO2n
Page 371
B. CnH2n
C. CnH2nO (Answer)
D. CnH2nOn+1
Atom cannot be divided into simple unitstheorized by--------?

A. Rutherford
B. Dalton (Answer)
C. Bohr
D. Schrodinger
The number of fundamental particles in an atom of the lightest isotope carbon are--------?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18 (Answer)
D. 20
Increase in atomic number is observed during---------?

A. Alpha emission
B. Beta emission (Answer)
C. Both A & B
D. Radioactivity
Free neutron changes into proton with the emission of---------?

A. Neutrino
B. Electron
D. Meson
Charge of electron was measured by---------?

A. J.J Thomson
B. Millikan (Answer)
C. Rutherford
D. Perrin
Rutherford bombarded --------- particles in discovery of nucleus?

A. Gamma-rays
B. Alpha-rays (Answer)
Page 372
C. Beta-rays
D. X-rays
The maximum number of orbitals present in a subshell that is represented by Azimuthal quantum number = 3
will be--------?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7 (Answer)
Pfund series are produced in the spectrum of hydrogen atom---------?

A. when electrons jump down to 2nd- orbit
B. when electrons jump down to 3rd- orbit
C. when electrons jump down to 4th- orbit
D. when electrons jump down to 5th- orbit (Answer)
Sommerfelds modification in Bohrs model is--------?

A. Orbit is cylindrical
B. Orbit is elliptical (Answer)
C. Orbit is longitudinal
D. Orbit is asymmetrical
Wavelength of electron was verified by---------?

A. Moseley
B. Davisson and Germer (Answer)
C. Einstein
D. Roentgen
Which of the following compounds has the empirical formula CH2O and reacts with sodium hydroxide ?
A. carbonic acid
B. ethanol
C. acetic acid (Answer)
D. methanoic acid
Oxidation of primary alcohol gives--------?

A. ketone
B. Aldehyde (Answer)
Page 373
C. Alkene then – COOH
D. Ester
Ncleophilic addition reactions are catalysed---------?

A. Acid
B. Base
D. None
Acetal on acid hydrolysis generates---------?

A. Alcohol
B. Ketone
Tetrahydroborate ion is the source of--------?

A. proton
B. H+
C. both A & amp; B
D. H- (Answer)
Dry distillation of calcium acetate results in the formation of---------?

A. formaldehyde
B. acetaldehyde
C. methane
D. acetone (Answer)
Cannizaros reaction takes place through the transfer of ---------- from complex anion?
A. hydrogen ion
B. hydride ion (Answer)
C. oxide ion
D. methoxide ion
Iodoform test can be used to distinguish between---------?

A. ethanol and methanol
B. acetaldehyde and methanal
C. acetone and diethyl ketone
Page 374
Which of the following will have the highest boiling point ?

A. methanol
B. ethanal
C. propanal
D. hexanone (Answer)
The carbon atom of carbonyl group is---------?

A. sp hybridized
B. sp2 hybridized (Answer)
C. cp3 hybridized
D. dsp2 hybridized
Quantum number which tells the energy of electron is--------?
A. n (Answer)
B. 1
C. m
D. s
-------- can expel proteons from paraffins ?

A. Electron
B. Positron
C. Neutron (Answer)
D. None of above has such capability
Centrifugal forces are balanced in atom by---------?

A. Attractive forces (Answer)
B. Repulsive force
C. Electrons
D. Neutrons
When 6d orbital is complete the entering electron goes into---------?

A. 7f
B. 7s
C. 7p (Answer)
D. 7d
Page 375
Neutrons moving with an energy of 1.2 MeV are called--------?
A. Fast neutrons (Answer)
B. Slow neutrons
C. Moderate neutrons
D. All are possible
Which of the following way in used for classification of chromatography ?

A. Shape
B. Phase
C. Mechanism
D. All (Answer)
Which of the following technique is used for the separation of insoluble particles from liquids ?
A. Filtration (Answer)
B. Crystallization
C. Solvent extraction
D. Chromatography
Fluted filter paper is used to---------?

A. Filter hot solution
B. Avoid premature crystallization
C. Increase the rate of filtration (Answer)
D. Decrease the area
A substance having very high vapour pressure at its melting point on heating will show--------?
A. Melting
B. Sublimation (Answer)
C. Decomposition
D. Condensation
A technique of partition chromatography in which the solvent is in a pool at the bottom of container--------?
A. Adsorption chromatography
B. Ascending chromatography (Answer)
C. Radial chromatography
D. Descending chromatography
Which of the following aldehydes shows rapid reaction with sodium nitroprusside ?
Page 376
A. formaldehyde
B. accetaldehyde
C. benzaldehyde
D. acetone (Answer)
Which of the following reaction is not shown by ketones ?

A. reaction with HCN
B. reaction with NaHSO3
C. reaction with 2 4 dinitrophenyl hydrazine
D. reaction with Fehling solution (Answer)
Which of the following substances does not give iodoform test ?

A. acetaldehyde
B. ethyl alcohol
C. methyl alcohol (Answer)
D. acetone
Which of the following compounds will react with Tollens reagent ?

A. CH3-CHO (Answer)
B. CH3-CH-CH3
C. CH3-COOH
D. CH3-CO-CH2-CH3
Cannizzaros reaction is not given by---------?

A. formaldehyde
B. acetaldehyde (Answer)
C. benzaldehyde
D. trimethyl acetaldehyde
Ketones are comparatively less reactive than aldehdye. It is due to--------?

A. alkyl groups are electron donating
B. steric hindrance
D. none
Which of the following is not a use of formaldehyde ?

A. in silvery mirror
Page 377
B. in making medicine urotropine
C. in making throat lozenges
D. in making acetic acid (Answer)
Which of the following is not a use of acetaldehyde ?

A. formation of phenolic resins
B. formation of mirror
C. antiseptic inhalant
D. formation of throat lozenges (Answer)
Formaldehyde condenses with phenol in the presence of dilute H2SO4 to yield--------?

A. Nylon 66
B. urotropine
C. Aniline formaldehyde plastic
D. Bakelite (Answer)
Page 378
Page 379
Page 380

Dogar Brothers 2020 PDF Books Free Download PDF

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Dogar Brothers 2020 PDF Books Free Download PDF

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Page 1

Sr. No. Subjects Page No’s

Either Sana or her friends ------ present there.

We often watch ---- television.

We congratulate you ---- your achievement.

Passive voice of “They broke up the table for firewood” is ---------------------?

Sana! Please ------ a tea ?

He is worried ----- his future.

Antonym of GUMPTION is -------------?

Antonym of RECONDITE is-------------?

Antonym of ENORMOUS is-------------?

Antonym of ARTIFICIAL is --------------?

Antonym of EXPAND is -------------?

She is interested ----- drawing and painting.

Please do not get angry -- me.

-- the night mysterious creatures prowl.

You should not jest ------ his poverty.

Sana is not known ------ me.

I am proud ------ my brother.

Head is covered ---- hair.

The weather was --------- the exceptionally poor harvest.

Antonym of PRODIGAL is -------------?

Antonym of WEAN is -------------?

Antonym of FRIVOLOUS is -------------?

Antonym of DUCTILE is -------------?

Antonym of DEVIANT is -------------?

Antonym of CURTAIL is -------------?

Antonym of DEXTEROUS is -------------?

Antonym of DOCILE is -------------?

Antonym of SARTORIAL is -------------?

Antonym of PIQUE is -------------?

They are anxious ------ his health.

There is still no cure ----- AIDS.

Synonym of “blissful” is ---------?

Synonym of “celibate” is ---------?

Synonym of “homogenous” is ---------?

Synonym of “garrulous” is ---------?

Synonym of “mores” is ---------?

Antonym of NIGGARDLY is -------------?

Antonym of PHILISTINE is -------------?

Antonym of QUIESCENT is -------------?

Antonym of FOREMOST is -------------?

Antonym of FALLACIOUS is -------------?

Antonym of PARSIMONY is -------------?

Antonym of DOLEFUL is -------------?

Antonym of TACIT is -------------?

Antonym of MITE is -------------?

Antonym of NEBULOUS is -------------?

Synonym of “sumptuous” is ---------?

Synonym of “ captious” is ---------?

Synonym of “indigence” is ---------?

Synonym of “incorrigible” is ---------?

Synonym of “intractable” is ---------?

Synonym of “patois” is ---------?

Synonym of “bifurcate” is ---------?

Synonym of “syllogism” is ---------?

Synonym of “countenance” is ---------?

Ocean currents play a -------role in setting long-term climate---------.

Antonym of DENIGRATE is -------------?

Antonym of ELATED is -------------?

Antonym of INGEST is -------------?

Antonym of LUCID is -------------?

Antonym of INORDINATE is -------------?