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Question Paper Code: 010/2020


Medium of Question: ENGLISH
Date of Test: 06.02.2020
Q No. Q No.
1 B C B A 51 B A D A
2 D A A B 52 D C B C
3 C B A B 53 A D A B
4 A A B A 54 C B C D
5 B A B B 55 D A B B
6 A B A D 56 B C D D
7 A B B C 57 A B B A
8 B A D A 58 C D D C
9 B B C B 59 B B A D
10 A D A A 60 D D C B
11 C D X X 61 C C B C
12 A C A A 62 C A D A
13 D X X B 63 A D B A
14 C A A B 64 C B B X
15 X X B C 65 A C B A
16 A A B A 66 C B C C
17 X B C D 67 A D A C
18 A B A C 68 D B A A
19 B C D X 69 B B X C
20 B A C A 70 C B A A
21 C C C B 71 B C C C
22 C D C A 72 D A C A
23 C C B B 73 B A A D
24 D C A C 74 B X C B
25 C B B C 75 B A A C
26 C A C C 76 C C C B
27 B B C C 77 A C A D
28 A C C D 78 A A D B
29 B C C C 79 X C B B
30 C C D C 80 A A C B
31 D A B A 81 B D C A
32 D B B C 82 A C B D
33 B A D C 83 D C A D
34 C B B B 84 C B D A
35 B D D C 85 C A D B
36 A B A D 86 B D A A
37 B B C D 87 A D B D
38 A D C B 88 D A A C
39 B B B C 89 D B D C
40 D D C B 90 A A C B
41 B A D A 91 D D B D
42 B C D B 92 X A B D
43 D C B A 93 D B D B
44 B B C B 94 A B D C
45 D C B D 95 B D B D
46 A D A B 96 B D C X
47 C D B B 97 D B D D
48 C B A D 98 D C X A
49 B C B B 99 B D D B
50 C B D D 100 C X A B


Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. For a given material if ‘E’, ‘N’, and P are the Youngs modulus, Modulus of rigidity
and Poisson's ratio respectively, then which of the following is correct :
(A) E 2 N (1  P ) (B) E 2 N (1  P )
(C) N 2 E (1  P ) (D) E 2 N (1  P )

2. A simply supported beam of span ‘L’ units is subjected to two concentrated loads of
‘W’ kN acting at ‘L/4’ from both ends. The shear force at the mid point of the beam
will be :
(A) W (B) W/2
(C) 2 W (D) 0

3. A ‘T’ section is used as simply supported beam, it is subjected to a uniformly

distributed load throughout the span. The maximum bending stress will occur at :
(A) Top of the section
(B) Centre of gravity of the section
(C) Bottom of section
(D) At the junction between flange and the web of the section

4. A cantilever beam of span ‘L’ units is subjected to a concentrated load of ‘W’ kN at the
free end. The cross section of the beam is rectangular with breadth ‘b’ units and
depth ‘d’ units. If the modulus of elasticity of the beam material is ‘E’, the ratio of
maximum deflection to maximum bending stress is :
(A) 2 L2 3 Ed (B) L2 6 Ed
(C) L2 4 Ed (D) L2 48 Ed

5. If the value of Euler crippling load of a column with both ends hinged is 100 kN, what
will be the value of Euler crippling load of another column made with the same
material, equal cross section and length but with both ends fixed :
(A) 100 kN (B) 400 kN
(C) 200 kN (D) 25 kN

6. For a perfect truss having ‘m’ members and ‘j’ joints. Which of the following
relationship is correct :
(A) m 2 j  3 (B) m 2 j  3
(C) m j  3 (D) m  2 j  3

A 3
7. For a parabolic three hinged arch subjected to a uniformly distributed load of
intensity ‘w’ kN per unit horizontal length. The span of the arch is ‘L’ units and the
central rise ‘h/2’ units. The horizontal thrust (H) of the arch is :
(A) H w L2 4 h (B) H w L2 8 h
(C) H w L2 16 h (D) H w L2 2 h

8. When a uniformly distributed load shorter than the span is traversing a simply
supported beam. At any point in the beam, maximum value of bending moment will
occur when the load is :
(A) Equally placed about the point
(B) When the point divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span
(C) When the load is centrally placed
(D) When the tail end of the load is at the left end of the beam

9. If the moment ‘M’ is applied to the hinged end of a prismatic propped cantilever beam
then the moment at the fixed end of the beam will be :
(A) M (B) M/2
(C) 2 M (D) –M/2

10. The relationship between distribution factor used in moment distribution method
( dj) and rotation factor (rj ) used in Kani's method is :
(A) rj  dj 2 (B) rj dj
(C) rj 2 dj (D) rj  1.5 dj

11. The ratio of radiation reflected back by a surface to the radiation received by it is
called its :
(A) Radiation coefficient (B) Absorption coefficient
(C) Albedo (D) Bowen's ratio

12. A pipe 0.15 m dia taking off from a reservoir suddenly expands to 0.3 m at the end of
16 m and continues for another 15 m. If the head above the inlet of the pipe is 4.88 m,
the actual velocity at the exit, taking into considerates all the lossess is,
(Assume f = 0.04 for the complete pipe line) :
(A) 1.07 m/s (B) 0.039 m/s
(C) 0.99 m/s (D) 1.22 m/s

13. Removal of soil from rivulets by concentrated overland flow is known as :

(A) sheet erosion (B) channel erosion
(C) rill erosion (D) gully erosion

010/2020 4 A
14. The discharge through a triangular notch under a constant head of 0.25 m if the
angle of the notch is 120q and Cd, 0.62 is :
(A) 0.132 m3/S (B) 0.006 m3/S
(C) 0.079 m3/S (D) 0.316 m3/S

15. A reservoir has an area of 8.5 u 104m2 and is provided with a weir 4.5 m long. How
long will it take for the level at the sill to fall from 0.6 m to 0.3 m :
(A) 6.91 hrs. (B) 3.112 hrs.
(C) 10.37 hrs. (D) 2.305 hrs.

16. For natural stream channels, the value of Muskingum parameter will generally :
(A) between 0 and 0.3 (B) between 0.3 and 0.6
(C) more than 0.5 (D) more than 1.0

17. A small lead sphere of specific gravity 11.5 has a terminal fall velocity of 7 mm/S in a
fluid of specific gravity 1.25 and dynamic viscosity 7.848 poise :
(A) 1 mm (B) 0.008 mm
(C) 1.428 mm (D) 0.0183 mm

18. The volume of water stored between normal reservoir level and maximum reservoir
level is
(A) surcharge storage (B) live storage
(C) bank storage (D) useful storage

19. A single acting reciprocating pump has a plunger dia 0.3 m and a stroke length 0.4 m.
If the speed of the pump is 60 rpm and Cd is 0.97, actual discharge of the pump is :
(A) 6.8575 l/s (B) 27.43 l/s
(C) 9.143 l/s (D) 30.48 l/s

20. The rating curve of a stream gauging station gives the variation of discharge :
(A) the area of the flow (B) the stage
(C) the velocity of flow (D) the depth of flow

21. The length of a line measured by a 30 m chain was found to be 504.4 m. It was
afterwards found that the chain was 0.05 m too long, then the true length of the line
is :
(A) 505.04 m (B) 505.14 m
(C) 505.24 m (D) 505.34 m

22. A 50 m tape is held 2.5 m out of line. What is the true length?
(A) 49.74 (B) 49.84
(C) 49.94 (D) 50.04

A 5 010/2020
23. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line
to an irregular shaped boundary line : 2.52, 4.56, 6.82, 2.82, 5.89, 4.82, 8.27, 7.12 and
5.91 (All measured in metres). Calculate the are a (in m2) enclosed between the
survey line and the irregular shaped boundary line by Simpson's Rule :
(A) 405.6 m2 (B) 415.6 m2
(C) 425.6 m2 (D) 435.6 m2

24. Choose the oddman out from the following :

(A) Radiation method (B) Two point problem
(C) Three point problem (D) Height of collimation method

25. If the distance between two points is 20 km, then the combined correction due to
curvature and refraction (in metres) is :
(A) 6.92 (B) 16.92
(C) 26.92 (D) 36.92

26. The value of a property at the end of the utility period without being dismantled is :
(A) Scrap value (B) Rateable value
(C) Salvage value (D) Market value

27. If C is the original cost, S is the scrap value, n Life of the property (years), then the
Annual depreciation of the property (using declining balance method is given by) :
n 1n
S ª S º
(A) D §¨1  ·¸ (B) D «1  §¨ ·¸ »
© C¹ ¬ ©C ¹ ¼
§1  C · ª § C ·1 n º
(C) D ¨ ¸ (D) D «1  ¨ ¸ »
© S¹ ¬ ©S ¹ ¼

28. IS Code 1200 (Methods of measurement of building and Civil engineering works) :
Part I deals with :
(A) Earthwork (B) Concrete work
(C) Brick work (D) Stone Masonry

29. A property fetches a net annual income of Rs. 900/- deducting all outgoings. If the
rate of interest is 5% per annum, then the capitalised value of the property is :
(A) Rs. 16,000/- (B) Rs. 18,000/-
(C) Rs. 20,000/- (D) Rs. 22,000/-

30. In what units are the quantities for the frames of doors and windows computed :
(A) m (B) m2
(C) m3 (D) None of these

010/2020 6 A
31. Grade of Cement refers to :
(A) Particle size (B) Order of grinding
(C) Soundness (D) Compressive strength

32. Seasoning of timber is done to :

(A) reduce the weight of timber
(B) reduce the chances of shrinkage
(C) increase the strength and durability
(D) all the above

33. In half turn Stairs, change in direction is through :

(A) 110° (B) 180q
(C) 90q (D) 45q

34. Fineness of Cement is measured in units of :

(A) Volume / Mass (B) Mass / Volume
(C) Area / Mass (D) Mass / Area

35. For an activity in a PERT network, if the Optimistic time, Most likely time and
Pessimistic time are 5,8 and 17 weeks respectively, the expected time is equal to :
(A) 8 weeks (B) 9 weeks
(C) 10 weeks (D) 15 weeks

36. The most popular type of contract in Government departments is :

(A) Item rate (B) Cost plus percentage
(C) Lump sum (D) Cost plus fixed fee

37. Silica fume is considered as a :

(A) Chemical admixture (B) Mineral admixture
(C) Colouring admixture (D) Cleaning admixture

38. The portion of a wall on which the end of an arch rests is known as :
(A) Abutment (B) Lintel
(C) Soffit (D) Nosing

39. When percentage of mica present in sand is high, it :

(A) increases the strength of mortar or concrete
(B) reduces the strength of mortar or concrete
(C) has no effect on the strength of mortar or concrete
(D) enhances the strength of mortar or concrete slightly

40. ‘‘Crashing’’ of a project is :

(A) reduction in project size (B) reduction in resource
(C) reduction in cost (D) reduction in duration

A 7 010/2020
41. Which of the following tests is not used for determining the workability of concrete?
(A) Compacting factor test (B) Blaine’s test
(C) Flow test (D) Vee-bee consistometer test

42. Identify the statement which is not true. The process of cold working of steel :
(A) increases the yield strength
(B) increases the ductility
(C) decreases the percentage elongation
(D) results in residual strain

43. The best lateral load resisting structural system for a building of 100 storeys is:
(A) Rigid frames (B) Framed tubes
(C) Frame-Shear wall dual system (D) Diagrid system

44. A moving formwork is called :

(A) Elevator (B) Slipform
(C) Scaffolding (D) Shuttering

45. Which of the following is not true?

(A) Increasing tricalcium silicate (C3S) and tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
contribute to high early strength of cement
(B) Increasing the fineness of cement results in high compressive strength
(C) Increasing dicalcium silicate (C2S) retards early development of strength of
(D) Increasing dicalcium silicate (C2S) generates more heat of hydration

46. Failure of a component or a structure due to several cycles of repeated loads is called :
(A) Fatigue failure (B) Buckling failure
(C) Brittle fracture (D) Flexural failure

47. Select the most appropriate combination :

E. Soft storey P. Retrofitting technique
F. Shear wall Q. Vulnerable to earthquake
G. Jacketing R. Provides large column-free space in the lower storey
H. Transfer girder S. Lateral load resisting system
(A) E-R, F-Q, G-P, H-S (B) E-S, F-Q, G-P, H-R
(C) E-Q, F-S, G-P, H-R (D) E-Q, F-P, G-S, H-R

48. The extent of time by which the start of an activity may be delayed without
interfering with the start of the succeeding activity is called :
(A) earliest start time (B) latest start time
(C) free float (D) latest finish time

010/2020 8 A
49. Which is not true?
(A) PERT is used in research and development projects
(B) PERT is activity oriented
(C) Project duration estimate using PERT is probabilistic
(D) PERT is used for projects which are non-repetitive in nature

50. Choose the correct statement :

(A) The amount deposited by the contractor while submitting the tender is
called security deposit
(B) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) has to be deposited only by the contractor
whose tender is accepted by the client
(C) If the lowest quoted contractor refuses to take up the work, his EMD will
be forfeited by the client
(D) Security deposit is refunded to the contractor soon after completing the

51. Which treatment process is carried out after filtration of water?

(A) Sedimentation (B) Disinfection
(C) Coagulation (D) Flocculation

52. Population forecasting method best suited when the growth rate is having decreasing
trend and the city is heading towards saturation :
(A) Arithmetic (B) Geometric
(C) Graphical (D) Decreased rate of growth

53. Maximum detention period of a clarifier used in water treatment is :

(A) 3 hr (B) 1 hr
(C) 4 hr (D) 5 hr

54. The characteristic feature of a Centrifugal pump is —————— flow.

(A) variable (B) constant
(C) continuous (D) uniform

55. Which of the gas is not produced in the sewer?

(A) H2S (B) CH4
(C) CO2 (D) HCl

56. The design period for the design of a water supply project is generally taken as :
(A) less than 10 years (B) 20-30 years
(C) 50 years (D) 100 years

57. The appurtenance which provides access for inspection and permits cleaning of sewer
line is known as :
(A) manhole (B) inlet
(C) catch basin (D) vent pipe

A 9 010/2020
58. Mention the last stage in sludge treatment process :
(A) thickening (B) dewatering
(C) drying (D) digestion

59. The organic loading in an activated sludge plant is defined as :

(A) Volume of aeration tank/Mass of BOD per day
(B) Mass of BOD per day/Volume of the aeration tank
(C) Aeration period u Volume of aeration tank
(D) The mass of BOD per day/Volume of secondary clarifier

60. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year :
(A) 1991 (B) 2000
(C) 1974 (D) 1981

61. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in concrete beams shall not exceed :
(A) 0.15% (B) 2%
(C) 4% (D) 1.5%

62. Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than :
(A) 4 m (B) 5 m
(C) 6 m (D) 8 m

63. Prestressloss due to friction occurs:

(A) Only in post-tensioned beams
(B) Only in pre-tensioned beams
(C) In both post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams
(D) None of above

64. To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation, is :

(A) Kept uniform throughout
(B) Increased gradually towards the edge
(C) Decreased gradually towards the edge
(D) Kept zero at the edge

65. The minimum clear cover for R.C.C. columns shall be :

(A) Greater of 40 mm or diameter of bars
(B) Smaller of 40 mm or diameter of bars
(C) Greater of 25 mm or diameter of bars
(D) Smaller of 25 mm or diameter of bars

66. In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at :

(A) 1/4th of the span (B) 1/5th of the span
(C) 1/7 of the span
th (D) 1/6th of the span

010/2020 10 A
67. The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective
depth by :
(A) Three times (B) Four times
(C) Five times (D) Six times

68. Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is :

(A) Kept constant throughout the length
(B) Decreased towards the centre of the beam
(C) Increased at the ends
(D) Increased at the centre of the beam

69. Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported length does not exceed
their least lateral dimensions :
(A) 2 times (B) 3 times
(C) 4 times (D) 5 times

70. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one
direction, is :
(A) 35 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20

71. Compression failure of simply supported beam occurs in :

(A) Balanced section (B) Over reinforced section
(C) Under reinforced section (D) None of above

72. Limit state of serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creep,
shrinkage and temperature occurring after erection of partitions and application of
finishes as applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to :
(A) Span/150 (B) Span/200
(C) Span/250 (D) Span/350

73. According to IS – 456 2000 maximum spacing of shear reinforcement for concrete
beams in no case shall not exceed :
(A) 250 mm (B) 300 mm
(C) 350 mm (D) 450 mm

74. In the heel slab of a cantilever retaining wall, main reinforcement is provided at :
(A) Bottom of slab (B) Top of slab
(C) Centre of slab (D) Sides of slab

75. The shrinkage in a concrete slab :

(A) Causes shear cracks (B) Causes tension cracks
(C) Causes compression cracks (D) Does not cause any cracking

A 11 010/2020
76. In a reinforced concrete retaining wall, a shear key is provided, if the :
(A) Shear stress in vertical stem is excessive
(B) Shear force in toe slab is more than heel slab
(C) Retaining wall is not safe against sliding
(D) Retaining wall is not safe against overturning

77. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of a plate is usually :
(A) More (B) Less
(C) Equal (D) None of the above

78. Which one of these defects in timber is due to natural forces?

(A) Knot (B) Stain
(C) Split (D) Bow

79. In a uniformly distributed loading, aprestressed rectangular beam should be :

(A) Straight below centroidal axis
(B) Parabolic with convexity downward
(C) Parabolic with convexity upward
(D) Straight above centroidal axis

80. For cylindrical tanks fixed at the base :

(A) Bending moment and hoop tension are developed
(B) Only hoop tension will be developed
(C) Only bending moment will be developed
(D) None of the above

81. According to Indian Standard Classification soils more than half the coarse fraction
which is larger than 75 micron IS Sieve and smaller than 4.75 mm IS Sieve is
designated as which of the following?
(A) Gravels (B) Sand
(C) Clay (D) Silt

82. According to Darcy's Law which of the following is defined as the average velocity of
flow that will occur through the total cross sectional area of soil under Unit hydraulic
(A) Coefficient of permeability (B) Coefficient of percolation
(C) Seepage velocity (D) Coefficient of transmissibility

83. In which of the following conditions, a clay is said to be pre-consolidated?

(A) If the present overburden pressure is equal to the existing overburden
(B) If it has never been subjected to an effective pressure greater than existing
overburden pressure
(C) If it is not fully consolidated under existing overburden pressure
(D) If it has been subjected to a pressure in excess of its present overburden
010/2020 12 A
84. Which of the following is the circle corresponding to minimum factor of safety against
sliding in case of Swedish Circle Method for stability analysis?
(A) I –circle (B) Friction circle
(C) Critical slip circle (D) Mohr's circle

85. Which among the following assumptions is not correct according to Rankine's Theory
for active earth pressure behind a retaining wall?
(A) The soil mass is semi-infinite, homogenous, dry and cohesionless
(B) The ground surface is a plane
(C) Shearing stress between the wall and the soil is taken into account
(D) The wall yields about the base and thus satisfies the deformation condition
for plastic equilibrium

86. Which among the following is called net safe bearing capacity?
(A) Safe bearing capacity divided by factor of safety
(B) Net ultimate bearing capacity divided by factor of safety
(C) Ultimate bearing capacity plus original overburden pressure
(D) Safe bearing capacity plus original overburden pressure

87. Which procedure is used for getting undisturbed samples from soil?
(A) Chunk sampling (B) Standard Penetration test
(C) Cone Penetration test (D) Auger boring

88. What is the cause of negative skin friction?

(A) Pile driving
(B) Rising of ground water table
(C) Upward movement of surrounding compressible soil
(D) Downward movement of surrounding compressible soil

89. Which of the following can be considered as a field test?

(A) Direct Shear Test (B) Triaxial Shear Test
(C) Unconfined Compression Test (D) Vane Shear Test

90. What for a Proctor needle is used?

(A) To determine the water content at which the soil is compacted
(B) To determine optimum moisture content
(C) To determine zero air voids line
(D) To determine saturation line

91. The minimum coefficient of lateral friction for a highway is

(A) 1.0 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.15

92. Grade compensation on curves is a minimum of :

(A) 55/R (B) 75/R
(C) 100/R (D) 150/R
A 13 010/2020
93. Traffic density is :
(A) No. of vehicles passing a point in a specific direction in per lane per day
(B) No. of vehicles passing a point in a specific direction per hour
(C) Maximum no. of vehicles passing a given point in one hour
(D) No. of vehicles occupied per unit length of road at an instant

94. The relationship between speed and density is generally :

(A) Linear (B) Parabolic
(C) No relation (D) Asymptotic to both axes

95. FAA recommends that the runway length after having been corrected for elevation
and temperature should be further increased at the rate of —————— for every 1%
of effective gradient :
(A) 10% (B) 20%
(C) 7% (D) 15%

96. Sleeper density is :

(A) No. of sleepers per km length
(B) No. of sleepers per rail length
(C) Density of material of sleeper
(D) Minimum distance between any two adjacent sleepers

97. Negative super elevation in railways arises in case of :

(A) Main and loop lines (B) Transition curves
(C) Similar flexure (D) Contrary flexure

98. Structure constructed in tunneling operations, in advance of the main drivage, along
its alignment, to gain information about the ground is called :
(A) Shaft (B) Tunnel invert
(C) Tunnel soffit (D) Pilot tunnel

99. Systems used to prevent damage to ships and berthing structures in the mooring
process is called :
(A) Breakwaters (B) Fenders
(C) Dolphins (D) Piers

100. Urbanisation model proposed by E.W. Burgess is :

(A) Sector Model (B) Multiple Nuclei model
(C) Concentric zone model (D) Peripheral model


010/2020 14 A

A 15 010/2020

010/2020 16 A
Question Paper Code: 011/2020


Medium of Question: ENGLISH
Date of Test: 13.02.2020
Q No. Q No.
1 D D D A 51 D C A C
2 C B A B 52 C A B A
3 D B D C 53 A B A B
4 A D B D 54 A C A C
5 B A C B 55 D D C D
6 D D A C 56 C A C C
7 B A B B 57 A B A B
8 B D C D 58 B A B D
9 D B D C 59 C A C C
10 A C B A 60 D C D A
11 D A C C 61 A C C B
12 A B B B 62 B A B C
13 D C D D 63 A B D D
14 B D C B 64 A C C B
15 C B A A 65 C D A C
16 A C C B 66 D B A C
17 B B B C 67 D A A B
18 C D D D 68 C A C D
19 D C B D 69 B X C C
20 B A A A 70 B B A A
21 C C B D 71 B A C C
22 B B C C 72 A A B D
23 D D D D 73 A C D A
24 C B D A 74 X C C C
25 A A A B 75 B A A B
26 C B D D 76 A C C A
27 B C C B 77 A B D B
28 D D D B 78 C D A B
29 B D A D 79 C C C D
30 A A B A 80 A A B C
31 B D D D 81 C C A C
32 C C B A 82 B D B A
33 D D B D 83 D A B C
34 D A D B 84 C C D B
35 A B A C 85 A B C B
36 C C B D 86 C A C D
37 A B C C 87 D B A D
38 B D D A 88 A B C C
39 C C B A 89 C D B B
40 D A C D 90 B C B B
41 C B D C 91 A C D B
42 B C C A 92 B A D A
43 D D A B 93 B C C A
44 C B A C 94 D B B X
45 A C D D 95 C B B B
46 B D C A 96 C D B A
47 C C A B 97 A D A A
48 D A B A 98 C C A C
49 B A C A 99 B B X C
50 C D D C 100 B B B A


Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Radial height of a tooth above the pitch circle of a spur gear is:
(A) dedendum (B) pitch point
(C) tooth face (D) addendum

2. Connecting link between the piston rod and ––––––––––––– of a steam engine is cross head.
(A) cylinder (B) valve
(C) connecting rod (D) eccentrics

3. Which one of the following is not a locking device?

(A) Locking by plate (B) Split pin
(C) Lock washers (D) Hexagonal bolt

4. Ratio between inertia forces to viscous forces is known as:

(A) Reynolds’s number (B) Poisson’s ratio
(C) Power factor (D) Strain

5. The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) is equal to:

(A) 10.56 m/s2 (B) 9.81 m/s2
(C) 11.36 m/s2 (D) 1.2 m/s2

6. If P and Q are two forces and angle between them is '  ' then according to parallelogram law
of forces the resultant force ‘R’ =:

(A) P  Q  2 P Q sin  
2 2
(B) P  Q  2 P Q cos  
(C) P  Q  2P Q cos  
2 2 2 2
(D) P 2
 Q 2  2 P Q cos  
7. One kilo gram mass is equivalent as ––––––––––––– N.
(A) 1.5 (B) 9.81
(C) 8.32 (D) 6.12

8. F  m x a is derived from:
(A) Newton’s first law (B) Newton’s second law
(C) Newton’s third law (D) Newton’s law of gravitation
A 3
9. The body which does not deform when subjected to external forces is termed as:
(A) flexible body (B) composit training
(C) elastic body (D) rigid body

10. Geometric center of the area where the entire area can be assumed to be concentrated is
known as:
(A) centroid of area (B) midpoint of area
(C) eccentricity of area (D) concentricity of area

11. Whenever a body moves or tends to move over another body ––––––––––––– force is
developed at the contact surface.
(A) laminar (B) co-planar
(C) anti frictional (D) frictional

12. The angle between normal reaction at the contact surface and the resultant of normal
reaction and limiting friction is:
(A) angle of friction (B) angle of reaction
(C) angle of repose (D) angle of deviation

13. The point about which the body can be assumed to be rotating at the given instant is called
––––––––––––– of rotation.
(A) instantaneous retardation (B) instantaneous motion
(C) instantaneous plane (D) instantaneous center

14. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume when
the ––––––––––––– remains constant.
(A) volume (B) temperature
(C) flow (D) velocity

15. A machine which converts mechanical energy in to pressure energy is known as:
(A) engine (B) generator
(C) pump (D) motor

16. In double acting reciprocating pumps, the water is acting on ––––––––––––– sides of the
(A) both (B) one
(C) either in one or two (D) nearer

011/2020 4 A
17. In order to produce air tight reveted joint ––––––––––––– process is required.
(A) bevelling (B) caulking
(C) fillering (D) sealing

18. Least count of a vernier caliper is ––––––––––––– mm.

(A) 0.002 (B) 0.01
(C) 0.02 (D) 0.001

19. H9 holes can be produced by ––––––––––––– process.

(A) punching and enlarging (B) drilling and chamfering
(C) counter sunking and drilling (D) boring and reaming

20. The device used to connect two shafts together at their ends for the purpose of transmitting
power is known as:
(A) sleeve (B) coupling
(C) bearing (D) nipples

21. Standard size of the part, which is same for both hole and its shaft is known as:
(A) Enlarged size (B) reduced size
(C) Nominal size (D) Measured size

22. Difference between maximum and minimum limit of size is:

(A) allowance (B) tolerance
(C) limits of size (D) actual deviation

23. Trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet will be:

(A) 147 mm  210 mm (B) 210 mm  297 mm
(C) 420 mm  594 mm (D) 594 mm  841 mm

24. The drawing which is used for explaining working principle of any machine is known as
(A) production drawing (B) exploded drawing
(C) schematic drawing (D) tabular drawing

25. Length of the arrow head should be about ––––––––––––– times its maximum width.
(A) three (B) two
(C) four (D) five

A 5 011/2020
26. A section is formed by passing a cutting plane at right angles to the axis of the object is
termed as:
(A) partial section (B) full section
(C) revolved section (D) offset section

27. Actual depth of a British Association thread in terms of pitch is:

(A) d=p (B) d = 0.6 p
(C) d = 0.01 p (D) d = 0.001 p

28. Width across flats (W) of a hexagonal nut can be found by ––––––––––––– formula.
(A) 2 D + 1 mm (B) D + 3 mm
(C) 3 D + 3 mm (D) 1.5 D + 3 mm

29. If thickness of the plate is ‘t’ then the diameter of a rivet is:

(A) d t (B) d 6 t

(C) d2 t (D) d 3 t

30. The bearing pressure is perpendicular to the axis of shaft in ––––––––––––– bearings.
(A) journal (B) pivot
(C) thrust (D) collar

31. Thread angle of Acme thread is:

(A) 55° (B) 29°
(C) 35° (D) 45°

32. Standard taper of taper key is:

(A) 1 in 50 (B) 1 in 40
(C) 1 in 100 (D) 1 in 30

33. In a muff coupling, the outside diameter and the length of the muff are ––––––––––––– and
––––––––––––– the diameter of the shaft.
(A) two times and two times (B) three times and two times
(C) three times and three times (D) two times and three times

011/2020 6 A
34. If width of a ‘V’ belt is 10 mm then the length of the belt will be in a range of
––––––––––––– mm.
(A) 150 to 860 mm (B) 260 to 860 mm
(C) 212 to 1262 mm (D) 420 to 2820 mm

35. The formula for finding out circular pitch of a spur gear is:
(A)   module pitch (B)  / module pitch
(C)   number of teeth (D)  /number of teeth

36. The engine produces power by the:

(A) Rotation of the crankshaft
(B) Valve action
(C) Combustion pressure pushing on piston
(D) Up and down movement of piston

37. A Telescopic gauge can be used to measure a cylinder bore if ––––––––––––– is used to the
telescopic gauge?
(A) Micrometer (B) Feeler gauge
(C) Straight edge (D) Dial indicator

38. The depth of water formed by providing a tap in the water closet is called:
(A) Water cussion (B) Water seal
(C) Water meter (D) Water barrier

39. ––––––––––––– bacteria can live and develop in the presence or absence of oxygen.
(A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic
(C) Facultative (D) All of the above

40. The waste water from the kitchen, bathroom etc is called:
(A) Sewage (B) Ashes
(C) Garbage (D) Sullage

41. The capillary rise is due to:

(A) Cohesion (B) Adhesion
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

A 7 011/2020
42. The law related to transmission of pressure is:
(A) Faraday’s law (B) Pascal’s law
(C) Stevin’s law (D) None of the above

43. A bearing shell has a slightly larger arc than bearing housing is called:
(A) Bearing tang (B) Bearing saddle
(C) Bearing crush (D) Bearing spread

44. In a normally operating engine, intake and exhaust valves are opened by a cam closed by the:
(A) Rocker arm or cam follower (B) Lifters or tappets
(C) Valve spring (D) Valve guide or pushrod

45. The distributor injection pump has:

(A) A rotor that sends fuel to the injector
(B) A barrel and plunger assembly for each cylinder
(C) A helix cut in each plunger
(D) All of the above

46. Which of the following engine do not have mechanical balance?

(A) Inline engine (B) Single cylinder engine
(C) 'V' engine (D) Radial engine

47. How many, crankshaft rotations required to get one power stroke in a four stroke single
cylinder diesel engine?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Two (D) Four

48. The centre of pressure on any surface immersed in a liquid is the point through which the
––––––––––––– acts?
(A) Resultant pressure (B) Weight of surface
(C) Buoyant force (D) Total pressure

49. The bottom edge of the notch over which the liquid flows is called?
(A) Bed (B) Sill
(C) Sluice (D) Vent

011/2020 8 A
50. A Sewage contains:
(A) 0.1% matters (B) 99.9% water
(C) Both of the above are correct (D) None of the above

51. The openings constructed on lines of sewers or drains in order to enable men enter or leave
them is called:
(A) Pot hole (B) Lamp hole
(C) Street inlet (D) Man holes

52. What is the volume of the space above the piston at BDC?
(A) Swept volume (B) Combustion chamber volume
(C) Total volume (D) Clearance volume

53. What effect does backpressure have on the operation of an IC engine?

(A) Reduces power (B) Increases fuel economy
(C) Increases the amount of CO (D) All of the above

54. Percentage of fuel energy lost to the cylinder walls is approximately:

(A) 15% (B) 30%
(C) 5% (D) 80%

55. Firing order of a 6- cylinder in line engine is:

(A) 1-6-3-5-2-4 (B) 1-3-6-2-4-5
(C) 1-4-3-2-6-5 (D) 1-5-3-6-2-4

56. The property of liquid used in the manufacturing of lead shots is :

(A) Viscosity (B) Capillarity
(C) Surface tension (D) Density

57. Barometer is used to measure :

(A) Atmospheric pressure (B) Vacuum pressure
(C) Absolute pressure (D) Gauge pressure

58. The equation of continuity in brief states that the ––––––––––––– of the fluid through a
section remains the same :
(A) Velocity (B) Mass
(C) Direction (D) Total head

A 9 011/2020
59. Thrust bearing wear will cause excessive :
(A) Crankshaft bending (B) Crankshaft vibration
(C) Crankshaft endplay (D) Crankshaft speed

60. A venturimeter is used to measure :

(A) Pressure in a pipe (B) Total energy in a pipeline
(C) Velocity of flow in a pipeline (D) Discharge through a pipe

61. The heading up of water due to an obstruction in its flow is called :

(A) Afflux (B) Hydraulic jump
(C) Backwater (D) None of the above

62. Detonation results from :

(A) High idle speed during cold starts (B) Over advanced ignition timing
(C) High-octane fuel (D) Lowering the compression ratio

63. Hydraulic radius is the ratio between wetted area to :

(A) Wetted perimeter (B) Wetted bed width
(C) Wetted side length (D) Any of the above

64. Generally in 4 stroke diesel engine the inlet valve opens :

(A) 25 degree before TDC (B) 20 degree before TDC
(C) 40 degree before TDC (D) 10 degree before TDC

65. The three basic pollutants the emission system control

(A) HC, H2O and NO (B) CO2, NO and HC
(C) HC, CO and NO (D) CO2, H2O and HC

66. Which is the most common tool used for drawing circles :
(A) French Curve (B) Mini Drafter
(C) Divider (D) Compass

67. Drawing pencils are graded according to increase in relative :

(A) Diameter (B) Sharpness
(C) Length (D) Hardness

011/2020 10 A
68. In unidirectional system the dimensions are :
(A) Placed above the dimension line
(B) Placed below the dimension line
(C) Placed by breaking the dimension line in the middle
(D) None of the above

69. The scale of a drawing is given as 1:20 what is the representative fraction :
(A) 20 (B) 1/20
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.02

70. How many external tangents are there for two circles :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

71. The sections cut by a plane on a right circular cone are called :
(A) Parabola sections (B) Conic sections
(C) Elliptical sections (D) Hyperbolic sections

72. Which of the following is conic section :

(A) Circle (B) Rectangle
(C) Triangle (D) Square

73. A plane is held parallel to horizontal plane in which view we can watch drawing on that
plane :
(A) Top view (B) Front view
(C) Back view (D) Side view

74. A circle is placed at 20 degrees with vertical the view from top view will be :
(A) Line (B) Circle
(C) Ellipse (D) Oval

75. Which of the following represents reducing scales

(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2
(C) 2:1 (D) 10 : 1

A 11 011/2020
76. In first angle projection method object is assumed to be placed in
(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant
(C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

77. The dotted line represents :

(A) Hidden edge (B) Projection line
(C) Entre line (D) Hatching line

78. The length width in case of an arrow head is :

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 3:1 (D) 4:1

79. The internal angle of a regular hexagon is ––––––––––––– degree :

(A) 72 (B) 108
(C) 120 (D) 150

80. A point ‘p’ is above horizontal plane and in front of vertical plane. The point is in :
(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant
(C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

81. Orthographic projection is also known as :

(A) Single view projection (B) Two view projection
(C) Multi view projection (D) All the above

82. How many pairs of parallel lines are there in regular hexagon :
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 1

83. When drawing a perpendicular line through apoint which is nearer to the middle of a given
line is cut at two points on the line?
(A) A circle (B) A square
(C) A rectangle (D) An arc

84. The line perpendicular to a tangent and is passing through the point of contact is called :
(A) Perpendicular bisector (B) Angle bisector
(C) Normal (D) Tangent

011/2020 12 A
85. The preferred size of the drawing sheet is recommended by the :

86. By converting 5.6 m2 in to cm2 answer will be:

(A) 0.0056 cm2 (B) 5600 cm2
(C) 56000 cm2 (D) 560 cm2

87. A rectangular field is 40 m long and 30 m wide. Perimeter of rectangular field is:
(A) 20 m2 (B) 18 m2
(C) 160 m2 (D) 140 m2

88. The perimeter of a triangle of side 10 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm is:

(A) 21 cm (B) 3 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 90 cm

89. Ninu took two rounds of a ground 180 cm long and 100 m wide. The total distance covered by
him is:
(A) 280 m (B) 560 m
(C) 1120 m (D) 2240 m

90. Find the side of a square whose perimeter is 324 cm:

(A) 18 cm (B) 81 cm
(C) 24 cm (D) 3.24 cm

91. The amount of region enclosed by a plane closed figure is called:

(A) Area (B) Perimeter
(C) Circumference (D) Semi perimeter

92. The area of a square field is 24200 sq.m. How long will a man take to cross the field,
diagonally at the rate of 6.6 km/hr:
(A) 3 minutes (B) 2 minutes
(C) 2.4 minutes (D) 2 min 40 seconds

93. A 5 cm cube is cut in to as many 1 cm cubes as possible. What is the ratio of the surface area
of the larger cube to that of the sum of the surface areas of the smaller cube
(A) 1:6 (B) 1:5
(C) 1 : 25 (D) 1 : 125

A 13 011/2020
94. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 16 cm.

(A) 48 3 cm 2 (B) 128 3 cm 2

(C) 9.6 3 cm 2 (D) 64 3 cm 2

95. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 20 cm and 18 cm long and the distance
between them is 15 cm:
(A) 225 cm2 (B) 275 cm2
(C) 285 cm2 (D) 315 cm2

96. If the edge of a cube is 1cm then which of the following is its volume:
(A) 6 cm3 (B) 3 cm3
(C) 1 cm3 (D) None of the above

97. If the dimensions of a room are l, b, h (l-length, b-breadth, h-height) then which of the
following is the area of its four walls.
(A) 2 h l  b (B) 2 h l  h 
(C) 2 l h  b (D) None of the above

98. Two identical cubes each of total surface area of 6 cm2 are joined end to end. Which of the
following is the total surface area of the cuboid so formed.
(A) 12 cm2 (B) 18 cm2
(C) 10 cm2 (D) 8 cm2

99. An octagon has –––––––––––––sides.

(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 5

100. A man walks entirely around his semi circular garden. What is the area of his garden if he
walks 324 m
(A) 18 m2 (B) 6237 m2
(C) 5248 m2 (D) 5368 m2


011/2020 14 A

A 15 011/2020

011/2020 16 A
Question Paper Code: 013/2020


Medium of Question: ENGLISH
Date of Test: 26.02.2020
Q No. Q No.
1 D X A B 51 A D B D
2 A B C D 52 D B X C
3 X A B B 53 D B D B
4 B C D A 54 B X C X
5 A B B D 55 B D B A
6 C D A A 56 X C X D
7 B B D X 57 D B A D
8 D A A B 58 C X D B
9 B D X A 59 B A D B
10 A A B C 60 X D B X
11 A B D B 61 D A C C
12 C A C D 62 D B D C
13 B D B B 63 D B C B
14 A C D A 64 A B A B
15 D B B A 65 B B X B
16 C D A C 66 A C C D
17 B B A B 67 B D C D
18 D A C A 68 B C B D
19 B A B D 69 B A B A
20 A C A C 70 B X B B
21 B A C X 71 C C D A
22 A X B A 72 D C D B
23 A C X C 73 C B D B
24 X B A X 74 A B A B
25 C X C B 75 X B B B
26 B A X A 76 C D A C
27 X C B A 77 C D B D
28 A X A X 78 B D B C
29 C B A C 79 B A B A
30 X A X B 80 B B B X
31 C C C D 81 A A D B
32 A C A A 82 C X C C
33 B B B C 83 A D B D
34 B B B D 84 X C C C
35 B X D C 85 D B D A
36 C C D C 86 C C C C
37 C A A A 87 B D A A
38 B B C B 88 C C C X
39 B B D B 89 D A A D
40 X D C B 90 C C X C
41 C D C C 91 B A C D
42 A A A C 92 C C D X
43 B C B B 93 A C D D
44 B D B B 94 C D X B
45 D C B X 95 C D D B
46 D C C C 96 D X B C
47 A A C A 97 D D B A
48 C B B B 98 X B C C
49 D B B B 99 D B A C
50 C B X D 100 B C C D


Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Select the bending moment diagram for the simply supported beam loaded as shown
in the figure :





2. An axially loaded member of length L and area of cross-section A is subjected to a

tensile load of P. If E denotes the Young’s modulus of elasticity, the strain energy
stored in the member is equal to :
P 2L PL2
(A) (B)
2 AE 2 AE
(C) (D)

A 3
3. The product moment of inertia of a rectangular section of size b u d about its
horizontal centroidal axis is equal to :
b2 d 2 bd2
(A) (B)
4 6
2 2
(C) 0 (D)

4. If V denotes the shear force acting at a particular section along the span of a beam
having a rectangular cross-section of width b and depth h, then the shear stress at
the neutral axis is :
(A) 0 (B)
3V V
(C) (D)
4bh bh

5. The two independent elastic constants for an isotropic material are :

(A) Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio
(B) Bulk modulus and Young’s modulus
(C) Shear modulus and Poisson’s ratio
(D) Bulk modulus and Poisson’s ratio
6. The static indeterminacy of a propped cantilever beam is equal to :
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
7. Kani’s method can be considered as an extension of the :
(A) Moment-area method
(B) Slope deflection method
(C) Moment distribution method
(D) Column-analogy method
8. A three hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a udl of 30 kN/m on the left half of the
span. It has a span of 16 m and central rise of 3 m. The horizontal thrust at the left
support will be :
(A) 80 kN (B) 120 kN
(C) 182.3 kN (D) 160 kN
9. If a deformable structure in equilibrium under the action of a system of loads is given
a small virtual deformation, then the virtual work done by the external forces is
equal to the virtual work done by the internal forces. This principle is known as :
(A) Principle of virtual displacements
(B) Principle of virtual work
(C) Principle of complimentary work
(D) Principle of complimentary displacements

013/2020 4 A
10. A column, hinged at both ends, is having an unsupported length of 3 m,
second moment of area I XX 400 cm 4 , IYY 120 cm 4 and area of cross-section 30 cm 2 .
The slenderness ratio of the column is equal to :
(A) 150 (B) 120
(C) 130 (D) 82.2
11. Find the pressure represented by a column of 10 cm of water if specific weight of
water is taken as 10 kN/m3 :
(A) 1 kN/m2 (B) 1000 kN/m2
(C) 1 N/m 2 (D) 100 kN/m2
12. The flow of a liquid at constant rate in a uniformly tapering pipe is :
(A) Steady, uniform flow (B) Unsteady, uniform flow
(C) Steady, non-uniform flow (D) Unsteady, non-uniform flow
13. The line joining the piezometric heads at various points in a flow is known as the :
(A) Total energy line (B) Hydraulic Gradient line
(C) Datum (D) None of the above
14. A jet of water coming out of a nozzle with velocity 50 m/s is having cross sectional
area of 20 cm2. The jet is directed against a fixed flat plate held normal to the jet.
Find the force exerted on the plate :
(A) 5000 N (B) 2000 N
(C) 5000 kN (D) 200 N
15. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths
are 0.5 m and 1.5 m. The energy loss in this jump is :
(A) 1 m (B) 1.5 m
(C) 2 m (D) 0.33 m
16. The evaporation through plants and from the surrounding soil together is called :
(A) Infiltration (B) Interception
(C) Evapotranspiration (D) Transpiration
17. Find the delta for a crop if the duty for a base period of 100 days is 4320 hectares per
cumec :
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m
(C) 0.4 m (D) 1 m
18. In the single point method of finding the mean velocity across a vertical in a stream,
if y is the depth of flow, the velocity is measured above the stream bed at :
(A) 0.6 y (B) 0.2 y
(C) 0.8 y (D) 0.4 y

A 5 013/2020
19. The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penetrating a confined
aquifer represents :
(A) water table surface
(B) piezometric surface of the aquifer
(C) capillary fringe
(D) cone of depression
20. The time required by rain water to reach the outlet of drainage basin is generally
called :
(A) Time of concentration (B) Duration of the rainfall
(C) Lag time (D) Recession time
21. The sum of exterior angles for a hexagon is :
(A) 720 (B) 1440
(C) 900 (D) 1080
22. If the included angle at station B in an open traverse ABCDE 1s 158º24Ļ then the
deflection angle is :
(A) 21º36ĻL (B) 21º36ĻR
(C) 338º24ĻR (D) 338º24ĻL
23. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line
to an irregular boundary line. The area in square metre enclosed between the survey
line, irregular line, first and last offsets by Simpson’s rule is :
Perpendicular offsets, 5 m, 2 m, 4.5 m, 6 m, 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 2.5 m, 4 m
(A) 260 m2 (B) 520 m2
(C) 180 m 2 (D) 360 m2
24. The probable error of area (in m2) of rectangle sides are 100 + – 0.01 m and
200 + – 0.02 m is :
(A) + – 2 (B) + – 0.0002
(C) + – 0.02 (D) + – 1.47
25. If the cross sectional areas at every 50 m, in a length of 200 m are :
5 m2, 10 m2, 15 m2, 10 m2, 5 m2 then, volume by trapezoidal rule is
(A) 4000 m3 (B) 5000 m3
(C) 2000 m3 (D) 3000 m3
26. The covered area of a building measured at floor level is called :
(A) Floor area (B) Plinth area
(C) Carpet area (D) Circulation area
27. A building costs Rs. 40000. Considering scrap value as 10% of the cost and life as
60 years, the depreciated value after 20 years is :
(A) 33800 (B) 34800
(C) 32800 (D) 31800
013/2020 6 A
28. Steel reinforcement bars in RCC is measured in :
(A) Quintals (B) Metre
(C) Number (D) Cu.m
29. The years purchase for 6% interest is :
(A) 20 (B) 13.33
(C) 16.67 (D) 0.06
30. For 45º cranked or bent up bar of dia ‘‘d’’, the additional length of 2 bent up is
approximately :
(A) 0.9 d (B) 0.45 d
(C) 0.3 d (D) 0.8 d
31. The initial setting time of Ordinary Portland cement as per BIS is :
(A) not more than 100 minutes (B) not more than 30 minutes
(C) not less than 30 minutes (D) less than 30 minutes
32. The main function of Alumina in brick earth is to :
(A) impart plasticity (B) increase durability
(C) prevent shrinkage (D) increase impermeability
33. Ultimate Strength of Ordinary Portland Cement is provided by :
(A) Tricalcium Silicate (B) Dicalcium silicate
(C) Tetracalcium alumino ferrite (D) Tricalcium aluminate
34. Proneness to segregation of fresh concrete is better tested by :
(A) Slump test (B) Flow test
(C) Vee Bee test (D) Compaction factor test
35. As the fineness modulus of aggregate increases its particle size :
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains same (D) none of these
36. ‘Float’ which does not interfere with the start of the subsequent activity in a project is :
(A) Total float (B) Independent float
(C) Free float (D) Interfering float
37. Quality of reinforcing steel is evaluated by :
(A) Compressive strength (B) Tensile strength, ductility
(C) Yield strength, ductility (D) None of the above
38. Salt present in brick earth may cause :
(A) Brittleness (B) Efflorescence
(C) Discolouration (D) None of the above

A 7 013/2020
39. One of the main demerits of using Lime mortar is that :
(A) it is not durable (B) it does not set quickly
(C) it swells (D) it has plasticity
40. Grading of aggregates in a concrete mix is mainly essential to achieve :
(A) Adequate workability (B) Higher density
(C) Reduction in voids (D) Better durability
41. Which of the following statements is not correct :
(A) Seasoning of timber increases the strength
(B) Seasoning of timber increases the life
(C) Seasoning of timber results in dimensional instability
(D) Seasoning of timber reduces the weight
42. Choose the correct combination :
1. Retarder P. Fly Ash
2. Accelerator Q. Superplasticizer
3. Pozzolana R. Gypsum
4. Workability S. Calcium chloride
(A) 1–R, 2–S, 3–P, 4–Q (B) 1–S, 2–R, 3–P, 4–Q
(C) 1–R, 2–P, 3–S, 4–Q (D) 1–R, 2–S, 3–Q, 4–P
43. Deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is :
(A) Shrinkage (B) Creep
(C) Segregation (D) Bleeding
44. The foundation provided below a heavily loaded steel column on a soil of low bearing
capacity is :
(A) Isolated column footing (B) Grillage foundation
(C) Raft foundation (D) Strip footing
45. A bond in which both header and stretcher come in the same course is :
(A) English bond (B) Raking bond
(C) Zigzag bond (D) Flemish bond
46. Which of the following does not belong to the class ‘shell roof ’ :
(A) Dome (B) Barrel vault
(C) Warped surface (D) Flat slab
47. Decoupling of the superstructure from substructure resting on a shaking ground is
called :
(A) Base isolation (B) Damping
(C) Shock absorption (D) Retrofitting

013/2020 8 A
48. If to is the optimistic time, t p is the pessimistic time and tm is the most probable
time, then the expected time of occurrence of an activity is :
to  2tm  t p to  tm  t p
(A) t (B) t
4 3
to  4tm  t p to  2tm  3t p
(C) t (D) t
6 6

49. Which of the statements given below is not correct :

When there is a dispute in a construction site,
(A) The dispute must be submitted initially to the site Engineer for decision,
before referring to arbitration
(B) The contractor has to stop the work till the settlement of dispute
(C) All actions related thereto should be recorded and referred for future
negotiations and agreements
(D) A meeting must be held between the superintendent and union leader
50. The planned or systematic actions necessary to provide enough confidence that a
product or service will satisfy the given requirements is called :
(A) Quality control (B) Quality improvement
(C) Quality Assurance (D) Quality Audit
51. The Manning’s formula is given by the expression:
1 23 12
(A) V R S (B) V C R.S
2 1
(C) V 83.47 R 3 S 2 (D) V 0.85C R 0.63 S 0.54

52. Detention period of grit chambers is kept as:

(A) 12 hours (B) 5 minutes
(C) 24 hours (D) 1 minute
53. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of:
(A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Hydrogen Sulphide (D) Methane
54. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is
(A) Vent pipe (B) Anti-Siphonage pipe
(C) Waste pipe (D) Soil pipe
55. In a BOD test 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen
concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the
end of 5 day incubation at 20°C. The BOD of raw sewage will be:
(A) 100 ppm (B) 200 ppm
(C) 300 ppm (D) 400 ppm
A 9 013/2020
56. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against
pathogenic bacteria is about:
(A) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm (B) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
(C) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm (D) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm
57. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove:
(A) Dissolved organic substances
(B) Dissolved solids and gases
(C) Floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
(D) Bacteria and colloidal solids
58. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about:
(A) 10 to 15 (B) 20 to 25
(C) 30 to 35 (D) 40 to 50
59. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as:
(A) Inlet (B) Manhole
(C) Drop manhole (D) Catch basin
60. The self cleaning velocity of the sewers is:
(A) Less than 1.0 m/s (B) 1.0 m/s to 1.2 m/s
(C) 1.5 m/s to 2.0 m/s (D) 3.0 m/s to 3.5 m/s
61. The limiting value of the depth of neutral axis ( x u,max / d ) for Fe 500 grade steel bars
as per IS 456-2000 is:
(A) 0.53 (B) 0.48
(C) 0.51 (D) 0.46
62. Where a member is built into a masonry wall which develops only partial restraint,
the member shall be designed to resist a negative moment at the face of support is
___________, Where W is total design load L is the effective span.
(A) WL/8 (B) WL/12
(C) WL/16 (D) WL/24
63. Basic Value of span to effective depth ratio for span up to 10 m of a continuous beam
as per IS 456-2000:
(A) 7 (B) 20
(C) 24 (D) 26

64. The minimum area of steel in mm 2 has to be provided in a column of size

250 mm u 600 mm is:
(A) 1200 (B) 1500
(C) 1800 (D) 2400

013/2020 10 A
65. In a reinforced concrete footing, the thickness at the edge shall not be less than
150 mm for footing on soils nor less than ___________ mm above the top of piles for
footing on piles:
(A) 250 mm (B) 300 mm
(C) 350 mm (D) 200 mm
66. Poisson’s ratio of concrete is frequently taken as:
(A) 0.15 – 0.25 (B) 0.5 – 0.75
(C) 0.05 – 0.15 (D) none of above
67. One way slabs are those in which most of the load is carried on the ___________ span :
(A) longest (B) shortest
(C) middle (D) quarter

68. The modulus of rupture of M25 Concrete may be taken as ___________ N/mm 2 :
(A) 3 (B) 3.5
(C) 4 (D) 4.5
69. Upright compression members that support decks in bridges are often called as:
(A) Pile (B) Piers
(C) Pedestal (D) Stub
70. Slenderness ratio of a member is defined as the ratio of the effective length to the
___________ of a section:
(A) moment of inertia (B) radius of gyration
(C) thickness (D) area
71. The unsupported length of transverse ties should not exceed ___________ times the
diameter of tie in two directions:
(A) 36 (B) 42
(C) 48 (D) 16
72. The full fixity at the column may be valid only for columns supported by:
(A) an individual footing on rock (B) a thick pile cap
(C) a raft foundation (D) all of the above
73. A ___________ section is one in which the area of tension steel is such that the
ultimate limit state, the ultimate compressive strain in concrete is reached, However
the tensile stain in the reinforcing steel is less than the yield strain:
(A) balanced (B) under reinforced
(C) over reinforced (D) composite
74. In design practice of beams the span to overall depth ratio are generally taken in the
(A) 10 to 16 (B) 25 to 30
(C) 1 to 2 (D) 30 to 45

A 11 013/2020
75. Counter fort retaining wall is economical for heights above ___________ m:
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
76. For preliminary calculations the thickness of the base slab of a retaining wall may be
taken as ___________ percent of the height of wall:
(A) 0.8 (B) .08
(C) 8 (D) 80
77. Considering the concept of durability of water tanks, the minimum grade of concrete
shall be:
(A) M10 (B) M20
(C) M30 (D) M40
78. The permissible concrete stress in direct tension of M20 in calculation relating to
resistance to cracking as per IS 3370-1965 part II is:
(A) 20 kg/cm 2 (B) 12 kg/cm 2
(C) 14 kg/cm 2 (D) 17 kg/cm 2

79. The permissible concrete stress in tension due to bending of M20 in calculation
relating to resistance to cracking as per IS 3370-1965 part II is:
(A) 20 kg/cm 2 (B) 17 kg/cm 2
(C) 14 kg/cm 2 (D) 10 kg/cm 2

80. The method of prestressing concrete in which pre-stressing steel is tensioned against
the hardened concrete is:
(A) Pre tensioning (B) post tensioning
(C) initial prestressing (D) jack tensioning
81. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from
50 kN/m 2 to 100 kN/m 2 . If the effective stress is further increased from 100 kN/m 2 to
200 kN/m 2 , then further settlement of the clay shall be:
(A) 10 mm (B) 20 mm
(C) 30 mm (D) 40 mm
82. The time taken by clay layer to achieve 50% consolidation is 5 years. If the layer was
half as thick, 5 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible then the time
that would be required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is :
(A) 12 year (B) 5 year
(C) 1 year (D) 16 year
83. A soil sample has a shrinkage limit of 10% and specific gravity of soil solids as 2.7.
The porosity of the soil at shrinkage limit is :
(A) 21.2% (B) 30%
(C) 527% (D) 70%
013/2020 12 A
84. What is the range of silt size particles according to IS classification :
(A) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm (B) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
(C) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm (D) 0.75 mm to 0.002 mm
85. In a falling head permeameter, a soil sample 75 mm in diameter and 36 mm in length
was tested. At the commencement of the test, the initial head was 80 cm and after
one hour, the head drops to 40 cm. The coefficient of permeability if the diameter of
the stand pipe is 1 cm, in cm/sec will be :
(A) 1.98 u 10 3 (B) 1.88 u 10 3
(C) 1.98 u 10 2 (D) 1.23 u 10 5
86. A vane 20 cm long and 10 cm in diameter was pressed into soft marine clay at the
bottom of a bore hole. Torque was applied gradually and failure occurred at
2000 kg/cm, the cohesion of the clay in kg/cm2 is :
5 7
(A) (B)
S 7 S 6
12 7
(C) (D)
S 7 S 12
87. An un drained triaxial compression test is carried out on a saturated clay sample
under a cell pressure of 200 kN/m2. The sample failed at a deviator stress of
400 kN/m2. The cohesion of’ the given clay sample is :
(A) 50 kN/m2 (B) 200 kN/m2
(C) 300 kN/m2 (D) 400 kN/m2

88. Flow lines and equipotential lines meet each other at an angle :
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 90 (D) 120
89. Newmark’s chart is used in foundation engineering to determine :
(A) earth pressure
(B) seepage loss
(C) permeability of soils
(D) stresses in soil due to surface loading
90. According to Terzaghi, the ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil, at
ground surface for a rough based footing is:
(A) 5.14 Cu (B) 5.14 Cu  JDf
(C) 5.7 Cu (D) None of the above

91. Application of bituminous material over an existing pavement surface which is

relatively impervious is :
(A) Prime Coat (B) Tack Coat
(C) Seal Coat (D) Surface Dressing
A 13 013/2020
92. In flexible pavements, wheel load is distribute by :
(A) Slab action (B) Directly to sub-grade
(C) Grain to grain transfer (D) Beam action
93. The distance travelled by a moving vehicle during total reaction time is:
(A) Lag distance (B) Stopping distance
(C) Braking distance (D) Sight distance
94. Rate of change of centrifugal acceleration for computing length of transition curve for
a vehicle with design speed V kmph is given by :
70 80
(A) m/s3 (B) m/s3
80  V 70  V
80 75
(C) m/s3 (D) m/s3
75  V 80  V

95. The diagram showing the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in
accidents is :
(A) Spot map (B) Condition diagram
(C) Collision diagram (D) Desire line
96. The general equation relating flow (Q), density (K) and space mean speed (U) is :
(A) Q (B) Q
(C) Q UK (D) Q KU

97. Grade compensation on B.G tracks suggested in Indian railway is :

(A) 0.02% (B) 0.03%
(C) 0.05% (D) 0.04%
98. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not
exceed :
(A) 35% (B) 25%
(C) 20% (D) 15%
99. V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to :
(A) Neighbourhood planning (B) Housing Typologies
(C) Architecture Design principle (D) Hierarchy of Roads
100. PMGSY, a programme of the Government of India, deals with :
(A) Urban Employment Generation (B) Rural Road Development
(C) Rural Employment Generation (D) Rural Electrification


013/2020 14 A

A 15 013/2020

013/2020 16 A
Question Paper Code: 025/2019


Medium of Question: ENGLISH
Date of Test: 21/06/2019
Q No. Q No.
1 A A C C 51 C A A D
2 C D A D 52 B C A A
3 D B B C 53 D A B C
4 B A A A 54 A A B B
5 D C D C 55 B D A D
6 A A A B 56 B C D B
7 B D D D 57 D D C A
8 C B B B 58 C B C C
9 A B C A 59 A D B C
10 D C C A 60 C A D C
11 B A D C 61 A A A B
12 A B C D 62 A B C D
13 C A A B 63 D B B A
14 A D C D 64 C A D B
15 D A B A 65 D D B B
16 B D D B 66 B C A D
17 B B B C 67 D C C C
18 C C A A 68 A B C A
19 A C A D 69 A D C C
20 B D C B 70 B A B A
21 A C D A 71 A D B A
22 D A B C 72 D B C C
23 A C D A 73 D C D A
24 D B A D 74 B B A D
25 B D B B 75 C C C D
26 C B C B 76 B D A B
27 C A A C 77 C A D C
28 D A D A 78 D C D B
29 C C B B 79 A A B C
30 A D A A 80 C D C D
31 C B C D 81 C A A D
32 B D A A 82 D D B A
33 D A D D 83 B B C A
34 B B B B 84 C C A B
35 A C B C 85 B C B D
36 B C D A 86 A A D C
37 A B A D 87 D B A D
38 D D B C 88 B C A B
39 C B B D 89 C A B C
40 C A D B 90 C B D B
41 B C C D 91 A D C A
42 D C A A 92 B A D D
43 A C C A 93 C A B B
44 C B A B 94 A B C C
45 B D A B 95 B D B C
46 D A D A 96 D C A A
47 B B C D 97 A D D B
48 A B D C 98 A B B C
49 C D B C 99 B C C A
50 C C D B 100 D B C B
Question Paper Code: 41/2014
Work Supervisor(NCA-M)-SFC of Kerala Ltd, Overseer Gr.II/Draftsman Gr.II-KLDC Ltd,
Draughtsman Gr.II-KSDC for SC/ST Ltd Ltd
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test: 07.05.2014
Q No. Q No.
1 B A C C 51 C C B A
2 A B D C 52 A A C D
3 D D C D 53 C D A B
4 C C B B 54 D D D C
5 B D A C 55 B A C A
6 C C C A 56 B C A C
7 D A C B 57 C D D A
8 C B D D 58 A C B D
9 B C B C 59 D A C D
10 A A C D 60 C B A A
11 C C A C 61 A C C C
12 C D B A 62 D B A D
13 D A D B 63 B A D C
14 B C C C 64 C B D A
15 C B D A 65 A C A B
16 A C C C 66 C B C C
17 B D A D 67 A A D B
18 D C B A 68 D D C A
19 C B C C 69 D C A B
20 D A A B 70 A B B C
21 C C C C 71 C C C B
22 A B D D 72 D D B A
23 B C A C 73 C C A D
24 C A C B 74 A B B C
25 A D B A 75 B A C B
26 C B C C 76 C C B C
27 D D D B 77 B C A D
28 A B C C 78 A D D C
29 C D B A 79 B B C B
30 B A A D 80 C C B A
31 C B C B 81 D D A B
32 D C B D 82 C B C C
33 C B C B 83 C D D C
34 B D A D 84 A A B A
35 A B D A 85 B A B D
36 C C B B 86 A D B D
37 B A D C 87 C C C B
38 C C B B 88 D C C D
39 A D D D 89 B A A A
40 D B A B 90 B B D A
41 B B B C 91 B A D D
42 D C C A 92 C C B C
43 B A B C 93 C D D C
44 D D D D 94 A B A A
45 A C B B 95 D B A B
46 B A C B 96 D B D A
47 C D A C 97 B C C C
48 B B C A 98 D C C D
49 D C D D 99 A A A B
50 B A B C 100 A D B B

Iine : r ho; ald 16 6i!ut .

1. A! urd.! Einftied *ctio is prcfst&d lhe e N! nttftned Ftim bdw of :
(A) ft. .rel reaclDs it ruiru dt4 .ldier
(D) BtittL prcpdtv of @b
(c) 8i8b .h.nsth of @|@te
(D) C@a ofBtel iB high

S, Whd . .la! i! osidstd as rwo way .lab, it! long .pu to .hort span ratio i3 |

(A) 1€i. thd 2 (B) ss.t lthatr2

(C) ls thu.1.6 (D) rctu of t!@

8, t! th. .h.i. t !t of .ssrtsltd tLe *hE L!.t diD.ldm is l€€s tbu 0.6 ti@. of
,I!it e.r lit @ ten€d s :
(A) Eldsit.a (B) O.D sa.I€d
(O c[o.. sn&d @) SbrY
{ A D@d pitb DMid€d 6r tlte purDde of euwili .imi. to t@ to tnd iw th. tutry th..tM i€ dll€d :
(B) t uc6

6, I! Ildtar r!n*s,y. the wiitth of b!o.d gaua€ i! :

W i
r.167 (B) 16?e6
(C) 1.?610 @) l.sto 6
G lt riFtts.8 loiri i! the dercin! lc&t bqsd *hich de tEir rebc|' c4 .t d !.Slv
riih4! @uidirs rit! tlD haii @i!a 6 tha oiL.t rncr i. :
( ) ILel (B) C.!she.t
(q rodDut (D) Cndtirs.tsli@
a t
7. { l.ver of eoc(t . b,sod} or .obc ctc. s}r.l B pl,.rd dr Fn'r3tre or ouilct of,
cul\€rt or *atetuat io Feveni thc elri.g ii dllcd :
(A) Abuine.i (D anr
(c) qissn (D) aprcn

3, M*inun nling errdieni Dernittad in Indian ..ilways jn plains is :

(A) 1in io (B) rDlOO
(C) 1in 150 (D) I in 200

0. The outar sislal ir lndian railway. i6 prdvidcd rt ! mininun or

10, Ih€ b*in{d yrrle or super el€vatior pbvid€d ia lDitiar milways is :

(A) t65nn (B) 1,10 nn

(C) ?5 Do (D) genn
lt. FrMc; rurbme N

{A) a tu.bins
radial doq ibpulse (B) !r uial f,or turbiDe
(O a radidl dN r€actio. tubire (D) animp de turbin€
12. Wher a luid is a. resq the 6lEar 8rreft i! |

(4) Unpr€dictabl€ (B) Maxinun

(c) zerc (D) None ofrhe&
13, Atmo6phenc]rEssure head in t€rn6 of{aler@luen rs.
(A) 7.6n (B) 6.0n
(C) 9.31n (D) 10.3b
1'1. Unit pdd developed by a turbine i. delined ar wh€n :
(A) Porer or the turbinc is niimun (8) gead on rhc tubine i3 udry
(C) Emciencr ofihe ilrhin6 i! oaxiDu (D) Noneolthese
16. rh. brsnci ol vrPn@ stu.n wrh Lbe 6tu(t of oud d mor'on s'hour mns'dPtus lh€
foms dus'ng Lhr mot$n D k^own ,3.
L4) r,yffi tB) Srsdc!
(c) I{inenati6 (D) Phrcatic

16. TLe nqiom mout! of stEiD ener6r wbrh ca. bp stoled i! a uit sluds qthout
pcm$€tr! sr i. callcd :

(A) pMf E ilie@ G) milien@

(o) q.ep iD) burk nodulus

l?. t[e.r s!re.. to sbear sr.&tr sirhin

Th. rolio ol .he linit ot ptuDortionaliw i' :
(A) Pdsns Eoo lB) Vodulu' of ncidir v
(O Elastic oodulls O) aouns's bodulu
18, The l@d rsqwd b ..ue unir {t.fl€6on i3
'au'd :

r9, Iq r cotuEr sid! on. ord tusd a.d th€ oth6r €n'l trine.d |be eft@hre leneth is :

(A) L (a) 2L
\o @) Ltz
20. TL6.tud&d saus! lonsb ot a sp(im€n tor t6n6il€ @r sith nill'lso$stron 'Fs oo r3

(a, 666,6 (B) 6.65 lE

(C) do G.66- (Dr s.6t J;;
!1- Th€ n.ddu be.dins noDeni tu a siDprv 6uPputed hem *hich @des uifor load s'
thsugh out its spdn I i6
(A) wv! (B) wlz/4
(q) wI:/3 (D) wv8

22, An isohpic nat€nal i! 6tu ihich i.. :

' {A) ihe elletii on€tants .rticsl in dlldiEctions

(B) sne€tructr h tI tlircdio6
(C, ob€B hmL s b* uP to lailuF
(D) yousrt modulu add nsiditv boduli aE .,re
A 6 4rl2ol1,
23, th6 prcdnclorElesd; nodul$ and
(A) breional rigidity (B)
(c) dgidily nodulus (D)

24, Tto pol6i nonert or ircnia of 6 holla cncdd sfttion *itL elteloul dianet€r
int rnal dird€br 'd' i :

6J nID2 - d2lt 64 @J trID1 .alt 32

Q) ,lDt d4)t 61 (D) alD3 d3y32

26, Whcn a.lo*d dn !€ricdl 6p.i!g is suhjc(hd b ab dal.mpa5lrve lod. rh€ n,llrial sdl

(A) shear str*s (B) aial conpresriv. s!e6s

(c) bendinestress (D) fens e 8irc3r
!6, Ihc fore actins or a body oowins hacr.uld pdh rlode b" rddrus asay &on !!e en@ or


27. Cdbu buodds is Euuble tur I

(B) ibieil up ar€t

(D) hir]y,Eg
2E. !o. no t€Nion d€veloped in lhc base of sraviiy dan, ihe eccenhiciiy
within _ wheF b i6 tho
(B) b/3
(D) b/2

20. Th..viporution f.on pl.nie and aurrcundinq eil ioqether is e[.d :

{A) vapo'ifisation (B) hydratidn

(C) €vapoE,nspuarion

80. Cmss dfdinacs worts,re et requiFdwh€ntnec al is:

(A) entou canar (Bl ridse cdnal
(C) resime camr (D) canio enal
8l, lte le@l itifi€re@ lei$en th6 t p otbmk of a csn.l ad the eainuD Fater l*l i. ;
(A) lem G) alaux
(C) rre hdd (D) did.trdelth

81. Conductrvrtt B ilElly d€p"trdr on

(A) total di..olv.d sli& (B) eud.
volatil6 oBanic

(C) t t3I6U& (D) ntni*d.lilsL€d soult

SS. M;ihud a6out of rliadolveil oxyslt d6irablo h srv wdxer bodv is los. than :

'(Jt 2 nc[ (B) r bg4

(c) 3 Esn (D) 5 er.4

8a. Tn€ pip€ caDyins s.s.sE is called :

(A) *wtg€

86. Plastioily ilder i6 :

(A) liquid lioit

linii - plastia @) li;it .lnnhgelihit
(C) ut r ontent -pr,sti.liEii (D) Uquid lifit - €hrinhs€ rimit

8& Tle r4iio ol unmitsd 6npr6..ion sbenstn ir nstual io that h the renould''I state

(A) p€m,bility (B) f,w indet

(O .etuiiiviiy (D) ihi*otrop8

t7. lAe difi.rac betwen the tobr lircs lt i 4oint ud rLe poF wlter Dlsw at !!ri Poirt

(r0€6. G) efl4tjve sLres

(C) trcuFal.tes (D) .i€ar.i.a

. 8& rtlinins tall ooe

WIen a toward. ihe btck6l vrEd th€ ru! tend' to coEpEs th€ sil
(.{) At.t.tpE..w G) Actit €arth pd.rF
(C) PasiFearth pftse (D) Elbctivs presd
3r, The byd.onete! .nolysis is based on the princiDle of:
(A) ldq
stokes G) Drrcy's low
(C) Monnn:gola{ (D) Newton'F law

{0. TLe mdidB w8t€. onbtri ol t1'. 30il ,t which no ndher ednction

' iA) Pl,sticlinit (B) Liquid limii

(c) Wdter linit (D) Shndlosc liftit
41, The dilleencc batwoe. lldstid liiit and chrinlsse linn i3 dalled i
(A) flu'diry indox
(C) llasiicity index

(A) pure sjlica sand

(B) o arad acl,B a quicL filtcr
' (C) a@ndilion when oherion
(D) , condirion in which oh€5ionlcs. .oil l@s ib Bheaf stFtrsth due 1o lhe upw.rd
fl.s ofFater
43. Consolidaiion b . ph@6s iD vlrich :
(A) gudder corpr*sio! of soil (B) srdual.xpulsjo. ofpoe wat€r
(O abnohul shlinking of soil iD) tiltinR abd failft oldoil
,lt. lhe hiniim d€plh of e4loration i! thc q6c ol grav'ty drm i. :
(A) baseidthol.lad (B) t*ir tle bae width
(C) fwi@ tlD heislt of ile .lan
il5. Sanples fmn au8Er boring are :

{A) non roDrodertarive s,Eplc (B) u.distufu.d s,dple

{C) reprcsniatiE6anplo
46, tan€ slEar t 6t id u&d foi me*ui.g:
(B) slear alronsth olohesive $il
(C) beuins capacity ol soil

47. ']1E matlrirl that i. Ft&iled by a Ftajrins ltluctw is sen lally dsled 3. I

O) surch.lgs G) @ildop.
(c) b.cr6n (D) ,rltl*
a8. Sh.Uos boMg is o! whose d€pth iE :

(A, width
oqual E (B) los th.lsidln
(C) !|GtLuf,idah (D) !@ortt@
4t. Yellow (.dber) 6lou of t olouEd Ucht tE6c si3na:I in a junctiotr:ndiclt . :

(A) so (B) 6toD..

(c) he ady to ao . (D) cl€a.m tine
60, The 6!.t railwqr lrain in lndi, ran b€twe! :

(A) chedd.nd arns,rum (B) Mubai Dd Than.

G) c'r.{tt .nd D.lhi (D) Ildrlh .nd Ddu

6r. The st.nddd lengih of Eil eciion b! brcad 8Ns. Fil io I

(A)rzb (B) 10n
G) r3b (D) 15n
6r. The b.xibuE
ofcl]m ir ! bead 3a!s. ii:
. (A) to' (B) lz'
(o rf (D) rf
68. Th. pnncipls mlsDtents ol .rsill.@ous rci.B ia :

. ($ liDe (B) silic.

(c) dly (D) 4d

64, Th6 ind.nistion lrohd€d in a f.c. of tle bdqk t caUed :

(A) p"lLi @) 8t!ii..

(c) burhd (D) frls

!!.'It!€rh6nom€nonof ln@sinsi!.hhEeof a noiEttmdisc.Ueil;

(A) hl€ldin! (B) bulrint
(c) &g!€s.tio @) thiiing
66. I'he sluD. o{ o@ b.a (50 kd of aE.nt i! :
(A) Ool.'
(c) 00d6 Dr

6t. The .!! ot. ttf €n be juilsBd leb :

(?t di.E€tsr (B) l€al


(A) 6n ntDaiDt
(C) .n.nel Daiit
59- -& i. a Di*tm of
(A) litqne! and e.le6toE (B) bii@e! a l@@d
(C) t{ andB.b$t s CD) bifuen .nd inolt 6ine..I Dattor

60. The hetht of .lurD om D slup ta.i B :

(A) {Od (B) a5u

' .(c) $d (D 3ad
5r. Tt. i.!&Dcr oI rb Mml to spli! dons r erlrD plare ir c.[.d:

02. Th.dt rior qmr of , vrtl i. kr@n & :

(A) jhb G) aog

68. 15. w of .rcI.. in dtiDutid i! cdLd r

-. (D) hultipl€ a!!,!

tlE Eltiel diltslE b.tF@n th. top of tm 6u@ik tFadr i. :

(B) ri8ht

4V1014 t0
65. The vedical int .meaitl. member o{ the iane which divid$ the windos verticauv is :

(D) rail
66, The veriicd window prwided on ihe slopins rcor is kndn a6 :

(A) Lnt rn windos (D g.hl€ qindow

(C) dom€f{indow {D) b,ywindo{
6?. A dos l€ga€d st ir onncctinc |{o n@E wirb lloor b ner )reighi $ 4 2 n and {irb a lie of
lScm Tben the l,otsl numb.r ot had6 in rhai srair i5 :
(A) 26 (B) 25
(o 2e (D) 2?

5a. An i.stumeni u&d 1o EeaFnre tne dcpth or forndation i3 :

(A) Raneinc rcd (lr) T squ e
(C) t v€ri.q slatt (D) Bonilgrod
69. A dt naile i. fie fta6e df ' door !o Eceive ihe .hu1lar i6 :

(A) louver (B) grmve

(O caDc (D) Ebate

70. A propped cdntileyer sith unifornly diettibu!€d lold'Wn'and rp,n l, th€n the prcp

{Ai 3 st/8 (B) t$vg

(C) *U8 O) *Y2

7r. A pi! joinEd perl€ci n.6e i5 to sdliltv 't is Dur+r ol n.nbem dnd
t i6 lhe nub€. of joiDb
(A) r>2j 3 (B) z<2j-3
\c) ^ =2j 0

?r. A partition w.ll i. &s8ned to srrY :

(A) livc loa& G) inposedload
(C) r€riical load! {D) @e|€hal lo.d8

79. In G€ li;i! 6tate dethod ofdeeier ih€ na*inun mnpbdliw sh.i. in @Dcrete i6 iAlan as :

(A) O.oO35 (B) 0036

(c) 0.002 (D) 0.o2

11 {U20t4
?.1. l. .i.cly reinlorced been ir the onc$b 6ft6sed .o aUdable linit earlier ibln steel
rh. secho. n said b bc: '6 'ts
(A) @errcinnftod bean (B)
(C) nndq reinlorced @ction (D)

75, lors siDply suppo.ted bedm, t]ie nuioum deilection

(-{) ra00ofdF sp$ (B)
(C) 1/350 of rprn (D)

?6, I.qoni.6lin€6 aa lhe li.€s hayng tho sddo :

(A) beantrg (B) dip
(C) dedinalio.
7?. A bench Da.t is a :
(A) point
(D) lointofknownelevati.n
(C) Tlo vdy nBt station
(D) 'I'he iast slatior where the iurvrr closes

?a. Point oftdgency b th6:

{A) enil ofth. cuR€
(B) cure
b€sindin3 of ihe
iC) coDno! poinl wher€ tle radiug chan8es
tD) .otmod poi.t where the direction changes

79. The inatrunent.u*d ro repmd@d dqB ro a differe.t sc.le i3 cdled

(A) plarin€ter (B)
(c) crinoneteB (D) box scxt$t
30. The rppro\naF*.ieh' oloDecdbE octrcotn dscel's:
($ 2,r0o kg (B) 1440Is
(o ?3501(9 (D) 2500ls

81. wlich olthese netals ic the best conductof of heal?

(B) lbn
(D) Silv€r
82. lvhich dmodg ihe following ia tui an eHnplc otllrbi crop?
(A) $'nont (B) Ba ey
(C) Rice (D) Must{d
83. Thc 6rst talLie lrn in MslaJotan Balan' we tlidied by:
(A) J.c l)si.r (B) Ranu (!r'.t
(c) s. Nottdi (D) vvinent
84, i' Ildia, dM is builtin {hich rirer:
Thc highesrdam
(A) Eagitudhi (B) Naroadd
(c) B.dhhaprrra (D) sudej
35, (o,hilha ilatal is the autobioeruphy of I
(A) MP.Isul (B) Mu.dd$ery
. (c) s.K I'ottnklal

36, W!i.l dnole tha fouowins b r die*s cdusd

iA) Mea6las (B) Diphtheria
(q rapisy (D) Ttrb€rculGis

8?. Th€ pftn JRthikkuDnf wni.h crilicized $; cast cysi.e i n Ke.ala was wdtten bv :

(A) Iiudarantuan (B) K. Alyappan

(C) I{'P. Kafuppan (D) Ktr ipplrdth lGdavan Nlir
88. ihe Msl,yslan wrilcr who is seleot€d for &nd.a Sahitya AcdeEy fcldwship in 20 13 :

(A) ss€Joseph (B) c'Radhalnobnan

(C) Sdchidjnadan (D) M.T vasudevan Nair

80. Tbe tu;t 6hte in Indiu Fhich i6 docldFd ae tobseo Fee st3i€ :

(A) Uttsrancnd G) Ilihachal Prad€sh

(O nana.a (D) Odbha

00. R.ncsNonr.up L assoc'ukd hnh !hrch of rhe tolldins games

(A) BldDi.dtdn (B) HftleY
(C) Footbal (D) Orictei
91, The €dito. of'NadEni Dapilr' 3tat€d publicatid in 1387 lren MatrmNE saa :
' (A) Poyk.y YoLln&n (B) Nidhidual Maritatnanar
(C) A.n@ Pdthiri (D) latheflluNelden
rs 4u2014
TLe investors m..ri!s ftnducted 1,r liualr cir€rnncni,n 2012 :

(.!) ctrl (B) vision Kdela 2030

((j) Dnerginc l{enlt (D) Kerdla confer.nce ot,nv66t rs

9:i. The piidary dcnory ol a oonputer r :

(B) c.n Roy

(c) rrr\l (D)

Tle lead$ of liorl]r $ho $ag

1A) Vssbhldrndda (B)
(c) Vaikunda Swabikal (D)

InbhationdlcilEf sofely day is:

(A) DeFDber r0
iC) Sept nber t6

96- tfirchof r\e* vnaD,nsu slublcx, Nat r?

( ) vitdnin D
(o \:namir r\

97. tlF consriiurion'1 anendncnt shich b.dc 'Risht to Education d lundamcnbr lierlt
@ so*
98.!e$ ssion wiich pacred looro
(A) Bombay
(C) Luctnox
99. $hrh oEonc 'hp.olio\y'n8 E nor s udL hJ \'8uad
Nar!)sn, Mclon?
(A) Umdkeralam
(C) Clitrayogan
100. The sditor ol the newspap.f 'Miiavrdi publhhcd
(A) ishMn (B) v.lkoE Abdul Fbu&. Moulaii
(c) Ic ndallnshna Pilh

Question Paper Code: 55/2019


Medium of Question: ENGLISH
Date of Test: 05/11/2019
Q No. Q No.
1 D D B C 51 C A D C
2 A C A A 52 B C A A
3 B C A A 53 D D B C
4 D B B C 54 C B A D
5 B B C D 55 A C C B
6 D B C C 56 A D C D
7 C A A C 57 C A A A
8 C A A B 58 D B C C
9 B B C D 59 B A D D
10 B C D A 60 C C B C
11 B C C C 61 D C D A
12 A A C A 62 A A A B
13 A A B D 63 B C C A
14 B C D A 64 A D D D
15 C D A B 65 C B C B
16 C C C A 66 A C C C
17 A C A B 67 B A C B
18 A B D B 68 C B C B
19 C D A D 69 C A C B
20 D A B C 70 B C C B
21 C C A D 71 C C C A
22 C A B A 72 A C B B
23 B D B B 73 B C B C
24 D A D D 74 A C B C
25 A B C B 75 C C B D
26 C A D D 76 C C A C
27 A B A C 77 C B B B
28 D B B C 78 C B C A
29 A D D B 79 C B C B
30 B C B B 80 C B D A
31 A D D B 81 C A C D
32 B A C A 82 B B B A
33 B B C A 83 B C A B
34 D D B B 84 B C B C
35 C B B C 85 B D A A
36 C D A C 86 A C D A
37 A A B B 87 B B A B
38 C C A D 88 C A B C
39 D D D C 89 C B C C
40 B C B A 90 D A A B
41 D A C A 91 C D A C
42 A B B C 92 B A B A
43 C A D D 93 A B C B
44 D D C B 94 B C C A
45 C B A C 95 A A B C
46 A C A D 96 D A C C
47 B B C A 97 A B A C
48 A D D B 98 B C B C
49 D C B A 99 C C A C
50 B A C C 100 A B C C
Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. SI unit of work is:

(A) Pound (B) Newton

(C) Watt (D) Joule

2. When a person opens a door, he applies:

(A) Force (B) Torque

(C) Moment (D) None of the above

3. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth is approximately equal to:

(A) 9.81 km/s (B) 11.2 km/s

(C) 14.0 km/s (D) 22.0 km/s

4. If the momentum of a given particle is doubled, then its kinetic energy will be:

(A) doubled (B) unaffected

(C) halved (D) quadrupled

5. When the car moves on road its wheel has:

(A) Purely rotational motion (B) Rotational and translational motion

(C) Purely translational motion (D) None of the above

6. The friction experienced by a body when it is in motion is called:

(A) Rolling friction (B) Static friction

(C) Limiting friction (D) Dynamic friction

7. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameter (d) is:

(A) (S / 16)d 4 (B) (S / 32)d 4

(C) (S / 64 )d 4 (D) (S / 4 )d 4

A 3
8. The force applied on a body of mass 150 kg to produce an acceleration of 10 m/s2, is:
(A) 15 N (B) 150 N
(C) 1500 N (D) 3000 N

9. Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller force, the smaller force is:
(A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg
(C) 30 kg (D) 35 kg

10. The process of finding out the resultant force is known as:
(A) Superposition of forces (B) Composition of forces
(C) Addition of forces (D) Resolution of forces

11. The point, at which the whole weight of the body may be considered to act, is known as:
(A) Centre of mass (B) Centre of gravity
(C) Centre of curvature (D) Moment of inertia

12. If the resultant of forces acting on a body is zero, the body:

(A) is in equilibrium (B) is moving with non uniform velocity
(C) is not in equilibrium (D) none of the above

13. The unit of force in C.G.S. system of units, is called:

(A) Dyne (B) Kg
(C) Newton (D) All the above

14. If the angular distance, 0 2t 3  3t 2 the angular acceleration at t = 1sec. is:

(A) 1 rad/sec 2 (B) 6 rad/sec 2

(C) 4 rad/sec 2 (D) 12 rad/sec 2

15. The resultant of two forces which are acting at an angle T is:

(A) P 2 Q 2  2PQ cosT (B) P 2 Q 2  2 PQ sinT

(C) P 2  Q 2  2PQ cosT (D) P 2  Q 2  2PQ sinT
55/2019 4 A
16. The resultant of two equal forces P making an angle 2 T is given by:
(A) 2Psin T (B) 2Ptan T
(C) 2Pcos T (D) 2Pcot T

17. The rate of doing work is known as:

(A) Power (B) Potential energy
(C) Kinetic energy (D) None of the above

18. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies:

(A) Is constant at every instant (B) Varies from point to point
(C) Is maximum in the start (D) None of the above

19. If the tension in a cable supporting a lift moving upwards is twice the tension when the lift is
moving downwards, the acceleration of the lift, is:
(A) g/2 (B) g/4
(C) g/3 (D) g/5

20. In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of
6 kN.The velocity ratio of the machine is :
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 80 (D) 50

21. Which of the following represent reducing scale?

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 1:2 (D) 10:1

22. The following line is used for dimension line:

(A) Continuous thick (B) Chain thin line
(C) Continuous thin (D) Short zigzag thin

23. The front view of a rectangle, when its plane is parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP, is:
(A) Rectangle (B) Line
(C) Square (D) Point

A 5 55/2019
24. The following are the Polyhedron except:
(A) Prism (B) Cube
(C) Pyramid (D) Cylinder

25. The following are the solids of revolution except:

(A) Prism (B) Cone
(C) Sphere (D) Cylinder

26. The top view of a right cylinder resting on HP on its base rim is :
(A) Ellipse (B) Rectangle
(C) Circle (D) Square

27. The following is formed by revolving rectangle about one of its sides which remains fixed:
(A) cylinder (B) hemi sphere
(C) sphere (D) cone

28. The sectional plane are represented by :

(A) Continuous thick line (B) Chain thin line
(C) Continuous thin line (D) Chain thin line having thick edges

29. The dotted lines represents:

(A) hidden edges (B) centre line
(C) projection line (D) hatching line

30. A tetrahedron has four equal ——————— faces.

(A) square (B) triangular
(C) rectangular (D) circular

31. In first angle projection method, object is assumed to be placed in:

(A) First quadrant (B) Third quadrant
(C) Second quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

32. The internal angle of regular hexagon is ——————— degree.

(A) 72 (B) 120
(C) 108 (D) 150

55/2019 6 A
33. A right regular hexagonal prism in resting on HP on its base, its top view is a.
(A) square (B) hexagon
(C) rectangle (D) pentagon

34. The following is the method for development of a sphere:

(A) Parallel line method (B) Triangulation method
(C) Radial line method (D) Approximate method

35. The Length : Width in case of an arrow head is:

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 3:1 (D) 4:1

36. The ability of engine bearings to accommodates small variation in shaft is its:
(A) Embadability (B) Conformability
(C) Adaptability (D) Fatigue strength

37. Combustion knock in a CI engine is generally known as:

(A) Diesel knock (B) Diesel lock
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Detonation

38. Which of the following are provided to the crank shaft to the balancing of main journals?
(A) crank arm (B) vibration damper
(C) crank weight (D) crank pulley

39. To improve the resistance to wear and corrosion, cylinder liners are plated with:
(A) platinum (B) vanadium
(C) zinc (D) chromium

40. Tendency of fuel to change from liquid to vapor form is called:

(A) pour point (B) volatility
(C) viscosity (D) flash point

41. Piston rings and cylinder liners are:

(A) Die casted (B) Hollow casted
(C) Sand casted (D) Centrifugal casted

A 7 55/2019
42. The leaking of the combustion charges to the crank case is known as:
(A) blow-by (B) by pass
(C) dilution (D) scavenging

43. Find the odd one :

(A) Piston pin (B) Wrist pin
(C) Crank pin (D) Gudgeon pin

44. Double row side valve mechanism incorporated with a:

(A) H-head engine (B) L-head engine
(C) F-head engine (D) T-head engine

45. The term harmonic balancer is used instead of:

(A) fly wheel (B) crank shaft
(C) vibration damper (D) none of these

46. T- slot provided in the piston:

(A) To accommodate the expansion of piston when heated up
(B) For cooling purpose
(C) To reduce piston weight
(D) For the passage of oil

47. Brake power of an engine is measured with a:

(A) vacuum gauge (B) dynamo meter
(C) taco meter (D) oscilloscope

48. Disadvantage of a pre-combustion chamber engine is :

(A) cold starting problems (B) More engine knock
(C) Less power (D) Both (B) and (C)

49. Detonation can be controlled by:

(A) advanced timing (B) pre heating of charge
(C) increase in compression ratio (D) cooling of the charge
55/2019 8 A
50. By providing a thick head gasket, the compression ratio of the engine will:
(A) increase (B) decrease
(C) double (D) remain constant

51. A pitot tube is used to measure:

(A) Pressure (B) Pressure difference
(C) Velocity of flow (D) Density of fluid

52. Forces acting on a floating body are:

(A) Inertia and gravity (B) Buoyancy and gravity
(C) Buoyancy and inertia (D) Pressure and gravity

53. Euler’s equation for the motion of liquid assumes that:

(A) velocity of flow is non uniform
(B) flow is unsteady along the stream line
(C) fluid is viscous
(D) fluid is homogeneous and incompressible

54. The most efficient section of a channel is:

(A) Triangular (B) Rectangular
(C) Trapezoidal (D) Square

55. Velocity of fluid particles at the centre of pipe section is:

(A) maximum (B) minimum
(C) medium (D) equal throughout

56. Why the alcohol is used in manometer?

(A) It provides longer column due to low density
(B) It is clearly visible
(C) It has low vapour pressure
(D) It has low surface tension

57. To avoid cavitations in centrifugal pump:

(A) suction pressure should be low (B) delivery pressure should be low
(C) suction pressure should be high (D) delivery pressure should be high

A 9 55/2019
58. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flow is called:
(A) Orifice (B) Notch
(C) Mouth piece (D) Weir

59. Bacteria which can survive without oxygen is called:

(A) Aerobic bacteria (B) Anaerobic bacteria
(C) Pathogenic bacteria (D) Non-pathogenic bacteria

60. The pressure conduit laid underground may not be subjected to:
(A) pressure due to external load
(B) internal pressure of water
(C) longitudinal temperature stress
(D) longitudinal stress due to unbalanced pressure

61. Water consumption per capita per day for hostel use in India as per Indian standard is:
(A) 40 litres (B) 80 litres
(C) 115 litres (D) 135 litres

62. The central rural sanitation program started on:

(A) 1986 (B) 1996
(C) 2006 (D) 2016

63. Most common coagulant is:

(A) Chlorine (B) Alum
(C) Bleaching powder (D) Potassium permanganate

64. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of :

(A) bacteria (B) turbidity
(C) odour (D) acidity

65. The equipment used to checking the levels of the sewer inverts is :
(A) Dumpy level (B) Theodolite
(C) Boning rod (D) None of these
55/2019 10 A
66. The formula for finding volume of hollow cylinder is ———————.
(A) S h( R  r )( R  r ) (B) S r 2h

(C) 4 /3 S r3 (D) 2 / 3S r 3

67. Find the area of a circle which inscribe in a square of side 14 cm:
(A) 140 (B) 154
(C) 160 (D) 196

68. If volume of cylinder is 900 with height of 20 cm, then diameter of cylinder is:
(A) 24 cm (B) 9.57 cm
(C) 7.57 cm (D) 12.23 cm

69. What is area of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm?

(A) 150 (B) 152
(C) 154 (D) 156

70. How many balls of 2 cm radius can be made by melting of a big ball of diameter 16 cm?
(A) 120 (B) 64
(C) 32 (D) None of the above

71. Find the angle of sector whose radius is 10 cm and area is 78.5
(A) 60 degree (B) 75 degree
(C) 90 degree (D) 45 degree

72. One side of rectangular field is 4 m and its diagonal is 5 m. The area of the field is :
(A) 12 sq.m (B) 20 sq.m

(C) 15 sq.m (D) 4 5 sq.m

73. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 1. The ratio of their edges is :
(A) 1:3 (B) 3:1
(C) 9:1 (D) 1:6

74. The sides of a triangle are 5 m, 12 m and 13 m. The area of the triangle is ———————.
(A) 30 sq.Cm (B) 45 sq.Cm
(C) 65 sq.Cm (D) none of the above

A 11 55/2019
75. If cube of side “a” the total surface area is :
(A) a2 (B) 3a

(C) 6a 2 (D) 6a

76. Find the area of a square of diagonal 30 cm:

(A) 500 (B) 900
(C) 450 (D) 600

77. When a sheet size 10 m u 5 m cut into small pieces of 25 cm u 20 cm, how many number of
pieces will be cut:
(A) 800 (B) 725
(C) 1000 (D) 825

78. Area of sphere of radius “r” is ———————:

(A) 2S r 2 (B) 1/ 2 S r 2

(C) 4S r 2 (D) 3S r2

79. A rectangle Carpet has an area of 120 sq.m and perimeter is 46 m, the length of its diagonal
is ———————.
(A) 15 m (B) 16 m
(C) 17 m (D) 20 m

80. If the ratio of the areas of the two squares is 16 : 1, the ratio of their perimeter:
(A) 1:3 (B) 3:1
(C) 4:1 (D) 1:6

81. The sum of interior angles of a pentagon is:

(A) 180° (B) 360°
(C) 540° (D) 720°

82. Eccentricity of parabola is:

(A) less than 1 (B) equal to 1
(C) greater than 1 (D) none of these

55/2019 12 A
83. The trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet:
(A) 841 u 1189 mm (B) 594 u 841 mm
(C) 420 u 594 mm (D) 297 u 420 mm

84. The working edge of a drawing table is known as:

(A) Fiducial edge (B) Ebony edge
(C) Cutting edge (D) Straight edge

85. How the letters and numerals are designated?

(A) By their width (B) By their height
(C) Size of paper (D) All of these

86. Name the polygon which is bounded by 9 sides:

(A) Nonagon (B) Decagon
(C) Hexagon (D) Octagon

87. What is the name of the part of circle bounded by two radii and its arc?
(A) Circle (B) Sector
(C) Segment (D) Chord

88. The ratio between two adjacent side of the drawing sheet:

(A) 1: 5 (B) 1: 3

(C) 1: 2 (D) 1:1

89. In which regular polygon sides are equal to radius of circumscribing circle:
(A) Octagon (B) Heptagon
(C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon

90. Path of a projectile is in the form of a:

(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola
(C) Semicircle (D) Parabola

91. A conic having only one directrix:

(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola (D) None of these
A 13 55/2019
92. Bow compass is used for drawing:
(A) Big circle (B) Very small circle
(C) Parallel lines (D) Curves

93. The maximum number of tangents drawing to a circle from a point outside the circle:
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) f

94. Acute angle is an angle:

(A) greater than 90° (B) Less than 90°
(C) Equal to 180° (D) Equal to 360°

95. Which of the following is an enlarged scale?

(A) n:1 (B) 1:n
(C) 1:1 (D) none of these

96. The following is not included in the title block of drawing sheet:
(A) Sheet number (B) Scale
(C) Date (D) Size of sheet

97. The following line is used for dimension line.

(A) Continuous thin (B) Continuous thick
(C) Chain thin line (D) None of these

98. Hatching lines are drawn at ——————— to reference line.

(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°

99. The length : width in case of an arrow head is:

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 3:1 (D) 4:1

100. Which of the following is the most soft pencil?

(A) 2B (B) 1B
(C) HB (D) H

55/2019 14 A

A 15 55/2019

55/2019 16 A
Question Code 060/2019
Draftsman Gr III Civil
Medium of Question :English
Date of Test : 20/11/2019
Q No. Q. No.
1 A 51 B
2 D 52 C
3 B 53 D
4 D 54 D
5 B 55 A
6 C 56 B
7 D 57 D
8 B 58 B
9 B 59 A
10 D 60 C
11 C 61 A
12 C 62 B
13 B 63 B
14 B 64 C
15 A 65 C
16 A 66 A
17 A 67 D
18 B 68 A
19 A 69 A
20 C 70 C
21 C 71 A
22 C 72 B
23 D 73 C
24 D 74 D
25 C 75 A
26 B 76 A
27 B 77 C
28 D 78 A
29 D 79 A
30 A 80 C
31 A 81 D
32 A 82 D
33 B 83 B
34 A 84 A
35 D 85 C
36 D 86 A
37 A 87 C
38 B 88 A
39 C 89 D
40 A 90 A
41 D 91 D
42 A 92 D
43 B 93 C
44 A 94 D
45 B 95 A
46 B 96 C
47 C 97 B
48 C 98 D
49 A 99 B
50 C 100 A
Question Booklet
Alpha Code A Question Booklet
Serial Number

Total Number of questions : 100 Time : 75 Minutes

Maximum Marks : 100


1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz.A,B,C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing
sheet of the question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position
A in the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha
code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing
sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question
booklet with same alpha code.
6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check
that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order.
The question booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so, he/she
should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet
with same alpha code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for
rough work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet
before marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct
answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question
number using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.


001. CADD stands for _________
(A) Computer Aided Design and Drafting
(B) Computer Aided Drawing and Design
(C) Computer Aided Design and Demonstration
(D) None of these

002. The command that allows to draw lines at right angles only is
(A) Perpend (B) Right
(C) Set (D) Ortho

003. Which command is used to set drawing boundaries?

(A) Trim (B) Limit
(C) Exclude (D) Border

004. Which command is used to erase a part of an object between two points?
(A) Close (B) Finish
(C) Complete (D) Break

005. To erase a previously drawn line, which option in LINEcommand can be used?
(A) Erase (B) Undo
(C) Forget (D) Remove

006. The command used to join two non-parallel lines by drawing a beveled line
(A) Extend (B) Trim
(C) Chamfer (D) Rotate

007. Function key F10 is used in AutoCAD to _________

(A) Snap ON/OFF (B) Grid ON/OFF
(C) Ortho ON/OFF (D) Polar tracking

008. Which command is used to exit from a drawing file in AutoCAD?

(A) Exit (B) Quit
(C) Escape (D) None of these


009. Letters and Numerals are designated by their _________

(A) Width (B) Height

(C) Style (D) None of these

010. Standard size of A2 sheet (trimmed) is

(A) 841 × 1189 (B) 594 × 841

(C) 297 × 420 (D) 420 × 594

011. Which instrument is used to erase a particular spot of a line without erasing the
nearby line?

(A) Eraser (B) Trimmer

(C) Erasing shield (D) Sand paper

012. It is a curved ruler used for drawing irregular curve

(A) Flexible curve (B) Stencil

(C) French curve (D) Compass

013. Single stroke lettering recommended by Bureau of Indian Standards for use in
engineering drawings is

(A) IS 9608-83 (B) IS 9609-83

(C) IS 9600-86 (D) IS 9607-85

014. The dimensioning to be used only where the possible accumulation of tolerance does
not endanger the functional requirements of the part

(A) Parallel dimensioning

(B) Chain dimensioning

(C) Super imposed running dimensioning

(D) None of these

015. When the section plane is inclined to the axis of the cone and cuts all the generators,
the section obtained is

(A) Ellipse (B) Parabola

(C) Hyperbola (D) Helix

■4 60/2019–A
016. In first angle projection method the plane is placed

(A) Below X Y line (B) Above X Y line

(C) Anywhere (D) None of these

017. A Line is parallel to both the HP and VP. Its projection is

(A) Two parallel lines (B) Line and a point

(C) Two points (D) Two inclined lines

018. Orthographic projection is also known as ______

(A) Oblique projection (B) Perpendicular projection

(C) Cavalier projection (D) Cabinet projection

019. The fundamental principle of surveying is to work from the ______

(A) Whole to the part (B) Part to the whole

(C) Lower level to higher level (D) Higher level to lower level

020. The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of field is called

(A) City survey (B) Location survey

(C) Cadastral survey (D) Topographical survey

021. The obstacle, which obstructs vision but not chaining, is a

(A) River (B) Pond

(C) Hill (D) Both A & B

022. In a whole circle bearing system N 25°15'E corresponds to

(A) 115°15' (B) 154°45'

(C) 25°15' (D) 334°45'

023. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as

(A) True bearing (B) dip

(C) Local attraction (D) Declination


024. The optical square used for setting out _____ angle

(A) 0° (B) 45°

(C) 60° (D) 90°

025. The theodolite is an instrument used for measuring very accurately

(A) Horizontal angle only (B) Vertical angle only

(C) Horizontal and vertical angles (D) Linear measurements

026. A line joining the optical center of the object glass and the center of the eyepiece
is called

(A) Fundamental line (B) Axis of telescope

(C) Axis of level tube (D) Line of pollination

027. An axis about which the telescope can be rotated in a Horizontal plane is
called _____

(A) Horizontal axis (B) Vertical axis

(C) Axis of the telescope (D) Line of pollination

028. The power of a telescope to form distinguishable image of objects separated by small
angular distance is called its

(A) Definition (B) Brightness

(C) Sensitivity (D) Resolving power

029. The deflection angle may have any value between

(A) 0° & 45° (B) 0° & 90°

(C) 0° & 120° (D) 0° & 180°

030. The projection of a traverse line on a line parallel to the meridian is known as _____of
the line

(A) Latitude (B) Departure

(C) Bearing (D) Angle

■6 60/2019–A
031. A staff reading taken on a Benchmark should be 2.627. Its reduced level is 150 m.
What should be the height of instrument?

(A) 152.627 m (B) 147.373 m

(C) 152.672 m (D) 147.337 m

032. EDM stands for –––––

(A) Electronic distance measurement (B) Electrical digital measurement

(C) Electronic digital measurement (D) None of these

033. The most commonly used modern instrument in surveying is

(A) Digital theodolite (B) Total station

(C) Air to level (D) None of these

034. Sandstone is

(A) Sedimentary rock (B) Metamorphic rock

(C) Igneous rock (D) Volcanic rock

035. Well seasoned timber may contain moisture upto

(A) 4% to 6% (B) 6% to 8%

(C) 8% to 10% (D) 10% to 12%

036. Most commonly used solvent in oil paint is

(A) Petroleum (B) Spirit

(C) Coal-tar (D) Turpentine

037. The percentage of silica in good brick earth should vary from:

(A) 50 to 60% (B) 40 to 50%

(C) 30 to 40% (D) 20 to 30%

038. Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine:

(A) Ultimate strength (B) Quantity of free lime

(C) Durability (D) Initial setting


039. An example of four-centered arch is:

(A) Pointed Arch (B) Segmental Arch

(C) Venetian Arch (D) Florentine Arch

040. Rankin's formula is used to find out:

(A) Maximum depth of foundation (B) Minimum depth of foundation

(C) Minimum width of foundation (D) Volume of foundation

041. A temporary structure constructed to support workmen, materials etc. is

(A) Shoring (B) Underpinning

(C) Timbering (D) Scaffolding

042. Minimum headroom provided for a stair is

(A) 2.10 m (B) 2.70 m

(C) 1.80 m (D) 2.01 m

043. Vertical window provided on a sloping roof is

(A) Bay window (B) Dormer window

(C) Sky light (D) Clere-story window

044. Foundation which covers the entire area beneath a structure is

(A) Raff foundation (B) Pile foundation

(C) Well foundation (D) Pier foundation

045. For RCC construction the maximum size of course aggregates is limited to

(A) 15mm (B) 20mm

(C) 30mm (D) 10mm

046. The wooden queen post truss is suitable for span varying from

(A) 5 to 9m (B) 8 to 12m

(C) 14 to 16m (D) 14 to 20m

■8 60/2019–A
047. A full brick which is laid with its length perpendicular to the face of the wall is
(A) Facing (B) Queen closer
(C) Header (D) King closer

048. The part of the building constructed below ground level is

(A) Super structure (B) Plinth
(C) Sub structure (D) Cellar

049. Educational buildings belong to

(A) Group B (B) Group A
(C) Group C (D) Group D

050. Painting constant of panelled doors

(A) 1.00 (B) 0.80
(C) 1.30 (D) 1.80

051. For compacting the quantity of earthwork using prismoidal formula the number of
required sectional area
(A) Any number (B) Odd
(C) Four (D) Even

052. The value at the end of the utility period without being dismantled
(A) Book value (B) Scrap value
(C) Salvage value (D) Market value

053. All the work executed shall be measured and entered in a permanent record called
(A) Account Book (B) Field Book
(C) Personal Book (D) M Book

054. While submitting tender the contractor is to deposit 2% of estimated cost as

(A) Securing Money (B) Profit Money
(C) Capital Money (D) Earnest Money


055. The estimated quantity of cement required in cement mortar (1:6) per cubic metre
will be

(A) 5.5 Bags (B) 4.8 Bags

(C) 8 Bags (D) 3 Bags

056. In analysis of rate, contractor's profit is taken at the rate of

(A) 1% (B) 10%

(C) 5% (D) 20%

057. An intermediate floor between two floors above ground level accessible only from the
lower floor is

(A) Loft (B) Cabin

(C) Basement floor (D) Mezzanine floor

058. As per National Building Code, the minimum area for a kitchen in residential
building is

(A) 2.5 m2 (B) 3.30 m2

(C) 4.5 m2 (D) 7 m2

059. The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire period the crop is in the
field is known as

(A) Delta (B) Duty

(C) Base Period (D) Crop Period

060. The optimum depth of kor watering is 19cm for

(A) Wheat (B) Sugarcane

(C) Rice (D) Cotton

061. When the bed level of canal is higher than the highest floor level (HFL) of the drainage,
then the cross drainage work is said to be

(A) Aqueduct (B) Super passage

(C) Canal siphon (D) Siphon aqueduct

■ 60/2019–A
062. The most efficient channel cross section is

(A) Semi circular

(B) Half hexagonal in the form of trapezoid

(C) Rectangular

(D) Triangular

063. Gravity Dam can be constructed with

(A) Earth (B) Masonry

(C) Sand (D) Rocks

064. Free Board in a dam is

(A) A type of shutter

(B) Name of storage

(C) Margin between water level and top of dam

(D) None of these

065. For a liquid, the variation in its volume with the variation of pressure is known as

(A) Viscosity (B) Mass density

(C) Compressibility (D) Liquid pressure

066. The path followed by a fluid particle in motion is called

(A) Path line (B) Stream line
(C) Steak line (D) Filament line

067. Hydrostatic pressure in a dam depends on its

(A) Depth (B) Shape
(C) Length (D) Both A and B

068. The ratio of average load to the maximum demand of power during a given period is
(A) Load factor (B) Capacity factor
(C) Utilization factor (D) None of these


069. Argillaceous rocks-example
(A) Slate (B) Brick
(C) Stone (D) None of these

070. Super sulphated cement is IS:Code __________

(A) 6220-1980 (B) 5820-2015
(C) 6909-1990 (D) 6700-1980

071. The horizontal distance between the vertical joints in successive course
(A) Lap (B) Butt joint
(C) Dowel joint (D) Table joint

072. Spread footing for a wall is known as ________

(A) Common footing (B) Strip footing
(C) Spread footing (D) Combined footing

073. Single flying shore should have a depth of not less than __________ of the clear
spans and width of not less than __________ of its length
(A) 1/8, 1/9 (B) 3/9, 3/8
(C) 1/3, 1/5 (D) 1/2, 1/10

074. Area of the horizontal circulation may constitute about __________ of the total plan
area of a residential building.
(A) 5% to 10% (B) 7% to 8%
(C) 2% to 20% (D) 20% to 25%

075. Life period of a building should be at least __________ years

(A) 50 (B) 60

(C) 75 (D) 100

076. Barbed wire fencing units of measurement in MKS

(A) Metre (B) cu.m

(C) Quintal (D) Kg

■ 60/2019–A
077. It is that part in excess of hygroscopic water which exists in the pore space of the soil
by molecular attraction

(A) Sea water (B) River water

(C) Capillary water (D) None of these

078. The hydraulic structure in which the drainage is taken over the irrigation canal is
known as

(A) Super passage (B) Level cross

(C) Super elevation (D) All of the above

079. The sheet of liquid flowing over notch is known as

(A) Nappe or vein (B) Flow

(C) Gate (D) Valve

080. When the expenditure on a work exceeds or is likely to exceed the amount of
administrative sanction by more than 10%,

(A) Plinth area estimate (B) Detailed estimate

(C) Revised estimate (D) None of these

081. Wooden plank on which roof covering is fixed

(A) Purline (B) Hip

(C) Rafter (D) Battens

082. The joint formed by cutting the edge of both the members by an angle is

(A) Plain joint (B) Butt joint

(C) Tenon joint (D) Angle joint

083. Solid geometrical drawing dimensions

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) One (D) Four


084. Composition of brick earth alumina or clay
(A) 20-30% (B) 35-50%
(C) 20-25% (D) 1-2%

085. D.P.C. is provided above __________ level

(A) Foundation (B) Basement
(C) Plinth (D) Base level

086. Undersurface of arch_____

(A) Sofitt (B) Intrados
(C) Extrados (D) Crown

087. Mercantile (includes both retail and wholesale stores) _____ group
(A) Group-C (B) Group-H
(C) Group-F (D) Group-G

088. The angle of inclination of stair with the floor

(A) Pitch (B) Rise
(C) Tread (D) All of the above

089. If the velocity of a body decreases with time, it is called

(A) Acceleration (B) Motion
(C) Inertia (D) Retardation

090. 1 HP in metric is _____ Watts.

(A) 736 (B) 746
(C) 560 (D) 78

091. Kinetic energy is measured in

(A) Dynes (B) Newtons
(C) Watts (D) Joules

092. The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain

(A) Strain ratio (B) Bulk modulus
(C) Working stress (D) Poisson ratio

■ 60/2019–A
093. A pump can raise 100 litres of water through a height of 200 metre in one minute.
How much work it can do in one hour?
(A) 2000 (B) 14 × 103
(C) 12 × 105 (D) 20

094. The friction experienced by a body when it is in motion

(A) Static friction (B) Coefficient friction
(C) Limiting friction (D) Dynamic friction

095. S.I. prefix of 10–6 is

(A) Micro (B) Mega
(C) Milli (D) Nano

096. 1 inch = _______ Centimetre.

(A) 0.3937 (B) 30.48
(C) 2.54 (D) 25.40

097. Unit of Power in S.I. System

(A) Joule (B) Watt
(C) Newton (D) Volt

098. Calculate the side of the square which will have the same area as the rectangle
50 mm by 25 mm side.
(A) 42.36 (B) 38.57
(C) 32.10 (D) 35.36

099. A rectangular sheet metal measures 12 cm by 8 cm. Four quadrants of circle of radius
2 cm each are cut away at the corners. Find the area of the remaining portion.
(A) 52.34 (B) 83.44
(C) 64.45 (D) 8.53

100. Find the area of a right angular triangle whose base is 15 cm and hypothesis is
21 cm.

(A) 110.18 (B) 119.65

(C) 128.40 (D) 168.70



■ 60/2019–A
Question Paper Code: 072/2019


Medium of Question: ENGLISH
Date of Test: 17/12/2019
Q No. Q No.
1 C B D D 51 C C B B
2 C D D B 52 A A A C
3 B A C D 53 D B A A
4 D A B A 54 A A A A
5 C C A C 55 D C B D
6 B D D B 56 B B B D
7 D D B D 57 B A C A
8 A C D D 58 C A A B
9 A B A C 59 A A A B
10 C A C A 60 B B D A
11 D D B B 61 A B D A
12 D B D A 62 C C A C
13 C D D C 63 B A B B
14 B A C A 64 A A B A
15 A C A A 65 A D A C
16 D B B B 66 A D A C
17 B D A C 67 B A C D
18 D D C B 68 B B B D
19 A C A C 69 A C X B
20 C A A C 70 A A A A
21 B B B B 71 D D D A
22 D A C D 72 A A A A
23 D C B C 73 B X C A
24 C A C B 74 C X B D
25 A A C D 75 X A A A
26 B B B A 76 C D A B
27 A C D A 77 A A A C
28 C B C C 78 D C A X
29 A C B D 79 A B D C
30 A C D D 80 X A A A
31 B B A C 81 X A B D
32 C D A B 82 A A C A
33 B C C A 83 D A X X
34 C B A C 84 A D C X
35 A A C A 85 C A A A
36 A A C D 86 B B D D
37 D C D A 87 A C A A
38 D B D D 88 A X X C
39 A A C B 89 C B C B
40 B C A B 90 C B X A
41 B C D C 91 B C B C
42 A D A A 92 B X A B
43 A D D B 93 C B C B
44 C C B A 94 X A B B
45 B A B C 95 B C B C
46 A D C B 96 A B B C
47 C A A A 97 C B C B
48 C D B A 98 B B C B
49 D B A A 99 B C B C
50 D B C B 100 B C B X
Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. The part of a circle bounded by an arc and its chord is always called :
(A) Sector (B) Value of Pi
(C) Segment (D) Semi-circle

2. The main principle of surveying is to work from :

(A) Relative position to base line (B) Part to the whole
(C) Whole to the part (D) None of the above

3. Among the following, a total station does not directly measures :

(A) Horizontal angle (B) Level difference
(C) Vertical angle (D) Slope distance

4. The ratio of isometric length to its true length is approximately equal to :

(A) 0.082 (B) 1.195
(C) 0.315 (D) 0.815

5. The most accurate method for measuring traverse angle is :

(A) Ordinary (B) Deflection
(C) Repetition (D) Reiteration

6. In a perfect check leveling the result of arithmetic check is always :

(A) Less than zero (B) Zero
(C) Greater than zero (D) RL of the bench mark

7. The top view of an object comes above the front view always in :
(A) Second angle projection (B) First angle projection
(C) Fourth angle projection (D) Third angle projection

8. –––––––––– field book is generally used for large scale surveying with detailed dimension
(A) Single line (B) Double line
(C) Topographical (D) Frame work and base line

A 3
9. The error due to bad ranging is always :
(A) Cumulative (B) Instrumental
(C) Compensative (D) Natural

10. To make multiple copies of an objects in a regular interval, in terms of rows or columns or at
a uniform angular distance around a centre point, –––––––––– command is used in Auto
(A) Mirror (B) Copy
(C) Array (D) Offset

11. The key board function key for ‘Online Help’ in Auto CAD is :
(A) F11 (B) F6
(C) F8 (D) F1

12. The surveying, which carried out for determining the area of unearthing relics of antiquities :
(A) Mine surveying (B) Geological surveying
(C) Topographical surveying (D) Archeological surveying

13. Isometric projection of a circle is always :

(A) A Circle (B) A Semi-circle
(C) An Ellipse (D) A Spheroid

14. In Auto CAD, Key strokes ‘Ctrl+Y’ function defined as :

(A) Undo (B) Redo
(C) Polar tracking ON/OFF (D) None of the above

15. The lead of the drawing pencil is sharpened to ‘chisel edged’ is used for :
(A) Drawing lines (B) Lettering
(C) Freehand sketching (D) All of the above

16. Files, edit, view etc. are easily available in Auto CAD from :
(A) Title Bar (B) Status Bars
(C) Standard Tool Bar (D) Menu Bar

17. When the locus of a point moving in a plane, in such a way that, the ratio of its distance from
the focus to the distance from the directrix is constant and greater than one is a :
(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola (D) Hypocycloids
72/2019 4 A
18. When a cone is cut off by a plane inclined to its base, but not passing through base, and the
portion obtained after removing the part containing the apex is :
(A) Tetrahedron (B) Frustum of cone
(C) Pentahedron (D) Truncated cone

19. The abbreviated character or short cut key ‘C’ is used as a command for –––––––––– in Auto
(A) Drawing circle (B) Copying selected object
(C) Chamfering (D) None of these

20. By the combination of set squares, we can create –––––––––– angle.

(A) 90q, 60q, 45q, 30q (B) 90q
(C) Multiples of 15q (D) Any one

21. For creating ‘an Arc’ in Auto CAD, –––––––––– short cut key is used.
(A) AR (B) A
(C) AC (D) None of the above

22. From the following, which is not an EDM instrument?

(A) Distomats (B) Geodimater
(C) Tellurometer (D) Theodolite

23. –––––––––– command creates parallel lines, parallel curves, concentric circles etc, in a
specified distance at the time of Auto CAD drawing.
(A) Copy (B) Array
(C) Mirror (D) Offset

24. The type of light beam usually send out from a modern EDM instrument is :
(A) Gamma rays (B) X-rays
(C) Infrared rays (D) Normal light rays

25. If the length of a survey line is ‘l’ and the reduced bearing is T , then latitude of the line is :

(A) l cos T (B) l sin T

(C) l cot T (D) l tan T

A 5 72/2019
26. The lines joining the points of equal dip are :
(A) Isogonics lines (B) Isoclinic lines
(C) Aclinic lines (D) Agonic lines

27. The working edge of a plain alidade is known as :

(A) Fiducial edge (B) Ebony edge
(C) Object vane (D) Tacheometric scale

28. The upper plate of a leveling head of a level is known as :

(A) Trivet (B) Graduated plate
(C) Tribarch (D) Vernier plate

29. The area of trimmed size A2 drawing sheet is :

(A) 0.25 square metre (B) 0.50 square feet
(C) One square metre (D) None of the above

30. The correction due to curvature and refraction is ––––––––––, where D is the distance of
observation in kilometer.
(A) 0.0673 D 2 metres (B) 0.0112 D 2 metres
(C) 0.0785 D 2 metres (D) None of the above

31. The imaginary line joining the point of inter section of cross hair at diaphragm and the
optical centre of the object glass and its continuation is :
(A) Axis of the level tube (B) Line of collimation
(C) Axis of the telescope (D) None of the above

32. The Auto CAD command which is used to breaks a polyline into its individual segments :
(A) Extend (B) Extrude
(C) Explode (D) Break

33. The IS code recommended for trimmed drawing sheets is :

(A) IS 456 : 1978 (B) IS 10711 : 2001
(C) IS 816 : 1969 (D) IS 692 : 1989

34. Sandstone is an example of :

(A) Igneous rock (B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Siliceous rock (D) Calcareous rock

72/2019 6 A
35. Red colour of the tile is mainly due to :
(A) Iron oxide (B) Silica
(C) Alumina (D) None of the above

36. Volume of 1 bag cement weighing 50 kg is :

(A) 0.034 m3 (B) 3.4 m3
(C) 1.05 m3 (D) 0.020 m3

37. Lime is used for :

(A) As a matrix for concrete (B) Improving soil for agricultural
(C) For plastering (D) All of the above

38. A brick moulded with a round angle is termed as :

(A) Bull nose brick (B) Cow nose brick
(C) Coping brick (D) All of the above

39. Most commonly used base for making paint :

(A) White lead (B) Linseed oil
(C) Turpentine (D) None of the above

40. Stair turning through two right angle is known half-turn stair :
(A) Quarter turn stair (B) Half-turn stair
(C) Straight (D) Three quarter turn

41. This is the common type of sloping roof which slope in two direction :
(A) Lean to roof (B) Gable roof
(C) Hip roof (D) Mansard roof

42. A slab when supported on two sides or all four sides and if the length of the slab exceeds two
times its width, is named as :
(A) one way slab (B) two way slab
(C) cantilever slab (D) None of these

43. Concrete without reinforcement is called :

(A) P.C.C. (B) R.B.C.
(C) R.C.C. (D) R.M.C.

A 7 72/2019
44. Which type of piles are commonly recommended for safe and economical foundation in black
cotton soil?
(A) sheet pile (B) bearing pile

(C) under reamed pile (D) friction pile

45. A temporary rigid structure having platforms raised up as the building increases in height is
called :

(A) underpinning (B) scaffolding

(C) shoring (D) jacking

46. A stretcher bond is usually used for :

(A) Half brick wall (B) One brick wall

(C) One and a half brick wall (D) Two brick wall

47. The termination of a wall in stepped fashion is known as :

(A) Quoin (B) Toothing

(C) Racking back (D) Squint

48. A projecting stone which usually provide to serve as support for roof truss, beam, weather
shed is known as :

(A) Course (B) Coping

(C) Corbel (D) Cornice

49. Screening provided for the individuals from others :

(A) aspect (B) prospect

(C) flexibility (D) privacy

50. The parameters which govern the orientation of the building :

(A) temperature (B) wind

(C) humidity (D) All of the above

72/2019 8 A
51. Usable floor area excluding staircase, lift, walls etc. are called :

(A) plinth area (B) floor area

(C) carpet area (D) covered area

52. The lower storey of the building below or partly below the ground level :
(A) Cellar floor (B) Ground floor
(C) Mezzanine floor (D) All of the above

53. The most reliable estimate is:

(A) Plinth area estimate (B) Preliminary estimate
(C) Cube rate estimate (D) Detailed estimate

54. It is observed by the experiment and experience that the volume of dry material required for
one m3 of wet concrete are :
(A) 1.52 m3 – 1.54 m3 (B) 1.55 m3 – 1.57 m3
(C) 1.57 m3 – 1.59 m3 (D) 1.59 m3 – 1.62 m3

55. The essential requirements to prepare good estimate are :

(A) a full dimensioned drawing to a scale
(B) detailed specification
(C) schedule of rates
(D) all of the above

56. The volume of coarse aggregate required to make 100 m3 of 1 : 2 : 4 concrete is :

(A) 84 m3 (B) 88 m3
(C) 92 m3 (D) 96 m3

57. It is the value at the end of utility period without being dismantled :
(A) market value (B) salvage value
(C) scrap value (D) book value

58. For calculating quantity of steel, density of steel may be taken as :

(A) 7850 quintal/m3 (B) 785 quintal/m3
(C) 78.5 quintal/m3 (D) None of the above

A 9 72/2019
59. The total area which can be irrigated by a canal system is called :
(A) gross command area (B) cultural command area
(C) cultural cultivated area (D) cultural uncultivated area

60. The method of irrigation in which water is applied in the form of a spray as in ordination
rain :
(A) furrow irrigation (B) sprinkler irrigation
(C) subsurface irrigation (D) none of the above

61. The small reservoir used for water supply in a city :

(A) Distribution reservoir (B) Storage reservoir
(C) Flood control reservoir (D) Multipurpose reservoir

62. The difference of water level in the head race and in the tail race in a hydroelectric project is
known as :
(A) Net head (B) Operating head
(C) Gross head (D) None of these

63. It is provided to reduce the water hammer pressure formed in the penstock in hydroelectric
project :
(A) Turbine (B) Surge tank
(C) Fore bay (D) Intake

64. It is a canal generally carries water directly from the river :

(A) Main canal (B) Branch canal
(C) Major distributary (D) Minor distributary

65. It is a structure in which the canal flows over the drainage :

(A) Aqueduct (B) Super passage
(C) Canal syphon (D) Level crossing

66. Which dams are made of locally available soils and gravels?
(A) Earthen dam (B) Rock fill dam
(C) Gravity dam (D) Rigid dam

67. A fluid having no viscosity is known as :

(A) Real fluid (B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid (D) Non newtonian fluid
72/2019 10 A
68. Which is the pressure measuring device in a pipe line?
(A) Passometer (B) Manometer
(C) Thermometer (D) All of these

69. Siliceous rock example :

(A) Granite (B) Lime
(C) Surkhi (D) Clay

70. Oil well cement IS : CODE :

(A) 8229–1986 (B) 820–1975
(C) 839–1988 (D) 8231–1983

71. The vertical joints separating the bricks in either length or cross direction :
(A) Bat (B) Closer
(C) King Closer (D) Perpends

72. Auger boring may be of :

(A) Post-hole type (B) Well
(C) Tube type (D) Pile

73. Eye foundation bolt used :

(A) Well foundation (B) Machine foundation
(C) Raft foundation (D) Pile foundation

74. Used in X-ray rooms to protect the persons working :

(A) Cement plaster (B) Mud plaster
(C) Barium plaster (D) Surkhi plaster

75. Bar Quiteodorous products ventilation air M /h/person :
(A) 35 (B) 45
(C) 50 (D) 25

76. Projection : in the form of balconies, veranda, etc are provided on –––––––––– vasuthu.
(A) All sides (B) East sides
(C) East and west sides (D) North sides

A 11 72/2019
77. Group C –––––––––– buildings.
(A) Institutional building (B) Private building
(C) Flat building (D) All of these

78. Work-charged establishment a percentage of –––––––––– to ————— of the estimated cost

is included in the estimated.
(A) 2% to 3% (B) 4% to 5%
(C) 6% to 8% (D) 1 12 % to 2%

79. Cement mortar or lime mortar rubbing units of measurement in MKS :

(A) sq.m. (B) cu.m.
(C) quintal (D) kg

80. ‘C’ Type Area of plot 201 sq.m. to 1000 sq.m. permissible covered area :
(A) 50% of the site area (B) 20% of the site area
(C) 30% of the site area (D) 40% of the site area

81. Non-rigid dams example :

(A) Rock dam (B) Earth dam
(C) Brick dam (D) All of these

82. Non-recording rain gauge is more common in India and the one that is most used in India is
called the –––––––––– gauge.
(A) Simon’s (B) Rain gauge
(C) Meter gauge (D) All of these

83. In an estimate a certain amount in the form of contingencies of ––––––––––% to

––––––––––% of estimate cost.
(A) 45% to 20% (B) 5% to 8%
(C) 10% to 20% (D) 3% to 5%

84. The angle of inclination of stair with the floor :

(A) Pitch (B) Rise
(C) Tread (D) All of above

85. A sloping roof is known as –––––––––– roof.

(A) Curved roof (B) Flat roof
(C) Pitched roof (D) Lean-to-roof

72/2019 12 A
86. Series of step between landing :
(A) Rise (B) Flight
(C) Nosing (D) Tread

87. Drawing board sizes in mm “Bo” :

(A) 1500 u 1000 u 25 (B) 1000 u 700 u 25
(C) 700 u 500 u 15 (D) 500 u 350 u 10

88. ONE-centered arch example :

(A) Bull’s eye arch (B) Two centered arch
(C) Three centered arch (D) Four centered arch

89. Unit of force is :

(A) Watt (B) Joule
(C) Dyne (D) Pound

90. Area of an Isosceles triangle is 1000 mm2 Base = 100 mm, then height of the triangle is :
(A) 10 mm (B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm (D) 25 mm

91. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm. Find its area :
(A) 6.7 cm2 (B) 6 cm2
(C) 8 cm2 (D) 7.8 cm2

92. Area of a rhombus having diagonals d1 and d2 is :

(A) d1 d2 (B)
(C) 2 d1 d2 (D) d1 + d2

93. The area of a circle having diameter ‘D’ is :

S D2
(A) S D2 (B)

S D2
(C) (D) (S D )2

A 13 72/2019
94. A bucket of base diameter 95 cm rim diameter 120 cm and height 100 cm is full of sand. Find
the volume of sand :
(A) 756600 cm3 (B) 956600 cm3
(C) 553210 cm3 (D) 873214 cm3

95. A car is moving with a velocity of 50 km/hr, is brought to rest in 45 secs. Find out the
retardation :
(A) 3 m sec 2 (B) 0.3 m sec 2

(C) 1.1 m sec 2 (D) 3.5 m sec 2

96. When a body offers resistance to deformation when acted by external load is called :
(A) Stress (B) Strain
(C) Poisson’s ratio (D) None of these

97. A load of 1000 kg is lifted by a simple machine having a velocity ratio 5. The mechanical
advantage is –––––––––– if the effort applied is 250 kg.
(A) 20 (B) 4/5
(C) 4 (D) 5/4

98. A man lifted a luggage of 25 kg from the ground and put it on his head 1.5 m above the
ground. What will be the work done?
(A) 37.5 J (B) 367.5 J
(C) 3.82 J (D) None of these

99. A block weighs 100 kg. If the co-efficient of friction between it and ground is 0.3. Find the
force required to move the block :
(A) 30 N (B) 294 N
(C) 98 N (D) 29.4 N

100. A load of 3 kN is applied at the free end of a cantilever beam of length 5 m. Then the bending
momentum at the free end will be :
(A) –3 kNm (B) 0
(C) 15 kNm (D) 1.5 kNm


72/2019 14 A

A 15 72/2019

72/2019 16 A
Question Paper Code: 137/2014
Overseer Gr III/Work Superintendent Gr II - Kerala Land Development Corporation
Medium of Question: English
Q Date of Test: 22.08.2014 Q
Q No. Q No.
1 B A A D 51 B A B C
2 x C B A 52 D D A D
3 A A C B 53 x A C C
4 D x x C 54 D D C B
5 C D B B 55 C B C D
6 A C C A 56 A D A A
7 C B D C 57 B A x D
8 B A C D 58 D D B B
9 D C A C 59 B C C D
10 B B D B 60 C B A A
11 A D B A 61 A C B D
12 C A x D 62 D D D C
13 A B A A 63 A C x D
14 x C D B 64 D B D C
15 D B C C 65 B D C A
16 C A A B 66 D A A D
17 B C C A 67 A D B B
18 A D B C 68 D B D D
19 C C D A 69 C D B A
20 B B B D 70 B A C B
21 D A A B 71 C D A A
22 A D C A 72 D C D B
23 B A A C 73 C D A C
24 C B x C 74 B C D x
25 B C D C 75 D A B B
26 A B C A 76 A D D C
27 C A B x 77 D B A D
28 D C A B 78 B D D C
29 C A C C 79 D A C A
30 B D B A 80 A B B D
31 A B D B 81 D A C B
32 D A A D 82 C B D x
33 A C B x 83 D C C A
34 B C C D 84 C x B D
35 C C B C 85 A B D C
36 B A A A 86 D C A A
37 A x C B 87 B D D C
38 C B D D 88 D C B B
39 A C C B 89 A A D D
40 D A B C 90 B D A B
41 B B A A 91 A B D A
42 A D D D 92 B x C C
43 C x A A 93 C A D A
44 C D B D 94 x D C x
45 C C C B 95 B C A D
46 A A B D 96 C A D C
47 x B A A 97 D C B B
48 B D C D 98 C B D A
49 C B A C 99 A D A C
50 A C D B 100 D B B B

Question Paper Code: 158/2016

Tracer - Soil Survey and Soil Conservation (Tsr, Kkd)

Medium of Question: English
Date of Test: 23.11.2016
Q No. Q No.
1 A C D B 51 A C C C
2 X B A B 52 B A D D
3 D X D A 53 B D A A
4 D C C B 54 C C D X
5 D B B B 55 D B C D
6 A C A C 56 B C B D
7 C B B D 57 A A A D
8 B A D B 58 A B D A
9 A D B A 59 D A A C
10 C B B A 60 C B B B
11 B D D D 61 D A D A
12 A A B C 62 D D A C
13 D D D D 63 D C B B
14 D D D D 64 A D C A
15 B C B D 65 A C B D
16 C B A A 66 B A B D
17 C D B A 67 C C C B
18 B A B B 68 A D D C
19 X D A C 69 D A A C
20 C C B A 70 C D X B
21 B B B D 71 B C D X
22 C A C C 72 C B D C
23 B B D B 73 A A D B
24 A D B C 74 B D A C
25 D B A A 75 A A C B
26 B B A B 76 B B B A
27 D D D A 77 A D A D
28 A B C B 78 D A C B
29 D D D A 79 C B B D
30 D D D D 80 D C A A
31 C B D C 81 C B D D
32 B A A D 82 A B D D
33 D B A C 83 C C B C
34 A B B A 84 D D C B
35 D A C C 85 A A C D
36 C B A D 86 D X B A
37 B B D A 87 C D X D
38 A C C D 88 B D C C
39 B D B C 89 A D B B
40 D B C B 90 D A C A
41 B A A A 91 A C B B
42 B A B D 92 B B A D
43 D D A A 93 D A D B
44 B C B B 94 A C B B
45 D D A D 95 B B D D
46 D D D A 96 C A A B
47 B D C B 97 B D D D
48 A A D C 98 B D D D
49 B A C B 99 C B C B
50 B B A B 100 D C B A
8l, lte le@l itifi€re@ lei$en
81 th6 t p otbmk of a csn.l ad the eainuD Fater l*l i. ;
(A) lem G) alaux
(C) rre hdd (D) did.trdelth
81. Conductrvrtt B ilElly d€p"trdr on
(A) total di..olv.d sli& (B) eud.
volatil6 oBanic

(C) t t3I6U& (D) ntni*d.lilsL€d soult

SS. M;ihud a6out

83 of rliadolveil oxyslt d6irablo h srv wdxer bodv is los. than :

'(Jt 2 nc[ (B) r bg4

(c) 3 Esn (D) 5 er.4
8a. Tn€ pip€ caDyins s.s.sE is called :

(A) *wtg€

85. Plastioily ilder i6 :

(A) liquid lioit

linii - plastia @) li;it .lnnhgelihit
(C) ut r ontent -pr,sti.liEii (D) Uquid lifit - €hrinhs€ rimit

8& Tle
86 r4iio ol unmitsd 6npr6..ion sbenstn ir nstual io that h the renould''I state

(A) p€m,bility (B) f,w indet

(O .etuiiiviiy (D) ihi*otrop8
t7. lAe difi.rac betwen the tobr lircs lt i 4oint ud rLe poF wlter Dlsw at !!ri Poirt

(r0€6. G) efl4tjve sLres

(C) trcuFal.tes (D) .i€ar.i.a

. 88.
8& rtlinins tall ooe
WIen a toward. ihe btck6l vrEd th€ ru! tend' to coEpEs th€ sil
(.{) At.t.tpE..w G) Actit €arth pd.rF
(C) PasiFearth pftse (D) Elbctivs presd
The byd.onete! .nolysis is based on the princiDle of:
(A) ldq
stokes G) Drrcy's low
(C) Monnn:gola{ (D) Newton'F law

90. TLe mdidB w8t€. onbtri ol t1'. 30il ,t which no ndher ednction

' iA) Pl,sticlinit (B) Liquid limii

(c) Wdter linit (D) Shndlosc liftit
41, The
91 dilleencc batwoe. lldstid liiit and chrinlsse linn i3 dalled i
(A) flu'diry indox
(C) llasiicity index

(A) pure sjlica sand

(B) o arad acl,B a quicL filtcr
' (C) a@ndilion when oherion
(D) , condirion in which oh€5ionlcs. .oil l@s ib Bheaf stFtrsth due 1o lhe upw.rd
fl.s ofFater
43. Consolidaiion
93. b . ph@6s iD vlrich :

(A) gudder corpr*sio! of soil (B) srdual.xpulsjo. ofpoe wat€r

(O abnohul shlinking of soil iD) tiltinR abd failft oldoil
,lt. lhe hiniim d€plh of e4loration i!
94. thc q6c ol grav'ty drm i. :
(A) baseidthol.lad (B) t*ir tle bae width
(C) fwi@ tlD heislt of ile .lan
Sanples fmn au8Er boring are :

{A) non roDrodertarive s,Eplc (B) u.distufu.d s,dple

{C) reprcsniatiE6anplo
96. tan€ slEar t 6t id u&d foi me*ui.g:
(B) slear alronsth olohesive $il
(C) beuins capacity ol soil

47. ']1E matlrirl that i. Ft&iled by a Ftajrins ltluctw is sen lally dsled 3. I

O) surch.lgs G) @ildop.
(c) b.cr6n (D) ,rltl*
a8. Sh.Uos boMg is o! whose d€pth iE :

(A, width
oqual E (B) los th.lsidln
(C) !|GtLuf,idah (D) !@ortt@
99 Yellow (.dber) 6lou of t olouEd Ucht tE6c si3na:I in a junctiotr:ndiclt . :
(A) so (B) 6toD..
(c) he ady to ao . (D) cl€a.m tine
60, The 6!.t railwqr lrain in lndi, ran b€twe! :

(A) chedd.nd arns,rum (B) Mubai Dd Than.

G) c'r.{tt .nd D.lhi (D) Ildrlh .nd Ddu

6r. The st.nddd lengih of Eil eciion b! brcad 8Ns. Fil io I

(A)rzb (B) 10n
G) r3b (D) 15n
6r. The b.xibuE
ofcl]m ir ! bead 3a!s. ii:
. (A) to' (B) lz'
(o rf (D) rf
68. Th. pnncipls mlsDtents ol .rsill.@ous rci.B ia :

. ($ liDe (B) silic.

(c) dly (D) 4d

64, Th6 ind.nistion lrohd€d in a f.c. of tle bdqk t caUed :

(A) p"lLi @) 8t!ii..

(c) burhd (D) frls

!!.'It!€rh6nom€nonof ln@sinsi!.hhEeof a noiEttmdisc.Ueil;

(A) hl€ldin! (B) bulrint
(c) &g!€s.tio @) thiiing