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ENGINEER (CIVIL)(SR FOR ST ONLY)-KFC/SIDCO/LSGD etc.

Medium of Question: ENGLISH

Date of Test: 06.02.2020

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 B C B A 51 B A D A

2 D A A B 52 D C B C

3 C B A B 53 A D A B

4 A A B A 54 C B C D

5 B A B B 55 D A B B

6 A B A D 56 B C D D

7 A B B C 57 A B B A

8 B A D A 58 C D D C

9 B B C B 59 B B A D

10 A D A A 60 D D C B

11 C D X X 61 C C B C

12 A C A A 62 C A D A

13 D X X B 63 A D B A

14 C A A B 64 C B B X

15 X X B C 65 A C B A

16 A A B A 66 C B C C

17 X B C D 67 A D A C

18 A B A C 68 D B A A

19 B C D X 69 B B X C

20 B A C A 70 C B A A

21 C C C B 71 B C C C

22 C D C A 72 D A C A

23 C C B B 73 B A A D

24 D C A C 74 B X C B

25 C B B C 75 B A A C

26 C A C C 76 C C C B

27 B B C C 77 A C A D

28 A C C D 78 A A D B

29 B C C C 79 X C B B

30 C C D C 80 A A C B

31 D A B A 81 B D C A

32 D B B C 82 A C B D

33 B A D C 83 D C A D

34 C B B B 84 C B D A

35 B D D C 85 C A D B

36 A B A D 86 B D A A

37 B B C D 87 A D B D

38 A D C B 88 D A A C

39 B B B C 89 D B D C

40 D D C B 90 A A C B

41 B A D A 91 D D B D

42 B C D B 92 X A B D

43 D C B A 93 D B D B

44 B B C B 94 A B D C

45 D C B D 95 B D B D

46 A D A B 96 B D C X

47 C D B B 97 D B D D

48 C B A D 98 D C X A

49 B C B B 99 B D D B

50 C B D D 100 C X A B

010/2020

Maximum : 100 marks

Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. For a given material if ‘E’, ‘N’, and P are the Youngs modulus, Modulus of rigidity

and Poisson's ratio respectively, then which of the following is correct :

(A) E 2 N (1 P ) (B) E 2 N (1 P )

(C) N 2 E (1 P ) (D) E 2 N (1 P )

2. A simply supported beam of span ‘L’ units is subjected to two concentrated loads of

‘W’ kN acting at ‘L/4’ from both ends. The shear force at the mid point of the beam

will be :

(A) W (B) W/2

(C) 2 W (D) 0

distributed load throughout the span. The maximum bending stress will occur at :

(A) Top of the section

(B) Centre of gravity of the section

(C) Bottom of section

(D) At the junction between flange and the web of the section

4. A cantilever beam of span ‘L’ units is subjected to a concentrated load of ‘W’ kN at the

free end. The cross section of the beam is rectangular with breadth ‘b’ units and

depth ‘d’ units. If the modulus of elasticity of the beam material is ‘E’, the ratio of

maximum deflection to maximum bending stress is :

(A) 2 L2 3 Ed (B) L2 6 Ed

(C) L2 4 Ed (D) L2 48 Ed

5. If the value of Euler crippling load of a column with both ends hinged is 100 kN, what

will be the value of Euler crippling load of another column made with the same

material, equal cross section and length but with both ends fixed :

(A) 100 kN (B) 400 kN

(C) 200 kN (D) 25 kN

6. For a perfect truss having ‘m’ members and ‘j’ joints. Which of the following

relationship is correct :

(A) m 2 j 3 (B) m 2 j 3

(C) m j 3 (D) m 2 j 3

A 3

[P.T.O.]

7. For a parabolic three hinged arch subjected to a uniformly distributed load of

intensity ‘w’ kN per unit horizontal length. The span of the arch is ‘L’ units and the

central rise ‘h/2’ units. The horizontal thrust (H) of the arch is :

(A) H w L2 4 h (B) H w L2 8 h

(C) H w L2 16 h (D) H w L2 2 h

8. When a uniformly distributed load shorter than the span is traversing a simply

supported beam. At any point in the beam, maximum value of bending moment will

occur when the load is :

(A) Equally placed about the point

(B) When the point divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span

(C) When the load is centrally placed

(D) When the tail end of the load is at the left end of the beam

9. If the moment ‘M’ is applied to the hinged end of a prismatic propped cantilever beam

then the moment at the fixed end of the beam will be :

(A) M (B) M/2

(C) 2 M (D) –M/2

10. The relationship between distribution factor used in moment distribution method

( dj) and rotation factor (rj ) used in Kani's method is :

(A) rj dj 2 (B) rj dj

(C) rj 2 dj (D) rj 1.5 dj

11. The ratio of radiation reflected back by a surface to the radiation received by it is

called its :

(A) Radiation coefficient (B) Absorption coefficient

(C) Albedo (D) Bowen's ratio

12. A pipe 0.15 m dia taking off from a reservoir suddenly expands to 0.3 m at the end of

16 m and continues for another 15 m. If the head above the inlet of the pipe is 4.88 m,

the actual velocity at the exit, taking into considerates all the lossess is,

(Assume f = 0.04 for the complete pipe line) :

(A) 1.07 m/s (B) 0.039 m/s

(C) 0.99 m/s (D) 1.22 m/s

(A) sheet erosion (B) channel erosion

(C) rill erosion (D) gully erosion

010/2020 4 A

14. The discharge through a triangular notch under a constant head of 0.25 m if the

angle of the notch is 120q and Cd, 0.62 is :

(A) 0.132 m3/S (B) 0.006 m3/S

(C) 0.079 m3/S (D) 0.316 m3/S

15. A reservoir has an area of 8.5 u 104m2 and is provided with a weir 4.5 m long. How

long will it take for the level at the sill to fall from 0.6 m to 0.3 m :

(A) 6.91 hrs. (B) 3.112 hrs.

(C) 10.37 hrs. (D) 2.305 hrs.

16. For natural stream channels, the value of Muskingum parameter will generally :

(A) between 0 and 0.3 (B) between 0.3 and 0.6

(C) more than 0.5 (D) more than 1.0

17. A small lead sphere of specific gravity 11.5 has a terminal fall velocity of 7 mm/S in a

fluid of specific gravity 1.25 and dynamic viscosity 7.848 poise :

(A) 1 mm (B) 0.008 mm

(C) 1.428 mm (D) 0.0183 mm

18. The volume of water stored between normal reservoir level and maximum reservoir

level is

(A) surcharge storage (B) live storage

(C) bank storage (D) useful storage

19. A single acting reciprocating pump has a plunger dia 0.3 m and a stroke length 0.4 m.

If the speed of the pump is 60 rpm and Cd is 0.97, actual discharge of the pump is :

(A) 6.8575 l/s (B) 27.43 l/s

(C) 9.143 l/s (D) 30.48 l/s

20. The rating curve of a stream gauging station gives the variation of discharge :

(A) the area of the flow (B) the stage

(C) the velocity of flow (D) the depth of flow

21. The length of a line measured by a 30 m chain was found to be 504.4 m. It was

afterwards found that the chain was 0.05 m too long, then the true length of the line

is :

(A) 505.04 m (B) 505.14 m

(C) 505.24 m (D) 505.34 m

22. A 50 m tape is held 2.5 m out of line. What is the true length?

(A) 49.74 (B) 49.84

(C) 49.94 (D) 50.04

A 5 010/2020

[P.T.O.]

23. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line

to an irregular shaped boundary line : 2.52, 4.56, 6.82, 2.82, 5.89, 4.82, 8.27, 7.12 and

5.91 (All measured in metres). Calculate the are a (in m2) enclosed between the

survey line and the irregular shaped boundary line by Simpson's Rule :

(A) 405.6 m2 (B) 415.6 m2

(C) 425.6 m2 (D) 435.6 m2

(A) Radiation method (B) Two point problem

(C) Three point problem (D) Height of collimation method

25. If the distance between two points is 20 km, then the combined correction due to

curvature and refraction (in metres) is :

(A) 6.92 (B) 16.92

(C) 26.92 (D) 36.92

26. The value of a property at the end of the utility period without being dismantled is :

(A) Scrap value (B) Rateable value

(C) Salvage value (D) Market value

27. If C is the original cost, S is the scrap value, n Life of the property (years), then the

Annual depreciation of the property (using declining balance method is given by) :

n 1n

S ª S º

(A) D §¨1 ·¸ (B) D «1 §¨ ·¸ »

© C¹ ¬ ©C ¹ ¼

n

§1 C · ª § C ·1 n º

(C) D ¨ ¸ (D) D «1 ¨ ¸ »

© S¹ ¬ ©S ¹ ¼

28. IS Code 1200 (Methods of measurement of building and Civil engineering works) :

Part I deals with :

(A) Earthwork (B) Concrete work

(C) Brick work (D) Stone Masonry

29. A property fetches a net annual income of Rs. 900/- deducting all outgoings. If the

rate of interest is 5% per annum, then the capitalised value of the property is :

(A) Rs. 16,000/- (B) Rs. 18,000/-

(C) Rs. 20,000/- (D) Rs. 22,000/-

30. In what units are the quantities for the frames of doors and windows computed :

(A) m (B) m2

(C) m3 (D) None of these

010/2020 6 A

31. Grade of Cement refers to :

(A) Particle size (B) Order of grinding

(C) Soundness (D) Compressive strength

(A) reduce the weight of timber

(B) reduce the chances of shrinkage

(C) increase the strength and durability

(D) all the above

(A) 110° (B) 180q

(C) 90q (D) 45q

(A) Volume / Mass (B) Mass / Volume

(C) Area / Mass (D) Mass / Area

35. For an activity in a PERT network, if the Optimistic time, Most likely time and

Pessimistic time are 5,8 and 17 weeks respectively, the expected time is equal to :

(A) 8 weeks (B) 9 weeks

(C) 10 weeks (D) 15 weeks

(A) Item rate (B) Cost plus percentage

(C) Lump sum (D) Cost plus fixed fee

(A) Chemical admixture (B) Mineral admixture

(C) Colouring admixture (D) Cleaning admixture

38. The portion of a wall on which the end of an arch rests is known as :

(A) Abutment (B) Lintel

(C) Soffit (D) Nosing

(A) increases the strength of mortar or concrete

(B) reduces the strength of mortar or concrete

(C) has no effect on the strength of mortar or concrete

(D) enhances the strength of mortar or concrete slightly

(A) reduction in project size (B) reduction in resource

(C) reduction in cost (D) reduction in duration

A 7 010/2020

[P.T.O.]

41. Which of the following tests is not used for determining the workability of concrete?

(A) Compacting factor test (B) Blaine’s test

(C) Flow test (D) Vee-bee consistometer test

42. Identify the statement which is not true. The process of cold working of steel :

(A) increases the yield strength

(B) increases the ductility

(C) decreases the percentage elongation

(D) results in residual strain

43. The best lateral load resisting structural system for a building of 100 storeys is:

(A) Rigid frames (B) Framed tubes

(C) Frame-Shear wall dual system (D) Diagrid system

(A) Elevator (B) Slipform

(C) Scaffolding (D) Shuttering

(A) Increasing tricalcium silicate (C3S) and tricalcium aluminate (C3A)

contribute to high early strength of cement

(B) Increasing the fineness of cement results in high compressive strength

(C) Increasing dicalcium silicate (C2S) retards early development of strength of

cement

(D) Increasing dicalcium silicate (C2S) generates more heat of hydration

46. Failure of a component or a structure due to several cycles of repeated loads is called :

(A) Fatigue failure (B) Buckling failure

(C) Brittle fracture (D) Flexural failure

E. Soft storey P. Retrofitting technique

F. Shear wall Q. Vulnerable to earthquake

G. Jacketing R. Provides large column-free space in the lower storey

H. Transfer girder S. Lateral load resisting system

(A) E-R, F-Q, G-P, H-S (B) E-S, F-Q, G-P, H-R

(C) E-Q, F-S, G-P, H-R (D) E-Q, F-P, G-S, H-R

48. The extent of time by which the start of an activity may be delayed without

interfering with the start of the succeeding activity is called :

(A) earliest start time (B) latest start time

(C) free float (D) latest finish time

010/2020 8 A

49. Which is not true?

(A) PERT is used in research and development projects

(B) PERT is activity oriented

(C) Project duration estimate using PERT is probabilistic

(D) PERT is used for projects which are non-repetitive in nature

(A) The amount deposited by the contractor while submitting the tender is

called security deposit

(B) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) has to be deposited only by the contractor

whose tender is accepted by the client

(C) If the lowest quoted contractor refuses to take up the work, his EMD will

be forfeited by the client

(D) Security deposit is refunded to the contractor soon after completing the

project

(A) Sedimentation (B) Disinfection

(C) Coagulation (D) Flocculation

52. Population forecasting method best suited when the growth rate is having decreasing

trend and the city is heading towards saturation :

(A) Arithmetic (B) Geometric

(C) Graphical (D) Decreased rate of growth

(A) 3 hr (B) 1 hr

(C) 4 hr (D) 5 hr

(A) variable (B) constant

(C) continuous (D) uniform

(A) H2S (B) CH4

(C) CO2 (D) HCl

56. The design period for the design of a water supply project is generally taken as :

(A) less than 10 years (B) 20-30 years

(C) 50 years (D) 100 years

57. The appurtenance which provides access for inspection and permits cleaning of sewer

line is known as :

(A) manhole (B) inlet

(C) catch basin (D) vent pipe

A 9 010/2020

[P.T.O.]

58. Mention the last stage in sludge treatment process :

(A) thickening (B) dewatering

(C) drying (D) digestion

(A) Volume of aeration tank/Mass of BOD per day

(B) Mass of BOD per day/Volume of the aeration tank

(C) Aeration period u Volume of aeration tank

(D) The mass of BOD per day/Volume of secondary clarifier

60. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year :

(A) 1991 (B) 2000

(C) 1974 (D) 1981

61. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in concrete beams shall not exceed :

(A) 0.15% (B) 2%

(C) 4% (D) 1.5%

62. Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than :

(A) 4 m (B) 5 m

(C) 6 m (D) 8 m

(A) Only in post-tensioned beams

(B) Only in pre-tensioned beams

(C) In both post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams

(D) None of above

(A) Kept uniform throughout

(B) Increased gradually towards the edge

(C) Decreased gradually towards the edge

(D) Kept zero at the edge

(A) Greater of 40 mm or diameter of bars

(B) Smaller of 40 mm or diameter of bars

(C) Greater of 25 mm or diameter of bars

(D) Smaller of 25 mm or diameter of bars

(A) 1/4th of the span (B) 1/5th of the span

(C) 1/7 of the span

th (D) 1/6th of the span

010/2020 10 A

67. The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective

depth by :

(A) Three times (B) Four times

(C) Five times (D) Six times

(A) Kept constant throughout the length

(B) Decreased towards the centre of the beam

(C) Increased at the ends

(D) Increased at the centre of the beam

69. Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported length does not exceed

their least lateral dimensions :

(A) 2 times (B) 3 times

(C) 4 times (D) 5 times

70. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one

direction, is :

(A) 35 (B) 25

(C) 30 (D) 20

(A) Balanced section (B) Over reinforced section

(C) Under reinforced section (D) None of above

72. Limit state of serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creep,

shrinkage and temperature occurring after erection of partitions and application of

finishes as applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to :

(A) Span/150 (B) Span/200

(C) Span/250 (D) Span/350

73. According to IS – 456 2000 maximum spacing of shear reinforcement for concrete

beams in no case shall not exceed :

(A) 250 mm (B) 300 mm

(C) 350 mm (D) 450 mm

74. In the heel slab of a cantilever retaining wall, main reinforcement is provided at :

(A) Bottom of slab (B) Top of slab

(C) Centre of slab (D) Sides of slab

(A) Causes shear cracks (B) Causes tension cracks

(C) Causes compression cracks (D) Does not cause any cracking

A 11 010/2020

[P.T.O.]

76. In a reinforced concrete retaining wall, a shear key is provided, if the :

(A) Shear stress in vertical stem is excessive

(B) Shear force in toe slab is more than heel slab

(C) Retaining wall is not safe against sliding

(D) Retaining wall is not safe against overturning

77. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of a plate is usually :

(A) More (B) Less

(C) Equal (D) None of the above

(A) Knot (B) Stain

(C) Split (D) Bow

(A) Straight below centroidal axis

(B) Parabolic with convexity downward

(C) Parabolic with convexity upward

(D) Straight above centroidal axis

(A) Bending moment and hoop tension are developed

(B) Only hoop tension will be developed

(C) Only bending moment will be developed

(D) None of the above

81. According to Indian Standard Classification soils more than half the coarse fraction

which is larger than 75 micron IS Sieve and smaller than 4.75 mm IS Sieve is

designated as which of the following?

(A) Gravels (B) Sand

(C) Clay (D) Silt

82. According to Darcy's Law which of the following is defined as the average velocity of

flow that will occur through the total cross sectional area of soil under Unit hydraulic

gradient?

(A) Coefficient of permeability (B) Coefficient of percolation

(C) Seepage velocity (D) Coefficient of transmissibility

(A) If the present overburden pressure is equal to the existing overburden

pressure

(B) If it has never been subjected to an effective pressure greater than existing

overburden pressure

(C) If it is not fully consolidated under existing overburden pressure

(D) If it has been subjected to a pressure in excess of its present overburden

pressure

010/2020 12 A

84. Which of the following is the circle corresponding to minimum factor of safety against

sliding in case of Swedish Circle Method for stability analysis?

(A) I –circle (B) Friction circle

(C) Critical slip circle (D) Mohr's circle

85. Which among the following assumptions is not correct according to Rankine's Theory

for active earth pressure behind a retaining wall?

(A) The soil mass is semi-infinite, homogenous, dry and cohesionless

(B) The ground surface is a plane

(C) Shearing stress between the wall and the soil is taken into account

(D) The wall yields about the base and thus satisfies the deformation condition

for plastic equilibrium

86. Which among the following is called net safe bearing capacity?

(A) Safe bearing capacity divided by factor of safety

(B) Net ultimate bearing capacity divided by factor of safety

(C) Ultimate bearing capacity plus original overburden pressure

(D) Safe bearing capacity plus original overburden pressure

87. Which procedure is used for getting undisturbed samples from soil?

(A) Chunk sampling (B) Standard Penetration test

(C) Cone Penetration test (D) Auger boring

(A) Pile driving

(B) Rising of ground water table

(C) Upward movement of surrounding compressible soil

(D) Downward movement of surrounding compressible soil

(A) Direct Shear Test (B) Triaxial Shear Test

(C) Unconfined Compression Test (D) Vane Shear Test

(A) To determine the water content at which the soil is compacted

(B) To determine optimum moisture content

(C) To determine zero air voids line

(D) To determine saturation line

(A) 1.0 (B) 0.5

(C) 0.3 (D) 0.15

(A) 55/R (B) 75/R

(C) 100/R (D) 150/R

A 13 010/2020

[P.T.O.]

93. Traffic density is :

(A) No. of vehicles passing a point in a specific direction in per lane per day

(B) No. of vehicles passing a point in a specific direction per hour

(C) Maximum no. of vehicles passing a given point in one hour

(D) No. of vehicles occupied per unit length of road at an instant

(A) Linear (B) Parabolic

(C) No relation (D) Asymptotic to both axes

95. FAA recommends that the runway length after having been corrected for elevation

and temperature should be further increased at the rate of —————— for every 1%

of effective gradient :

(A) 10% (B) 20%

(C) 7% (D) 15%

(A) No. of sleepers per km length

(B) No. of sleepers per rail length

(C) Density of material of sleeper

(D) Minimum distance between any two adjacent sleepers

(A) Main and loop lines (B) Transition curves

(C) Similar flexure (D) Contrary flexure

98. Structure constructed in tunneling operations, in advance of the main drivage, along

its alignment, to gain information about the ground is called :

(A) Shaft (B) Tunnel invert

(C) Tunnel soffit (D) Pilot tunnel

99. Systems used to prevent damage to ships and berthing structures in the mooring

process is called :

(A) Breakwaters (B) Fenders

(C) Dolphins (D) Piers

(A) Sector Model (B) Multiple Nuclei model

(C) Concentric zone model (D) Peripheral model

————————

010/2020 14 A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 15 010/2020

[P.T.O.]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

010/2020 16 A

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 011/2020

Medium of Question: ENGLISH

Date of Test: 13.02.2020

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 D D D A 51 D C A C

2 C B A B 52 C A B A

3 D B D C 53 A B A B

4 A D B D 54 A C A C

5 B A C B 55 D D C D

6 D D A C 56 C A C C

7 B A B B 57 A B A B

8 B D C D 58 B A B D

9 D B D C 59 C A C C

10 A C B A 60 D C D A

11 D A C C 61 A C C B

12 A B B B 62 B A B C

13 D C D D 63 A B D D

14 B D C B 64 A C C B

15 C B A A 65 C D A C

16 A C C B 66 D B A C

17 B B B C 67 D A A B

18 C D D D 68 C A C D

19 D C B D 69 B X C C

20 B A A A 70 B B A A

21 C C B D 71 B A C C

22 B B C C 72 A A B D

23 D D D D 73 A C D A

24 C B D A 74 X C C C

25 A A A B 75 B A A B

26 C B D D 76 A C C A

27 B C C B 77 A B D B

28 D D D B 78 C D A B

29 B D A D 79 C C C D

30 A A B A 80 A A B C

31 B D D D 81 C C A C

32 C C B A 82 B D B A

33 D D B D 83 D A B C

34 D A D B 84 C C D B

35 A B A C 85 A B C B

36 C C B D 86 C A C D

37 A B C C 87 D B A D

38 B D D A 88 A B C C

39 C C B A 89 C D B B

40 D A C D 90 B C B B

41 C B D C 91 A C D B

42 B C C A 92 B A D A

43 D D A B 93 B C C A

44 C B A C 94 D B B X

45 A C D D 95 C B B B

46 B D C A 96 C D B A

47 C C A B 97 A D A A

48 D A B A 98 C C A C

49 B A C A 99 B B X C

50 C D D C 100 B B B A

011/2020

Maximum : 100 marks

Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Radial height of a tooth above the pitch circle of a spur gear is:

(A) dedendum (B) pitch point

(C) tooth face (D) addendum

2. Connecting link between the piston rod and ––––––––––––– of a steam engine is cross head.

(A) cylinder (B) valve

(C) connecting rod (D) eccentrics

(A) Locking by plate (B) Split pin

(C) Lock washers (D) Hexagonal bolt

(A) Reynolds’s number (B) Poisson’s ratio

(C) Power factor (D) Strain

(A) 10.56 m/s2 (B) 9.81 m/s2

(C) 11.36 m/s2 (D) 1.2 m/s2

6. If P and Q are two forces and angle between them is ' ' then according to parallelogram law

of forces the resultant force ‘R’ =:

(A) P Q 2 P Q sin

2 2

(B) P Q 2 P Q cos

(C) P Q 2P Q cos

2 2 2 2

(D) P 2

Q 2 2 P Q cos

7. One kilo gram mass is equivalent as ––––––––––––– N.

(A) 1.5 (B) 9.81

(C) 8.32 (D) 6.12

8. F m x a is derived from:

(A) Newton’s first law (B) Newton’s second law

(C) Newton’s third law (D) Newton’s law of gravitation

A 3

[P.T.O.]

9. The body which does not deform when subjected to external forces is termed as:

(A) flexible body (B) composit training

(C) elastic body (D) rigid body

10. Geometric center of the area where the entire area can be assumed to be concentrated is

known as:

(A) centroid of area (B) midpoint of area

(C) eccentricity of area (D) concentricity of area

11. Whenever a body moves or tends to move over another body ––––––––––––– force is

developed at the contact surface.

(A) laminar (B) co-planar

(C) anti frictional (D) frictional

12. The angle between normal reaction at the contact surface and the resultant of normal

reaction and limiting friction is:

(A) angle of friction (B) angle of reaction

(C) angle of repose (D) angle of deviation

13. The point about which the body can be assumed to be rotating at the given instant is called

––––––––––––– of rotation.

(A) instantaneous retardation (B) instantaneous motion

(C) instantaneous plane (D) instantaneous center

14. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume when

the ––––––––––––– remains constant.

(A) volume (B) temperature

(C) flow (D) velocity

15. A machine which converts mechanical energy in to pressure energy is known as:

(A) engine (B) generator

(C) pump (D) motor

16. In double acting reciprocating pumps, the water is acting on ––––––––––––– sides of the

piston.

(A) both (B) one

(C) either in one or two (D) nearer

011/2020 4 A

17. In order to produce air tight reveted joint ––––––––––––– process is required.

(A) bevelling (B) caulking

(C) fillering (D) sealing

(A) 0.002 (B) 0.01

(C) 0.02 (D) 0.001

(A) punching and enlarging (B) drilling and chamfering

(C) counter sunking and drilling (D) boring and reaming

20. The device used to connect two shafts together at their ends for the purpose of transmitting

power is known as:

(A) sleeve (B) coupling

(C) bearing (D) nipples

21. Standard size of the part, which is same for both hole and its shaft is known as:

(A) Enlarged size (B) reduced size

(C) Nominal size (D) Measured size

(A) allowance (B) tolerance

(C) limits of size (D) actual deviation

(A) 147 mm 210 mm (B) 210 mm 297 mm

(C) 420 mm 594 mm (D) 594 mm 841 mm

24. The drawing which is used for explaining working principle of any machine is known as

(A) production drawing (B) exploded drawing

(C) schematic drawing (D) tabular drawing

25. Length of the arrow head should be about ––––––––––––– times its maximum width.

(A) three (B) two

(C) four (D) five

A 5 011/2020

[P.T.O.]

26. A section is formed by passing a cutting plane at right angles to the axis of the object is

termed as:

(A) partial section (B) full section

(C) revolved section (D) offset section

(A) d=p (B) d = 0.6 p

(C) d = 0.01 p (D) d = 0.001 p

28. Width across flats (W) of a hexagonal nut can be found by ––––––––––––– formula.

(A) 2 D + 1 mm (B) D + 3 mm

(C) 3 D + 3 mm (D) 1.5 D + 3 mm

29. If thickness of the plate is ‘t’ then the diameter of a rivet is:

(A) d t (B) d 6 t

30. The bearing pressure is perpendicular to the axis of shaft in ––––––––––––– bearings.

(A) journal (B) pivot

(C) thrust (D) collar

(A) 55° (B) 29°

(C) 35° (D) 45°

(A) 1 in 50 (B) 1 in 40

(C) 1 in 100 (D) 1 in 30

33. In a muff coupling, the outside diameter and the length of the muff are ––––––––––––– and

––––––––––––– the diameter of the shaft.

(A) two times and two times (B) three times and two times

(C) three times and three times (D) two times and three times

011/2020 6 A

34. If width of a ‘V’ belt is 10 mm then the length of the belt will be in a range of

––––––––––––– mm.

(A) 150 to 860 mm (B) 260 to 860 mm

(C) 212 to 1262 mm (D) 420 to 2820 mm

35. The formula for finding out circular pitch of a spur gear is:

(A) module pitch (B) / module pitch

(C) number of teeth (D) /number of teeth

(A) Rotation of the crankshaft

(B) Valve action

(C) Combustion pressure pushing on piston

(D) Up and down movement of piston

37. A Telescopic gauge can be used to measure a cylinder bore if ––––––––––––– is used to the

telescopic gauge?

(A) Micrometer (B) Feeler gauge

(C) Straight edge (D) Dial indicator

38. The depth of water formed by providing a tap in the water closet is called:

(A) Water cussion (B) Water seal

(C) Water meter (D) Water barrier

39. ––––––––––––– bacteria can live and develop in the presence or absence of oxygen.

(A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic

(C) Facultative (D) All of the above

40. The waste water from the kitchen, bathroom etc is called:

(A) Sewage (B) Ashes

(C) Garbage (D) Sullage

(A) Cohesion (B) Adhesion

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

A 7 011/2020

[P.T.O.]

42. The law related to transmission of pressure is:

(A) Faraday’s law (B) Pascal’s law

(C) Stevin’s law (D) None of the above

43. A bearing shell has a slightly larger arc than bearing housing is called:

(A) Bearing tang (B) Bearing saddle

(C) Bearing crush (D) Bearing spread

44. In a normally operating engine, intake and exhaust valves are opened by a cam closed by the:

(A) Rocker arm or cam follower (B) Lifters or tappets

(C) Valve spring (D) Valve guide or pushrod

(A) A rotor that sends fuel to the injector

(B) A barrel and plunger assembly for each cylinder

(C) A helix cut in each plunger

(D) All of the above

(A) Inline engine (B) Single cylinder engine

(C) 'V' engine (D) Radial engine

47. How many, crankshaft rotations required to get one power stroke in a four stroke single

cylinder diesel engine?

(A) One (B) Three

(C) Two (D) Four

48. The centre of pressure on any surface immersed in a liquid is the point through which the

––––––––––––– acts?

(A) Resultant pressure (B) Weight of surface

(C) Buoyant force (D) Total pressure

49. The bottom edge of the notch over which the liquid flows is called?

(A) Bed (B) Sill

(C) Sluice (D) Vent

011/2020 8 A

50. A Sewage contains:

(A) 0.1% matters (B) 99.9% water

(C) Both of the above are correct (D) None of the above

51. The openings constructed on lines of sewers or drains in order to enable men enter or leave

them is called:

(A) Pot hole (B) Lamp hole

(C) Street inlet (D) Man holes

52. What is the volume of the space above the piston at BDC?

(A) Swept volume (B) Combustion chamber volume

(C) Total volume (D) Clearance volume

(A) Reduces power (B) Increases fuel economy

(C) Increases the amount of CO (D) All of the above

(A) 15% (B) 30%

(C) 5% (D) 80%

(A) 1-6-3-5-2-4 (B) 1-3-6-2-4-5

(C) 1-4-3-2-6-5 (D) 1-5-3-6-2-4

(A) Viscosity (B) Capillarity

(C) Surface tension (D) Density

(A) Atmospheric pressure (B) Vacuum pressure

(C) Absolute pressure (D) Gauge pressure

58. The equation of continuity in brief states that the ––––––––––––– of the fluid through a

section remains the same :

(A) Velocity (B) Mass

(C) Direction (D) Total head

A 9 011/2020

[P.T.O.]

59. Thrust bearing wear will cause excessive :

(A) Crankshaft bending (B) Crankshaft vibration

(C) Crankshaft endplay (D) Crankshaft speed

(A) Pressure in a pipe (B) Total energy in a pipeline

(C) Velocity of flow in a pipeline (D) Discharge through a pipe

(A) Afflux (B) Hydraulic jump

(C) Backwater (D) None of the above

(A) High idle speed during cold starts (B) Over advanced ignition timing

(C) High-octane fuel (D) Lowering the compression ratio

(A) Wetted perimeter (B) Wetted bed width

(C) Wetted side length (D) Any of the above

(A) 25 degree before TDC (B) 20 degree before TDC

(C) 40 degree before TDC (D) 10 degree before TDC

(A) HC, H2O and NO (B) CO2, NO and HC

(C) HC, CO and NO (D) CO2, H2O and HC

66. Which is the most common tool used for drawing circles :

(A) French Curve (B) Mini Drafter

(C) Divider (D) Compass

(A) Diameter (B) Sharpness

(C) Length (D) Hardness

011/2020 10 A

68. In unidirectional system the dimensions are :

(A) Placed above the dimension line

(B) Placed below the dimension line

(C) Placed by breaking the dimension line in the middle

(D) None of the above

69. The scale of a drawing is given as 1:20 what is the representative fraction :

(A) 20 (B) 1/20

(C) 0.5 (D) 0.02

70. How many external tangents are there for two circles :

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

71. The sections cut by a plane on a right circular cone are called :

(A) Parabola sections (B) Conic sections

(C) Elliptical sections (D) Hyperbolic sections

(A) Circle (B) Rectangle

(C) Triangle (D) Square

73. A plane is held parallel to horizontal plane in which view we can watch drawing on that

plane :

(A) Top view (B) Front view

(C) Back view (D) Side view

74. A circle is placed at 20 degrees with vertical the view from top view will be :

(A) Line (B) Circle

(C) Ellipse (D) Oval

(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2

(C) 2:1 (D) 10 : 1

A 11 011/2020

[P.T.O.]

76. In first angle projection method object is assumed to be placed in

(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant

(C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

(A) Hidden edge (B) Projection line

(C) Entre line (D) Hatching line

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1

(C) 3:1 (D) 4:1

(A) 72 (B) 108

(C) 120 (D) 150

80. A point ‘p’ is above horizontal plane and in front of vertical plane. The point is in :

(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant

(C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

(A) Single view projection (B) Two view projection

(C) Multi view projection (D) All the above

82. How many pairs of parallel lines are there in regular hexagon :

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 6 (D) 1

83. When drawing a perpendicular line through apoint which is nearer to the middle of a given

line is cut at two points on the line?

(A) A circle (B) A square

(C) A rectangle (D) An arc

84. The line perpendicular to a tangent and is passing through the point of contact is called :

(A) Perpendicular bisector (B) Angle bisector

(C) Normal (D) Tangent

011/2020 12 A

85. The preferred size of the drawing sheet is recommended by the :

(A) BIS (B) ASME

(C) ASTE (D) NIST

(A) 0.0056 cm2 (B) 5600 cm2

(C) 56000 cm2 (D) 560 cm2

87. A rectangular field is 40 m long and 30 m wide. Perimeter of rectangular field is:

(A) 20 m2 (B) 18 m2

(C) 160 m2 (D) 140 m2

(A) 21 cm (B) 3 cm

(C) 20 cm (D) 90 cm

89. Ninu took two rounds of a ground 180 cm long and 100 m wide. The total distance covered by

him is:

(A) 280 m (B) 560 m

(C) 1120 m (D) 2240 m

(A) 18 cm (B) 81 cm

(C) 24 cm (D) 3.24 cm

(A) Area (B) Perimeter

(C) Circumference (D) Semi perimeter

92. The area of a square field is 24200 sq.m. How long will a man take to cross the field,

diagonally at the rate of 6.6 km/hr:

(A) 3 minutes (B) 2 minutes

(C) 2.4 minutes (D) 2 min 40 seconds

93. A 5 cm cube is cut in to as many 1 cm cubes as possible. What is the ratio of the surface area

of the larger cube to that of the sum of the surface areas of the smaller cube

(A) 1:6 (B) 1:5

(C) 1 : 25 (D) 1 : 125

A 13 011/2020

[P.T.O.]

94. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 16 cm.

95. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 20 cm and 18 cm long and the distance

between them is 15 cm:

(A) 225 cm2 (B) 275 cm2

(C) 285 cm2 (D) 315 cm2

96. If the edge of a cube is 1cm then which of the following is its volume:

(A) 6 cm3 (B) 3 cm3

(C) 1 cm3 (D) None of the above

97. If the dimensions of a room are l, b, h (l-length, b-breadth, h-height) then which of the

following is the area of its four walls.

(A) 2 h l b (B) 2 h l h

(C) 2 l h b (D) None of the above

98. Two identical cubes each of total surface area of 6 cm2 are joined end to end. Which of the

following is the total surface area of the cuboid so formed.

(A) 12 cm2 (B) 18 cm2

(C) 10 cm2 (D) 8 cm2

(A) 7 (B) 8

(C) 4 (D) 5

100. A man walks entirely around his semi circular garden. What is the area of his garden if he

walks 324 m

(A) 18 m2 (B) 6237 m2

(C) 5248 m2 (D) 5368 m2

————————

011/2020 14 A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 15 011/2020

[P.T.O.]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

011/2020 16 A

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 013/2020

Medium of Question: ENGLISH

Date of Test: 26.02.2020

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 D X A B 51 A D B D

2 A B C D 52 D B X C

3 X A B B 53 D B D B

4 B C D A 54 B X C X

5 A B B D 55 B D B A

6 C D A A 56 X C X D

7 B B D X 57 D B A D

8 D A A B 58 C X D B

9 B D X A 59 B A D B

10 A A B C 60 X D B X

11 A B D B 61 D A C C

12 C A C D 62 D B D C

13 B D B B 63 D B C B

14 A C D A 64 A B A B

15 D B B A 65 B B X B

16 C D A C 66 A C C D

17 B B A B 67 B D C D

18 D A C A 68 B C B D

19 B A B D 69 B A B A

20 A C A C 70 B X B B

21 B A C X 71 C C D A

22 A X B A 72 D C D B

23 A C X C 73 C B D B

24 X B A X 74 A B A B

25 C X C B 75 X B B B

26 B A X A 76 C D A C

27 X C B A 77 C D B D

28 A X A X 78 B D B C

29 C B A C 79 B A B A

30 X A X B 80 B B B X

31 C C C D 81 A A D B

32 A C A A 82 C X C C

33 B B B C 83 A D B D

34 B B B D 84 X C C C

35 B X D C 85 D B D A

36 C C D C 86 C C C C

37 C A A A 87 B D A A

38 B B C B 88 C C C X

39 B B D B 89 D A A D

40 X D C B 90 C C X C

41 C D C C 91 B A C D

42 A A A C 92 C C D X

43 B C B B 93 A C D D

44 B D B B 94 C D X B

45 D C B X 95 C D D B

46 D C C C 96 D X B C

47 A A C A 97 D D B A

48 C B B B 98 X B C C

49 D B B B 99 D B A C

50 C B X D 100 B C C D

013/2020

Maximum : 100 marks

Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. Select the bending moment diagram for the simply supported beam loaded as shown

in the figure :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

tensile load of P. If E denotes the Young’s modulus of elasticity, the strain energy

stored in the member is equal to :

P 2L PL2

(A) (B)

2 AE 2 AE

P 3L PL

(C) (D)

2 AE AE

A 3

[P.T.O.]

3. The product moment of inertia of a rectangular section of size b u d about its

horizontal centroidal axis is equal to :

b2 d 2 bd2

(A) (B)

4 6

2 2

bd

(C) 0 (D)

6

4. If V denotes the shear force acting at a particular section along the span of a beam

having a rectangular cross-section of width b and depth h, then the shear stress at

the neutral axis is :

3V

(A) 0 (B)

2bh

3V V

(C) (D)

4bh bh

(A) Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio

(B) Bulk modulus and Young’s modulus

(C) Shear modulus and Poisson’s ratio

(D) Bulk modulus and Poisson’s ratio

6. The static indeterminacy of a propped cantilever beam is equal to :

(A) 3 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 0

7. Kani’s method can be considered as an extension of the :

(A) Moment-area method

(B) Slope deflection method

(C) Moment distribution method

(D) Column-analogy method

8. A three hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a udl of 30 kN/m on the left half of the

span. It has a span of 16 m and central rise of 3 m. The horizontal thrust at the left

support will be :

(A) 80 kN (B) 120 kN

(C) 182.3 kN (D) 160 kN

9. If a deformable structure in equilibrium under the action of a system of loads is given

a small virtual deformation, then the virtual work done by the external forces is

equal to the virtual work done by the internal forces. This principle is known as :

(A) Principle of virtual displacements

(B) Principle of virtual work

(C) Principle of complimentary work

(D) Principle of complimentary displacements

013/2020 4 A

10. A column, hinged at both ends, is having an unsupported length of 3 m,

second moment of area I XX 400 cm 4 , IYY 120 cm 4 and area of cross-section 30 cm 2 .

The slenderness ratio of the column is equal to :

(A) 150 (B) 120

(C) 130 (D) 82.2

11. Find the pressure represented by a column of 10 cm of water if specific weight of

water is taken as 10 kN/m3 :

(A) 1 kN/m2 (B) 1000 kN/m2

(C) 1 N/m 2 (D) 100 kN/m2

12. The flow of a liquid at constant rate in a uniformly tapering pipe is :

(A) Steady, uniform flow (B) Unsteady, uniform flow

(C) Steady, non-uniform flow (D) Unsteady, non-uniform flow

13. The line joining the piezometric heads at various points in a flow is known as the :

(A) Total energy line (B) Hydraulic Gradient line

(C) Datum (D) None of the above

14. A jet of water coming out of a nozzle with velocity 50 m/s is having cross sectional

area of 20 cm2. The jet is directed against a fixed flat plate held normal to the jet.

Find the force exerted on the plate :

(A) 5000 N (B) 2000 N

(C) 5000 kN (D) 200 N

15. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths

are 0.5 m and 1.5 m. The energy loss in this jump is :

(A) 1 m (B) 1.5 m

(C) 2 m (D) 0.33 m

16. The evaporation through plants and from the surrounding soil together is called :

(A) Infiltration (B) Interception

(C) Evapotranspiration (D) Transpiration

17. Find the delta for a crop if the duty for a base period of 100 days is 4320 hectares per

cumec :

(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m

(C) 0.4 m (D) 1 m

18. In the single point method of finding the mean velocity across a vertical in a stream,

if y is the depth of flow, the velocity is measured above the stream bed at :

(A) 0.6 y (B) 0.2 y

(C) 0.8 y (D) 0.4 y

A 5 013/2020

[P.T.O.]

19. The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penetrating a confined

aquifer represents :

(A) water table surface

(B) piezometric surface of the aquifer

(C) capillary fringe

(D) cone of depression

20. The time required by rain water to reach the outlet of drainage basin is generally

called :

(A) Time of concentration (B) Duration of the rainfall

(C) Lag time (D) Recession time

21. The sum of exterior angles for a hexagon is :

(A) 720 (B) 1440

(C) 900 (D) 1080

22. If the included angle at station B in an open traverse ABCDE 1s 158º24Ļ then the

deflection angle is :

(A) 21º36ĻL (B) 21º36ĻR

(C) 338º24ĻR (D) 338º24ĻL

23. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line

to an irregular boundary line. The area in square metre enclosed between the survey

line, irregular line, first and last offsets by Simpson’s rule is :

Perpendicular offsets, 5 m, 2 m, 4.5 m, 6 m, 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 2.5 m, 4 m

(A) 260 m2 (B) 520 m2

(C) 180 m 2 (D) 360 m2

24. The probable error of area (in m2) of rectangle sides are 100 + – 0.01 m and

200 + – 0.02 m is :

(A) + – 2 (B) + – 0.0002

(C) + – 0.02 (D) + – 1.47

25. If the cross sectional areas at every 50 m, in a length of 200 m are :

5 m2, 10 m2, 15 m2, 10 m2, 5 m2 then, volume by trapezoidal rule is

(A) 4000 m3 (B) 5000 m3

(C) 2000 m3 (D) 3000 m3

26. The covered area of a building measured at floor level is called :

(A) Floor area (B) Plinth area

(C) Carpet area (D) Circulation area

27. A building costs Rs. 40000. Considering scrap value as 10% of the cost and life as

60 years, the depreciated value after 20 years is :

(A) 33800 (B) 34800

(C) 32800 (D) 31800

013/2020 6 A

28. Steel reinforcement bars in RCC is measured in :

(A) Quintals (B) Metre

(C) Number (D) Cu.m

29. The years purchase for 6% interest is :

(A) 20 (B) 13.33

(C) 16.67 (D) 0.06

30. For 45º cranked or bent up bar of dia ‘‘d’’, the additional length of 2 bent up is

approximately :

(A) 0.9 d (B) 0.45 d

(C) 0.3 d (D) 0.8 d

31. The initial setting time of Ordinary Portland cement as per BIS is :

(A) not more than 100 minutes (B) not more than 30 minutes

(C) not less than 30 minutes (D) less than 30 minutes

32. The main function of Alumina in brick earth is to :

(A) impart plasticity (B) increase durability

(C) prevent shrinkage (D) increase impermeability

33. Ultimate Strength of Ordinary Portland Cement is provided by :

(A) Tricalcium Silicate (B) Dicalcium silicate

(C) Tetracalcium alumino ferrite (D) Tricalcium aluminate

34. Proneness to segregation of fresh concrete is better tested by :

(A) Slump test (B) Flow test

(C) Vee Bee test (D) Compaction factor test

35. As the fineness modulus of aggregate increases its particle size :

(A) decreases (B) increases

(C) remains same (D) none of these

36. ‘Float’ which does not interfere with the start of the subsequent activity in a project is :

(A) Total float (B) Independent float

(C) Free float (D) Interfering float

37. Quality of reinforcing steel is evaluated by :

(A) Compressive strength (B) Tensile strength, ductility

(C) Yield strength, ductility (D) None of the above

38. Salt present in brick earth may cause :

(A) Brittleness (B) Efflorescence

(C) Discolouration (D) None of the above

A 7 013/2020

[P.T.O.]

39. One of the main demerits of using Lime mortar is that :

(A) it is not durable (B) it does not set quickly

(C) it swells (D) it has plasticity

40. Grading of aggregates in a concrete mix is mainly essential to achieve :

(A) Adequate workability (B) Higher density

(C) Reduction in voids (D) Better durability

41. Which of the following statements is not correct :

(A) Seasoning of timber increases the strength

(B) Seasoning of timber increases the life

(C) Seasoning of timber results in dimensional instability

(D) Seasoning of timber reduces the weight

42. Choose the correct combination :

1. Retarder P. Fly Ash

2. Accelerator Q. Superplasticizer

3. Pozzolana R. Gypsum

4. Workability S. Calcium chloride

(A) 1–R, 2–S, 3–P, 4–Q (B) 1–S, 2–R, 3–P, 4–Q

(C) 1–R, 2–P, 3–S, 4–Q (D) 1–R, 2–S, 3–Q, 4–P

43. Deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is :

(A) Shrinkage (B) Creep

(C) Segregation (D) Bleeding

44. The foundation provided below a heavily loaded steel column on a soil of low bearing

capacity is :

(A) Isolated column footing (B) Grillage foundation

(C) Raft foundation (D) Strip footing

45. A bond in which both header and stretcher come in the same course is :

(A) English bond (B) Raking bond

(C) Zigzag bond (D) Flemish bond

46. Which of the following does not belong to the class ‘shell roof ’ :

(A) Dome (B) Barrel vault

(C) Warped surface (D) Flat slab

47. Decoupling of the superstructure from substructure resting on a shaking ground is

called :

(A) Base isolation (B) Damping

(C) Shock absorption (D) Retrofitting

013/2020 8 A

48. If to is the optimistic time, t p is the pessimistic time and tm is the most probable

time, then the expected time of occurrence of an activity is :

to 2tm t p to tm t p

(A) t (B) t

4 3

to 4tm t p to 2tm 3t p

(C) t (D) t

6 6

When there is a dispute in a construction site,

(A) The dispute must be submitted initially to the site Engineer for decision,

before referring to arbitration

(B) The contractor has to stop the work till the settlement of dispute

(C) All actions related thereto should be recorded and referred for future

negotiations and agreements

(D) A meeting must be held between the superintendent and union leader

50. The planned or systematic actions necessary to provide enough confidence that a

product or service will satisfy the given requirements is called :

(A) Quality control (B) Quality improvement

(C) Quality Assurance (D) Quality Audit

51. The Manning’s formula is given by the expression:

1 23 12

(A) V R S (B) V C R.S

N

2 1

(C) V 83.47 R 3 S 2 (D) V 0.85C R 0.63 S 0.54

(A) 12 hours (B) 5 minutes

(C) 24 hours (D) 1 minute

53. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of:

(A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Hydrogen Sulphide (D) Methane

54. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is

called:

(A) Vent pipe (B) Anti-Siphonage pipe

(C) Waste pipe (D) Soil pipe

55. In a BOD test 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen

concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the

end of 5 day incubation at 20°C. The BOD of raw sewage will be:

(A) 100 ppm (B) 200 ppm

(C) 300 ppm (D) 400 ppm

A 9 013/2020

[P.T.O.]

56. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against

pathogenic bacteria is about:

(A) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm (B) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm

(C) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm (D) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm

57. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove:

(A) Dissolved organic substances

(B) Dissolved solids and gases

(C) Floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids

(D) Bacteria and colloidal solids

58. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about:

(A) 10 to 15 (B) 20 to 25

(C) 30 to 35 (D) 40 to 50

59. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as:

(A) Inlet (B) Manhole

(C) Drop manhole (D) Catch basin

60. The self cleaning velocity of the sewers is:

(A) Less than 1.0 m/s (B) 1.0 m/s to 1.2 m/s

(C) 1.5 m/s to 2.0 m/s (D) 3.0 m/s to 3.5 m/s

61. The limiting value of the depth of neutral axis ( x u,max / d ) for Fe 500 grade steel bars

as per IS 456-2000 is:

(A) 0.53 (B) 0.48

(C) 0.51 (D) 0.46

62. Where a member is built into a masonry wall which develops only partial restraint,

the member shall be designed to resist a negative moment at the face of support is

___________, Where W is total design load L is the effective span.

(A) WL/8 (B) WL/12

(C) WL/16 (D) WL/24

63. Basic Value of span to effective depth ratio for span up to 10 m of a continuous beam

as per IS 456-2000:

(A) 7 (B) 20

(C) 24 (D) 26

250 mm u 600 mm is:

(A) 1200 (B) 1500

(C) 1800 (D) 2400

013/2020 10 A

65. In a reinforced concrete footing, the thickness at the edge shall not be less than

150 mm for footing on soils nor less than ___________ mm above the top of piles for

footing on piles:

(A) 250 mm (B) 300 mm

(C) 350 mm (D) 200 mm

66. Poisson’s ratio of concrete is frequently taken as:

(A) 0.15 – 0.25 (B) 0.5 – 0.75

(C) 0.05 – 0.15 (D) none of above

67. One way slabs are those in which most of the load is carried on the ___________ span :

(A) longest (B) shortest

(C) middle (D) quarter

68. The modulus of rupture of M25 Concrete may be taken as ___________ N/mm 2 :

(A) 3 (B) 3.5

(C) 4 (D) 4.5

69. Upright compression members that support decks in bridges are often called as:

(A) Pile (B) Piers

(C) Pedestal (D) Stub

70. Slenderness ratio of a member is defined as the ratio of the effective length to the

___________ of a section:

(A) moment of inertia (B) radius of gyration

(C) thickness (D) area

71. The unsupported length of transverse ties should not exceed ___________ times the

diameter of tie in two directions:

(A) 36 (B) 42

(C) 48 (D) 16

72. The full fixity at the column may be valid only for columns supported by:

(A) an individual footing on rock (B) a thick pile cap

(C) a raft foundation (D) all of the above

73. A ___________ section is one in which the area of tension steel is such that the

ultimate limit state, the ultimate compressive strain in concrete is reached, However

the tensile stain in the reinforcing steel is less than the yield strain:

(A) balanced (B) under reinforced

(C) over reinforced (D) composite

74. In design practice of beams the span to overall depth ratio are generally taken in the

range:

(A) 10 to 16 (B) 25 to 30

(C) 1 to 2 (D) 30 to 45

A 11 013/2020

[P.T.O.]

75. Counter fort retaining wall is economical for heights above ___________ m:

(A) 2 (B) 4

(C) 5 (D) 7

76. For preliminary calculations the thickness of the base slab of a retaining wall may be

taken as ___________ percent of the height of wall:

(A) 0.8 (B) .08

(C) 8 (D) 80

77. Considering the concept of durability of water tanks, the minimum grade of concrete

shall be:

(A) M10 (B) M20

(C) M30 (D) M40

78. The permissible concrete stress in direct tension of M20 in calculation relating to

resistance to cracking as per IS 3370-1965 part II is:

(A) 20 kg/cm 2 (B) 12 kg/cm 2

(C) 14 kg/cm 2 (D) 17 kg/cm 2

79. The permissible concrete stress in tension due to bending of M20 in calculation

relating to resistance to cracking as per IS 3370-1965 part II is:

(A) 20 kg/cm 2 (B) 17 kg/cm 2

(C) 14 kg/cm 2 (D) 10 kg/cm 2

80. The method of prestressing concrete in which pre-stressing steel is tensioned against

the hardened concrete is:

(A) Pre tensioning (B) post tensioning

(C) initial prestressing (D) jack tensioning

81. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from

50 kN/m 2 to 100 kN/m 2 . If the effective stress is further increased from 100 kN/m 2 to

200 kN/m 2 , then further settlement of the clay shall be:

(A) 10 mm (B) 20 mm

(C) 30 mm (D) 40 mm

82. The time taken by clay layer to achieve 50% consolidation is 5 years. If the layer was

half as thick, 5 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible then the time

that would be required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is :

(A) 12 year (B) 5 year

(C) 1 year (D) 16 year

83. A soil sample has a shrinkage limit of 10% and specific gravity of soil solids as 2.7.

The porosity of the soil at shrinkage limit is :

(A) 21.2% (B) 30%

(C) 527% (D) 70%

013/2020 12 A

84. What is the range of silt size particles according to IS classification :

(A) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm (B) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm

(C) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm (D) 0.75 mm to 0.002 mm

85. In a falling head permeameter, a soil sample 75 mm in diameter and 36 mm in length

was tested. At the commencement of the test, the initial head was 80 cm and after

one hour, the head drops to 40 cm. The coefficient of permeability if the diameter of

the stand pipe is 1 cm, in cm/sec will be :

(A) 1.98 u 10 3 (B) 1.88 u 10 3

(C) 1.98 u 10 2 (D) 1.23 u 10 5

86. A vane 20 cm long and 10 cm in diameter was pressed into soft marine clay at the

bottom of a bore hole. Torque was applied gradually and failure occurred at

2000 kg/cm, the cohesion of the clay in kg/cm2 is :

5 7

(A) (B)

S
7 S
6

12 7

(C) (D)

S
7 S
12

87. An un drained triaxial compression test is carried out on a saturated clay sample

under a cell pressure of 200 kN/m2. The sample failed at a deviator stress of

400 kN/m2. The cohesion of’ the given clay sample is :

(A) 50 kN/m2 (B) 200 kN/m2

(C) 300 kN/m2 (D) 400 kN/m2

88. Flow lines and equipotential lines meet each other at an angle :

(A) 30 (B) 60

(C) 90 (D) 120

89. Newmark’s chart is used in foundation engineering to determine :

(A) earth pressure

(B) seepage loss

(C) permeability of soils

(D) stresses in soil due to surface loading

90. According to Terzaghi, the ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil, at

ground surface for a rough based footing is:

(A) 5.14 Cu (B) 5.14 Cu JDf

(C) 5.7 Cu (D) None of the above

relatively impervious is :

(A) Prime Coat (B) Tack Coat

(C) Seal Coat (D) Surface Dressing

A 13 013/2020

[P.T.O.]

92. In flexible pavements, wheel load is distribute by :

(A) Slab action (B) Directly to sub-grade

(C) Grain to grain transfer (D) Beam action

93. The distance travelled by a moving vehicle during total reaction time is:

(A) Lag distance (B) Stopping distance

(C) Braking distance (D) Sight distance

94. Rate of change of centrifugal acceleration for computing length of transition curve for

a vehicle with design speed V kmph is given by :

70 80

(A) m/s3 (B) m/s3

80 V 70 V

80 75

(C) m/s3 (D) m/s3

75 V 80 V

95. The diagram showing the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in

accidents is :

(A) Spot map (B) Condition diagram

(C) Collision diagram (D) Desire line

96. The general equation relating flow (Q), density (K) and space mean speed (U) is :

K U

(A) Q (B) Q

U K

(C) Q UK (D) Q KU

(A) 0.02% (B) 0.03%

(C) 0.05% (D) 0.04%

98. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not

exceed :

(A) 35% (B) 25%

(C) 20% (D) 15%

99. V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to :

(A) Neighbourhood planning (B) Housing Typologies

(C) Architecture Design principle (D) Hierarchy of Roads

100. PMGSY, a programme of the Government of India, deals with :

(A) Urban Employment Generation (B) Rural Road Development

(C) Rural Employment Generation (D) Rural Electrification

————————

013/2020 14 A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 15 013/2020

[P.T.O.]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

013/2020 16 A

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 025/2019

Medium of Question: ENGLISH

Date of Test: 21/06/2019

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 A A C C 51 C A A D

2 C D A D 52 B C A A

3 D B B C 53 D A B C

4 B A A A 54 A A B B

5 D C D C 55 B D A D

6 A A A B 56 B C D B

7 B D D D 57 D D C A

8 C B B B 58 C B C C

9 A B C A 59 A D B C

10 D C C A 60 C A D C

11 B A D C 61 A A A B

12 A B C D 62 A B C D

13 C A A B 63 D B B A

14 A D C D 64 C A D B

15 D A B A 65 D D B B

16 B D D B 66 B C A D

17 B B B C 67 D C C C

18 C C A A 68 A B C A

19 A C A D 69 A D C C

20 B D C B 70 B A B A

21 A C D A 71 A D B A

22 D A B C 72 D B C C

23 A C D A 73 D C D A

24 D B A D 74 B B A D

25 B D B B 75 C C C D

26 C B C B 76 B D A B

27 C A A C 77 C A D C

28 D A D A 78 D C D B

29 C C B B 79 A A B C

30 A D A A 80 C D C D

31 C B C D 81 C A A D

32 B D A A 82 D D B A

33 D A D D 83 B B C A

34 B B B B 84 C C A B

35 A C B C 85 B C B D

36 B C D A 86 A A D C

37 A B A D 87 D B A D

38 D D B C 88 B C A B

39 C B B D 89 C A B C

40 C A D B 90 C B D B

41 B C C D 91 A D C A

42 D C A A 92 B A D D

43 A C C A 93 C A B B

44 C B A B 94 A B C C

45 B D A B 95 B D B C

46 D A D A 96 D C A A

47 B B C D 97 A D D B

48 A B D C 98 A B B C

49 C D B C 99 B C C A

50 C C D B 100 D B C B

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 41/2014

Work Supervisor(NCA-M)-SFC of Kerala Ltd, Overseer Gr.II/Draftsman Gr.II-KLDC Ltd,

Draughtsman Gr.II-KSDC for SC/ST Ltd Ltd

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test: 07.05.2014

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 B A C C 51 C C B A

2 A B D C 52 A A C D

3 D D C D 53 C D A B

4 C C B B 54 D D D C

5 B D A C 55 B A C A

6 C C C A 56 B C A C

7 D A C B 57 C D D A

8 C B D D 58 A C B D

9 B C B C 59 D A C D

10 A A C D 60 C B A A

11 C C A C 61 A C C C

12 C D B A 62 D B A D

13 D A D B 63 B A D C

14 B C C C 64 C B D A

15 C B D A 65 A C A B

16 A C C C 66 C B C C

17 B D A D 67 A A D B

18 D C B A 68 D D C A

19 C B C C 69 D C A B

20 D A A B 70 A B B C

21 C C C C 71 C C C B

22 A B D D 72 D D B A

23 B C A C 73 C C A D

24 C A C B 74 A B B C

25 A D B A 75 B A C B

26 C B C C 76 C C B C

27 D D D B 77 B C A D

28 A B C C 78 A D D C

29 C D B A 79 B B C B

30 B A A D 80 C C B A

31 C B C B 81 D D A B

32 D C B D 82 C B C C

33 C B C B 83 C D D C

34 B D A D 84 A A B A

35 A B D A 85 B A B D

36 C C B B 86 A D B D

37 B A D C 87 C C C B

38 C C B B 88 D C C D

39 A D D D 89 B A A A

40 D B A B 90 B B D A

41 B B B C 91 B A D D

42 D C C A 92 C C B C

43 B A B C 93 C D D C

44 D D D D 94 A B A A

45 A C B B 95 D B A B

46 B A C B 96 D B D A

47 C D A C 97 B C C C

48 B B C A 98 D C C D

49 D C D D 99 A A A B

50 B A B C 100 A D B B

4U2014

1. A! urd.! Einftied *ctio is prcfst&d lhe e N! nttftned Ftim bdw of :

(A) ft. .rel reaclDs it ruiru dt4 .ldier

(D) BtittL prcpdtv of @b

(c) 8i8b .h.nsth of @|@te

(D) C@a ofBtel iB high

S, Whd . .la! i! osidstd as rwo way .lab, it! long .pu to .hort span ratio i3 |

(C) ls thu.1.6 (D) rctu of t!@

8, t! th. .h.i. t !t of .ssrtsltd tLe D.td.L *hE L!.t diD.ldm is l€€s tbu 0.6 ti@. of

,I!it e.r lit @ ten€d s :

(A) Eldsit.a (B) O.D sa.I€d

(O c[o.. sn&d @) SbrY

{ A D@d pitb DMid€d 6r tlte purDde of euwili .imi. to t@ to tnd iw th. tutry

a.il th..tM i€ dll€d :

(B) t uc6

W i

r.167 (B) 16?e6

(C) 1.?610 @) l.sto 6

G lt riFtts.8 loiri i! the dercin! lc&t bqsd *hich de tEir rebc|' c4 .t d !.Slv

riih4! @uidirs rit! tlD haii @i!a 6 tha oiL.t rncr i. :

( ) ILel (B) C.!she.t

(q rodDut (D) Cndtirs.tsli@

a t

n,to.l

7. { l.ver of eoc(t . b,sod} or .obc ctc. s}r.l B pl,.rd dr Fn'r3tre or ouilct of,

cul\€rt or *atetuat io Feveni thc elri.g ii dllcd :

'br

(A) Abuine.i (D anr

(c) qissn (D) aprcn

(A) 1in io (B) rDlOO

(C) 1in 150 (D) I in 200

(C) ?5 Do (D) genn

lt. FrMc; rurbme N

{A) a tu.bins

radial doq ibpulse (B) !r uial f,or turbiDe

(O a radidl dN r€actio. tubire (D) animp de turbin€

12. Wher a luid is a. resq the 6lEar 8rreft i! |

(c) zerc (D) None ofrhe&

13, Atmo6phenc]rEssure head in t€rn6 of{aler@luen rs.

(A) 7.6n (B) 6.0n

(C) 9.31n (D) 10.3b

1'1. Unit pdd developed by a turbine i. delined ar wh€n :

(A) Porer or the turbinc is niimun (8) gead on rhc tubine i3 udry

(C) Emciencr ofihe ilrhin6 i! oaxiDu (D) Noneolthese

1rl20l1

16. rh. brsnci ol vrPn@ stu.n d.al. wrh Lbe 6tu(t of oud d mor'on s'hour mns'dPtus lh€

foms dus'ng Lhr mot$n D k^own ,3.

L4) r,yffi tB) Srsdc!

(c) I{inenati6 (D) Phrcatic

16. TLe nqiom mout! of stEiD ener6r wbrh ca. bp stoled i! a uit sluds qthout

pcm$€tr! sr i. callcd :

(o) q.ep iD) burk nodulus

Th. rolio ol .he linit ot ptuDortionaliw i' :

'rld

(A) Pdsns Eoo lB) Vodulu' of ncidir v

(O Elastic oodulls O) aouns's bodulu

18, The l@d rsqwd b ..ue unir {t.fl€6on i3

'au'd :

r9, Iq r cotuEr sid! on. ord tusd a.d th€ oth6r €n'l trine.d |be eft@hre leneth is :

(A) L (a) 2L

\o Ltl.lr) @) Ltz

20. TL6.tud&d saus! lonsb ot a sp(im€n tor t6n6il€ @r sith nill'lso$stron 'Fs oo r3

(C) do G.66- (Dr s.6t J;;

!1- Th€ n.ddu be.dins noDeni tu a siDprv 6uPputed hem *hich @des uifor load s'

thsugh out its spdn I i6

'

(A) wv! (B) wlz/4

(q) wI:/3 (D) wv8

(B) sne€tructr h tI tlircdio6

(C, ob€B hmL s b* uP to lailuF

(D) yousrt modulu add nsiditv boduli aE .,re

A 6 4rl2ol1,

IP,T.O.I

23, th6 prcdnclorElesd; nodul$ and

(A) breional rigidity (B)

(c) dgidily nodulus (D)

24, Tto pol6i nonert or ircnia of 6 holla cncdd sfttion *itL elteloul dianet€r

int rnal dird€br 'd' i :

26, Whcn a.lo*d dn !€ricdl 6p.i!g is suhjc(hd b ab dal.mpa5lrve lod. rh€ n,llrial sdl

(c) bendinestress (D) fens e 8irc3r

!6, Ihc fore actins or a body oowins hacr.uld pdh rlode b" rddrus asay &on !!e en@ or

(B)

(D)

(D) hir]y,Eg

2E. !o. no t€Nion d€veloped in lhc base of sraviiy dan, ihe eccenhiciiy

within _ wheF b i6 tho

(B) b/3

(D) b/2

(C) €vapoE,nspuarion

(A) entou canar (Bl ridse cdnal

(C) resime camr (D) canio enal

4tl20t4

8l, lte le@l itifi€re@ lei$en th6 t p otbmk of a csn.l ad the eainuD Fater l*l i. ;

(A) lem G) alaux

(C) rre hdd (D) did.trdelth

(A) total di..olv.d sli& (B) eud.

volatil6 oBanic

SS. M;ihud a6out of rliadolveil oxyslt d6irablo h srv wdxer bodv is los. than :

(c) 3 Esn (D) 5 er.4

(A) *wtg€

linii - plastia @) li;it .lnnhgelihit

pL.tic

(C) ut r ontent -pr,sti.liEii (D) Uquid lifit - €hrinhs€ rimit

8& Tle r4iio ol unmitsd 6npr6..ion sbenstn ir nstual st.to io that h the renould''I state

(O .etuiiiviiy (D) ihi*otrop8

t7. lAe difi.rac betwen the tobr lircs lt i 4oint ud rLe poF wlter Dlsw at !!ri Poirt

(C) trcuFal.tes (D) .i€ar.i.a

WIen a toward. ihe btck6l vrEd th€ ru! tend' to coEpEs th€ sil

Eon@nlalb,tduot:

(.{) At.t.tpE..w G) Actit €arth pd.rF

(C) PasiFearth pftse (D) Elbctivs presd

4u20t4

|Pr.ol

3r, The byd.onete! .nolysis is based on the princiDle of:

(A) ldq

stokes G) Drrcy's low

(C) Monnn:gola{ (D) Newton'F law

{0. TLe mdidB w8t€. onbtri ol t1'. 30il ,t which no ndher ednction

(c) Wdter linit (D) Shndlosc liftit

41, The dilleencc batwoe. lldstid liiit and chrinlsse linn i3 dalled i

(A) flu'diry indox

(C) llasiicity index

(B) o arad acl,B a quicL filtcr

' (C) a@ndilion when oherion dedoa.es

(D) , condirion in which oh€5ionlcs. .oil l@s ib Bheaf stFtrsth due 1o lhe upw.rd

fl.s ofFater

43. Consolidaiion b . ph@6s iD vlrich :

(A) gudder corpr*sio! of soil (B) srdual.xpulsjo. ofpoe wat€r

(O abnohul shlinking of soil iD) tiltinR abd failft oldoil

,lt. lhe hiniim d€plh of e4loration i! thc q6c ol grav'ty drm i. :

(A) baseidthol.lad (B) t*ir tle bae width

(C) fwi@ tlD heislt of ile .lan

il5. Sanples fmn au8Er boring are :

{C) reprcsniatiE6anplo

46, tan€ slEar t 6t id u&d foi me*ui.g:

(B) slear alronsth olohesive $il

(C) beuins capacity ol soil

4\t20r4

47. ']1E matlrirl that i. Ft&iled by a Ftajrins ltluctw is sen lally dsled 3. I

O) surch.lgs G) @ildop.

(c) b.cr6n (D) ,rltl*

a8. Sh.Uos boMg is o! whose d€pth iE :

(A, width

oqual E (B) los th.lsidln

(C) !|GtLuf,idah (D) !@ortt@

4t. Yellow (.dber) 6lou of t olouEd Ucht tE6c si3na:I in a junctiotr:ndiclt . :

(c) he ady to ao . (D) cl€a.m tine

60, The 6!.t railwqr lrain in lndi, ran b€twe! :

G) c'r.{tt .nd D.lhi (D) Ildrlh .nd Ddu

(A)rzb (B) 10n

G) r3b (D) 15n

6r. The b.xibuE

'lesF.

ofcl]m ir ! bead 3a!s. ii:

. (A) to' (B) lz'

(o rf (D) rf

68. Th. pnncipls mlsDtents ol .rsill.@ous rci.B ia :

(c) dly (D) 4d

(c) burhd (D) frls

(A) hl€ldin! (B) bulrint

(c) &g!€s.tio @) thiiing

4u20t4

lP,T.o.l

66. I'he sluD. o{ o@ b.a (50 kd of aE.nt i! :

(A) Ool.'

(c) 00d6 Dr

(C).nnuardngs

(A) 6n ntDaiDt

(C) .n.nel Daiit

59- -&ph.li i. a Di*tm of

(A) litqne! and e.le6toE (B) bii@e! a l@@d

(C) t{ andB.b$t s CD) bifuen .nd inolt 6ine..I Dattor

' .(c) $d (D 3ad

5r. Tt. i.!&Dcr oI rb Mml to spli! dons r erlrD plare ir c.[.d:

(A) jhb G) aog

(B) ri8ht

4V1014 t0

65. The vedical int .meaitl. member o{ the iane which divid$ the windos verticauv is :

(D) rail

66, The veriicd window prwided on ihe slopins rcor is kndn a6 :

(C) dom€f{indow {D) b,ywindo{

6?. A dos l€ga€d st ir onncctinc |{o n@E wirb lloor b ner )reighi $ 4 2 n and {irb a lie of

lScm Tben the l,otsl numb.r ot had6 in rhai srair i5 :

(A) 26 (B) 25

(o 2e (D) 2?

(A) Raneinc rcd (lr) T squ e

(C) t v€ri.q slatt (D) Bonilgrod

69. A dt naile i. fie fta6e df ' door !o Eceive ihe .hu1lar i6 :

(O caDc (D) Ebate

70. A propped cdntileyer sith unifornly diettibu!€d lold'Wn'and rp,n l, th€n the prcp

(C) *U8 O) *Y2

7r. A pi! joinEd perl€ci n.6e i5 to sdliltv wh.re 't is Dur+r ol n.nbem dnd

t i6 lhe nub€. of joiDb

(A) r>2j 3 (B) z<2j-3

\c) ^ =2j 0

(A) livc loa& G) inposedload

(C) r€riical load! {D) @e|€hal lo.d8

79. In G€ li;i! 6tate dethod ofdeeier ih€ na*inun mnpbdliw sh.i. in @Dcrete i6 iAlan as :

(c) 0.002 (D) 0.o2

11 {U20t4

tP.a.ol

?.1. l. .i.cly reinlorced been ir the onc$b 6ft6sed .o aUdable linit earlier ibln steel

rh. secho. n said b bc: '6 'ts

(A) @errcinnftod bean (B)

(C) nndq reinlorced @ction (D)

(-{) ra00ofdF sp$ (B)

(C) 1/350 of rprn (D)

(A) beantrg (B) dip

(C) dedinalio.

7?. A bench Da.t is a :

(A) R.foo.cc point

(D) lointofknownelevati.n

(C) Tlo vdy nBt station

(D) 'I'he iast slatior where the iurvrr closes

{A) enil ofth. cuR€

(B) cure

b€sindin3 of ihe

iC) coDno! poinl wher€ tle radiug chan8es

tD) .otmod poi.t where the direction changes

(A) plarin€ter (B) pa.rocr.ph

(c) crinoneteB (D) box scxt$t

30. The rppro\naF*.ieh' oloDecdbE octrcotn dscel's:

($ 2,r0o kg (B) 1440Is

(o ?3501(9 (D) 2500ls

(B) lbn

(D) Silv€r

4U20L1

82. lvhich dmodg ihe following ia tui an eHnplc otllrbi crop?

(A) $'nont (B) Ba ey

(C) Rice (D) Must{d

83. Thc 6rst talLie lrn in MslaJotan Balan' we tlidied by:

(A) J.c l)si.r (B) Ranu (!r'.t

(c) s. Nottdi (D) vvinent

84, i' Ildia, thefh.hn dM is builtin {hich rirer:

Thc highesrdam

(A) Eagitudhi (B) Naroadd

(c) B.dhhaprrra (D) sudej

35, (o,hilha ilatal is the autobioeruphy of I

(A) MP.Isul (B) Jos.ph Mu.dd$ery

. (c) s.K I'ottnklal

iA) Mea6las (B) Diphtheria

(q rapisy (D) Ttrb€rculGis

8?. Th€ pftn JRthikkuDnf wni.h crilicized $; cast cysi.e i n Ke.ala was wdtten bv :

(C) I{'P. Kafuppan (D) Ktr ipplrdth lGdavan Nlir

88. ihe Msl,yslan wrilcr who is seleot€d for &nd.a Sahitya AcdeEy fcldwship in 20 13 :

(C) Sdchidjnadan (D) M.T vasudevan Nair

80. Tbe tu;t 6hte in Indiu Fhich i6 docldFd ae tobseo Fee st3i€ :

(O nana.a (D) Odbha

(A) BldDi.dtdn (B) HftleY

(C) Footbal (D) Orictei

91, The €dito. of'NadEni Dapilr' 3tat€d publicatid in 1387 lren MatrmNE saa :

' (A) Poyk.y YoLln&n (B) Nidhidual Maritatnanar

(C) A.n@ Pdthiri (D) latheflluNelden

rs 4u2014

lPr,o,l

TLe investors m..ri!s ftnducted 1,r liualr cir€rnncni,n 2012 :

((j) Dnerginc l{enlt (D) Kerdla confer.nce ot,nv66t rs

(c) rrr\l (D)

1A) Vssbhldrndda (B)

(c) Vaikunda Swabikal (D)

(A) DeFDber r0

iC) Sept nber t6

( ) vitdnin D

(o \:namir r\

97. tlF consriiurion'1 anendncnt shich b.dc 'Risht to Education d lundamcnbr lierlt

@ so*

@):,"

98. Th..ong!e$ ssion wiich pacred looro

(A) Bombay

(C) Luctnox

99. $hrh oEonc 'hp.olio\y'n8 E nor s udL hJ \'8uad

'l

Nar!)sn, Mclon?

(A) Umdkeralam

(C) Clitrayogan

100. The sditor ol the newspap.f 'Miiavrdi publhhcd

(A) C.lt ishMn (B) v.lkoE Abdul Fbu&. Moulaii

(c) Ic ndallnshna Pilh

1U2014

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 55/2019

SC/ST)-IRRIGATION

Medium of Question: ENGLISH

Date of Test: 05/11/2019

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 D D B C 51 C A D C

2 A C A A 52 B C A A

3 B C A A 53 D D B C

4 D B B C 54 C B A D

5 B B C D 55 A C C B

6 D B C C 56 A D C D

7 C A A C 57 C A A A

8 C A A B 58 D B C C

9 B B C D 59 B A D D

10 B C D A 60 C C B C

11 B C C C 61 D C D A

12 A A C A 62 A A A B

13 A A B D 63 B C C A

14 B C D A 64 A D D D

15 C D A B 65 C B C B

16 C C C A 66 A C C C

17 A C A B 67 B A C B

18 A B D B 68 C B C B

19 C D A D 69 C A C B

20 D A B C 70 B C C B

21 C C A D 71 C C C A

22 C A B A 72 A C B B

23 B D B B 73 B C B C

24 D A D D 74 A C B C

25 A B C B 75 C C B D

26 C A D D 76 C C A C

27 A B A C 77 C B B B

28 D B B C 78 C B C A

29 A D D B 79 C B C B

30 B C B B 80 C B D A

31 A D D B 81 C A C D

32 B A C A 82 B B B A

33 B B C A 83 B C A B

34 D D B B 84 B C B C

35 C B B C 85 B D A A

36 C D A C 86 A C D A

37 A A B B 87 B B A B

38 C C A D 88 C A B C

39 D D D C 89 C B C C

40 B C B A 90 D A A B

41 D A C A 91 C D A C

42 A B B C 92 B A B A

43 C A D D 93 A B C B

44 D D C B 94 B C C A

45 C B A C 95 A A B C

46 A C A D 96 D A C C

47 B B C A 97 A B A C

48 A D D B 98 B C B C

49 D C B A 99 C C A C

50 B A C C 100 A B C C

55/2019

Maximum : 100 marks

Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

(A) Pound (B) Newton

3. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth is approximately equal to:

4. If the momentum of a given particle is doubled, then its kinetic energy will be:

(C) (S / 64 )d 4 (D) (S / 4 )d 4

A 3

[P.T.O.]

8. The force applied on a body of mass 150 kg to produce an acceleration of 10 m/s2, is:

(A) 15 N (B) 150 N

(C) 1500 N (D) 3000 N

9. Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is

perpendicular to the smaller force, the smaller force is:

(A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg

(C) 30 kg (D) 35 kg

10. The process of finding out the resultant force is known as:

(A) Superposition of forces (B) Composition of forces

(C) Addition of forces (D) Resolution of forces

11. The point, at which the whole weight of the body may be considered to act, is known as:

(A) Centre of mass (B) Centre of gravity

(C) Centre of curvature (D) Moment of inertia

(A) is in equilibrium (B) is moving with non uniform velocity

(C) is not in equilibrium (D) none of the above

(A) Dyne (B) Kg

(C) Newton (D) All the above

15. The resultant of two forces which are acting at an angle T is:

(C) P 2 Q 2 2PQ cosT (D) P 2 Q 2 2PQ sinT

55/2019 4 A

16. The resultant of two equal forces P making an angle 2 T is given by:

(A) 2Psin T (B) 2Ptan T

(C) 2Pcos T (D) 2Pcot T

(A) Power (B) Potential energy

(C) Kinetic energy (D) None of the above

(A) Is constant at every instant (B) Varies from point to point

(C) Is maximum in the start (D) None of the above

19. If the tension in a cable supporting a lift moving upwards is twice the tension when the lift is

moving downwards, the acceleration of the lift, is:

(A) g/2 (B) g/4

(C) g/3 (D) g/5

20. In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of

6 kN.The velocity ratio of the machine is :

(A) 30 (B) 60

(C) 80 (D) 50

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1

(C) 1:2 (D) 10:1

(A) Continuous thick (B) Chain thin line

(C) Continuous thin (D) Short zigzag thin

23. The front view of a rectangle, when its plane is parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP, is:

(A) Rectangle (B) Line

(C) Square (D) Point

A 5 55/2019

[P.T.O.]

24. The following are the Polyhedron except:

(A) Prism (B) Cube

(C) Pyramid (D) Cylinder

(A) Prism (B) Cone

(C) Sphere (D) Cylinder

26. The top view of a right cylinder resting on HP on its base rim is :

(A) Ellipse (B) Rectangle

(C) Circle (D) Square

27. The following is formed by revolving rectangle about one of its sides which remains fixed:

(A) cylinder (B) hemi sphere

(C) sphere (D) cone

(A) Continuous thick line (B) Chain thin line

(C) Continuous thin line (D) Chain thin line having thick edges

(A) hidden edges (B) centre line

(C) projection line (D) hatching line

(A) square (B) triangular

(C) rectangular (D) circular

(A) First quadrant (B) Third quadrant

(C) Second quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

(A) 72 (B) 120

(C) 108 (D) 150

55/2019 6 A

33. A right regular hexagonal prism in resting on HP on its base, its top view is a.

(A) square (B) hexagon

(C) rectangle (D) pentagon

(A) Parallel line method (B) Triangulation method

(C) Radial line method (D) Approximate method

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1

(C) 3:1 (D) 4:1

36. The ability of engine bearings to accommodates small variation in shaft is its:

(A) Embadability (B) Conformability

(C) Adaptability (D) Fatigue strength

(A) Diesel knock (B) Diesel lock

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Detonation

38. Which of the following are provided to the crank shaft to the balancing of main journals?

(A) crank arm (B) vibration damper

(C) crank weight (D) crank pulley

39. To improve the resistance to wear and corrosion, cylinder liners are plated with:

(A) platinum (B) vanadium

(C) zinc (D) chromium

(A) pour point (B) volatility

(C) viscosity (D) flash point

(A) Die casted (B) Hollow casted

(C) Sand casted (D) Centrifugal casted

A 7 55/2019

[P.T.O.]

42. The leaking of the combustion charges to the crank case is known as:

(A) blow-by (B) by pass

(C) dilution (D) scavenging

(A) Piston pin (B) Wrist pin

(C) Crank pin (D) Gudgeon pin

(A) H-head engine (B) L-head engine

(C) F-head engine (D) T-head engine

(A) fly wheel (B) crank shaft

(C) vibration damper (D) none of these

(A) To accommodate the expansion of piston when heated up

(B) For cooling purpose

(C) To reduce piston weight

(D) For the passage of oil

(A) vacuum gauge (B) dynamo meter

(C) taco meter (D) oscilloscope

(A) cold starting problems (B) More engine knock

(C) Less power (D) Both (B) and (C)

(A) advanced timing (B) pre heating of charge

(C) increase in compression ratio (D) cooling of the charge

55/2019 8 A

50. By providing a thick head gasket, the compression ratio of the engine will:

(A) increase (B) decrease

(C) double (D) remain constant

(A) Pressure (B) Pressure difference

(C) Velocity of flow (D) Density of fluid

(A) Inertia and gravity (B) Buoyancy and gravity

(C) Buoyancy and inertia (D) Pressure and gravity

(A) velocity of flow is non uniform

(B) flow is unsteady along the stream line

(C) fluid is viscous

(D) fluid is homogeneous and incompressible

(A) Triangular (B) Rectangular

(C) Trapezoidal (D) Square

(A) maximum (B) minimum

(C) medium (D) equal throughout

(A) It provides longer column due to low density

(B) It is clearly visible

(C) It has low vapour pressure

(D) It has low surface tension

(A) suction pressure should be low (B) delivery pressure should be low

(C) suction pressure should be high (D) delivery pressure should be high

A 9 55/2019

[P.T.O.]

58. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flow is called:

(A) Orifice (B) Notch

(C) Mouth piece (D) Weir

(A) Aerobic bacteria (B) Anaerobic bacteria

(C) Pathogenic bacteria (D) Non-pathogenic bacteria

60. The pressure conduit laid underground may not be subjected to:

(A) pressure due to external load

(B) internal pressure of water

(C) longitudinal temperature stress

(D) longitudinal stress due to unbalanced pressure

61. Water consumption per capita per day for hostel use in India as per Indian standard is:

(A) 40 litres (B) 80 litres

(C) 115 litres (D) 135 litres

(A) 1986 (B) 1996

(C) 2006 (D) 2016

(A) Chlorine (B) Alum

(C) Bleaching powder (D) Potassium permanganate

(A) bacteria (B) turbidity

(C) odour (D) acidity

65. The equipment used to checking the levels of the sewer inverts is :

(A) Dumpy level (B) Theodolite

(C) Boning rod (D) None of these

55/2019 10 A

66. The formula for finding volume of hollow cylinder is ———————.

(A) S h( R r )( R r ) (B) S r 2h

(C) 4 /3 S r3 (D) 2 / 3S r 3

67. Find the area of a circle which inscribe in a square of side 14 cm:

(A) 140 sq.cm (B) 154 sq.cm

(C) 160 sq.cm (D) 196 sq.cm

68. If volume of cylinder is 900 cu.cm with height of 20 cm, then diameter of cylinder is:

(A) 24 cm (B) 9.57 cm

(C) 7.57 cm (D) 12.23 cm

(A) 150 sq.cm (B) 152 sq.cm

(C) 154 sq.cm (D) 156 sq.cm

70. How many balls of 2 cm radius can be made by melting of a big ball of diameter 16 cm?

(A) 120 (B) 64

(C) 32 (D) None of the above

71. Find the angle of sector whose radius is 10 cm and area is 78.5 sq.cm:

(A) 60 degree (B) 75 degree

(C) 90 degree (D) 45 degree

72. One side of rectangular field is 4 m and its diagonal is 5 m. The area of the field is :

(A) 12 sq.m (B) 20 sq.m

73. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 1. The ratio of their edges is :

(A) 1:3 (B) 3:1

(C) 9:1 (D) 1:6

74. The sides of a triangle are 5 m, 12 m and 13 m. The area of the triangle is ———————.

(A) 30 sq.Cm (B) 45 sq.Cm

(C) 65 sq.Cm (D) none of the above

A 11 55/2019

[P.T.O.]

75. If cube of side “a” the total surface area is :

(A) a2 (B) 3a

(C) 6a 2 (D) 6a

(A) 500 sq.cm (B) 900 sq.cm

(C) 450 sq.cm (D) 600 sq.cm

77. When a sheet size 10 m u 5 m cut into small pieces of 25 cm u 20 cm, how many number of

pieces will be cut:

(A) 800 (B) 725

(C) 1000 (D) 825

(A) 2S r 2 (B) 1/ 2 S r 2

(C) 4S r 2 (D) 3S r2

79. A rectangle Carpet has an area of 120 sq.m and perimeter is 46 m, the length of its diagonal

is ———————.

(A) 15 m (B) 16 m

(C) 17 m (D) 20 m

80. If the ratio of the areas of the two squares is 16 : 1, the ratio of their perimeter:

(A) 1:3 (B) 3:1

(C) 4:1 (D) 1:6

(A) 180° (B) 360°

(C) 540° (D) 720°

(A) less than 1 (B) equal to 1

(C) greater than 1 (D) none of these

55/2019 12 A

83. The trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet:

(A) 841 u 1189 mm (B) 594 u 841 mm

(C) 420 u 594 mm (D) 297 u 420 mm

(A) Fiducial edge (B) Ebony edge

(C) Cutting edge (D) Straight edge

(A) By their width (B) By their height

(C) Size of paper (D) All of these

(A) Nonagon (B) Decagon

(C) Hexagon (D) Octagon

87. What is the name of the part of circle bounded by two radii and its arc?

(A) Circle (B) Sector

(C) Segment (D) Chord

88. The ratio between two adjacent side of the drawing sheet:

(A) 1: 5 (B) 1: 3

89. In which regular polygon sides are equal to radius of circumscribing circle:

(A) Octagon (B) Heptagon

(C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon

(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola

(C) Semicircle (D) Parabola

(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola

(C) Parabola (D) None of these

A 13 55/2019

[P.T.O.]

92. Bow compass is used for drawing:

(A) Big circle (B) Very small circle

(C) Parallel lines (D) Curves

93. The maximum number of tangents drawing to a circle from a point outside the circle:

(A) 2 (B) 4

(C) 8 (D) f

(A) greater than 90° (B) Less than 90°

(C) Equal to 180° (D) Equal to 360°

(A) n:1 (B) 1:n

(C) 1:1 (D) none of these

96. The following is not included in the title block of drawing sheet:

(A) Sheet number (B) Scale

(C) Date (D) Size of sheet

(A) Continuous thin (B) Continuous thick

(C) Chain thin line (D) None of these

(A) 30° (B) 45°

(C) 60° (D) 90°

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1

(C) 3:1 (D) 4:1

(A) 2B (B) 1B

(C) HB (D) H

————————

55/2019 14 A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 15 55/2019

[P.T.O.]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

55/2019 16 A

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Question Code 060/2019

Draftsman Gr III Civil

Medium of Question :English

Date of Test : 20/11/2019

QUESTION BOOKLET ALPHACODE A

Q No. Q. No.

1 A 51 B

2 D 52 C

3 B 53 D

4 D 54 D

5 B 55 A

6 C 56 B

7 D 57 D

8 B 58 B

9 B 59 A

10 D 60 C

11 C 61 A

12 C 62 B

13 B 63 B

14 B 64 C

15 A 65 C

16 A 66 A

17 A 67 D

18 B 68 A

19 A 69 A

20 C 70 C

21 C 71 A

22 C 72 B

23 D 73 C

24 D 74 D

25 C 75 A

26 B 76 A

27 B 77 C

28 D 78 A

29 D 79 A

30 A 80 C

31 A 81 D

32 A 82 D

33 B 83 B

34 A 84 A

35 D 85 C

36 D 86 A

37 A 87 C

38 B 88 A

39 C 89 D

40 A 90 A

41 D 91 D

42 A 92 D

43 B 93 C

44 A 94 D

45 B 95 A

46 B 96 C

47 C 97 B

48 C 98 D

49 A 99 B

50 C 100 A

60/2019

Question Booklet

Alpha Code A Question Booklet

Serial Number

Maximum Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four

versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz.A,B,C & D.

2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing

sheet of the question booklet.

3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position

A in the Examination Hall.

4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha

code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.

5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing

sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question

booklet with same alpha code.

6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should

not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.

7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check

that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order.

The question booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so, he/she

should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet

with same alpha code. This is most important.

8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for

rough work.

9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet

before marking your answers.

10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct

answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question

number using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.

11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be

deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.

12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and

without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure

that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and

that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.

13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any

kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.

■2

A

DO

NO

T

W

RI

TE

HE

RE

60/2019–A

A

001. CADD stands for _________

(A) Computer Aided Design and Drafting

(B) Computer Aided Drawing and Design

(C) Computer Aided Design and Demonstration

(D) None of these

002. The command that allows to draw lines at right angles only is

(A) Perpend (B) Right

(C) Set (D) Ortho

(A) Trim (B) Limit

(C) Exclude (D) Border

004. Which command is used to erase a part of an object between two points?

(A) Close (B) Finish

(C) Complete (D) Break

005. To erase a previously drawn line, which option in LINEcommand can be used?

(A) Erase (B) Undo

(C) Forget (D) Remove

006. The command used to join two non-parallel lines by drawing a beveled line

(A) Extend (B) Trim

(C) Chamfer (D) Rotate

(A) Snap ON/OFF (B) Grid ON/OFF

(C) Ortho ON/OFF (D) Polar tracking

(A) Exit (B) Quit

(C) Escape (D) None of these

3

60/2019–A

■

A

009. Letters and Numerals are designated by their _________

011. Which instrument is used to erase a particular spot of a line without erasing the

nearby line?

013. Single stroke lettering recommended by Bureau of Indian Standards for use in

engineering drawings is

014. The dimensioning to be used only where the possible accumulation of tolerance does

not endanger the functional requirements of the part

015. When the section plane is inclined to the axis of the cone and cuts all the generators,

the section obtained is

■4 60/2019–A

A

016. In first angle projection method the plane is placed

(C) Lower level to higher level (D) Higher level to lower level

020. The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of field is called

023. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as

5

60/2019–A

■

A

024. The optical square used for setting out _____ angle

026. A line joining the optical center of the object glass and the center of the eyepiece

is called

027. An axis about which the telescope can be rotated in a Horizontal plane is

called _____

028. The power of a telescope to form distinguishable image of objects separated by small

angular distance is called its

030. The projection of a traverse line on a line parallel to the meridian is known as _____of

the line

■6 60/2019–A

A

031. A staff reading taken on a Benchmark should be 2.627. Its reduced level is 150 m.

What should be the height of instrument?

034. Sandstone is

(A) 4% to 6% (B) 6% to 8%

037. The percentage of silica in good brick earth should vary from:

7

60/2019–A

■

A

039. An example of four-centered arch is:

045. For RCC construction the maximum size of course aggregates is limited to

046. The wooden queen post truss is suitable for span varying from

■8 60/2019–A

A

047. A full brick which is laid with its length perpendicular to the face of the wall is

(A) Facing (B) Queen closer

(C) Header (D) King closer

(A) Super structure (B) Plinth

(C) Sub structure (D) Cellar

(A) Group B (B) Group A

(C) Group C (D) Group D

(A) 1.00 (B) 0.80

(C) 1.30 (D) 1.80

051. For compacting the quantity of earthwork using prismoidal formula the number of

required sectional area

(A) Any number (B) Odd

(C) Four (D) Even

052. The value at the end of the utility period without being dismantled

(A) Book value (B) Scrap value

(C) Salvage value (D) Market value

053. All the work executed shall be measured and entered in a permanent record called

(A) Account Book (B) Field Book

(C) Personal Book (D) M Book

(A) Securing Money (B) Profit Money

(C) Capital Money (D) Earnest Money

9

60/2019–A

■

A

055. The estimated quantity of cement required in cement mortar (1:6) per cubic metre

will be

057. An intermediate floor between two floors above ground level accessible only from the

lower floor is

058. As per National Building Code, the minimum area for a kitchen in residential

building is

059. The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire period the crop is in the

field is known as

061. When the bed level of canal is higher than the highest floor level (HFL) of the drainage,

then the cross drainage work is said to be

10

■ 60/2019–A

A

062. The most efficient channel cross section is

(C) Rectangular

(D) Triangular

065. For a liquid, the variation in its volume with the variation of pressure is known as

(A) Path line (B) Stream line

(C) Steak line (D) Filament line

(A) Depth (B) Shape

(C) Length (D) Both A and B

068. The ratio of average load to the maximum demand of power during a given period is

(A) Load factor (B) Capacity factor

(C) Utilization factor (D) None of these

11

60/2019–A

■

A

069. Argillaceous rocks-example

(A) Slate (B) Brick

(C) Stone (D) None of these

(A) 6220-1980 (B) 5820-2015

(C) 6909-1990 (D) 6700-1980

071. The horizontal distance between the vertical joints in successive course

(A) Lap (B) Butt joint

(C) Dowel joint (D) Table joint

(A) Common footing (B) Strip footing

(C) Spread footing (D) Combined footing

073. Single flying shore should have a depth of not less than __________ of the clear

spans and width of not less than __________ of its length

(A) 1/8, 1/9 (B) 3/9, 3/8

(C) 1/3, 1/5 (D) 1/2, 1/10

074. Area of the horizontal circulation may constitute about __________ of the total plan

area of a residential building.

(A) 5% to 10% (B) 7% to 8%

(C) 2% to 20% (D) 20% to 25%

(A) 50 (B) 60

12

■ 60/2019–A

A

077. It is that part in excess of hygroscopic water which exists in the pore space of the soil

by molecular attraction

078. The hydraulic structure in which the drainage is taken over the irrigation canal is

known as

080. When the expenditure on a work exceeds or is likely to exceed the amount of

administrative sanction by more than 10%,

082. The joint formed by cutting the edge of both the members by an angle is

13

60/2019–A

■

A

084. Composition of brick earth alumina or clay

(A) 20-30% (B) 35-50%

(C) 20-25% (D) 1-2%

(A) Foundation (B) Basement

(C) Plinth (D) Base level

(A) Sofitt (B) Intrados

(C) Extrados (D) Crown

087. Mercantile (includes both retail and wholesale stores) _____ group

(A) Group-C (B) Group-H

(C) Group-F (D) Group-G

(A) Pitch (B) Rise

(C) Tread (D) All of the above

(A) Acceleration (B) Motion

(C) Inertia (D) Retardation

(A) 736 (B) 746

(C) 560 (D) 78

(A) Dynes (B) Newtons

(C) Watts (D) Joules

(A) Strain ratio (B) Bulk modulus

(C) Working stress (D) Poisson ratio

14

■ 60/2019–A

A

093. A pump can raise 100 litres of water through a height of 200 metre in one minute.

How much work it can do in one hour?

(A) 2000 (B) 14 × 103

(C) 12 × 105 (D) 20

(A) Static friction (B) Coefficient friction

(C) Limiting friction (D) Dynamic friction

(A) Micro (B) Mega

(C) Milli (D) Nano

(A) 0.3937 (B) 30.48

(C) 2.54 (D) 25.40

(A) Joule (B) Watt

(C) Newton (D) Volt

098. Calculate the side of the square which will have the same area as the rectangle

50 mm by 25 mm side.

(A) 42.36 (B) 38.57

(C) 32.10 (D) 35.36

099. A rectangular sheet metal measures 12 cm by 8 cm. Four quadrants of circle of radius

2 cm each are cut away at the corners. Find the area of the remaining portion.

(A) 52.34 (B) 83.44

(C) 64.45 (D) 8.53

100. Find the area of a right angular triangle whose base is 15 cm and hypothesis is

21 cm.

(C) 128.40 (D) 168.70

__________

15

60/2019–A

■

A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16

■ 60/2019–A

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 072/2019

ENGINEERING. / IRRIGATION

Medium of Question: ENGLISH

Date of Test: 17/12/2019

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 C B D D 51 C C B B

2 C D D B 52 A A A C

3 B A C D 53 D B A A

4 D A B A 54 A A A A

5 C C A C 55 D C B D

6 B D D B 56 B B B D

7 D D B D 57 B A C A

8 A C D D 58 C A A B

9 A B A C 59 A A A B

10 C A C A 60 B B D A

11 D D B B 61 A B D A

12 D B D A 62 C C A C

13 C D D C 63 B A B B

14 B A C A 64 A A B A

15 A C A A 65 A D A C

16 D B B B 66 A D A C

17 B D A C 67 B A C D

18 D D C B 68 B B B D

19 A C A C 69 A C X B

20 C A A C 70 A A A A

21 B B B B 71 D D D A

22 D A C D 72 A A A A

23 D C B C 73 B X C A

24 C A C B 74 C X B D

25 A A C D 75 X A A A

26 B B B A 76 C D A B

27 A C D A 77 A A A C

28 C B C C 78 D C A X

29 A C B D 79 A B D C

30 A C D D 80 X A A A

31 B B A C 81 X A B D

32 C D A B 82 A A C A

33 B C C A 83 D A X X

34 C B A C 84 A D C X

35 A A C A 85 C A A A

36 A A C D 86 B B D D

37 D C D A 87 A C A A

38 D B D D 88 A X X C

39 A A C B 89 C B C B

40 B C A B 90 C B X A

41 B C D C 91 B C B C

42 A D A A 92 B X A B

43 A D D B 93 C B C B

44 C C B A 94 X A B B

45 B A B C 95 B C B C

46 A D C B 96 A B B C

47 C A A A 97 C B C B

48 C D B A 98 B B C B

49 D B A A 99 B C B C

50 D B C B 100 B C B X

' X ' DENOTES DELETION.

72/2019

Maximum : 100 marks

Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. The part of a circle bounded by an arc and its chord is always called :

(A) Sector (B) Value of Pi

(C) Segment (D) Semi-circle

(A) Relative position to base line (B) Part to the whole

(C) Whole to the part (D) None of the above

(A) Horizontal angle (B) Level difference

(C) Vertical angle (D) Slope distance

(A) 0.082 (B) 1.195

(C) 0.315 (D) 0.815

(A) Ordinary (B) Deflection

(C) Repetition (D) Reiteration

(A) Less than zero (B) Zero

(C) Greater than zero (D) RL of the bench mark

7. The top view of an object comes above the front view always in :

(A) Second angle projection (B) First angle projection

(C) Fourth angle projection (D) Third angle projection

8. –––––––––– field book is generally used for large scale surveying with detailed dimension

work.

(A) Single line (B) Double line

(C) Topographical (D) Frame work and base line

A 3

[P.T.O.]

9. The error due to bad ranging is always :

(A) Cumulative (B) Instrumental

(C) Compensative (D) Natural

10. To make multiple copies of an objects in a regular interval, in terms of rows or columns or at

a uniform angular distance around a centre point, –––––––––– command is used in Auto

CAD.

(A) Mirror (B) Copy

(C) Array (D) Offset

11. The key board function key for ‘Online Help’ in Auto CAD is :

(A) F11 (B) F6

(C) F8 (D) F1

12. The surveying, which carried out for determining the area of unearthing relics of antiquities :

(A) Mine surveying (B) Geological surveying

(C) Topographical surveying (D) Archeological surveying

(A) A Circle (B) A Semi-circle

(C) An Ellipse (D) A Spheroid

(A) Undo (B) Redo

(C) Polar tracking ON/OFF (D) None of the above

15. The lead of the drawing pencil is sharpened to ‘chisel edged’ is used for :

(A) Drawing lines (B) Lettering

(C) Freehand sketching (D) All of the above

16. Files, edit, view etc. are easily available in Auto CAD from :

(A) Title Bar (B) Status Bars

(C) Standard Tool Bar (D) Menu Bar

17. When the locus of a point moving in a plane, in such a way that, the ratio of its distance from

the focus to the distance from the directrix is constant and greater than one is a :

(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola

(C) Parabola (D) Hypocycloids

72/2019 4 A

18. When a cone is cut off by a plane inclined to its base, but not passing through base, and the

portion obtained after removing the part containing the apex is :

(A) Tetrahedron (B) Frustum of cone

(C) Pentahedron (D) Truncated cone

19. The abbreviated character or short cut key ‘C’ is used as a command for –––––––––– in Auto

CAD.

(A) Drawing circle (B) Copying selected object

(C) Chamfering (D) None of these

(A) 90q, 60q, 45q, 30q (B) 90q

(C) Multiples of 15q (D) Any one

21. For creating ‘an Arc’ in Auto CAD, –––––––––– short cut key is used.

(A) AR (B) A

(C) AC (D) None of the above

(A) Distomats (B) Geodimater

(C) Tellurometer (D) Theodolite

23. –––––––––– command creates parallel lines, parallel curves, concentric circles etc, in a

specified distance at the time of Auto CAD drawing.

(A) Copy (B) Array

(C) Mirror (D) Offset

24. The type of light beam usually send out from a modern EDM instrument is :

(A) Gamma rays (B) X-rays

(C) Infrared rays (D) Normal light rays

25. If the length of a survey line is ‘l’ and the reduced bearing is T , then latitude of the line is :

A 5 72/2019

[P.T.O.]

26. The lines joining the points of equal dip are :

(A) Isogonics lines (B) Isoclinic lines

(C) Aclinic lines (D) Agonic lines

(A) Fiducial edge (B) Ebony edge

(C) Object vane (D) Tacheometric scale

(A) Trivet (B) Graduated plate

(C) Tribarch (D) Vernier plate

(A) 0.25 square metre (B) 0.50 square feet

(C) One square metre (D) None of the above

30. The correction due to curvature and refraction is ––––––––––, where D is the distance of

observation in kilometer.

(A) 0.0673 D 2 metres (B) 0.0112 D 2 metres

(C) 0.0785 D 2 metres (D) None of the above

31. The imaginary line joining the point of inter section of cross hair at diaphragm and the

optical centre of the object glass and its continuation is :

(A) Axis of the level tube (B) Line of collimation

(C) Axis of the telescope (D) None of the above

32. The Auto CAD command which is used to breaks a polyline into its individual segments :

(A) Extend (B) Extrude

(C) Explode (D) Break

(A) IS 456 : 1978 (B) IS 10711 : 2001

(C) IS 816 : 1969 (D) IS 692 : 1989

(A) Igneous rock (B) Argillaceous rock

(C) Siliceous rock (D) Calcareous rock

72/2019 6 A

35. Red colour of the tile is mainly due to :

(A) Iron oxide (B) Silica

(C) Alumina (D) None of the above

(A) 0.034 m3 (B) 3.4 m3

(C) 1.05 m3 (D) 0.020 m3

(A) As a matrix for concrete (B) Improving soil for agricultural

(C) For plastering (D) All of the above

(A) Bull nose brick (B) Cow nose brick

(C) Coping brick (D) All of the above

(A) White lead (B) Linseed oil

(C) Turpentine (D) None of the above

40. Stair turning through two right angle is known half-turn stair :

(A) Quarter turn stair (B) Half-turn stair

(C) Straight (D) Three quarter turn

41. This is the common type of sloping roof which slope in two direction :

(A) Lean to roof (B) Gable roof

(C) Hip roof (D) Mansard roof

42. A slab when supported on two sides or all four sides and if the length of the slab exceeds two

times its width, is named as :

(A) one way slab (B) two way slab

(C) cantilever slab (D) None of these

(A) P.C.C. (B) R.B.C.

(C) R.C.C. (D) R.M.C.

A 7 72/2019

[P.T.O.]

44. Which type of piles are commonly recommended for safe and economical foundation in black

cotton soil?

(A) sheet pile (B) bearing pile

45. A temporary rigid structure having platforms raised up as the building increases in height is

called :

(C) One and a half brick wall (D) Two brick wall

48. A projecting stone which usually provide to serve as support for roof truss, beam, weather

shed is known as :

72/2019 8 A

51. Usable floor area excluding staircase, lift, walls etc. are called :

(C) carpet area (D) covered area

52. The lower storey of the building below or partly below the ground level :

(A) Cellar floor (B) Ground floor

(C) Mezzanine floor (D) All of the above

(A) Plinth area estimate (B) Preliminary estimate

(C) Cube rate estimate (D) Detailed estimate

54. It is observed by the experiment and experience that the volume of dry material required for

one m3 of wet concrete are :

(A) 1.52 m3 – 1.54 m3 (B) 1.55 m3 – 1.57 m3

(C) 1.57 m3 – 1.59 m3 (D) 1.59 m3 – 1.62 m3

(A) a full dimensioned drawing to a scale

(B) detailed specification

(C) schedule of rates

(D) all of the above

(A) 84 m3 (B) 88 m3

(C) 92 m3 (D) 96 m3

57. It is the value at the end of utility period without being dismantled :

(A) market value (B) salvage value

(C) scrap value (D) book value

(A) 7850 quintal/m3 (B) 785 quintal/m3

(C) 78.5 quintal/m3 (D) None of the above

A 9 72/2019

[P.T.O.]

59. The total area which can be irrigated by a canal system is called :

(A) gross command area (B) cultural command area

(C) cultural cultivated area (D) cultural uncultivated area

60. The method of irrigation in which water is applied in the form of a spray as in ordination

rain :

(A) furrow irrigation (B) sprinkler irrigation

(C) subsurface irrigation (D) none of the above

(A) Distribution reservoir (B) Storage reservoir

(C) Flood control reservoir (D) Multipurpose reservoir

62. The difference of water level in the head race and in the tail race in a hydroelectric project is

known as :

(A) Net head (B) Operating head

(C) Gross head (D) None of these

63. It is provided to reduce the water hammer pressure formed in the penstock in hydroelectric

project :

(A) Turbine (B) Surge tank

(C) Fore bay (D) Intake

(A) Main canal (B) Branch canal

(C) Major distributary (D) Minor distributary

(A) Aqueduct (B) Super passage

(C) Canal syphon (D) Level crossing

66. Which dams are made of locally available soils and gravels?

(A) Earthen dam (B) Rock fill dam

(C) Gravity dam (D) Rigid dam

(A) Real fluid (B) Ideal fluid

(C) Newtonian fluid (D) Non newtonian fluid

72/2019 10 A

68. Which is the pressure measuring device in a pipe line?

(A) Passometer (B) Manometer

(C) Thermometer (D) All of these

(A) Granite (B) Lime

(C) Surkhi (D) Clay

(A) 8229–1986 (B) 820–1975

(C) 839–1988 (D) 8231–1983

71. The vertical joints separating the bricks in either length or cross direction :

(A) Bat (B) Closer

(C) King Closer (D) Perpends

(A) Post-hole type (B) Well

(C) Tube type (D) Pile

(A) Well foundation (B) Machine foundation

(C) Raft foundation (D) Pile foundation

(A) Cement plaster (B) Mud plaster

(C) Barium plaster (D) Surkhi plaster

3

75. Bar Quiteodorous products ventilation air M /h/person :

(A) 35 (B) 45

(C) 50 (D) 25

76. Projection : in the form of balconies, veranda, etc are provided on –––––––––– vasuthu.

(A) All sides (B) East sides

(C) East and west sides (D) North sides

A 11 72/2019

[P.T.O.]

77. Group C –––––––––– buildings.

(A) Institutional building (B) Private building

(C) Flat building (D) All of these

is included in the estimated.

(A) 2% to 3% (B) 4% to 5%

(C) 6% to 8% (D) 1 12 % to 2%

(A) sq.m. (B) cu.m.

(C) quintal (D) kg

80. ‘C’ Type Area of plot 201 sq.m. to 1000 sq.m. permissible covered area :

(A) 50% of the site area (B) 20% of the site area

(C) 30% of the site area (D) 40% of the site area

(A) Rock dam (B) Earth dam

(C) Brick dam (D) All of these

82. Non-recording rain gauge is more common in India and the one that is most used in India is

called the –––––––––– gauge.

(A) Simon’s (B) Rain gauge

(C) Meter gauge (D) All of these

––––––––––% of estimate cost.

(A) 45% to 20% (B) 5% to 8%

(C) 10% to 20% (D) 3% to 5%

(A) Pitch (B) Rise

(C) Tread (D) All of above

(A) Curved roof (B) Flat roof

(C) Pitched roof (D) Lean-to-roof

72/2019 12 A

86. Series of step between landing :

(A) Rise (B) Flight

(C) Nosing (D) Tread

(A) 1500 u 1000 u 25 (B) 1000 u 700 u 25

(C) 700 u 500 u 15 (D) 500 u 350 u 10

(A) Bull’s eye arch (B) Two centered arch

(C) Three centered arch (D) Four centered arch

(A) Watt (B) Joule

(C) Dyne (D) Pound

90. Area of an Isosceles triangle is 1000 mm2 Base = 100 mm, then height of the triangle is :

(A) 10 mm (B) 15 mm

(C) 20 mm (D) 25 mm

91. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm. Find its area :

(A) 6.7 cm2 (B) 6 cm2

(C) 8 cm2 (D) 7.8 cm2

d1d2

(A) d1 d2 (B)

2

(C) 2 d1 d2 (D) d1 + d2

S D2

(A) S D2 (B)

2

S D2

(C) (D) (S D )2

4

A 13 72/2019

[P.T.O.]

94. A bucket of base diameter 95 cm rim diameter 120 cm and height 100 cm is full of sand. Find

the volume of sand :

(A) 756600 cm3 (B) 956600 cm3

(C) 553210 cm3 (D) 873214 cm3

95. A car is moving with a velocity of 50 km/hr, is brought to rest in 45 secs. Find out the

retardation :

(A) 3 m sec 2 (B) 0.3 m sec 2

96. When a body offers resistance to deformation when acted by external load is called :

(A) Stress (B) Strain

(C) Poisson’s ratio (D) None of these

97. A load of 1000 kg is lifted by a simple machine having a velocity ratio 5. The mechanical

advantage is –––––––––– if the effort applied is 250 kg.

(A) 20 (B) 4/5

(C) 4 (D) 5/4

98. A man lifted a luggage of 25 kg from the ground and put it on his head 1.5 m above the

ground. What will be the work done?

(A) 37.5 J (B) 367.5 J

(C) 3.82 J (D) None of these

99. A block weighs 100 kg. If the co-efficient of friction between it and ground is 0.3. Find the

force required to move the block :

(A) 30 N (B) 294 N

(C) 98 N (D) 29.4 N

100. A load of 3 kN is applied at the free end of a cantilever beam of length 5 m. Then the bending

momentum at the free end will be :

(A) –3 kNm (B) 0

(C) 15 kNm (D) 1.5 kNm

————————

72/2019 14 A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 15 72/2019

[P.T.O.]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

72/2019 16 A

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 137/2014

Overseer Gr III/Work Superintendent Gr II - Kerala Land Development Corporation

Ltd

Medium of Question: English

Q Date of Test: 22.08.2014 Q

ALPHACODE ALPHACODE

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 B A A D 51 B A B C

2 x C B A 52 D D A D

3 A A C B 53 x A C C

4 D x x C 54 D D C B

5 C D B B 55 C B C D

6 A C C A 56 A D A A

7 C B D C 57 B A x D

8 B A C D 58 D D B B

9 D C A C 59 B C C D

10 B B D B 60 C B A A

11 A D B A 61 A C B D

12 C A x D 62 D D D C

13 A B A A 63 A C x D

14 x C D B 64 D B D C

15 D B C C 65 B D C A

16 C A A B 66 D A A D

17 B C C A 67 A D B B

18 A D B C 68 D B D D

19 C C D A 69 C D B A

20 B B B D 70 B A C B

21 D A A B 71 C D A A

22 A D C A 72 D C D B

23 B A A C 73 C D A C

24 C B x C 74 B C D x

25 B C D C 75 D A B B

26 A B C A 76 A D D C

27 C A B x 77 D B A D

28 D C A B 78 B D D C

29 C A C C 79 D A C A

30 B D B A 80 A B B D

31 A B D B 81 D A C B

32 D A A D 82 C B D x

33 A C B x 83 D C C A

34 B C C D 84 C x B D

35 C C B C 85 A B D C

36 B A A A 86 D C A A

37 A x C B 87 B D D C

38 C B D D 88 D C B B

39 A C C B 89 A A D D

40 D A B C 90 B D A B

41 B B A A 91 A B D A

42 A D D D 92 B x C C

43 C x A A 93 C A D A

44 C D B D 94 x D C x

45 C C C B 95 B C A D

46 A A B D 96 C A D C

47 x B A A 97 D C B B

48 B D C D 98 C B D A

49 C B A C 99 A D A C

50 A C D B 100 D B B B

X- DENOTES DELETION

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 158/2016

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test: 23.11.2016

QUESTION BOOKLET QUESTION BOOKLET

Q No. Q No.

A B C D A B C D

1 A C D B 51 A C C C

2 X B A B 52 B A D D

3 D X D A 53 B D A A

4 D C C B 54 C C D X

5 D B B B 55 D B C D

6 A C A C 56 B C B D

7 C B B D 57 A A A D

8 B A D B 58 A B D A

9 A D B A 59 D A A C

10 C B B A 60 C B B B

11 B D D D 61 D A D A

12 A A B C 62 D D A C

13 D D D D 63 D C B B

14 D D D D 64 A D C A

15 B C B D 65 A C B D

16 C B A A 66 B A B D

17 C D B A 67 C C C B

18 B A B B 68 A D D C

19 X D A C 69 D A A C

20 C C B A 70 C D X B

21 B B B D 71 B C D X

22 C A C C 72 C B D C

23 B B D B 73 A A D B

24 A D B C 74 B D A C

25 D B A A 75 A A C B

26 B B A B 76 B B B A

27 D D D A 77 A D A D

28 A B C B 78 D A C B

29 D D D A 79 C B B D

30 D D D D 80 D C A A

31 C B D C 81 C B D D

32 B A A D 82 A B D D

33 D B A C 83 C C B C

34 A B B A 84 D D C B

35 D A C C 85 A A C D

36 C B A D 86 D X B A

37 B B D A 87 C D X D

38 A C C D 88 B D C C

39 B D B C 89 A D B B

40 D B C B 90 D A C A

41 B A A A 91 A C B B

42 B A B D 92 B B A D

43 D D A A 93 D A D B

44 B C B B 94 A C B B

45 D D A D 95 B B D D

46 D D D A 96 C A A B

47 B D C B 97 B D D D

48 A A D C 98 B D D D

49 B A C B 99 C B C B

50 B B A B 100 D C B A

8l, lte le@l itifi€re@ lei$en

81 th6 t p otbmk of a csn.l ad the eainuD Fater l*l i. ;

(A) lem G) alaux

(C) rre hdd (D) did.trdelth

82.

81. Conductrvrtt B ilElly d€p"trdr on

(A) total di..olv.d sli& (B) eud.

volatil6 oBanic

83 of rliadolveil oxyslt d6irablo h srv wdxer bodv is los. than :

(c) 3 Esn (D) 5 er.4

84.

8a. Tn€ pip€ caDyins s.s.sE is called :

(A) *wtg€

86.

85. Plastioily ilder i6 :

linii - plastia @) li;it .lnnhgelihit

pL.tic

(C) ut r ontent -pr,sti.liEii (D) Uquid lifit - €hrinhs€ rimit

8& Tle

86 r4iio ol unmitsd 6npr6..ion sbenstn ir nstual st.to io that h the renould''I state

(O .etuiiiviiy (D) ihi*otrop8

87

t7. lAe difi.rac betwen the tobr lircs lt i 4oint ud rLe poF wlter Dlsw at !!ri Poirt

(C) trcuFal.tes (D) .i€ar.i.a

. 88.

8& rtlinins tall ooe

WIen a toward. ihe btck6l vrEd th€ ru! tend' to coEpEs th€ sil

Eon@nlalb,tduot:

(.{) At.t.tpE..w G) Actit €arth pd.rF

(C) PasiFearth pftse (D) Elbctivs presd

4u20t4

|Pr.ol

3r,

89.

The byd.onete! .nolysis is based on the princiDle of:

(A) ldq

stokes G) Drrcy's low

(C) Monnn:gola{ (D) Newton'F law

{0.

90. TLe mdidB w8t€. onbtri ol t1'. 30il ,t which no ndher ednction

(c) Wdter linit (D) Shndlosc liftit

41, The

91 dilleencc batwoe. lldstid liiit and chrinlsse linn i3 dalled i

.

(A) flu'diry indox

(C) llasiicity index

92.

(B) o arad acl,B a quicL filtcr

' (C) a@ndilion when oherion dedoa.es

(D) , condirion in which oh€5ionlcs. .oil l@s ib Bheaf stFtrsth due 1o lhe upw.rd

fl.s ofFater

43. Consolidaiion

93. b . ph@6s iD vlrich :

(O abnohul shlinking of soil iD) tiltinR abd failft oldoil

,lt. lhe hiniim d€plh of e4loration i!

94. thc q6c ol grav'ty drm i. :

(A) baseidthol.lad (B) t*ir tle bae width

(C) fwi@ tlD heislt of ile .lan

il5.

95.

Sanples fmn au8Er boring are :

{C) reprcsniatiE6anplo

46,

96. tan€ slEar t 6t id u&d foi me*ui.g:

(B) slear alronsth olohesive $il

(C) beuins capacity ol soil

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97.

47. ']1E matlrirl that i. Ft&iled by a Ftajrins ltluctw is sen lally dsled 3. I

O) surch.lgs G) @ildop.

(c) b.cr6n (D) ,rltl*

98.

a8. Sh.Uos boMg is o! whose d€pth iE :

(A, width

oqual E (B) los th.lsidln

(C) !|GtLuf,idah (D) !@ortt@

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99 Yellow (.dber) 6lou of t olouEd Ucht tE6c si3na:I in a junctiotr:ndiclt . :

.

(A) so (B) 6toD..

(c) he ady to ao . (D) cl€a.m tine

100.

60, The 6!.t railwqr lrain in lndi, ran b€twe! :

G) c'r.{tt .nd D.lhi (D) Ildrlh .nd Ddu

(A)rzb (B) 10n

G) r3b (D) 15n

.

6r. The b.xibuE

'lesF.

ofcl]m ir ! bead 3a!s. ii:

. (A) to' (B) lz'

(o rf (D) rf

68. Th. pnncipls mlsDtents ol .rsill.@ous rci.B ia :

(c) dly (D) 4d

(c) burhd (D) frls

(A) hl€ldin! (B) bulrint

(c) &g!€s.tio @) thiiing

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