Physical Science Quipper Test Bank

The Formation of the Light Elements in the Big Bang Theory
NUCLEOSYNTHESIS: THE BEGINNING OF ELEMENTS

QUESTION 1
Which of the following refers to the process of producing the light elements such as hydrogen and
helium?
SINGLE ANSWER
supernova nucleosynthesis
big bang nucleosynthesis
cosmic ray spallation
rp-process
EXPLANATION
Big bang nucleosynthesis is the process of producing the light elements during the big bang
expansion.
QUESTION 2
−−−−−−−−−−−−_ are the remains of energy created after the Big Bang expansion.
SINGLE ANSWER
gravitational wave
blackbody radiation
cosmic microwave background radiation
magnetic field
EXPLANATION
Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) are the remains of energy created after the
big bang expansion.
QUESTION 3
Who was the scientist who used the redshift of light from galaxies to calculate their velocities
and distances from the Earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
Robert Wilson
Edwin Hubble
Arno Penzias
Vesto Slipher
EXPLANATION
In 1929, Edwin Hubble used the redshift of light from galaxies to calculate their velocities and
distances from the Earth. He discovered that the galaxies were moving away from the Earth and
from each other.
QUESTION 4
According to the big bang theory, how much time was needed to produce the light elements
hydrogen and helium?
SINGLE ANSWER
3 minutes
5 hours
7 million years
13.8 billion years
EXPLANATION
Few seconds after the big bang, the universe was filled with protons, neutrons, electrons, neutrinos,
and positrons. After the first three minutes, the universe cooled down to a point where atomic nuclei
form.
QUESTION 5
What happens when something redshifts?
SINGLE ANSWER
Its wavelength increases.
Its energy increases.
Its frequency increases.
Its size increases.
EXPLANATION
Red has the longest wavelength in the visible region, so the shift to longer wavelengths is called
redshift.
QUESTION 6
What does the increase in wavelength of light from a galaxy mean?
SINGLE ANSWER
The galaxy is moving away from the Earth, and the universe is expanding.
The galaxy is moving towards the Earth, and the universe is expanding.
The galaxy is moving towards the Earth, and the universe is being compressed.
The galaxy is moving away from the Earth, and the universe is being compressed.
EXPLANATION
As the light from the galaxies gets nearer to the Earth, the distance between the Earth and the
galaxy increases, causing the wavelength of light to get longer.
QUESTION 7
Sequence the following products of big bang nucleosynthesis from lowest to highest by mass.
CORRECT ORDER
hydrogen
deuterium
helium
lithium
EXPLANATION
Few seconds after the big bang expansion, the universe was filled with protons or hydrogen nuclei.
After the first three minutes, the universe cooled down to a point where atomic nuclei form. Protons
and neutrons combined to form deuterium nuclei. Two deuterium nuclei then formed helium. Helium
then combined to other nuclei to form heavier nuclei such as lithium-7 and beryllium-7.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following events during the big bang expansion led to the nucleosynthesis of helium-3
and hydrogen?
SINGLE ANSWER
The temperature of the universe cooled down below 10 K. 10
The temperature of the universe increased above 10 K.

10
The nucleosynthesis of helium-4 halted.

Beryllium-7 spontaneously decayed.
EXPLANATION
For the first three minutes, the temperature of the universe cooled down below 10 K. A substantial
10
amount of neutrons was converted into helium-4, before their decay. Helium then combined to other
nuclei to form heavier ones such as lithium-7 and beryllium-7.
QUESTION 9
Refer to the figure below.
Which of the following is the by-product of the nucleosynthesis of helium-4 from a deuterium and
tritium?
SINGLE ANSWER
proton
gamma radiation
helium-3
neutron
EXPLANATION
Nucleosynthesis of helium-4 from deuterium and tritium releases a neutron particle.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the other starting material for the nucleosynthesis of beryllium-7 from
helium-4?
SINGLE ANSWER
proton
gamma radiation
helium-3
neutron
EXPLANATION
The nucleosynthesis of beryllium-7 from helium-4 and helium-3 releases a photon.
The Formation of Heavier Elements during Star Formation and Evolution

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes stellar nucleosynthesis?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the process by which elements are formed within stars.
It is the formation of elements during a supernova explosion.
It is the process by which elements are produced in gas clouds.
It is the formation of light elements such as hydrogen and helium.
EXPLANATION
Stellar nucleosynthesis is the process by which elements are formed within stars. The abundances
of these elements change as the stars evolve.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a stellar core formed when the fragments of a collapsed molecular cloud
contract?
SINGLE ANSWER
protostar
supernova
red giant
main sequence star
EXPLANATION
The star formation theory describes the protostar as a stellar core formed when the fragments of a
collapsed molecular cloud contract.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a star that has used up its hydrogen supply in the core and switched into
the thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen in the shell surrounding the core?
SINGLE ANSWER
protostar
supernova
red giant
main sequence star
EXPLANATION
A red giant is a star that has used up its hydrogen supply in the core and switched into the
thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen in the shell surrounding the core. It is a star that has entered the
final phase of its lifetime.
QUESTION 4
The formation of a star starts with the dense regions of molecular clouds.
What force pulls matter together to form these regions?

SINGLE ANSWER
magnetic force
nuclear force
electromagnetic force
gravitational force
EXPLANATION
Gravitational forces cause the fragments of a collapsed molecular cloud to contract and form the
stellar core.
QUESTION 5
What happens when most of the hydrogen in the core is fused into helium in the stellar core?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Hydrogen fusion stops, and the pressure in the core decreases.
Hydrogen fusion continues, and the pressure in the core increases.
Gravity squeezes the star until helium and hydrogen burning occur.
Nuclear energy increases until carbon and helium burning occur.
EXPLANATION
In the core of a main sequence star, hydrogen is fused into helium via the proton-proton chain.
When most of the hydrogen in the core is fused into helium, fusion stops, and the pressure in the
core decreases. Gravity squeezes the star to a point that helium and hydrogen burning occur.
QUESTION 6
Arrange the following stages of stellar evolution of a low-mass star.
CORRECT ORDER
protostar
main sequence star
red giant
white dwarf
EXPLANATION
As the molecular cloud collapses, the fragments contract to form a stellar core called protostar. The
protostar evolves into a main sequence star which then becomes a red giant. When the star’s fuel is
depleted, the outer material of the star is blown off into space, and the star becomes a white dwarf.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the major factor predicting the fate of a star?
SINGLE ANSWER
strength of gravitational force
mass of the star
amount of iron produced
temperature of the star
EXPLANATION
The fate of the star depends primarily on its mass. Most low-mass stars become white dwarf while
massive stars explode into a supernova.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following elements are not formed during stellar evolution?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
carbon
oxygen
gold
cadmium
EXPLANATION
Elements lighter than and including iron can be produced in a massive star, but no elements heavier
than iron such as gold and cadmium are produced.
QUESTION 9
When does a massive star enter the stage of becoming a supernova?
SINGLE ANSWER
when the silicon fusion stops
when the star has used up all its hydrogen fuel
when the chromium fusion stops
when the star has burned all its oxygen
EXPLANATION
When silicon fusion stops, the stellar core has used up all its fuel. When this happens, gravity
squeezes the core until the star explodes and becomes a supernova.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following are true about the formation of elements lighter than iron in the core of the
stars?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
When the elements combine, they release energy which can fuel the nuclear fusion reactions in the
star.
When the elements combine, they produce a nucleus with a mass lower than the sum of their
masses.
When there is an input of energy from nuclear fission reactions in the star, the elements are formed.
When the elements combine, they produce a nucleus with a mass greater than the sum of their
masses.
EXPLANATION
Elements lighter than iron can be fused because when two of these elements combine, they produce
a nucleus with a mass lower than the sum of the masses of the starting materials. The missing mass
is released as energy.
The Nuclear Fusion Reactions in Stars

QUESTION 1
It is a type of reaction that produces heavier elements from lighter ones.
SINGLE ANSWER
nuclear fusion
nuclear fission
combustion
decomposition reaction
EXPLANATION
Nuclear fusion is a reaction that fuses lighter elements to form heavier ones.
QUESTION 2
It is the lightest element and the starting point of nuclear fusion reactions in stars.
SINGLE ANSWER
hydrogen
helium
carbon
nitrogen
EXPLANATION
Hydrogen is the lightest element and the most abundant in space. Thus, the formation of heavier
elements starts with this element.
QUESTION 3
It is the process that uses kinetic energy of protons to form helium-4 from hydrogen.
SINGLE ANSWER
proton-proton chain
CNO cycle
nuclear fission
beta decay
EXPLANATION
The proton-proton chain is a series of thermonuclear reactions that converts hydrogen to helium. It
happens due to the large kinetic energies of the protons. If the kinetic energies of the protons are
high enough to overcome their electrostatic repulsion, then proton-proton chain proceeds.
QUESTION 4
What are the conditions necessary for a nuclear fusion to occur?
SINGLE ANSWER
high temperature, high pressure
high temperature, low pressure
low temperature, high pressure
low temperature, low pressure
EXPLANATION
Nuclear fusion requires very high temperature and pressure to proceed.
QUESTION 5
What characteristic of the stars determines whether the energy comes from the proton-proton fusion
or carbon-nitrogen-oxygen cycle?
SINGLE ANSWER
mass
distance from the earth
shape
distance from another star
EXPLANATION
Depending on the mass of the stars, the energy may come from proton-proton fusion and carbon-
nitrogen-oxygen cycle.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following nuclei forms when two proton pair breaks, and a proton-neutron pair forms?
SINGLE ANSWER
deuterium
helium-4
tritium
helium-3
EXPLANATION
Deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen, is formed when a proton and a neutron fuse.
QUESTION 7
What type of reaction occurs in more massive and hotter stars than the sun?
SINGLE ANSWER
carbon-nitrogen-oxygen cycle
proton-proton fusion
hydrogen-helium cycle
proton-neutron fusion
EXPLANATION
For more massive and hotter stars than the sun, the carbon-nitrogen-oxygen cycle is more
favorable.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following nuclei initiates the sequence of the CNO cycle?
SINGLE ANSWER
carbon-12
carbon-13
nitrogen-15
oxygen-15
EXPLANATION
Carbon-12 initiates the sequence of reactions in the CNO cycle.
QUESTION 9
Why is carbon-12 considered a catalyst of the carbon-nitrogen-oxygen cycle?
SINGLE ANSWER
because it is regenerated in the final step
because it is heavier than hydrogen and helium
because it is not involved in the cycle
because it becomes an unstable nitrogen-13 by releasing a gamma ray
EXPLANATION
The CNO cycle is a catalytic process. Carbon-12 acts a catalyst for the cycle. It is used in the initial
reaction and is regenerated in the final one.
QUESTION 10
How many helium nuclei is/are produced after the CNO cycle?
SINGLE ANSWER
1
2
3
4
EXPLANATION
Only one alpha particle or a nucleus of helium is given off at the end of the CNO cycle.
How Elements Heavier than Iron are Formed

QUESTION 1
−−−−−−−−−−−−_ is the process by which nuclei are synthesized from pre-existing ones.
EXACT VALUE
nucleosynthesis
EXPLANATION
The term nucleosynthesis means the formation of a nucleus, characterized by a specific number of
protons and neutrons.
QUESTION 2
Neutron capture process is often accompanied by −−−−_ decay.
SINGLE ANSWER
0−1β−10β
11p11p
01β10β
42He24He
EXPLANATION
In neutron capture, a neutron is added to a seed nucleus. It is often accompanied
by 0−1β−10β decay, which increases the number of protons of the nucleus by 1.
QUESTION 3
Slow neutron capture process is also called −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
s-process
n-process
r-process
p-process
EXPLANATION
The s in s-process stands for slow. It is termed slow because the rate of neutron capture is slow
compared to the rate of 0−1β−10β decay.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following processes cannotsynthesize nuclei heavier than 5626Fe2656Fe?
SINGLE ANSWER
fusion with 42He24He
rapid neutron capture
slow neutron capture
proton capture
EXPLANATION
Fusion reactions with 42He24He can form nuclei up to 5628Ni2856Ni only, but nickel-56 is
radioactive and decomposes to 5626Fe2656Fe.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are requirements for rapid neutron capture process?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
high proton density
high neutron density
extremely high temperature
high alpha particles density
EXPLANATION
Rapid neutron capture process requires high temperatures so that neutron bombardment can
happen even before beta-minus decay happens.
The high neutron density is required so that there is an abundant supply of neutron for the process
to occur.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are the net effects of a proton capture?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
increase in atomic number
increase in mass number
decrease in number of neutron
decrease in atomic number
EXPLANATION
Proton capture means addition of a proton, 11p11p to the nucleus. This process adds 1 to the proton
count, hence the atomic number increases. Since a proton is added, the mass number also
increases.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are the net effects of a neutron capture?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
decrease in atomic number
decrease in the number of protons
increase in the number of neutron
increase in mass number
EXPLANATION
Neutron capture means addition of a neutron, 10n01n to the nucleus. This process adds 1 to the
neutron count while keeping the proton count unchanged. Since neutron is added, the mass number
also increases.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is most likely a product of6028Ni2860Ni undergoing two consecutive neutron
captures which are immediately followed by a 0−1β−10β decay?
SINGLE ANSWER
6130Zn3061Zn
6230Zn3062Zn
6129Cu2961Cu
6229Cu2962Cu
EXPLANATION
Nickel-60 decays into copper-62.
6028Ni+210n→6229Cu+0−1β
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is most qualified to be called an r-process?
SINGLE ANSWER
6028Ni+210n→6229Cu+0−1β2860Ni+201n→2962Cu+−10β
5628Ni+810n→6429Cu+0−1β2856Ni+801n→2964Cu+−10β
4824Cr+42He→5226Cu2448Cr+24He→2652Cu
6229Cu+11p→6330Zn2962Cu+11p→3063Zn
EXPLANATION
The r-process is characterized by the addition of a large number of neutrons before 0−1β−10β decay
happens.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the most likely the seed nucleus of 9442Mo4294Mo that underwent two
p-processes and an s-process?
SINGLE ANSWER
9540Zr4095Zr
9439Y3994Y
10045Rh45100Rh
9944Ru4499Ru
EXPLANATION
9439Y3994Y is the seed nucleus of 9442Mo4294Mo that underwent two p-processes and an s-
process.
9439Y+211p+10n→9742Mo+0−1β3994Y+211p+01n→4297Mo+−10β
The Ideas of the Ancient Greeks on the Atom

THE ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND THE CHEMICAL ELEMENTS
QUESTION 1
Who among the following scholars proposed that matter is composed of tiny, unbreakable particles?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Leuccipus
Democritus
Aristotle
Empedocles
EXPLANATION
Democritus and Leucippus were philosophers who proposed the idea of the atom.
QUESTION 2
In what ancient nation did Democritus and Leuccipus come from?
SINGLE ANSWER
Greece
Persia
Dacia
Russian Empire
EXPLANATION
They came from different provinces of Greece.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the Greek word that means uncuttable?
SINGLE ANSWER
atomos
antion
atom
actonos
EXPLANATION
Matter is made up of atoms which came from the Greek word atomos meaning uncuttable.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not made up of atoms?
SINGLE ANSWER
heat
water
stone
smoke
EXPLANATION
Heat is not a matter because it has no mass and does not occupy space.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following early ideas of the atom tells you that an atom has no parts?
SINGLE ANSWER
Atoms are homogeneous in nature.
Atoms are made of the same material but have different shapes and sizes.
Atoms make up the universe as they are continuously moving in a void that surrounds them.
Atoms are completely solid.
EXPLANATION
Atoms are homogeneous in nature and has no internal parts.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following early ideas of the atom explains that the atoms of water are different from the
atoms of a stone?
SINGLE ANSWER
Atoms are made of the same material but have different shapes and sizes.
Atoms cannot be divided further.
Atoms are small particles.
Atoms continuously moving in a void that surrounds them.
EXPLANATION
The shapes and sizes of the atoms determine the property of a material.
QUESTION 7
Onyok found a piece of a shell along the seashore. He smashed it with a rock until it turned into fine
powder.
What idea of the atom can you relate from this scenario?
SINGLE ANSWER
Atoms are made of the same material but different shapes and sizes.
Atoms can combine with other atoms.
Atoms are unlimited and continuously in motion.
EXPLANATION
According to Leucippus and Democritus, there is a limit to which a material can be broken down.
Matter is made up of atoms which can no longer be divided further.
QUESTION 8
Luningning visited the park. She saw lots of things, from people, pets, benches, trees, up to different
cars. All of these are made up of atoms.
What early notion of the atom would relate to these things?
SINGLE ANSWER
Atoms can combine with other atoms to form different materials.
Atoms are small and compact particles.
Atoms are unlimited and continuously in motion.
EXPLANATION
Atoms combine with each other into clusters producing different materials.
QUESTION 9
Luna dissolves a spoonful of sugar in a glass of water. She tastes the mixture, and it tastes sweet.
Although she cannot see the sugar, she knows that it is present in the mixture.
What early idea of the atom would relate to this example?
SINGLE ANSWER
Atoms are small and cannot be seen with the naked eye.
Atoms can combine with other atoms.
Atoms are made of the same material but different shapes and sizes.
EXPLANATION
Atoms are very small that they cannot be seen by the naked eye. Just like in the mixture, sugar
can only be tasted but cannot be seen since it is totally dissolved in water.
QUESTION 10
Why did Aristotle strongly oppose the concept of atoms?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
He thought that molecules, not atoms, are the smallest particles.
He believed that the gods can divide substances smaller than atoms.
He thought that believing in atoms would mean putting restriction on the gods.
He believed that atoms exist, but they do not comprise matter.
EXPLANATION
Aristotle did not believe that matter is a collection of atoms. Instead, he believed that everything in
the universe is made up of the four elements, air, fire, water, and earth. He stated that believing in
atoms would mean putting restriction on the gods, who have the power to divide elements smaller
than the atom.
The Discovery of the Structure of the Atom and its Subatomic Particles
QUESTION 1
It is the basic unit of an element.
SINGLE ANSWER
atom
matter
compound
energy
EXPLANATION
Atoms are the basic unit of elements. Elements are substances that consist of only one type atom.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are particles that make up an atom?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
proton
neutron
electron
photon
EXPLANATION
The atom consists of the protons, electrons, and neutrons. The protons and neutrons are in the
nucleus while the electrons are in the space surrounding the nucleus.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are particles that make up an atom?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
proton
neutron
electron
photon
EXPLANATION
The atom consists of the protons, electrons, and neutrons. The protons and neutrons are in the
nucleus while the electrons are in the space surrounding the nucleus.
QUESTION 3
He proposed that the electrons orbit around the nucleus in set energy levels.
SINGLE ANSWER
Niels Bohr
John Dalton
Joseph John Thomson
Ernest Rutherford
EXPLANATION
Danish physicist Niels Bohr proposed that electrons orbit around the nucleus in set energy levels.
QUESTION 4
Why is Ernest Rutherford's model called the planetary model?
SINGLE ANSWER
The movement of the subatomic particles follows the movement of the planets.
The nucleus emits energy that mimics the emission of solar energy from the Sun.
It is not related to Rutherford's model.
The electrostatic interaction of electrons and nucleus mimics the gravitational force of attraction
between planets and the sun.
EXPLANATION
The nucleus is surrounded by the electrons. The electrostatic attraction between electrons and
nucleus mimics the gravitational force of attraction between planets and the sun.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes John Dalton's model?
SINGLE ANSWER
He described the atom as spherical, which cannot be broken down into smaller parts.
He described the atom as spherical, which contain different subatomic particles.
He described the atom as small, dense, and has a positively charged core called nucleus.
He described that the atom consists of negatively charged particles evenly spread throughout a
positively charged material.
EXPLANATION
John Dalton's model states that all matter are composed of atoms that are spherical. The atoms
cannot be broken down into smaller fragments.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are not true about Bohr’s model?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
He proposed that the electrons orbit around the nucleus set energy levels.
He proposed that an electron absorbs energy if it moves from lower to higher energy level, and it
emits energy if it returns to the lower energy level.
He proposed that an electron absorbs energy if it moves from higher to lower energy level, and it
emits energy if it returns to the higher energy level.
He proposed that the nucleus orbit around the electrons in set energy levels.
EXPLANATION
Niels Bohr proposed that the electrons orbit around the nucleus in set energy levels. An electron
absorbs energy if it moves from lower to higher energy level, and it emits energy if it returns to the
lower energy level.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are true about the neutrons?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The neutron is found on the space surrounding the nucleus.
The neutron is found together with the protons inside the nucleus.
The neutron is a positively charged particle.
The neutron was proven to exist by James Chadwick.
EXPLANATION
James Chadwick proved the existence of the neutron, which is also situated in the nucleus together
with proton. It has the same mass as the protons, but it has no electric charge.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true about the quantum mechanical model?
SINGLE ANSWER
This model states that the nucleus is surrounded by orbitals and the only probable location of the
electrons is determined.
This model states that the nucleus is surrounded by orbits and the only probable location of the
electrons is determined.
This model states that the nucleus is surrounded by orbitals and the exact location of the electrons is
determined.
This model states that the nucleus is surrounded by orbits and the exact location of the electrons is
determined.
EXPLANATION
The quantum mechanical model states that a nucleus is surrounded by a cloud of electrons called
orbitals. It explains that it is impossible to determine the exact location of the electron at a given
time, but one can find its probable location.
QUESTION 9
Why did Niels Bohr disprove Rutherford's model?
SINGLE ANSWER
Rutherford’s model showed that the electrons and nucleus have opposite charges; thus, the
electrons would collapse into the nucleus, making the atom unstable.
Rutherford's model of the electrons as negatively charged and the nucleus as positively charged
were inconclusive.
Rutherford's model was based on assumptions.
Rutherford's model showed that the electrons freely move within the nucleus.
EXPLANATION
Rutherford’s model showed that the electrons and nucleus have opposite charges which according
to the laws of physics, will attract each other. Thus, this model would have electrons collapsing into
the nucleus, making the atom unstable. Niels Bohr solved these by proposing that the electrons orbit
around the nucleus in set energy levels.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following are true about the discovery of subatomic particles?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Joseph John Thomson discovered the electron.
Ernest Rutherford discovered the proton in the nucleus.
James Chadwick discovered the neutron.
Niels Bohr discovered the proton.
EXPLANATION
The subatomic particles are protons, neutrons, and electrons. The protons were discovered in the
nucleus by Ernest Rutherford while the neutrons were discovered by James Chadwick. The
electrons were discovered by Joseph John Thomson.
Understanding the Structure of Atom:The Contributions of J.J. Thomson, Ernest

Rutherford, Henry Moseley, and Niels Bohr
QUESTION 1
Who discovered the electrons?
SINGLE ANSWER
J.J. Thomson
Ernest Rutherford
Henry Moseley
Niels Bohr
EXPLANATION
J.J. Thomson discovered the negatively charged particles and named them “corpuscles", which were
later referred to as “electrons”.
QUESTION 2
He developed the use of X-ray in studying the structure of the atom.
SINGLE ANSWER
Henry Moseley
J.J. Thomson
Ernest Rutherford
Niels Bohr
EXPLANATION
Henry Moseley developed the use of X-ray in studying the structure of the atom. He published
results of his measurements of wavelengths of the X-ray emissions of some elements that coincided
with the order of their atomic numbers.
QUESTION 3
He concluded that atom has a central nucleus.
SINGLE ANSWER
Ernest Rutherford
J.J. Thomson
Henry Moseley
Niels Bohr
EXPLANATION
Ernest Rutherford proposed that an atom has a nucleus which contains positively charged particles
called protons.
QUESTION 3
He concluded that atom has a central nucleus.
SINGLE ANSWER
Ernest Rutherford
J.J. Thomson
Henry Moseley
Niels Bohr
EXPLANATION
Ernest Rutherford proposed that an atom has a nucleus which contains positively charged particles
called protons.
QUESTION 4
He proposed that an electron moves from one energy level to another.
SINGLE ANSWER
Niels Bohr
J.J. Thomson
Ernest Rutherford
Henry Moseley
EXPLANATION
Niels Bohr modified Rutherford's model by proposing that the electrons move in fixed energy levels
or orbits by absorbing or emitting energy.
QUESTION 5
What method did Moseley use to study positive charges?
SINGLE ANSWER
UV spectrophotometry
X-ray spectroscopy
IR spectroscopy
Mass spectrometry
EXPLANATION
He used X-ray since an element emits X-rays with characteristic frequencies.
QUESTION 6
What was the problem involved in Rutherford's model?
SINGLE ANSWER
In Rutherford's model, the electrons would collapse into the nucleus due to opposite charges,
making the atom unstable.
In Rutherford's model, since the electrons and the nucleus have the same charges, they will repel
with each other, making the atom unstable.
In Rutherford's model, the electron and the nucleus can be compared to magnetism where unlike
charges attract.
In Rutherford's model, the electrons would collapse into the nucleus due to electromagnetic force
acting upon the electrons.
EXPLANATION
In Rutherford's model, since the electron and the nucleus have opposite charges, the electrons
would collapse into the nucleus, making the atom unstable.
QUESTION 7
How did Bohr solve the problem in Rutherford’s model?
SINGLE ANSWER
He used X-ray spectrometry to study atoms.
He proposed the electrons move in set energy levels.
He showed that the atom had a void space.
He used a Geiger counter.
EXPLANATION
In Rutherford’s model, since the electron and the nucleus have opposite charges, the electrons
would collapse into the nucleus, making the atom unstable. Niels Bohr solved this problem by
proposing that the electrons move in fixed energy levels or orbits by absorbing or emitting energy.
QUESTION 8
How did Moseley's experiments support Rutherford's model?
SINGLE ANSWER
Moseley’s experiments backed up Rutherford's structure of the atom with a very dense center of
positive charge.
Moseley's experiments proved that Rutherford's structure of the atom has a negatively charged
center.
Moseley supported Rutherford by conducting the same experiments that he did.
Moseley's experiments were inconclusive.
EXPLANATION
Moseley published results of his measurements of wavelengths of the X-ray emissions of some
elements that coincided with the order of their atomic numbers. His data backed up Rutherford’s
structure of the atom with a very dense center of positive charge.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are true about Rutherford's contribution in the structure of the atom?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
He showed that the atomic number of an element is the same with the positive charge of the atom.
He discovered the nucleus containing a positively charged particles called protons.
He proposed that the electrons moved around a nucleus, which contained the protons.
He proposed that the electrons move in fixed energy levels or orbits by absorbing or emitting energy.
EXPLANATION
Rutherford discovered the nucleus containing positively charged particles called protons. He
proposed that the electrons moved around a nucleus, which contained the protons.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is not true about the discovery of the different structures of the atom?
SINGLE ANSWER
J.J. Thomson discovered the electrons by conducting a series of experiments using a high-vacuum
cathode-ray tube that was composed of negatively charged particles 1000 times lighter than the
hydrogen atom.
Rutherford discovered the nucleus containing positively charged particles called protons.
Henry Moseley developed the use of X-ray in studying the structure of the atom.
Niels Bohr proved that Rutherford's model was accurate by proposing that the electrons move in
fixed energy levels or orbits by absorbing or emitting energy.
EXPLANATION
Niels Bohr modified Rutherford's model by proposing that the electrons move in fixed energy levels
or orbits by absorbing or emitting energy.
The Nuclear Model of the Atom

QUESTION 1
−−−−−−−−−−−−_ states that the nucleus is small, dense, and located at the center of the
atom.
SINGLE ANSWER
Nuclear Model
Plum Pudding Model
Bohr's Atomic Model
Quantum Mechanical Model
EXPLANATION
The nuclear model states that the nucleus is small, dense, and located at the center of the atom. It
contains protons and neutrons.
QUESTION 2
What particles orbit around the nucleus?
SINGLE ANSWER
electrons
protons
neutrons
positrons
EXPLANATION
The electrons orbit around the positively charged nucleus. These particles were discovered by J.J.
Thomson.
QUESTION 3
What kind of foil was used in Rutherford's experiment?
SINGLE ANSWER
gold
aluminum
copper
lead
EXPLANATION
In Rutherford's experiment, a narrow beam of alpha particles was shot at a very thin sheet of gold
foil. Then a scattering pattern was observed on a fluorescent screen.
QUESTION 4
If Thomson's plum pudding model will be the concept of Rutherford's experiment, what should have
happened to the particles?
SINGLE ANSWER
Particles should have become embedded in the foil.
All particles should have bounced straight back from the foil.
The particles should have passed through the foil with no deflection.
All particles should have been deflected.
EXPLANATION
Based on the plum pudding model, the negatively charged particles (plums) are embedded in a
positively chargedw material (pudding). If this concept is used in Rutherford's experiment, it is
expected that the particles will pass through the foil with little or no deflections at all.
QUESTION 5
Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment established that −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
protons are not evenly distributed throughout an atom
electrons have a negative charge
atoms are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons
electrons have a positive charge
EXPLANATION
Protons are concentrated at the center of the atom.
QUESTION 6
The nuclear model of the atom was constructed from which fundamental experiment?
SINGLE ANSWER
alpha particle bombardment of gold
cathode ray deflection in an electrical field
oil drop behavior in a charged chamber
X-ray emission wavelengths of elements
EXPLANATION
The nuclear model of the atom was developed from the experiment on the bombardment of gold
using the alpha particles.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not true about the Geiger-Marsden experiment?
SINGLE ANSWER
A thin sheet of platinum was bombarded with alpha particles.
Scattering pattern of particles were observed on a fluorescent screen.
Some particles deflected, and others penetrated through the sheet of gold foil.
The experiment led to the assumption that the charge is concentrated at the center of the atom.
EXPLANATION
Under Rutherford's supervision, Hans Geiger, his assistant, and Ernest Marsden, an undergraduate
student, shot a narrow beam of alpha particles at a very thin sheet of gold foil and measured the
scattering pattern on a fluorescent screen. It was observed that some particles deflected and others
penetrated through the sheet of gold foil.
QUESTION 8
Which is the correct arrangement of subatomic particles in an atom?
SINGLE ANSWER
Protons and neutrons reside in the nucleus. Electrons orbit around the nucleus.
Electrons and neutrons reside in the nucleus. Protons orbit around the nucleus.
Neutrons reside in the nucleus. Protons and electrons orbit around the nucleus.
Protons and electrons reside in the nucleus. Neutrons orbit around the nucleus.
EXPLANATION
The nucleus contains both the protons and the neutrons while the electrons orbit around the
nucleus.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the reasons behind the deflections of particles?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
There was a repulsive force behind the deflections of particles.
There was a repulsion of the positively charged alpha particles by a positively charged material.
There were solid obstructions that made the particles bounce back.
The gold foil was very thin.
EXPLANATION
It was observed that some particles deflected and others penetrated through the sheet of gold foil.
There was a force behind the deflections – the repulsion of the positively charged alpha particles by
a positively charged material.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following are not conclusions drawn by Rutherford based on his experiment?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The atom consists of negatively charged particles embedded in a positive material.
Most of the mass of the atom are confined to a very small space at its center.
The nucleus is positively charged.
The size of the nucleus is the same as the size of the atom.
EXPLANATION
Based on his experiments, he proposed that the positive charge and the mass of the atom were
concentrated in a small part of the total volume of the atom called the nucleus. The nuclear model
has been deduced from this experiment.
The Ideas of the Ancient Greeks on the Elements

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes the primordial substance?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the substance from which everything is made of.
It is the substance that makes up aether.
It is the substance that is made up of fire, air, water, and earth.
It is the substance from which Platonic solids are made of.
EXPLANATION
Many Greeks believed that primordial substances make up everything in the world.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the primordial substance that Anaximenes thought the world is made up of?
SINGLE ANSWER
air
water
fire
earth
EXPLANATION
Some Greek philosophers believed that there was only one element that made up all materials.
Anaximenes thought that it was air; Heraclitus supposed it was fire; Thales believed that it was
water; and Xenophanus assumed it was earth.
QUESTION 3
Who among the following Greek philosophers believed that the four elements can be described
geometrically?
SINGLE ANSWER
Plato
Empedocles
Aristotle
Thales
EXPLANATION
Plato treated the four elements geometrically and named them Platonic solids.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following elements are correctly matched to their geometric shape according to
Plato?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
air: octahedron
earth: cube
fire: icosahedron
water: tetrahedron
EXPLANATION
Plato treated the four elements geometrically. He stated that fire was a tetrahedron; air was an
octahedron; water was an icosahedron; and earth was a cube.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are trueabout Aristotle’s notion of elements?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Each element, air, fire, water, and earth, has two distinct characteristics.
Every material in the world is made up of elements.
Every material in the world is made up of the same element.
Each element, air, fire, water, and earth, can be described using geometrical shapes.
EXPLANATION
Aristotle, a student of Plato, believed that every material in the world is made up of elements. He
then described each of the four elements with two qualities. The qualities can be dry, wet, cold, or
hot.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following elements are correctly matched to their characteristics according to Aristotle?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
air: cold and dry
fire: hot and dry
water: cold and wet
earth: hot and wet
EXPLANATION
Aristotle, a student of Plato, described each element with two qualities. He stated that air was wet
and hot; fire was dry and hot; water was wet and cold; and earth was dry and cold.
QUESTION 7
According to Aristotle, which of the following aretrue about aether?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It is the sixth element that makes up matter.
It is the finest among all the elements.
It makes up everything on Earth.
It the “quintessence,” associated with the heavenly realm.
EXPLANATION
Aristotle added a fifth element, aether. He thought aether was the finest of all substances, the
“quintessence,” associated with the heavenly realm. It was neither hot nor cold and was neither wet
nor dry.
QUESTION 8
A Greek philosopher believed that everything on Earth is made up of primordial substance X. He
described X as hot and dry and shaped like a tetrahedron.
Which among the following primordial substances is most likely X?
SINGLE ANSWER
fire
earth
water
air
EXPLANATION
According to the early notions of Greeks, fire was an element that made up different materials. It was
hot and dry, and its shape was tetrahedron.
QUESTION 8
A Greek philosopher believed that everything on Earth is made up of primordial substance X. He
described X as hot and dry and shaped like a tetrahedron.
Which among the following primordial substances is most likely X?
SINGLE ANSWER
fire
earth
water
air
EXPLANATION
According to the early notions of Greeks, fire was an element that made up different materials. It was
hot and dry, and its shape was tetrahedron.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following Greeks’ notions of elements are still considered valid today?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Elements are the substances from which everything else is made up of.
Elements have certain characteristics.
There are four elements – air, fire, earth, and water.
Each element can be described using its geometrical shapes octahedron, cube, tetrahedron, or
icosahedron.
EXPLANATION
Elements are the substances from which everything else is made up of. Each element has certain
characteristics that set it apart from other elements.
QUESTION 10
What are the contributions of the Greek philosophers to the development of the field of Chemistry?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They studied the substances that make up matter.
They studied naturally-occurring and radioactive elements.
They developed a method to create the fifth element, aether.
They conceptualized the idea of elements.
EXPLANATION
The Greeks have important contributions to the development of the field of Chemistry. They
conceptualized the idea of primordial substances or elements and studied how these substances
make up all the things in the world.
The Contributions of the Alchemists to the Science of Chemistry

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describe alchemy?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It was the practice of the scientific method.
It was a field of science based on logic and experimentation.
It was a speculative science practiced by alchemists.
It was a protoscientific tradition practiced in Egypt, Asia, and Europe.
EXPLANATION
Alchemy was a speculative science done by alchemists, the early scientists. It was a protoscientific
tradition practiced in Egypt, Asia, and Europe.
f the following was believed by the alchemists as the material that could transform base metals into
gold?
SINGLE ANSWER
philosopher's stone
elixir of life
elixir of immortality
laudanum
EXPLANATION
Alchemy was a speculative science with goals of finding the elixir of life and the philosopher’s stone,
which could transform base metals into gold.
QUESTION 3
Who among the following invented the gunpowder?
SINGLE ANSWER
Chinese
Indians
Egyptians
Europeans
EXPLANATION
In China, alchemy was started by monks. The creation of gold was an aim, but the ultimate goal was
prolonging life. While trying to find the elixir of life, the Chinese was able to invent gunpowder.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not a contribution of alchemists to modern chemistry?
SINGLE ANSWER
isolated metallic zinc
invented steel and gunpowder
discovered subatomic particles
developed distillation and extraction
EXPLANATION
Subatomic particles were discovered in the latter part of the 19th century, a time when alchemy was
no longer practiced.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following were the contributions of Indian alchemists?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
isolation of metallic zinc
invention of steel
production of silver nitrate
creation of poisons such as mercuric sulfide
EXPLANATION
Alchemy developed independently in India. Major accomplishments of Indian alchemists
included isolation of metallic zinc, the invention of steel, and use of flame to identify metals.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about laudanum?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It was created by Aristotle.
It was made by Paracelsus.
It was an opium tincture.
It was used as a painkiller.
EXPLANATION
Paracelsus treated diseases with alchemical approach. He created laudanum, an opium tincture
used as a painkiller.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following sets of substances comprise the tria prima?
SINGLE ANSWER
salt, mercury, sulfur
mercury, zinc, steel
steel, salt, sulfur
mercury, steel, sulfur
EXPLANATION
Paracelsus believed that the organs of the body worked alchemically. He proposed that the three
essentials or tria prima, salt, mercury, and sulfur, should be balanced to maintain health.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following became the problems of the alchemy as time passed by?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The symbols of alchemists were borrowed from myths.
The formula of substances read like magic spells.
The alchemists had no standardized scientific practice.
The alchemists used common laboratory techniques.
EXPLANATION
As time passed by, the writings of alchemists became more and more cryptic. They used
unintelligible names for substances. They borrowed symbols and words from myths. Even the
simplest formula read like a magic spell. Even though they used common techniques, alchemists
had no standardized scientific practice.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are contributions of the alchemists to the development of chemistry?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They were able to create procedures to prepare liquors.
They contributed to the vast uses of inks, paints, and cosmetics.
They developed spectroscopic techniques for analyzing materials.
They discovered the elements copper, uranium, and calcium.
EXPLANATION
Although alchemists failed in their lofty goals, they left behind a rich knowledge of chemical
information. They contributed to the vast uses of chemicals such as inks, paints, and cosmetics.
They were also able to create procedures to prepare liquors.
QUESTION 10
Alchemists failed to create philosopher's stone, the material that could transform base metals into
gold. But modern scientists can now change base metals such as lead into gold using particle
accelerators.
What is the major problem with the use of accelerators?

SINGLE ANSWER
The method is too dangerous.
The method is very expensive.
Lead is more valuable than gold.
Low-quality gold is produced.
EXPLANATION
The money expended to run particle accelerators is much greater than the money earned from the
output of gold.
The Atomic Number and the Synthesis of New Elements

QUESTION 1
It is the number of positively charged particles in an atom.
SINGLE ANSWER
atomic number
mass number
atomic weight
atomic mass
EXPLANATION
The atomic number is the number of protons or the positively charged particles of an atom of a
certain element.
QUESTION 2
He proved that the atomic number determines the major properties of an element.
SINGLE ANSWER
Henry Gwyn-Jefferys Moseley
Ernest Walton
Ernest Rutherford
James Chadwick
EXPLANATION
Henry Gwyn-Jefferys Moseley was an English physicist who demonstrated that the atomic number
(number of protons) determines the major properties of an element.
QUESTION 2
He proved that the atomic number determines the major properties of an element.
SINGLE ANSWER
Henry Gwyn-Jefferys Moseley
Ernest Walton
Ernest Rutherford
James Chadwick
EXPLANATION
Henry Gwyn-Jefferys Moseley was an English physicist who demonstrated that the atomic number
(number of protons) determines the major properties of an element.
QUESTION 3
What was the method used by Moseley in determining the atomic number of elements?
SINGLE ANSWER
X-ray spectroscopy
UV spectroscopy
mass spectrometry
NMR spectroscopy
EXPLANATION
Moseley devised a method, X-ray spectroscopy, to determine the atomic number of an element. It
was used to analyze the chemical characteristics of an object.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true about the scientific basis of the periodic table as published by
Moseley?
SINGLE ANSWER
The periodic table was arranged based on the atomic number of elements.
The periodic table was arranged based on the atomic number and atomic weights of elements.
The periodic table was arranged based on the atomic weight of elements.
The periodic table was arranged based on the mass number of elements.
EXPLANATION
Moseley published a paper which has established the scientific basis of the periodic table by
arranging the elements based on their atomic numbers.
QUESTION 5
How did Rutherford showed the first successful nuclear transmutation reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
He bombarded alpha particles of radium to nitrogen nuclei to produce oxygen nuclei.
He bombarded alpha particles of nitrogen to oxygen nuclei to produce radium nuclei.
He bombarded nitrogen nuclei with protons to produce oxygen nuclei.
He bombarded nitrogen nuclei with neutrons to produce oxygen nuclei.
EXPLANATION
In 1919, Rutherford successfully carried out a nuclear transmutation reaction where he bombarded
alpha particles from radium directed to the nitrogen nuclei to form an oxygen nuclei.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is true?
SINGLE ANSWER
In 1925, the four vacancies in the periodic table were all synthesized in the laboratory.
Element-61 and element-87 were discovered by bombarding atoms with fast-moving alpha particles.
Element-43 was discovered by bombarding molybdenum with slow-moving neutrons.
In 1937, Ernest Lawrence synthesized technetium using a linear particle accelerator.
EXPLANATION
In 1937, Ernest Lawrence synthesized element with atomic number 43 using a linear particle
accelerator. He bombarded molybdenum (Z=42) with fast-moving neutrons. The newly synthesized
element was named Technetium (Tc) after the Greek word "technêtos" meaning “artificial.”
QUESTION 7
Recall that in 1925, there were four vacancies in the periodic table corresponding to the atomic
numbers 43, 61, 85, and 87.
Which of the following elements were produced through studies in radioactivity?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
promethium
francium
uranium
astatine
EXPLANATION
The two other elements with atomic numbers 61 and 87 were discovered through studies in
radioactivity. Element-61 (Promethium) was discovered as a decay product of the fission of
uranium while element-87 (Francium) was discovered as a breakdown product of uranium.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are true about the transuranium elements?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Transuranium elements are elements which have atomic numbers greater than 92.
Transuranium elements were all synthesized in the laboratory.
Some examples of transuranium elements include uranium, plutonium, and neptunium.
Only particle accelerators can be used to synthesized transuranium elements.
EXPLANATION
Transuranium elements are those with atomic numbers greater than 92 (atomic number of uranium).
They are unstable, which means they decay radioactively into other elements. All of the
transuranium elements were discovered in the laboratory as artificially generated synthetic elements.
They are prepared using nuclear reactors or particle accelerators.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is true about the particle accelerators?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They speed up the protons, overcoming the repulsion between the protons and target nuclei.
They speed up electrons, overcoming the repulsion between the neutrons and target nuclei.
They use both magnetic and electrical fields to speed up protons.
They use both magnetic and electrical fields to speed up electrons.
EXPLANATION
A particle accelerator is a device that is used to speed up the protons to overcome the repulsion
between the protons and the target atomic nuclei by using magnetic and electrical fields. It is used to
synthesize new elements.
QUESTION 10
Why is it easier to use neutrons to synthesize new elements compared to alpha particles?
SINGLE ANSWER
Neutrons are positively charged. Thus, they are able to overcome the electrostatic repulsion
between the target nuclei.
Neutrons are neither positively charged or negatively charged. Thus, they do not require force to
collide with the target nuclei.
Neutrons are negatively charged. Thus, they are strongly attracted to the positively charged target
nuclei.
Neutrons have no charge. Thus, there is no electrostatic repulsion between them and the target
nuclei.
EXPLANATION
Both alpha particles and atomic nuclei are positively charged, so they tend to repel each other. So
instead of using fast-moving alpha particles in synthesizing new elements, atomic nuclei are often
bombarded with neutrons (neutral particles) in particle accelerators. There is no electrostatic
repulsion between the neutrons and the target nuclei.
The Nuclear Reactions Involved in the Synthesis of New Elements

QUESTION 1
It is a type of reaction where the nucleus is transformed into another nucleus by emitting radiation.
SINGLE ANSWER
nuclear decay
nuclear transmutation
combustion reaction
displacement reaction
EXPLANATION
Nuclear decay reaction, also known as radioactivity, is a reaction in which the nucleus of an element
emits radiation and transforms into another nucleus.
QUESTION 2
It is a type of reaction involving the transformation of one element into another through
bombardment of particles.
SINGLE ANSWER
nuclear transmutation
nuclear explosion
nuclear decay
radioactive decay
EXPLANATION
Nuclear transmutation is a reaction involving the transformation of one element or isotope into
another element. This process occurs only in special conditions such as the collision of target nuclei
with a beam of particles with high energies.
QUESTION 3
Using the [%{}_\mathrm Z^\mathrm A\mathrm X%] notation, what is the notation for polonium-208
given that its atomic number is 84?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{}_{84}^{208}\mathrm{Po}%]
[%{}_{208}^{208}\mathrm{Po}%]
[%{}_{208}^{84}\mathrm{Po}%]
[%{}_{84}^{84}\mathrm{Po}%]
EXPLANATION
Using the [%{}_\mathrm Z^\mathrm A\mathrm X%] notation, where A is the mass number and Z is
the atomic number, the notation for polonium-208 is [%{}_{84}^{208}\mathrm{Po}%].
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements are trueabout transuranium elements?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They are elements whose atomic numbers are greater than 92.
They are all unstable and undergo radioactive decay.
They are synthesized using bombardment reactions.
They form a series which include uranium and plutonium.
EXPLANATION
Transuranium elements are elements whose atomic numbers are greater than 92. They are all
unstable and undergo radioactive decay. They can be synthesized using bombardment reactions.
QUESTION 5
Using the [%{}_\mathrm Z^\mathrm A\mathrm X%] notation, what is the notation for francium-211
given that its atomic number is 87?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{}_{87}^{211}\mathrm{Fr}%]
[%{}_{211}^{211}\mathrm{Fr}%]
[%{}_{87}^{87}\mathrm{Fr}%]
[%{}_{211}^{87}\mathrm{Fr}%]
EXPLANATION
Using the [%{}_\mathrm Z^\mathrm A\mathrm X%] notation, where A is the mass number and Z is
the atomic number, the notation for francium-211 is [%{}_{87}^{211}\mathrm{Fr}%].
QUESTION 6
Curium-244 undergoes alpha decay to form an isotope of plutonium.
Which of the following is the balanced equation for this reaction?

SINGLE ANSWER
[%{}_{96}^{244}\mathrm{Cm}\rightarrow{}_{94}^{240}\mathrm{Pu}+{}_2^4\mathrm\alpha%]
EXPLANATION
In an alpha decay, the atomic number of the daughter nuclei is reduced by two, and the mass
number is reduced by four compared with the parent nuclei.
Therefore, the balanced equation when [%{}_{96}^{244}\mathrm{Cm}%] undergoes alpha decay to

form an isotope of plutonium is [%{}_{96}^{244}\mathrm{Cm}\rightarrow{}_{94}^{240}\mathrm{Pu}+
{}_2^4\mathrm\alpha%].
QUESTION 7
Californium-252 undergoes [% \underline{\hspace{3cm}} %] to form Curium-248.
What type of nuclear decay did californium-252 (Z=98) undergo if the atomic number of curium-248
is 96?
SINGLE ANSWER
alpha decay
beta decay
spontaneous fission
beta particle emission
EXPLANATION
The mass number of curium is 248 and its atomic number is 96. It has a mass number reduced by
four and an atomic number reduced by two compared with the parent nuclei, californium-252.
Therefore, californium-252 undergoes alpha decay to produce curium-248.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following equations represents the spontaneous fission of [%{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}
%]?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}\rightarrow{}_{56}^{140}\mathrm{Ba}+{}_{38}^{92}\mathrm{Sr}
+2{}_0^1\mathrm n%]
+2{}_0^1\mathrm n%]
[%{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}\rightarrow{}_{56}^{152}\mathrm{Ba}+{}_3^{32}\mathrm{Sr}
+2{}_0^1\mathrm n%]
+2{}_0^1\mathrm n%]
EXPLANATION
In a spontaneous fission, the sum of the mass numbers is equal to the mass number of the parent
nucleus. Similarly, the sum of the atomic numbers is equal to the atomic number of the parent
nucleus.
Therefore, the equation for the spontaneous fission of [%{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}%] is [%

{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}\rightarrow{}_{56}^{140}\mathrm{Ba}+{}_{38}^{92}\mathrm{Sr}
+2{}_0^1\mathrm n%].
QUESTION 9
Plutonium-242 decays to form uranium-238. Its reaction is represented as
[%{}_a^{242}\mathrm{Pu}\rightarrow{}_{92}^\mathrm b\mathrm U+{}_2^4\mathrm\alpha%]
Which of the following are true?

SINGLE ANSWER
Plutonium-242 undergoes alpha decay to form uranium-238, releasing an alpha particle.
Plutonium-242 undergoes beta decay to form uranium-238, releasing a beta particle.
The atomic number of uranium is equivalent to the atomic number of plutonium reduced by four.
The mass number of uranium is equivalent to the mass number of plutonium reduced by two.
EXPLANATION
When plutonium-242 undergoes alpha decay, the reaction produces uranium-238, with an atomic
number reduced by two and a mass number reduced by four compared with the parent nuclei [%
{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}%].
QUESTION 10
Why is it important for transuranium elements to undergo radioactive decay?
SINGLE ANSWER
Transuranium elements undergo radioactive decay to become more stable.
Transuranium elements undergo radioactive decay to have higher energies.
Transuranium elements undergo radioactive decay to have higher mass number.
Transuranium elements undergo radioactive decay to have lower atomic number.
EXPLANATION
Transuranium elements are all unstable and undergo radioactive decay. The parent nuclei are
unstable while the resulting daughter nuclei are more stable, with lower mass and energy.
Understanding the Concept of the Chemical Elements: The Contributions of John

Dalton
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are true about John Dalton?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
He developed the atomic theory.
He proposed that elements differ due to the mass of their atoms.
He developed the chemical symbols and formula being used today.
He arranged the elements in the periodic table.
EXPLANATION
John Dalton was an English chemist known for his pioneering work in the development of the atomic
theory. In his theory, he proposed that elements differ due to the mass of their atoms.
QUESTION 2
Dalton’s table of elements was based on the relative atomic weight of [% \underline{\hspace{3cm}}
%].
SINGLE ANSWER
hydrogen
oxygen
nitrogen
sulfur
EXPLANATION
Dalton first published his table of elements according to relative atomic weights. He assumed that
the atomic weight of hydrogen was one, and calculated the rest of the elements' atomic weights
based on hydrogen.
QUESTION 3
Dalton published his atomic theory in [% \underline{\hspace{3cm}} %].
SINGLE ANSWER
Journal of Chemical Education
New System of Chemical Philosophy
Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences
Journal of Atomic and Molecular Sciences
EXPLANATION
Dalton published his atomic theory together with the symbols of elements and compounds in New
System of Chemical Philosophy.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true about a septenary compound?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is comprised of two atoms.
It is a compound made up of carbon and hydrogen.
It is made up of seven atoms.
It is a combination of elements in fractions.
EXPLANATION
Dalton listed the compounds as binary, ternary, quaternary, quinquenary, sextenary, and septenary.
A septenary is made up of seven atoms.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the statement of the law of multiple proportions?
SINGLE ANSWER
When two or more elements can form multiple combinations, the ratio of the elements in those
compounds can be expressed in small, whole numbers.
The total mass of the reactants is equal to the total mass of the products in a chemical reaction.
A chemical compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements by mass.
All samples of a given chemical compound have the same elemental composition by mass.
EXPLANATION
Dalton developed the law of multiple proportions. The law states that when two or more elements
can form multiple combinations, the ratio of the elements in those compounds can be expressed in
small, whole numbers.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are the main points of Dalton’s atomic theory?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
All matter is composed of atoms.
Atoms may combine to form a new compound.
Atoms can be created or destroyed.
All atoms of a given element are different in properties and masses.
EXPLANATION
Two of the main points of Dalton’s atomic theory are: (1) All matter is composed of very small,
indivisible particles called atoms; and (2) Atoms of the same or different elements may combine with
each other in a fixed, whole number ratios.
QUESTION 7
Refer to the symbol of carbon dioxide below.
Which of the following are true about carbon dioxide according to Dalton’s theory?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
It is made up of one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms.
It is a ternary compound.
It is made up of one oxygen atom and two carbon atoms.
It is a quinquenary compound.
EXPLANATION
Carbon dioxide is comprised of one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Because three atoms make
up the compound, it is ternary.
QUESTION 8
The law of conservation of mass states that the mass of the products in a chemical reaction must be
equal to the mass of the reactants.
Which of the following postulates of Dalton's atomic theory can explain the law of conservation of
mass?
SINGLE ANSWER
Matter is composed of tiny, indivisible particles.
An element contains identical atoms.
Atoms of one element differ from the atoms of another element.
Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed.
EXPLANATION
Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed. If the atoms are indestructible, then the same atoms must
be present before and after a chemical reaction. Therefore, the total mass of the reactants is equal
to the total mass of the products.
QUESTION 9
A chemist examines the compound nitrogen dioxide, [%{\mathrm{NO}}_2%]. He finds out that the
atomic mass of nitrogen is 14 while that of oxygen is 16.
Which of the following is true about [%{\mathrm{NO}}_2%]?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is a binary compound.
Its fixed ratio of nitrogen to oxygen is 1:2.
Its nitrogen to oxygen mass ratio is 8:7.
Its chemical formula can be simplified as NO.
EXPLANATION
Nitrogen dioxide is a ternary compound. It contains one nitrogen atom and two oxygen atoms. It has
a fixed ratio of 1:2 (nitrogen:oxygen).
QUESTION 10
Which of the following were Dalton's contributions to the concept of chemical elements?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
He calculated the relative atomic weights of elements.
He developed the law of multiple proportions.
He published the law of definite proportions.
He proposed that elements differ due to the masses of their atoms.
EXPLANATION
John Dalton had wide contributions to the concept of elements. He proposed his atomic theory which
stated that elements differ due to the mass of their atoms. He then published a table of elements
according to increasing atomic masses. In addition, his law of multiple proportions explained the
possible combinations of different elements in a compound.
The Polarity of a Molecule Based on Its Structure
THE STRUCTURE AND PROPERTIES OF MATTER
QUESTION 1
What factors describe the polarity of a molecule?
SINGLE ANSWER
bond length and molecular size
bond polarity and molecular size
bond length and molecular shape
bond polarity and molecular shape
EXPLANATION
You can tell if a molecule is polar or nonpolar based on the shape of the molecule and the polarity of
the individual bonds present in the molecule.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements describes a nonpolar molecule?
SINGLE ANSWER
It has positive and negative ends.
It has partial separation of charges.
It has zero net dipole moment.
It has dipoles.
EXPLANATION
If the dipole moments of the individual bonds add up to zero, then the molecule is nonpolar.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements does notdescribe a polar molecule?
SINGLE ANSWER
It has a positive and a negative end.
Its bond polarities do not cancel out.
The atoms in the molecule have same electronegativities.
The net dipole moments of the bonds do not add up to zero.
EXPLANATION
A molecule must contain at least one polar bond for it to be polar. Otherwise, there will be no dipole
moments and the molecule is nonpolar.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a polar molecule?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm{CH}}_4%] (tetrahedral)
[%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%] (linear)
[%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] (bent-shaped)
[%{\mathrm{BeCl}}_2%] (linear)
EXPLANATION
[%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] has polar H-O bonds. Its dipole moments do not cancel out since it is
bent-shaped.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a nonpolar molecule?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] (trigonal planar)
[%{\mathrm{SO}}_2%] (bent-shaped)
[%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] (bent-shaped)
[%{\mathrm{CCl}}_4%] (tetrahedral)
EXPLANATION
[%{\mathrm{CCl}}_4%] has a tetrahedral shape. The dipole moments of the polar C-Cl bonds cancel
out.
QUESTION 6
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] is trigonal pyramidal while [%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%] is trigonal planar.
Which of the following is true about the polarity of the two compounds?

SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] and [%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%] are both polar molecules.
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] is polar and [%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%] is nonpolar.
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] is nonpolar and [%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%] is polar.
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] and [%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%] are both nonpolar.
EXPLANATION
The dipole moments in [%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%] do not cancel out so it is polar. The dipole moments in
[%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%] cancel out so it is nonpolar.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following steps will not help you identify if a molecule is polar or nonpolar?
SINGLE ANSWER
Draw the structure or shape of the molecule.
Identify the polarity of the individual bonds present in the molecule.
Determine the net dipole moment.
Change some of the atoms in the molecule.
EXPLANATION
Changing the identity of the atoms will make a different molecule.
QUESTION 8
Oxygen gas ([%{\mathrm O}_2%]), a very important gas for humans, is a nonpolar molecule. Which
of the following statements support this?
SINGLE ANSWER
It does not have a symmetrical shape.
The dipole moments do not cancel out.
It has positive and negative ends.
It contains only a nonpolar bond.
EXPLANATION
The O-O bond in the molecule is nonpolar, which makes the molecule nonpolar.
QUESTION 9
Why is hydrogen chloride considered a polar molecule?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Because the bond between hydrogen and chlorine is polar.
Because the net dipole moment of the molecule is zero.
Because it has positive and negative ends.
Because it is linear and the dipole moments cancel out.
EXPLANATION
Chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen. The H-Cl bond is polar.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the structure of carbon dioxide below.
Even when it contains polar bonds, the molecule is nonpolar.
Which of the following statements is the reason why a molecule with polar bonds can be a nonpolar
molecule?
SINGLE ANSWER
All the bonds are equivalent and symmetrically arranged.
All the bonds are equivalent and not symmetrically arranged.
All the dipole moments of the bonds do not add up to zero.
All the dipole moments of the bonds do not cancel, and add up to a nonzero value.
EXPLANATION
Polar bonds that are equivalent and symmetrically arranged can cancel out each other, resulting in a
nonpolar molecule.
The Properties of a Molecule Based on Its Polarity

QUESTION 1
Which of the following properties affects the melting and boiling points of molecules?
SINGLE ANSWER
color
volume
polarity
mass
EXPLANATION
The polarity of a molecule affects the amount of energy needed for phase changes such as melting
and boiling.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following refers to the temperature at which a solid turns into a liquid?
SINGLE ANSWER
boiling point
melting point
solubility
polarity
EXPLANATION
Melting is the phase change from solid to liquid. Energy is required for the phase change.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is insoluble in water?
SINGLE ANSWER
sucrose
isopropyl alcohol
benzene
ammonia
EXPLANATION
Benzene is nonpolar while water is polar. They do not form a solution.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following refers to the temperature at which a liquid turns into a gas?
SINGLE ANSWER
boiling point
melting point
polarity
solubility
EXPLANATION
Boiling is the phase change from liquid to gas. Energy is required for the phase change.
QUESTION 5
Water and oil will not mix because water is [% \underline{\hspace{3cm}} %], and oil is [%
\underline{\hspace{3cm}} %].
SINGLE ANSWER
polar ; nonpolar
nonpolar ; polar
polar ; polar
nonpolar ; nonpolar
EXPLANATION
Water molecules have dipoles (polar) while oil has none (nonpolar). They do not form a solution.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is soluble in water?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm C}_2{\mathrm H}_6%]
[%{\mathrm{CH}}_4%]
[%\mathrm{HCl}%]
[%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_{14}%]
EXPLANATION
HCl is a polar molecule that can be dissolved in a polar solvent like water.
QUESTION 7
Choose the pair that will not form a solution.
SINGLE ANSWER
water and sugar
water and ammonia
water and alcohol
water and margarine
EXPLANATION
Water is polar and margarine is comprised of nonpolar molecules.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following substances has the highest boiling point?
SINGLE ANSWER
ethane, [%{\mathrm C}_2{\mathrm H}_6%]
carbon dioxide, [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]
isopropyl alcohol, [%{\mathrm C}_3{\mathrm H}_8\mathrm O%]
carbon tetrachloride, [%{\mathrm{CCl}}_4%]
EXPLANATION
[%{\mathrm C}_3{\mathrm H}_8\mathrm O%] is the only polar molecule among the choices. It has
the highest boiling point.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following will happen when octane ([%{\mathrm C}_8{\mathrm H}_{18}%]) and sulfuric
acid ([%{\mathrm H}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%]) are heated separately at the same time?
SINGLE ANSWER
Octane will boil at a lower temperature than sulfuric acid.
Octane will boil at a higher temperature than sulfuric acid.
Octane and sulfuric acid will boil at the same temperature.
Octane will not boil, but sulfuric acid will.
EXPLANATION
Octane is a nonpolar molecule. It has a lower boiling point than the polar sulfuric acid.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the structure of citric acid below.
Which of the following will happen when citric acid is mixed with water in a container?
SINGLE ANSWER
The citric acid will dissolve in water.
A citric acid layer will float on top of the water layer.
A water layer will float on top of the citric acid layer.
The citric acid will crystallize and settle at the bottom of the container.
EXPLANATION
Both the citric acid and water are polar. When mixed, they will form a solution.
Types of Intermolecular Forces of Attraction
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is not a type of intermolecular forces?
SINGLE ANSWER
Dipole – dipole
London dispersion
Covalent bonding
Hydrogen bonding
EXPLANATION
Covalent bond is a type of force present between atoms within a molecule. It is a type of
intramolecular forces.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a type of intermolecular forces present only in polar molecules?
SINGLE ANSWER
Dipole – dipole
London dispersion
Ionic bonding
Covalent bonding
EXPLANATION
A polar substance have dipoles, so dipole-dipole forces exist between its molecules.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a type of intermolecular forces present in all molecules?
SINGLE ANSWER
Dipole – dipole
London dispersion
Hydrogen bonding
Covalent bonding
EXPLANATION
London dispersion forces are caused by the electron density fluctuations in all molecules.
Found a problem with the content?
QUESTION 4
Which of the following results in an instantaneous dipole?
SINGLE ANSWER
attraction between positive and negative ends of polar molecules
continuous movement of electrons in a molecule
presence of a highly electronegative atom in the molecule
attraction of hydrogen with an electronegative atom
EXPLANATION
The movement of electrons to one end of a molecule will result to a partially negative end and a
partially positive other end, which will both exist for a very short period of time.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following does not form hydrogen bonds?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm S%]
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%]
[%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]
[%\mathrm{HF}%]
EXPLANATION
Hydrogen bonding exists in molecules bearing hydrogen attached to a highly electronegative atom,
N, O, or F.
QUESTION 6
Which compound has London dispersion forcesonly?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%]
[%\mathrm{HF}%]
[%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]
EXPLANATION
[%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%] is a nonpolar molecule.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following compounds exhibit dipole-dipole forces?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
[%\mathrm{HCl}%]
[%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]
[%{\mathrm{SO}}_2%]
EXPLANATION
Dipole-dipole forces are present in polar molecules such as water, hydrogen chloride, and sulfur
dioxide.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the intermolecular forces present in [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
dipole - dipole forces
London dispersion forces
hydrogen bonding
Coulombic forces
EXPLANATION
Water exhibits London dispersion forces, which are present in all molecules. It also exhibits dipole-
dipole forces because it is polar.
The hydrogen in water is attached to an electronegative atom, oxygen. Therefore, hydrogen bonding
is present between water molecules.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following has the strongest IMFA?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%\mathrm{HF}%]
[%\mathrm{HI}%]
[%\mathrm{HCl}%]
[%\mathrm{HBr}%]
EXPLANATION
[%\mathrm{HF}%] molecules exhibit hydrogen bonding. Hydrogen bonding is the strongest type of
intermolecular forces of attraction.
QUESTION 10
Both substances A and B are made up of nonpolar molecules, but A has a greater size and mass
than B. Which of the following statements is true about both substances?
SINGLE ANSWER
Both A and B exhibits London dispersion forces of the same strength.
A has a stronger London dispersion forces than B
B has a stronger London dispersion forces than A.
Neither A nor B exhibits London dispersion forces.
EXPLANATION
The strength of LDF increases with increasing size of electron clouds. Larger and more massive
molecules are more polarizable (i.e. they have greater tendencies to have distorted electron clouds).
The Properties of a Substance as Effect of Intermolecular Forces of Attraction

QUESTION 1
Which of the following properties is notinfluenced by the type of intermolecular forces?
SINGLE ANSWER
solubility
molar mass
melting point
boiling point
EXPLANATION
Molar Mass is the sum of all the atoms that make up the molecule. It affects the strength of the
intermolecular forces present between molecules.
QUESTION 2
Which phase of matter has the strongest IMFA?
SINGLE ANSWER
solid
liquid
gas
plasma
EXPLANATION
Molecules with strong intermolecular forces of attraction often exist as solid at room temperature.
QUESTION 3
What happens to the boiling point as you increase the strength of IMFA?
SINGLE ANSWER
It remains the same.
It increases.
It decreases.
It becomes zero.
EXPLANATION
Stronger intermolecular forces between molecules require more energy so that a phase transition
would occur.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm F}_2%]
[%\mathrm{HCl}%]
[%{\mathrm H}_2%]
EXPLANATION
[%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] molecules exhibit hydrogen bonding, the strongest type of IMFA.
QUESTION 5
At room temperature, [%{\mathrm F}_2%] and [%{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] are gases, [%
{\mathrm{Br}}_2%] is a liquid, and [%{\mathrm I}_2%] is a solid. Which of the following explains this?
SINGLE ANSWER
Dipole-dipole forces increase with molecular size.
London dispersion forces increase with molecular size.
Hydrogen bonding increases with molecular size.
Polarity increases with molecular size.
EXPLANATION
The diatomic halogens are all nonpolar. They exhibit London dispersion forces only. The strength of
LDF increases with the size of the molecules.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following substances has the lowest melting point?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%\mathrm{HCl}%]
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%]
[%{\mathrm H}_2%]
EXPLANATION
[%{\mathrm H}_2%] is a nonpolar molecule. [%{\mathrm H}_2%] molecules exhibit London
dispersion forces only.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following substances is the most soluble in water?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm{BH}}_3%]
[%{\mathrm{CH}}_4%]
[%{\mathrm H}_2%]
[%{\mathrm{NH}}_3%]
EXPLANATION
Ammonia molecules can form H-bonding with water molecules.
QUESTION 8
Refer to the following table:
Which substance is a gas at room temperature?
SINGLE ANSWER
A
B
C
D
EXPLANATION
The boiling point of C is lower than the standard room temperature.
QUESTION 9
Which substance has the strongest intermolecular forces?

SINGLE ANSWER
A
B
C
D
EXPLANATION
Stronger intermolecular forces result in higher boiling point.
QUESTION 10
Which substance most likely exhibit London dispersion forces only?

SINGLE ANSWER
A
B
C
D
EXPLANATION
Substance C has the weakest IMFA since it has the lowest boiling point.
The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures: Medical
Implants
QUESTION 1
What are the basic uses of a medical implant?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
replace a missing body part
attack foreign substances in the body
support organs and tissues
monitor body functions
EXPLANATION
Medical implants are tissues or devices that can replace a missing body part, monitor body
functions, and provide support to organs and tissues.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is not a general type of medical implants?
SINGLE ANSWER
ionic
ceramic
metallic
polymeric
EXPLANATION
Ionic is a type of bonding between a metal and a nonmetal.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an ideal property of a medical implant?
SINGLE ANSWER
unstable
reactive
brittle
biocompatible
EXPLANATION
Medical implants should be biocompatible. They must not be harmful or toxic to the living tissues.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following compounds is an example of a ceramic implant?
SINGLE ANSWER
zirconia
titanium
silicone
zinc alloy
EXPLANATION
Zirconia is a nonmetallic inorganic material commonly used in dental implants.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a metallic implant?
SINGLE ANSWER
stainless steel
silicone
titanium alloy
cobalt-base alloy
EXPLANATION
Silicone is a polymer that contains silicone-oxygen backbone chain with organic side groups bonded
to the silicon atoms.
QUESTION 6
Which properties of polymers make them usable as replacements of original joint surfaces?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
flexibility
strength
brittleness
softness
EXPLANATION
Strong and flexible polymers are best used for replacements of dysfunctional joints surfaces.
QUESTION 7
Which properties of metals make them usable as pacemakers?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
stability
electrical conductivity
corrosiveness
reactivity
EXPLANATION
Stable, inert, and strong metals are used in making pacemakers, which are electronic biomedical
devices that regulate human heartbeat. The device contain metallic electrodes that are in direct
contact with the heart.
QUESTION 8
A person suffers from a neck injury. The doctor performs surgery by removing a damaged bone and
filling the space with a substitute bone material. Screws and connecting rods are then used to
secure the bones.
Which of the following can be used as the material for the screws and rods?
SINGLE ANSWER
silicone
zirconia
titanium
iron oxide
EXPLANATION
Titanium can be used as screws and connecting rods for neck and spinal injury because of its high
resistance to corrosion and superior biocompatibility.
QUESTION 9
Cornea is the transparent front part layer of the eye. It can be damaged by diseases, infection, or
injury. Some people need corneal implants to save their sight.
Which of the following materials can be bestused as artificial cornea?

SINGLE ANSWER
polymer
pure metal
alloy
ceramic
EXPLANATION
An artificial cornea must be transparent, biocompatible, and elastic. Among the choices, only
polymers can be elastic and transparent. They can be used as cornea implants.
QUESTION 10
A person loses several teeth in an accident.
Which of the following pairs of materials is bestused as teeth replacement?
SINGLE ANSWER
titanium screw and zirconia crown
silicone screw and titanium crown
zirconia screw and silicone crown
stainless steel screw and titanium crown
EXPLANATION
Titanium screws or cylinders act as replacement root for the missing teeth. Zirconia is then used as
the dental crowns because of its smooth surface finish.
The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures: Sports
Equipments
QUESTION 1
What are the basic uses of a sports equipment?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
as a player's equipment
used to play sports
is a game equipment
used to build stadiums
EXPLANATION
Sports equipment is any necessary item that is used to play sports, can be a game equipment (ball,
racket, net) or a player's equipment (shoes, pads, clothes).
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are the general types of materials used in making sports equipment?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
metals
ceramics
polymers
wood
EXPLANATION
The three general types of material used are metals, ceramics, and polymers.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following compounds is an example of metals used in making bicycles?
SINGLE ANSWER
aluminum alloy
polycarbonate
carbon fiber
polyurethane
EXPLANATION
Aluminum alloy is one of the most common alloys used in the frameset of a bicycle.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are not examples of polymer?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
titanium
ceramic fiber
polyurethane
polycarbonate
EXPLANATION
Polyurethane and polycarbonate are examples of a polymer with molecules having a large number
of repeating units of covalently bonded chain of atoms.
QUESTION 5
Which properties of metals make them fit as a material for baseball bats?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
strength
hardness
durability
flexibility
EXPLANATION
Strong, hard, and durable metals are used for some baseball bats in replacing wooden bats.
QUESTION 6
Which properties of ceramics make them usable as carbon-ceramic rotors?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
lightweight
durability
brittleness
strength
EXPLANATION
Carbon-ceramic rotors are used in race car brakes. The ceramics used together with carbon makes
the car breaks lightweight as well as durable.
QUESTION 7
You were asked to design a sports equipment which should be lightweight, durable, and flexible.
Which of the following materials should you use to design the equipment?
SINGLE ANSWER
polymer
ceramic
metal
alloy
EXPLANATION
If you were to design a sports equipment, the materials that you should use is made of polymers.
Polymers have molecules with a large number of repeating units of covalently bonded chain of
atoms. They are known for durability and flexibility.
QUESTION 8
Carbon fiber is a strong, thin filaments of carbon which is used to strengthen a material especially
ceramics. It is 90% from polyacrylonitrile (PAN). Its properties also include lightweight and flexibility,
which makes it good in making a wide range of sports equipment.
Which of the following materials is carbon fiber made of?
SINGLE ANSWER
polymer
ceramic
metal
alloy
EXPLANATION
Polyacrylonitrile (PAN) is a synthetic polymer that is a precusor in making carbon fibers. Since one
of the properties of carbon fiber includes flexibility and 90% of the material came from a synthetic
polymer, then it is also considered as a polymer.
QUESTION 9
Arya loves to join equestrian competitions. Besides conditioning her horse and continuously
practicing for the competition, she always makes sure that she wears her protective gears such as
vests and helmets.
Which of the pairs correctly describes the materials used and its properties in making helmets?
SINGLE ANSWER
polymer - shatter-free
metal - durable
ceramic - flexible
alloy - strong
EXPLANATION
The durability and shatter-free properties of polymers specifically polycarbonate is best in making
protective sports equipment such as helmets for equestrian competitions.
The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures: Electronic
Devices
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are components for controlling the flow of electrons?
SINGLE ANSWER
electronic devices
electrical devices
electric current
electric power
EXPLANATION
Electronic devices are materials that control the flow of electrons. Common examples include
capacitors and resistors.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following materials resists changes in electric current passing through it?
SINGLE ANSWER
inductor
resistor
capacitor
transistor
EXPLANATION
An inductor resists changes in electric current passing through it. It is often comprised of conductors
wound into a magnetic core.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following stores electrical energy temporarily in an electric field?
SINGLE ANSWER
resistor
inductor
capacitor
transistor
EXPLANATION
A capacitor is an electronic device which controls electricity by storing it temporarily in an electric
field.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are true about the electrical plates in a capacitor?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They are made of conductive materials.
They are made of electrical insulators.
They are attached with screws.
They are separated by a dielectric.
EXPLANATION
A capacitor has two electrical plates separated by a dielectric. The plates are made of conductive
materials, such as metals and electrolytes.
QUESTION 5
What are the functions of a resistor?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
resist the change in electric current
reduce the amount of current
lower the voltage levels
increase the flow of electrons
EXPLANATION
A resistor reduces the amount of current and lowers the voltage levels within circuits. The reduction
in current or voltage results in the transformation of electrical energy into heat.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following can be used as a dielectric?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ceramic
metal
glass
electrolyte
EXPLANATION
The dielectric is an insulator that stores energy when polarized. It is made of nonconducting
materials such as ceramic and glass.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are true about ferrites?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They are ceramic materials comprised of iron oxides combined with nickel, zinc, or manganese
compounds.
They are mainly composed of a mixture of conducting graphite or carbon powder and a
nonconducting ceramic powder.
They have high magnetic permeability and high electrical resistivity.
They have no free flowing electrons, so they have superior insulating properties.
EXPLANATION
Ferrites are ceramic materials often used as the core of inductors. They are comprised of iron oxides
combined with nickel, zinc, or manganese compounds. They have high magnetic permeability and
high electrical resistivity.
QUESTION 8
Resistors X and Y are carbon resistors. The ratio of graphite to ceramic in Resistor X is greater than
one. However, for Resistor Y, that ratio is less than one.
Which of the following is true about Resistors X and Y?
SINGLE ANSWER
The overall resistance of Resistors X and Y are equal.
The overall resistance of Resistor X is higher than that of Resistor Y.
The overall resistance of Resistor X is lower than that of Resistor Y.
The overall resistance of Resistors X and Y cannot be compared from the given data.
EXPLANATION
The resistive value of the resistor depends on the ratio of graphite to ceramic (conductor to
insulator). When there is more conductor than insulator (graphite/ceramic >1), then the overall
resistance is lower.
QUESTION 9
Substance A is sandwiched between two electrical plates in a film capacitor.
What type of material is Substance A possibly made of?
SINGLE ANSWER
copper
polystyrene
ferrite
aluminum
EXPLANATION
Film capacitors have dielectrics often made of plastic films, such as polystyrene. Polystyrene, a
synthetic polymer made from the monomer styrene, has no free flowing electrons, so it has superior
insulating properties.
QUESTION 10
Substance X is wound into a magnetic core. When electricity passes through it, reactive magnetic
fluxes are generated.
What type of material is Substance X possibly made of?
SINGLE ANSWER
copper
ferrite
iron
polystyrene
EXPLANATION
A typical inductor has copper wires, which are good electrical conductors, wound around a magnetic
iron or ferrite core. When an electric current passes through the coil, it produces a magnetic field,
which in turn produces electric current.
The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures:

Construction Supplies
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are the uses of metals as construction supplies?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
drainage components
roofing
replacement for glass
electrical insulators
EXPLANATION
Metals are strong and durable construction materials because of the strong metallic bonding
between metal atoms. They have a wide range of applications in construction, including roofing,
drainage components, and handrails.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following elements comprise stainless steel?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
iron
carbon
chromium
sodium
EXPLANATION
Stainless steel is one of the oldest known construction material. It is an alloy composed primarily of
iron, carbon, and chromium.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following polymers is used as a replacement for glass?
SINGLE ANSWER
polyurethane
polystyrene
polymethylmethacrylate
polyethene
EXPLANATION
Acrylic or polymethylmethacrylate has high molecular weight and strong London dispersion forces. It
is a shatterproof and transparent plastic. Hence, it is used as a replacement for glass.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following properties are attributed to the presence of chromium in stainless steel?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
corrosion-resistant
water-resistant
stain-resistant
dust-resistant
EXPLANATION
Unlike steel, stainless steel has a minimum of 10.5% chromium that gives rise to its superior
corrosion- and stain-resistant properties.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the composition of the impermeable layer of stainless steel?
SINGLE ANSWER
iron oxide
chromium oxide
chromium sulfide
iron sulfide
EXPLANATION
Compared to steel, stainless steel spontaneously forms a chromium oxide layer on its surface on
contact with oxygen. This passive layer is impermeable and has the ability to repair itself.
QUESTION 6
What happens when acrylic is heated?
SINGLE ANSWER
The polymer melts into a viscous liquid.
The polymer solidifies into a certain shape.
The polymer becomes a supercooled liquid.
The polymer evaporates and forms a gas.
EXPLANATION
Like glass, acrylic can be molded into different shapes. Granules of acrylic are poured into a
machine that heats them up. As the temperature of the polymer is increased, intermolecular forces
are disrupted turning the polymer into a viscous liquid.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following describe silicon carbide?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It is a compound of silicon and carbon.
It is a metal that behaves almost like a diamond.
It has high tear resistance.
It has low resistance to strong acids and bases.
EXPLANATION
Silicon carbide (SC) is a compound of silicon and carbon. It is a nonmetallic ceramic material that
behaves almost like a diamond. It is the lightest and the hardest ceramic material. It has high tear
resistance and high resistance to strong acids and bases.
QUESTION 8
In a certain laboratory, small molecules were condensed to form a material comprised of large
molecules with repeating units. When the electrical conductivity of the material was tested, it was
classified as an insulator.
Which of the following is most likely the identity of the material?
SINGLE ANSWER
metal
polymer
ceramic
alloy
EXPLANATION
Polymers are large molecules with repeating units called monomers. They have a wide range of
applications in construction including flooring, windows pipes, insulation, and signage.
QUESTION 9
Materials A and B are both tough, durable, and strong building materials. They are both used as
window frames.
Material A is also used in pipes and electrical wiring while Material B is used in flooring and heat
insulation.
What are the possible identities of materials A and B?
SINGLE ANSWER
A is metal while B is polymer.
A is polymer while B is metal.
A is polymer while B is ceramic.
A is ceramic while B is metal.
EXPLANATION
Metals can be used to make window frames, pipes, and roofs. They are good conductors of
electricity so they are often used as electrical wiring. On the other hand, polymers can be used as
flooring, windows pipes, insulation, and signage.
QUESTION 10
Angelo wants to build a handrail in a stairway in his house.
Which of the following construction materials isbest used as a handrail?
SINGLE ANSWER
glass
stainless steel
silicon carbide
acrylic
EXPLANATION
The best option is stainless steel. Metals are durable materials that can provide stability or support
when ascending or descending stairways.
The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures:

Household Gadgets
QUESTION 1
Which of the following describe a household appliance?
SINGLE ANSWER
machine which can accomplish some household functions
machine that is used to move home furnitures from one place to another
material that is used to build roofings, ceilings, and walls of a house
material that is used to make the windows and doors of a house
EXPLANATION
Household appliances or gadgets can accomplish some household functions such as cooking,
cooling and entertainment.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a household appliance?
SINGLE ANSWER
dining table
window
air conditioner
roof
EXPLANATION
Household appliances such as air conditioners are electrical and/or mechanical machines which can
make the living space more comfortable by cooling the surroundings.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following can be considered consumer or home electronics?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
electric fan
television
video game console
toilet bowl
EXPLANATION
Consumer electronics or home electronics are equipment intended for everyday use. They are often
used for entertainment. They include television, DVD players, video recorders, and video game
consoles.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the function of cooling appliances?
SINGLE ANSWER
increase the temperature of the space
circulate the air in a room
increase the humidity
saturate the air with water vapor
EXPLANATION
Cooling appliances are used to lower the temperature and circulate the air in a room. They are often
used during hot weather to make the living space more comfortable.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the function of the nichrome wire in an hot plate?
SINGLE ANSWER
heating element
electrical wiring
electrical insulation
controller of electricity
EXPLANATION
The nichrome wire, which is an alloy of nickel and chromium, functions as the heating element of
oven toasters and hot plates.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following materials are best used as blades of a ceiling fan?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
aluminum
plastic
cloth
ceramic
EXPLANATION
The blades of a fan is often made of wood, iron, aluminum, or plastic. It is important for the blades to
be light, durable, tough, and easily molded or cut into shapes.
QUESTION 7
Which property of polymers make them a good choice as a metal coating?
SINGLE ANSWER
Plastics are light and brittle.
Plastics are heavy and durable.
Plastics do not allow heat and electricity to pass through easily .
Plastics allow heat and electricity to pass through easily.
EXPLANATION
Polymers are used in covers and handles as electrical insulation.
QUESTION 8
Why is nichrome wire used as a heating element?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It has high electrical resistance.
It is an excellent electrical insulator.
It has low melting point.
It forms a thin layer of chromium oxide
EXPLANATION
Nichrome is an ideal material for heating element because of its high resistance. It also forms a thin
layer of chromium oxide when it is heated for the first time. This layer protects the nichrome from
breaking or burning out.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is true about the copper metal used in electrical wiring?
SINGLE ANSWER
It has free-moving electrons.
It has an overall positive charge.
It has an arrangement that can easily be broken.
It has protons moving around the copper ions.
EXPLANATION
Copper is a metal commonly used in coil windings, bearings, and connectors of motors because of
its high electrical conductivity, which is attributed to its flowing electrons.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the role of liquid crystals in LCDs?
SINGLE ANSWER
They rapidly switch on and off the pixels.
They comprise the tiny blocks that make up the images.
They move the pixels from one point to another.
They emit the light that illuminates the images.
EXPLANATION
Each pixel (picture element) of an image can be switched on or off very rapidly to make the images
move. These pixels are controlled electronically using liquid crystals.
The Structures, Properties, and Functions of Biomolecules

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are biomolecules composed of amino acid units?
SINGLE ANSWER
carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
nucleic acids
EXPLANATION
Proteins are biomolecules composed of amino acid units linked via peptide bonds.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are examples of carbohydrates?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
glucose
uracil
triglyceride
glycogen
EXPLANATION
Carbohydrates are molecules that are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Examples of
carbohydrates include glucose (monosaccharide) and glycogen (polysaccharide).
QUESTION 3
Fats and oils belong to which group of biomolecules?
SINGLE ANSWER
carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
nucleic acids
EXPLANATION
Fats and oils are triglycerides, which are lipids composed of glycerol and fatty acids.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following biomolecules contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
nucleic acids
EXPLANATION
Carbohydrates and lipids are mainly composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Proteins and
nucleic acids contain other elements such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is true about waxes?
SINGLE ANSWER
They are complex carbohydrates composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
They are composed of a fatty acid with a long chain of alcohol.
They are amphoteric because their amino acids have an acidic carboxyl end and a basic amino end.
They are biomolecules that are made up of repeating units of nucleotides.
EXPLANATION
Waxes are lipids that are composed of a fatty acid with a long chain of alcohol. They are produced
by both plants and animals.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the arrangement of triglycerides and waxes when they are mixed with
water?
SINGLE ANSWER
micelle
helix
pleated sheet
cyclic
EXPLANATION
When lipids are mixed with water, they arrange themselves in a spherical form called a micelle.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following nucleic acids catalyzes the peptide bond formation?
SINGLE ANSWER
DNA
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
EXPLANATION
The rRNA is the RNA component of ribosomes. It catalyzes the peptide bond formation during
protein synthesis.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are functions of carbohydrates?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
store and provide energy
express genetic information
provide framework of cellular structures
speed up chemical reactions
EXPLANATION
The main function of carbohydrates is to store and provide energy. They are broken down into
smaller glucose units that can be easily absorbed by the cells. In addition, some carbohydrates
serve as the framework of cellular structures.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the reasons why cellulose passes through the digestive system
unchanged?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Its large molecular size makes it insoluble in water.
It cannot be broken down into simpler monosaccharides in the body.
It forms a micelle when it mixes with water in the body.
Its helical shape is not recognized by the enzymes for digestion.
EXPLANATION
Cellulose, a water-insoluble polysaccharide, cannot be digested by humans because the appropriate
enzyme to breakdown cellulose into simpler monosaccharides is lacking. Hence, nutritionists call
cellulose as dietary fiber because it just passes through the digestive system unchanged.
QUESTION 10
Molecules A and B both contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. Molecule A is soluble in water
while Molecule B is insoluble in water.
What are the most probable identities of A and B?
SINGLE ANSWER
A is a protein and B is a nucleic acid.
A is a lipid and B is a protein.
A is a carbohydrate and B is a lipid.
A is a nucleic acid and B is a carbohydrate.
EXPLANATION
Carbohydrates and lipids both have C, H, and O atoms. However, most carbohydrates are soluble in
water while lipids are insoluble.
The Collision Theory and Factors Affecting the Rate of a Chemical Reaction
CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
The [% \underline{\hspace{3cm}} %] theory states that higher frequency of effective collisions results
in a faster rate of chemical reaction.
EXACT VALUE
collision
EXPLANATION
According to the collision theory, the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the frequency of
collisions.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are the requirements for a reaction to occur?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
properly oriented collisions
equal energies of reacting species
similar geometry of colliding molecules
greater energy than the activation energy
EXPLANATION
Effective collision is needed for a reaction to occur. It is achieved when the reactant molecules
collide with proper orientation and with sufficient energy to surpass the activation energy.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is another term for activation energy?
SINGLE ANSWER
energy barrier
internal energy
free energy
reaction enthalpy
EXPLANATION
The activation energy is also called the energy barrier because it restricts the reactants from
becoming products.
QUESTION 4
Consider the reaction below.
[%\;{\mathrm l}_2\;+\;2{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;\rightarrow\;2\mathrm{NaI}\;+\;

{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_4{\mathrm O}_6%]
Which of the following conditions will decrease the rate of the reaction?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
increasing [%{\mathrm I}_2%] molecules
increasing the concentration of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;%]
using [%{\mathrm I}_2%] and [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;%] solids instead of
aqueous solutions
decreasing the temperature
EXPLANATION
Decreasing the temperature decreases the kinetic energies of the molecules and the frequency of
effective collisions. Therefore, a decrease in temperature decreases the reaction rate.
In the case of particle size, [%{\mathrm I}_2%] and [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm

O}_3\;%] have smaller particles when they are dispersed in aqueous solutions. Hence, when they
are used as solids, the particles are larger, and the reaction rate is slower.
QUESTION 5
[%\;{\mathrm l}_2\;+\;2{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;\rightarrow\;2\mathrm{NaI}\;+\;

{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_4{\mathrm O}_6%]
Which of the following conditions will increase the rate of the reaction?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
increasing [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;%]molecules
decreasing the concentration of [%{\mathrm I}_2%]
placing the mixture in an ice bath
heating the reaction mixture to [%50\;^\circ\mathrm C%]
EXPLANATION
The rate of reaction is directly proportional to concentration and temperature because when more
energetic molecules are present, the number of collision increases.
QUESTION 6
Refer to the table below.
Which reaction is the slowest?

SINGLE ANSWER
B
A
C
D
EXPLANATION
Reaction B has higher activation energy than Reactions A, C, and D.
QUESTION 7
Refer to the table below.
Which reaction is the fastest?

SINGLE ANSWER
D
A
B
C
EXPLANATION
Although reactions A, C, and D have the same activation energy, the reaction temperature of D is
higher.
QUESTION 8
[%2{\mathrm H}_2\;+\;{\mathrm O}_2\;\rightarrow\;2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]
Which of the following is the most probable orientation of collision for the reaction to happen?
SINGLE ANSWER
EXPLANATION
The collision above closely resembles the structure of the product.
QUESTION 9
The reaction is carried out in a flexible (expandable or compressible) container. The reaction will not
happen under normal conditions. To initiate the reaction, a spark (e.g. electric discharge) is needed.
Which of the following statements is true?

SINGLE ANSWER
The activation energy is high.
The activation energy is low.
The activation energy is equal to zero.
The activation energy depends on the amount of the reactants.
EXPLANATION
A spark is needed for the reaction to happen. This means that energy is needed to be supplied so
that the reactants will have enough energy to surpass the activation energy.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following will lead to the decrease in the rate of the reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
using heated oxygen
expanding the container
increasing the temperature
increasing moles of hydrogen
EXPLANATION
Expanding the container means increasing its volume. When the volume of the container increases,
the concentration (moles per volume) decreases. Lower concentration results in slower reaction rate.
Catalysts: How Reaction Rate Is Affected
CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is true about catalysts?
SINGLE ANSWER
They lower the activation energy of the reaction.
They increase the free energy of the reaction.
They are the reacting molecules that become products.
They are the products formed after a reaction.
EXPLANATION
Catalysts are substances that increase the reaction rate by lowering the activation energy of the
reaction.
QUESTION 2
What happens to a catalyst at the end of a reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is consumed.
It escapes as a gaseous product.
It is regenerated.
It becomes an unrecyclable by-product.
EXPLANATION
A catalyst is regenerated (not consumed) in a course of a reaction.
QUESTION 3
Arrange the following steps of catalysis.
CORRECT ORDER
The catalyst forms a bond with the reacting molecules.
The reacting molecules combine or rearrange to form the product.
The product separates from the active site of the catalyst.
The catalyst is free again to form a bond with other reacting molecules.
EXPLANATION
A catalyzed reaction often involves a series of steps.
1. Bonding – The catalyst forms a bond with the reacting molecules.

2. Reaction – The reacting molecules combine or rearrange to form the product.
3. Separation – The product separates from the catalyst.
After separation, the catalyst is free again to form a bond with other reacting molecules.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true about homogeneous catalysts?
SINGLE ANSWER
They are consumed in the reaction.
They exist in the same phase as the reaction they catalyze.
They are solid catalysts that adsorb gaseous reactants.
They become part of the products after the reaction.
EXPLANATION
Homogeneous catalysts exist in the same phase as the reaction they catalyze. They are often in gas
or liquid phase.
QUESTION 5
Pepsin is a catalyst that aids in the digestion of proteins. It is active in acidic conditions of the
stomach.
Which of the following is the role of pepsin?

SINGLE ANSWER
heterogeneous catalyst
substrate
enzyme
active site
EXPLANATION
Pepsin is a biological catalyst. It is an enzyme.
QUESTION 6
Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes to alkanes uses hydrogen gas over a bed of palladium metal.
[%{\mathrm C}_2{\mathrm H}_4+{\mathrm H}_2\xrightarrow{\mathrm{Pd}}{\mathrm C}_2{\mathrm

H}_6%]
What is the catalyst in the hydrogenation reaction?

SINGLE ANSWER
[%\mathrm{Pd}%]
[%{\mathrm H}_2%]
EXPLANATION
Hydrogenation in palladium surface is an example of a heterogeneous catalysis. Palladium is the
catalyst that is not consumed in the reaction.
QUESTION 7
The main reaction of the Haber process for the synthesis of ammonia is as follows:
[%3{\mathrm H}_{2(\mathrm g)}+{\mathrm N}_{2(\mathrm g)}\rightarrow2{\mathrm{NH}}_{3(\mathrm

g)}%]
This reaction is done over a solid catalytic platinum bed. What kind of catalyst is the platinum bed?
SINGLE ANSWER
homogeneous catalyst
enzyme
heterogeneous catalyst
liquid catalyst
EXPLANATION
Both reactants and products are in a gaseous state while the platinum bed is in solid state.
Therefore, platinum is a heterogeneous catalyst.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true about catalyzed and uncatalyzed reaction pathways?

SINGLE ANSWER
The catalyzed reaction has a higher activation energy than the uncatalyzed reaction.
The catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions form products with equal energies.
The catalyzed reaction produces a product with lower energy than the uncatalyzed reaction.
The catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions follow the same reaction pathways.
EXPLANATION
The catalyzed reaction has lower activation energy than an uncatalyzed one. At the end of the
reaction, both catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions have products with the same energies.
QUESTION 9
Below is an energy diagram for a certain reaction.
The diagram states that the activation energy is at 250 kJ/mol. If a catalyst is added to the reaction,
what would the activation energy be?
SINGLE ANSWER
greater than 250 kJ/mol
less than 250 kJ/mol
equal to 250 kJ/mol
depends on the phase of the reactants
EXPLANATION
A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction regardless of its type.
QUESTION 10
A certain reaction is carried out with an experimental set-up and a control set-up both at the same
temperature. The experimental set-up uses a catalyst while the control set-up is carried out in
standard conditions without a catalyst. The end of the reaction is marked by the appearance of a
dark blue color.
What observations are expected?
SINGLE ANSWER
The control will not proceed with the reaction because it does not have a catalyst.
The control will increase in temperature because a higher activation energy is required.
Both the control and experimental will have a dark blue color at the same time.
The control will take a longer time for a dark blue color to appear.
EXPLANATION
The only variable that is certain in the reaction is that the experimental is catalyzed, and the control
is not. Therefore, we can only predict that the catalyzed reaction will happen faster compared to the
uncatalyzed reaction.
Calculating the Amount of Reactants and Products in a Chemical Reaction

CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
Refer to the reaction below.
[%{\mathrm{CH}}_4+2{\mathrm{Cl}}_2\rightarrow{\mathrm{CH}}_2{\mathrm{Cl}}_2+2\mathrm{HCl}
%]
Which of the following is the correct mole relationship between [%{\mathrm{CH}}_4%] and
[%\mathrm{HCl}%]?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%\frac{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{CH}}_4}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{HCl}}%]
[%\frac{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{CH}}_4}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{HCl}}%]
[%\frac{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{CH}}_4}{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;\mathrm{HCl}}%]
[%\frac{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{CH}}_4}{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;\mathrm{HCl}}%]
EXPLANATION
According to the reaction equation, for every 1 mole [%{\mathrm{CH}}_4%] used, 2 moles of
[%\mathrm{HCl}%] are formed. Hence, there is a 1:2 mole relationship between the two reactants.
QUESTION 2
%]
How many moles [%{\mathrm{CH}}_2{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] will be produced if two moles [%

{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] are completely used up in the reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
4 moles
2 moles
1 mole
0.5 mole
EXPLANATION
According to the reaction equation, for every 2 moles [%{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] used, 1 mole [%
{\mathrm{CH}}_2{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] is formed.
QUESTION 3
%]
How many moles [%{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] is needed to react completely with 1 mole [%

{\mathrm{CH}}_4%] ?
SINGLE ANSWER
0.50 mole
1 mole
2 moles
4 moles
EXPLANATION
According to the reaction equation, for every 1 mole [%{\mathrm{CH}}_4%] used, 2 moles of [%
{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] are needed.
QUESTION 4
[%2{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4+
{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3\rightarrow2{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4+3{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO
}}_4%]
How many moles of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4%] is needed to completely react with 2

moles [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3%]?
SINGLE ANSWER
0.25 mole
1 mole
2 moles
4 moles
EXPLANATION
Let [%x=%] number of moles of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4%] that will react with 2 moles
[%{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3%].
[%\frac{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;
{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3}=\frac{\;x}{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;
{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3}%]
Solving for [%x%],
[%x=4\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4%]
QUESTION 5
}}_4%]
How many moles of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%] is formed when 1 mole of [%

{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4%] is formed?
SINGLE ANSWER
1 mole
1.5 moles
2 moles
3 moles
EXPLANATION
Let [%x=%] number of moles of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%] that will formed from 1 mole
of [%{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4%].
[%\frac{3\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4}{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;
{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4}=\frac{\;x}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4}%]
Solving for [%x%],
[%x=1.5\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%].
QUESTION 6
}}_4%]
How many moles of [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3%] is needed to form 1 mole [%

{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%]?
SINGLE ANSWER
0.33 mole
1 mole
1.5 moles
3 moles
EXPLANATION
Let [%x=%] number of moles of [%{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4%] that is formed from 10 moles of mole of [%
{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%].
[%\frac{3\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;
{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3}=\frac{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4}{x}
%]
Solving for [%x%],
[%x=0.33\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{Al}}_2(\mathrm PO_4)_3%].
QUESTION 7
}}_4%]
How many moles of [%{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4%] is formed when 10 moles [%

{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4\;%] is used?
SINGLE ANSWER
10 moles
5 moles
2 moles
1 mole
EXPLANATION
Let [%x=%] moles of [%\mathrm{AlPO}_4%] formed when 10 moles [%
{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4\;%] is used.
[%\frac{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4}{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Al}}
{\mathrm{PO}}_4}=\frac{10\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4}{x}%]
Solving for [%x%],
[% x=10\;\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{AlPO}_4%].
QUESTION 8
[%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O+7{\mathrm

O}_2\;\rightarrow\;6{\mathrm{CO}}_2+3{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]
How many grams of [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2\;%] is produced when 0.10 mole [%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm
H}_6\mathrm O%] is used in the reaction?
Use the following molar masses: [%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O=94\;\mathrm

g/\mathrm{mol}%], [%{\mathrm O}_2=32\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%], [%
{\mathrm{CO}}_2=44\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%], and [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O=18\;\mathrm
g/\mathrm{mol}%].
SINGLE ANSWER
0.60 g
4.40 g
26.4 g
44.0 g
EXPLANATION
Let [%x=%] moles of [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%] produced when 0.10 mole [%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm
H}_6\mathrm O%] is used in the reaction.
[%\frac{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O}{6\;\mathrm{moles}\;

{\mathrm{CO}}_2}\;=\;\frac{0.1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O}x%]
Solve for [%x%].
[%x=0.6\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]
Then convert mole to mass.
[%\mathrm{mass}\;{\mathrm{CO}}_2=0.6\;\mathrm{mol}\;{\mathrm{CO}}_2\;(44\frac{\;\mathrm g}
{\mathrm{mol}})=\;26.4\;\mathrm g%]
QUESTION 9

How many moles of [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] is formed when 30.8 g [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is
used in the reaction?

g/\mathrm{mol}%].
SINGLE ANSWER
0.10 mol
0.41 mol
0.70 mol
2.47 mol
EXPLANATION
First, convert the given mass to moles.
[%\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm O}_2=\frac{30.8\;\mathrm g}{32\;\mathrm

g/\mathrm{mol}}=0.96\;\mathrm{mol}%]
Let [%x=%] moles of [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] formed when 30.8 g [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is
used in the reaction.
[%\frac{7\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm O}_2}{3\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm
O}=\frac{0.96\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm O}_2}x%]
Solve for [%x%].
[%x=0.41\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]

QUESTION 10

How many grams of [%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O%] is used when 270 g [%{\mathrm
H}_2\mathrm O%] is produced?

g/\mathrm{mol}%].
SINGLE ANSWER
15.0 g
470 g
1410 g
4230 g
EXPLANATION
First, convert the given mass to moles.
[%\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O=\frac{270\;\mathrm g}{18\;\mathrm

g/\mathrm{mol}}=15\;\mathrm{moles}%]
Let [%x=%] grams of [%{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O%] used when 270 g [%{\mathrm
H}_2\mathrm O%] is produced.
[%\frac{3\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm

H}_6\mathrm O}=\frac{15\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O}x%]
Solve for [%x%].
[%x=5\;\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O%].
Lastly, convert the given moles to mass.
[%\mathrm{mass}\;{\mathrm C}_6{\mathrm H}_6\mathrm O=(5.00\;\mathrm{mol})\;(94\;\mathrm

g/\mathrm{mol})\;=\;470\;\mathrm g%]
Calculating the Percent Yield in a Chemical Reaction

CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
If the reaction is only 70% efficient, what is the percent yield?
SINGLE ANSWER
30%
70%
90%
100%
EXPLANATION
The percent yield of the reaction is 70%. It reflects the efficiency or the extent of completion of the
reaction.
QUESTION 2
The [% \underline{\hspace{3cm}} %] yield is the maximum amount of product that can be formed
from the given amount of reactant.
SINGLE ANSWER
actual
theoretical
percent
experimental
EXPLANATION
The theoretical yield is calculated with the assumption that the reaction is 100% complete.
QUESTION 3
Consider the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
[%2{\mathrm H}_2{\mathrm O}_2\rightarrow2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O+{\mathrm O}_2%]
When 2 moles [%{\mathrm H}_2{\mathrm O}_2%] was used in an experiment, 0.8 mole [%{\mathrm
O}_2%] was produced.
What is 0.8 mole [%{\mathrm O}_2%] produced called?

SINGLE ANSWER
actual yield
theoretical yield
percent yield
expected yield
EXPLANATION
The 0.8 mole is said to be the amount of [%{\mathrm O}_2%] formed in the experiment. It is the
experimental or actual yield.
QUESTION 4
What is the theoretical yield of [%{\mathrm O}_2%] (in moles)?

SINGLE ANSWER
0.8 mole
1 mole
1.6 moles
2 moles
EXPLANATION
Based on the balanced chemical equation, 2 moles [%{\mathrm H}_2{\mathrm O}_2%] is expected
to produce 1 mole [%{\mathrm O}_2%]. Therefore, the theoretical yield is 1 mole.
QUESTION 5
What is the percent yield of the reaction?

SINGLE ANSWER
0.4%
0.8%
40%
80%
EXPLANATION
Use the equation below to calculate percent yield.
[%\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}}
{\mathrm{theoretical}\;\mathrm{yield}}\times100%]
The actual yield is 0.8 mole while the theoretical yield is 1 mole.
[%\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{0.8\;\mathrm {mole}}{1.0\;\mathrm {mole}}\times100%]
[%\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=80\%%]
QUESTION 6
Refer to the equation below.
[%2\mathrm{CO}+{\mathrm O}_2\rightarrow2{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]
What is the theoretical yield (in grams) of [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%] when 1 mole [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is
used in the reaction?
The molar mass of [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%] is 44 g/mol.

SINGLE ANSWER
22 g
44 g
88 g
176 g
EXPLANATION
Based on the balanced chemical equation, 1 mole [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is expected to produce 2
moles [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]. Two moles [%{\mathrm{CO}}_2%] is equivalent to 88 grams.
QUESTION 7
What is the theoretical yield of a certain reaction if it is only 50% successful and it has produced 5.0
g of product?
SINGLE ANSWER
2.5 g
5.0 g
7.5 g
10 g
EXPLANATION
Rearrange the equation for percent yield.
[%\;\;\;\;\;\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}}
[%\mathrm{theoretical}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}}
{\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}}\times100%]
[%\mathrm{theoretical}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{5.00\;\mathrm g}{50}\times100%]
[%\mathrm{theoretical}\;\mathrm{yield}=10\;\mathrm g%]
QUESTION 8
What is the actual yield of a reaction that has a maximum possible yield of 6.00 g and is only 75%
complete?
SINGLE ANSWER
4.50 g
6.00 g
8.00 g
10.3 g
EXPLANATION
[%\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}=\left(\frac{\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}}{100}\right)
(\mathrm{theoretical}\;\mathrm{yield})%]
[%\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}=\left(\frac{75\%}{100}\right)(6.00\;\mathrm g)%]
[%\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}=4.50\;\mathrm g%]
QUESTION 9
Consider the reaction between acetic acid and 10.6 grams soda ash. The reaction produced 13.1
grams [%{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%].
[%2{\mathrm{CH}}_3\mathrm{COOH}+{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3\rightarrow{\mathrm
H}_2\mathrm O+{\mathrm{CO}}_2+2{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%]
Use the following molar masses: [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3=106\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}

%] and [%{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}=82\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%].
What is the theoretical yield of [%{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%] from the reaction?

SINGLE ANSWER
8.20 g
13.1 g
16.4 g
26.2 g
EXPLANATION
10.6 g [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3%] is equivalent to 0.1 mole [%
{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3%].
[%\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3=\frac{10.6\;\mathrm g}{106\;\mathrm
Based on the balanced chemical equation, 2 moles [%{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%] is

produced for every mole of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3%]. Therefore, 0.2 mole [%
{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%] is expected to be produced from 0.1 mole [%
{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3%].
[%\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}=\frac{2\;\mathrm{moles}\;
{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}}
(0.1\;\mathrm{mole}\;{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO})\;%]
[%\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}=0.2\;\mathrm{mole}\;
{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}\;%]
0.2 mole [%{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%] is equivalent to 16.4 g [%

{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%].
[%\mathrm{mass}\;{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}=0.2\;\mathrm{mole}\;
{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}\;(82\;\frac{\mathrm g}{\mathrm{mol}})%]
[%\mathrm{mass}\;{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}=16.4\;\mathrm g\;
{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%]
QUESTION 10
Consider the reaction between acetic acid and 10.6 grams soda ash. The reaction produced 13.1
grams [%{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%].
[%2{\mathrm{CH}}_3\mathrm{COOH}+{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3\rightarrow{\mathrm
H}_2\mathrm O+{\mathrm{CO}}_2+2{\mathrm{NaCH}}_3\mathrm{COO}%]
Use the following molar masses: Na2CO3 = 106 g/mol and NaCH3COO = 82 g/mol
What is the percent yield of the reaction?

SINGLE ANSWER
63%
80%
100%
124%
HINT
EXPLANATION
The actual yield is 13.1 g and the theoretical yield is 16.4 g.
[%\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{\mathrm{actual}\;\mathrm{yield}}
[%\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=\frac{13.1\;\mathrm g}{16.4\;\mathrm g}\times100%]
[%\mathrm{percent}\;\mathrm{yield}=80\%%]
Calculating the Amount of Products by Determining the Limiting Reactant

CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is true about the limiting reactant?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is added in excess.
It gives a larger amount of product.
It is depleted after the reaction.
It is used to calculate the actual yield.
EXPLANATION
The limiting reactant is the reactant that is completely used up in a chemical reaction. It determines
the maximum amount of product that can be formed from the reaction.
QUESTION 2
[%3{\mathrm N}_2+3{\mathrm O}_2\rightarrow2{\mathrm N}_2\mathrm O+{\mathrm N}_2{\mathrm

O}_4%]
If 3 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] is used together with 4 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%], which of the
following statements is true?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm O}_2%] is the limiting reactant.
[%{\mathrm N}_2%] is the limiting reactant.
Both [%{\mathrm N}_2%] and [%{\mathrm O}_2%] will be depleted after the reaction.
Neither [%{\mathrm N}_2%] nor [%{\mathrm O}_2%] will be depleted after the reaction.
EXPLANATION
Based on the balanced chemical equation, when 3 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] and 3 moles [%
{\mathrm O}_2%] are made to react, both will get used up. What you have is 3 moles [%{\mathrm
N}_2%] and 4 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%]. [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is 1 mole more than is required.
Therefore, [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is in excess while [%{\mathrm N}_2%] is the limiting reactant.
QUESTION 3

O}_4%]
If 3 moles of [%{\mathrm N}_2%] is used, how many moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%] should be present
so that [%{\mathrm O}_2%] becomes the limiting reactant?
SINGLE ANSWER
2
4
6
8
EXPLANATION
Based on the balanced chemical equation, 3 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] reacts with 3 moles [%
{\mathrm O}_2%] so that both reactants get used up.
Therefore, if the moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is lower than 3, [%{\mathrm O}_2%] becomes the
limiting reactant.
QUESTION 4

O}_4%]
Which of the following is the limiting reactant when 4 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] reacts with 3 moles
[%{\mathrm O}_2%]?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm N}_2%]
[%{\mathrm O}_2%]
[%{\mathrm N}_2\mathrm O%]
[%{\mathrm N}_2{\mathrm O}_4%]
EXPLANATION
Based on the balanced chemical equation, when 3 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%] reacts with 3 moles
[%{\mathrm N}_2%], both are used up.
If you have 4 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] and 3 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%], only 3 moles [%{\mathrm
N}_2%] will be used and the remaining 1 mole [%{\mathrm N}_2%] will be excess. Hence, [%
{\mathrm O}_2%] is the limiting reactant.
QUESTION 5

O}_4%]
When 3 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] is made to react with 1.5 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%], how many
moles [%{\mathrm N}_2{\mathrm O}_4%] is formed?
SINGLE ANSWER
3
2
1
0.5
EXPLANATION
3 moles [%{\mathrm N}_2%] will require 3 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%] to react. However, only 1.5
moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is given. This means that [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is the limiting reactant.
1.5 moles [%{\mathrm O}_2%] will produce 0.5 mole [%{\mathrm N}_2{\mathrm O}_4%] because the
mole ratio is 3 mole [%{\mathrm O}_2%] is to 1 mole [%{\mathrm N}_2{\mathrm O}_4%].
QUESTION 6
Consider the reaction between 0.1 mole [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%] and 1 mole [%{\mathrm
H}_2%].
[%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3+3{\mathrm H}_2\rightarrow2\mathrm{Al}+3{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm

O%]
Which of the following is the limiting reactant?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%]
[%{\mathrm H}_2%]
[%\mathrm{Al}%]
EXPLANATION
According to the balanced chemical equation, the mole ratio between [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm
O}_3%] and [%{\mathrm H}_2%] is 1 is to 3.
If you have 0.1 mole [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%], 0.3 mole [%{\mathrm H}_2%] is needed.
From the given, you have 1 mole [%{\mathrm H}_2%] so [%{\mathrm H}_2%] is in excess. Hence,
[%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%] is the limiting reactant.
QUESTION 7
H}_2%].

O%]
How many moles [%\mathrm{Al}%] is produced?

SINGLE ANSWER
0.1 mole
0.2 mole
1 mole
2 moles
EXPLANATION
Because [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%] is the limiting reactant, the mole [%\mathrm{Al}%]
produced will depend on its amount.
O}_3%] and [%\mathrm{Al}%] is 1 is to 2. Therefore, if you have 0.1 mole [%
{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%], then 0.2 mole [%\mathrm{Al}%] is produced.
QUESTION 8
H}_2%].

O%]
How many moles of [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] is produced?

SINGLE ANSWER
1 mole
3 moles
0.1 mole
0.3 mole
EXPLANATION
Because [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%] is the limiting reactant, the mole [%{\mathrm
H}_2\mathrm O%] produced will depend on its amount.
O}_3%] and [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] is 1 is to 3. Therefore, if you have 0.1 mole [%
{\mathrm{Al}}_2{\mathrm O}_3%], then 0.3 mole [%{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%] is produced.
QUESTION 9
Consider the reaction between 50 g [%\mathrm{Cu}%] and 85 g [%{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3%].
[%\mathrm{Cu}+2{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3\rightarrow\mathrm{Cu}({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2+2\mathrm{Ag}%]
Use the following molar masses: [%\mathrm{Cu}=63.5\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%], [%

{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3=170\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%], and [%\mathrm{Ag}=108\;\mathrm
g/\mathrm{mol}%].
Which is the limiting reactant?

SINGLE ANSWER
[%\mathrm{Cu}%]
[%\mathrm{Cu}({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2%]
[%\mathrm{Ag}%]
[%{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3%]
EXPLANATION
For every 1 mole [%\mathrm{Cu}%], you need 2 moles [%{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3%].
Moles of [%\mathrm{Cu}%]:
[%\mathrm{moles}\;\mathrm{Cu}=\frac{50\;\mathrm g}{63.5\;\mathrm
Moles of [%{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3%]:
[%\mathrm{moles}\;{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3=\frac{85\;\mathrm g}{170\;\mathrm
Moles of [%\mathrm{Cu}({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2%] from the reactants:
[%\mathrm{moles}\;\mathrm{Cu}({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2\;\mathrm{from}\;
{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3=0.25\;\mathrm{mol}\;\mathrm{Cu}({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2%]
[%\mathrm{moles}\;\mathrm{Cu}
({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2\;\mathrm{from}\;\mathrm{Cu}\;=0.79\;\mathrm{mol}\;\mathrm{Cu}
({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2%]
Because [%{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3%] gives the lower moles of products, it is the limiting reactant.
QUESTION 10
Consider the reaction between 50 g [%\mathrm{Cu}%] and 85 g [%{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3%].
[%\mathrm{Cu}+2{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3\rightarrow\mathrm{Cu}({\mathrm{NO}}_3)_2+2\mathrm{Ag}%]
Use the following molar masses: [%\mathrm{Cu}=63.5\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%], [%

{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3=170\;\mathrm g/\mathrm{mol}%], and [%\mathrm{Ag}=108\;\mathrm
g/\mathrm{mol}%].
How many grams Ag is formed from the reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
27 g
54 g
108 g
216 g
EXPLANATION
0.5 mole [%\mathrm{Ag}%] will be formed from the reaction. It is equivalent to 54 g when converted
to mass.
[%\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{Ag}\;=0.5\;\mathrm{mole}\;
{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3\;\left(\frac{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{Ag}\;}{1\;\mathrm{mole}\;
{\mathrm{AgNO}}_3}\right)%]
[%\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{Ag}\;=0.5\;\mathrm{mole}\;\mathrm{Ag}%]
[%\mathrm{mass}\;\mathrm{Ag}\;=0.5\;\mathrm{mol}\;\mathrm{Ag}\;(108\;\frac{\mathrm g}
{\mathrm{mol}})%]
[%\mathrm{mass}\;\mathrm{Ag}\;=54\;\mathrm g%]
Chemical Reaction: Endothermic and Exothermic

CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a characteristic of an exothermic reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
Energy is released.
Change in energy is positive.
Energy of the reaction increases.
Energy is found on the reactant side.
EXPLANATION
Release of energy is a characteristic of an exothermic reaction. Energy is found on the product side.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a characteristic of an endothermic reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
Energy is released.
Change in energy is positive.
Energy of the reaction decreases.
Energy is found on the product side.
EXPLANATION
Absorption of energy is a characteristic of an endothermic reaction. Therefore, the change in energy
is positive.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following equations represents an endothermic reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%\mathrm{Reactants}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{Products}\;+\;\mathrm{Energy}%]
[%\mathrm{Products}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{Reactants}\;+\;\mathrm{Energy}%]
[%\mathrm{Reactants}\;+\;\mathrm{Energy}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{Products}\;%]
[%\mathrm{Products}\;+\;\mathrm{Energy}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{Reactants}\;%]
EXPLANATION
Endothermic reactions require energy. Therefore, the energy should be on the reactant side.
[%\mathrm{Reactants}\;+\;\mathrm{Energy}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{Products}\;%]
QUESTION 4
Where is energy placed in the chemical equation of an exothermic reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
on the product side
on the reactant side
either on the reactant or the product side
neither on the reactant nor the product side
EXPLANATION
Energy exits in an exothermic reaction. Therefore, energy should be on the product side.
[%\mathrm{Reactants}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{Products}\;+\;\mathrm{Energy}%]
QUESTION 5
Which of the following reactions are exothermic?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
[%\mathrm{HCl}\;+\;\mathrm{NaOH}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{NaCl}\;+\;{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O\;
+\;\mathrm{heat}%]
[%2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O\;+\;\mathrm{electricity}\;\rightarrow\;2{\mathrm H}_2\;+\;{\mathrm
O}_2%]
[%{\mathrm{CaCl}}_2\;+\;{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3\;+\;\mathrm{heat}\;\rightarrow\;
{\mathrm{CaCO}}_3\;+\;2\mathrm{NaCl}%]
[%2\mathrm{Mg}\;+\;{\mathrm O}_2\;\rightarrow\;2\mathrm{MgO}\;+\;\mathrm{light}%]
EXPLANATION
Light and heat are forms of energy. Since they are found on the product side of these reactions, they
are exothermic.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an exothermic process?
SINGLE ANSWER
boiling of water
melting of ice
explosion of a bomb
heating a metal
EXPLANATION
Explosion is associated with a release of a large amount of energy. Therefore, it is an exothermic
process.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a definitive indicator of an exothermic reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
formation of light
evolution of heat
formation of gas
explosion
EXPLANATION
Exothermic reactions like explosions often produce gases. However, gases are not a definitive
indicator of an exothermic reaction because they can also be formed in endothermic reactions.
For example, the decomposition of calcium carbonate is an endothermic reaction releases carbon
dioxide gas.
[%{\mathrm{CaCO}}_3\;+\;\mathrm{heat}\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm{CaO}\;+\;{\mathrm{CO}}_2%]
QUESTION 8
[%2\mathrm{Na}\;+\;2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O\;\rightarrow\;2\mathrm{NaOH}\;+\;{\mathrm

H}_2\;+\;\mathrm{heat}%]
Which of the following statements regarding the reaction is true?

SINGLE ANSWER
The initial energy is equal to the final energy.
The initial energy is higher compared to the final energy.
The initial energy is lower compared to the final energy.
The initial and final energies are both zero.
EXPLANATION
Heat is a form of energy. Release of energy means the initial energy is higher compared to the final
energy.
QUESTION 9
Consider the hypothetical endothermic reaction [%\mathrm A\;+\;\mathrm B\;\rightarrow\;\mathrm C
%].
If the final energy is 30 kJ, which of the following is the possible value for the initial energy of the
reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
15 kJ
30 kJ
45 kJ
60 kJ
EXPLANATION
There should be a positive change in energy (endothermic). Therefore, the final energy must be
higher than the initial energy.
Among the choices, only 15 kJ is lower than the final energy; hence it is the only possible answer.
QUESTION 10
[%\mathrm{Zn}\;+\;{\mathrm H}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4\;\rightarrow\;{\mathrm{ZnSO}}_4\;+\;{\mathrm
H}_2%]
If the initial energy is [%-814\;\mathrm{kJ}%] and the final energy is [%-980\;\mathrm{kJ}%], which of
the following best describes the reaction?
SINGLE ANSWER
[%\mathrm{ΔE}\;=\;+166;\;\mathrm{Exothermic}%]
[%\mathrm{ΔE}\;=\;+166;\;\mathrm{Endothermic}%]
[%\mathrm{ΔE}\;=\;-166;\;\mathrm{Exothermic}%]
[%\mathrm{ΔE}\;=\;-166;\;\mathrm{Endothermic}%]
EXPLANATION
[%\mathrm{ΔE}\;=\;\mathrm{final}\;\mathrm E\;–\;\mathrm{initial}\;\mathrm E%]
[%\mathrm{ΔE}=-980\;\mathrm{kJ}–(-814\;\mathrm{kJ})%]
[%\mathrm{ΔE}\;=\;-166\;\mathrm{kJ}%]
Since ΔE is negative, the reaction is exothermic.
Harnessing Energy from Different Sources

CHEMICAL REACTIONS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following energy sources are present in limited amounts, so they will be depleted over
time?
SINGLE ANSWER
nonrenewable resources
renewable resources
recyclable resources
nonrecyclable resources
EXPLANATION
When an energy source can be depleted, it is because there is no way to replenish them
immediately. If we cannot replenish it, then it is nonrenewable.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are renewable energy sources?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
fossil fuels
solar cells
biogas
hydrothermal
EXPLANATION
Solar cells harness the energy from the sun, which will not be depleted anytime soon. Hydrothermal
energy is obtained from naturally heated water and since earth will continually emit energy to heat
water, then this energy source is also renewable.
QUESTION 3
Which is not a major energy component of fossil fuels?
SINGLE ANSWER
coal
natural gas
manure
crude oil
EXPLANATION
Manure is an example of a major energy component of biomass.
QUESTION 4
What is the other term given to batteries?
SINGLE ANSWER
electrochemical cells
electrolytic cells
electrolytes
electrolysis
EXPLANATION
Batteries are also called electrochemical cells because they can convert chemical energy into
electrical energy.
QUESTION 5
What is the function of turbines?
SINGLE ANSWER
They spin the generator to produce electricity.
They deliver electricity produced from power plants to the power distributors.
They generate electricity from different energy sources.
They store electricity for future use.
EXPLANATION
The turbines are rotated by steam or vapour generated in boilers. They, in turn, spin a generator
which produces electricity.
QUESTION 6
What is the function of transmission lines?
SINGLE ANSWER
They spin the generator to produce electricity.
They deliver electricity produced from power plants to the power distributors.
They generate electricity from different energy sources.
They store electricity for future use.
EXPLANATION
Transmission lines are the wires/cables where electricity travels. They are used by power providers
to distribute electricity to our homes.
QUESTION 7
Refer to the steps below.
I. Water is introduced to hot rocks.
II. Generator spins.
III. Turbine rotates.
IV. Steam is produced.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps when harnessing geothermal energy?
SINGLE ANSWER
I [% \rightarrow %] III [% \rightarrow %] II [% \rightarrow %] IV
III [% \rightarrow %] I [% \rightarrow %] IV [% \rightarrow %] II
IV [% \rightarrow %] I [% \rightarrow %] II [% \rightarrow %] III
I [% \rightarrow %] IV [% \rightarrow %] III [% \rightarrow %] II
EXPLANATION
The heat from geothermal source is collected by adding water to the hot rock beds. The water is
heated to steam and the steam is used to rotate the turbine. The turbine drives (spins) a generator to
produce electricity.
QUESTION 8
Sugar is manufactured by extracting juice from sugarcanes. After the extraction, the leftover pulp is
allowed to be decomposed by bacteria anaerobically to produce methane. The methane produced is
used as fuel in operating the machines in the sugar plantation.
What kind of energy source is exhibited by this situation?
SINGLE ANSWER
geothermal
biogas
fossil fuel
biomass
EXPLANATION
It would appear as if the source is biomass but the problem states that the pulps were decomposed
by bacteria to produce methane. Methane is the major component of biogas.
QUESTION 9
Windmills are used to harness the power of wind. The windmill acts as a turbine and is attached to a
generator.
What would be the classification (renewable or nonrenewable) of the wind as energy source?
EXACT VALUE
renewable
EXPLANATION
Wind is not limited. Therefore, it is a renewable source of energy.
QUESTION 10
Lithium-ion batteries store energy through a reversible electrochemical reaction. When they are
discharged, they can be recharged by connecting them to a voltage source.
Which of the following are true about Lithium-ion batteries?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
They are renewable because they can be replenished.
They are nonrenewable because they can be depleted.
They have less environmental impact than non-rechargeable batteries.
They harm the environment more than non-rechargeable batteries.
EXPLANATION
Lithium-ion batteries are considered renewable because they can be recharged many times.
Compared to non-rechargeable batteries, they are more costly, but they have less environmental
impact.
Household Cleaning Products

THE CHEMISTRY OF COMMERCIAL PRODUCTS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an example of a spray air freshener?
SINGLE ANSWER
aerosol
bleach
detergent
chlorine
EXPLANATION
Aerosols are spray air fresheners that are colloids of solid or liquid particles in gas. They contain
fragrant molecules which dissolve in air.
QUESTION 2
It is a substance used in removing stains from white clothes.
SINGLE ANSWER
bleach
aerosol
detergent
water
EXPLANATION
Bleach is a household cleaning agent used to remove dyes and whiten clothing.
QUESTION 3
It is used to release fragrance in different parts of the home.
SINGLE ANSWER
air freshener
detergent
bleach
disinfectant
EXPLANATION
Air freshener or purifier is used to emit fragrance in different spaces at home, especially in
restrooms.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are examples of air fresheners?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
scented candles
essential oils
scent chips
fabric conditioners
EXPLANATION
Air freshener contains volatile fragrant molecules and can be in the form of candles, oils, beads, or
gels. Therefore, scented candles, essential oils, and scented chips are examples of air freshener.
QUESTION 5
While cleaning the cookware, you find a greasy stain that water alone cannot remove.
Which among the household products is best used to remove the grease?
SINGLE ANSWER
detergent
aerosols
bleach
disinfectant
EXPLANATION
A detergent contains surfactants, which are substances with cleaning properties. The detergent
binds with the grease so when it is rinsed out, the grease comes with it.
QUESTION 6
You accidentally spilled mango juice on your cousin's favorite white shirt.
Which of the following should you use to remove the stain and whiten the shirt?
SINGLE ANSWER
chlorine-based bleach
ethyl alcohol
liquid detergent
scented candle
EXPLANATION
Chlorine-based bleach is used to break the chemical bonds of the pigment (stain). The pigment is
changed to a different substance that does not absorb visible light. Hence, the stained garment
appears white again.
QUESTION 7
Your parents asked you to clean the bathroom.
Which of the following are the best cleaning products that should be used to clean the tiles and
eliminate bad odor in the bathroom?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
detergent
air freshener
alcohol
fabric conditioner
EXPLANATION
Detergent and air freshener are best used to clean and deodorize the bathroom. The detergent
contains substances with cleaning properties while the air freshener emits fragrance to mask
unpleasant odors.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following products is best used to clean pets' toys and eating bowls?
SINGLE ANSWER
scented beads
aerosol
liquid detergent
essential oils
EXPLANATION
The best and safest way to clean pets' toys and eating bowls is by using detergent.
QUESTION 9
Salmonella is a bacteria that causes food poisoning of humans when ingested. Live poultry, such as
chicken, often carry this bacteria. Hence, kitchenware and even countertops should be cleaned after
preparing chicken.
Which of the following should you do to prevent contamination of kitchenware and countertops?
SINGLE ANSWER
Wipe the kitchenware with chlorine-based bleach.
Wash the kitchenware with warm water and liquid detergent.
Use essential oils in countertops to prevent contamination and odor.
Use cold water to wipe the kitchenware.
EXPLANATION
To prevent contamination after handling raw chicken, it is best to clean the countertops and
kitchenware with detergent and warm water.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following are true about household cleaning products?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
They can be used in living things to kill microorganisms.
They may contain substances that remove stain and bad odor.
They can be used in almost all surfaces such as tiles, floor, sinks, and drains.
They can be used to clean different parts of the body.
EXPLANATION
Cleaning products contain substances that remove dirt, stain, and bad smell. There are different
cleaning products, and some of them are used to clean surfaces such as bathroom tiles, floors,
sinks, and drains. Others are used to clean clothing, blankets, and curtains.
Active Ingredient in Product Labels

QUESTION 1
They are the vessels that amphiphatic molecules form.
SINGLE ANSWER
micelles
surfactants
bleach
disinfectant
EXPLANATION
Micelles form from amphiphatic molecules. Amphiphatic molecules are molecules that have polar
and non-polar regions in their structure.
QUESTION 2
What is the active ingredient for a product that removes stains from clothes?
SINGLE ANSWER
sodium hypochlorite
sulfuric acid
sodium hydroxide
sodium chloride
EXPLANATION
Sodium hypochlorite is an active ingredient of bleach which can remove stains, grease and grease-
like substances, and kills bacteria.
QUESTION 3
What is the best function for sodium alkyl sulfonates, amphiphatic molecules that form micelles?
SINGLE ANSWER
removes grease stains from cookware
digests toilet papers stuck in drains
removes odors from clothes
removes rusts from metal pipes
EXPLANATION
Sodium alkyl sulfonates are active ingredients for detergents which are best used for removing
grease stains.
QUESTION 4
A common way to remove clogs and tissue wastes is using a certain product available in
supermarkets that has strong basic and corrosive properties.
What is the active ingredient of this product?

SINGLE ANSWER
sodium hydroxide
hot water
sodium hypochlorite
sodium chloride
EXPLANATION
The product is a drain cleaner. The active ingredient is a strong acid or base, which in this case is
sodium hydroxide.
QUESTION 5
Bleeding gums indicates a defective oral personal care or presence of bacteria. Dentists
recommends to gargle with a warm solution of salt and water.
By what mode of action does this solution of salt-water enhance oral hygiene?
SINGLE ANSWER
disinfectant
acid-base
surfactant
dissolution
EXPLANATION
Warm salt-water solution may enhance oral hygiene and prevents prolonged bleeding of gums due
to its mode of action as a disinfectant.
QUESTION 6
Before a product gets approved for distribution, it will need accreditation from the Department of
Environment and Natural Resources) and Department of Health.
Which of the following best explains this reason?

SINGLE ANSWER
The product could pose a threat to health and environment.
The product is expensive and will need government agencies to fund it.
The product will need to come from government regulated agencies or divisions.
The product can only be distributed by government regulated agencies or divisions.
EXPLANATION
Some active ingredients pose a threat to health and environment.
QUESTION 7
Calcium hypochlorite is an active ingredient in certain bleach products. It has alkaline or basic
properties.
Which of the following compounds can serve as an alternative ingredient assuming a basic salt is
also needed?
SINGLE ANSWER
sodium carbonate
sodium chloride
acetic acid
muriatic acid
EXPLANATION
Sodium carbonate has similar basic properties with calcium carbonate and could be an alternative
active ingredient.
QUESTION 8
A certain product is used in removing rusts from metal surfaces. It has similar properties to that of
vinegar and has disinfecting properties.
What can be concluded about the active ingredient of the product?
SINGLE ANSWER
C. The active ingredient is acidic and can be used to remove stains from clothes.
B. The active ingredient is basic and can be used to disinfect swimming pools.
D. The active ingredient is neutral and can be used as a food condiment.
A. The active ingredient is a surfactant that can form micelles.
EXPLANATION
The product has similar properties with the vinegar
QUESTION 9
The directional use of a certain insecticide states that the room in which the insecticide was sprayed
should be kept clear from humans and pets for an hour.
What could be concluded about the active ingredient of the product?

SINGLE ANSWER
The active ingredient once becomes aerosols can be toxic to all biological organisms.
The active ingredient has strong acidic properties that are sensitive for human smell.
The active ingredient is a surfactant that can form micelles.
The active ingredient is a disinfectant that kills all microorganisms.
EXPLANATION
The active ingredient is dangerous to humans and pets, yet, it is also functional because it can kill
insects.
QUESTION 10
An epidemic that started has caused a shortage of disinfectants such as soap, agua oxinada, and
ethanol. You recently sustained an open wound from tripping and now in danger of getting infected.
Which of the following products is best used to treat and disinfect the wound?
SINGLE ANSWER
muriatic acid (HCl)
water
citric acid in lemons
sodium hydroxide
EXPLANATION
Citric acid is the only safe answer that can eliminate bacteria. The rest of the choices are too strong,
or will not kill the bacteria.
Other Uses of Ingredients in Cleaning Agents

QUESTION 1
What is the additive ingredient exclusively found in detergents?
SINGLE ANSWER
builder
solvent
masking agent
fragrance enhancers
EXPLANATION
The term builders is something used in discussing surfactants. In the case of cleaning agents, these
builders are often present in detergents. Builders are substances that prevent other contaminants
from reacting with the active ingredient in the detergent.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following acts as a preservative?
SINGLE ANSWER
aldehydes
sodium tripolyphosphate
ethanol
triclosan
EXPLANATION
The term aldehydes refers to a group of molecules with a certain functional group, it is used as a
preservative for cleaning agents.
QUESTION 3
Ethanol is sold at 40% or 70% solution.
Which of the following is an additive for ethanol?

SINGLE ANSWER
water
triclosan
sodium tripolyphosphate
aldehydes
EXPLANATION
Water is the solvent for these kinds of solutions to dilute pure ethanol.
QUESTION 4
Sodium hypochlorite and water are components of liquid bleach. Liquid bleach can remove stains
and is considered a disinfectant.
What is the function of water?

SINGLE ANSWER
solvent
antimicrobial agent
masking agent
bubble enhancer
EXPLANATION
Water is a solvent for liquid bleach.
QUESTION 5
A certain product used for removing rust in pipes has a pungent smell.
What kind of additive ingredient can be added to improve the product?
SINGLE ANSWER
masking agent
builder
solvent
antimicrobial agent
EXPLANATION
A masking agent can be added to remove the pungent smell of the product.
QUESTION 6
A product that is used as a laundry detergent was found to be ineffective in an area wherein a
certain factory releases calcium ions in a nearby river.
What kind of additive is the detergent missing?
SINGLE ANSWER
builders
fragrance enhancers
masking agent
solvent
EXPLANATION
The product is defective in an area with hard water. Therefore, adding a builder will improve the
detergent.
QUESTION 7
The active ingredient of a certain product is only function at basic pH.
What kind of additive is needed in order to keep the product function?
SINGLE ANSWER
preservatives (buffers)
ethanol solvent
builders
fragrance enhancers
EXPLANATION
Buffers are mixtures that do not allow drastic changes in the pH. Therefore, in order to keep it active,
a buffer must be added.
QUESTION 8
Antimicrobial soaps are more expensive compared to standard regular soaps. They contain
triclosan, an effective antimicrobial agent. Though soaps can generally kill microbes, the presence of
antimicrobials targets disease inducing bacteria.
Where would you most likely find antimicrobial soaps?

SINGLE ANSWER
hospitals
schools
museums
malls
EXPLANATION
Hospitals use antimicrobial soaps in pre-surgical preparations.
QUESTION 9
A new product that claims to be an all-natural bathroom buffer was tested. It was able to fulfill its
function. However, a few days later, the product developed a putrid smell and ceased to function.
What kind of additive ingredient is needed to improve the product?
SINGLE ANSWER
preservatives
masking agent
solvent
fragrance enhancers
EXPLANATION
The putrid smell is a sign of that the active ingredient has broken down due to microbial activity.
Therefore a preservative is needed to keep the product active.
QUESTION 10
A certain individual purchases a scented floor buffer X. After his first use, he found that he is allergic
to the floor buffer. The next day, he proceeds to buy a floor buffer Y. However, he still experiences
the same allergic reactions. Upon investigation, the only common factor between the two floor
buffers are their active ingredients.
What conclusion can be made?
SINGLE ANSWER
He is allergic to the active ingredient of the floor buffers.
He is allergic to an additive ingredient of both floor buffers.
He is allergic to the fragrance of the floor buffer.
He is allergic to the making agent of both floor buffers.
EXPLANATION
The only thing in common for both floor buffers are their active ingredients.
Personal Care Products

QUESTION 1
Which of these products are used to remove the unwanted buildup of dust and other particles on the
hair?
SINGLE ANSWER
shampoo
makeup
laundry detergent
perfume
EXPLANATION
Shampoo is a haircare product that is particularly used to remove the unwanted buildup of dust and
other particles on the hair without stripping out sebum.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are the substances that lubricate the hair keeping it softer and more pliable?
SINGLE ANSWER
fatty acids
micelles
steroids
amino acids
EXPLANATION
Hair conditioners are used to provide the essential fatty acids (EFAs) which function as natural
sebum. These EFAs keep the dry hair softer and more pliable.
QUESTION 3
What is the function of cosmetic products?
SINGLE ANSWER
to enhance physical appearance
to assist a body organ in its function
to treat medical ailments
to clean household materials
EXPLANATION
Cosmetics are substances or products used to enhance the appearance or scent of the body without
affecting the body’s structure and functions.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the difference between antiperspirant and deodorant?
SINGLE ANSWER
An antiperspirant controls sweat and reduces odor-causing bacteria while deodorant only controls
sweat.
An antiperspirant controls sweat and reduces odor-causing bacteria while deodorant only reduces
odor-causing bacteria.
An antiperspirant controls sweat while deodorant controls sweat and reduces odor-causing bacteria.
An antiperspirant reduces odor-causing bacteria while deodorant controls sweat and reduces odor-
causing bacteria.
EXPLANATION
Antiperspirants control sweat and body odor by preventing sweat to reach the skin surface and by
reducing the bacteria that cause body odor. Deodorants only contain antimicrobial agents to prevent
body odor, but they do not control sweat.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is stripped out when hair is cleaned too often with shampoos?
SINGLE ANSWER
sebum
sebaceous gland
essential amino acid
plaque
EXPLANATION
Sebum, a mixture of triglycerides, wax, and fatty acids, is secreted by the sebaceous gland in
humans. It is stripped out when hair is cleaned too often.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following products have substances that clean surfaces by forming micelles?
SINGLE ANSWER
soap
perfume
deodorant
lip balm
EXPLANATION
When mixed with water, the soap molecules form a micelle. The hydrophobic ends attach to the
unwanted particle while the hydrophilic ends are attracted to water. So when water is used to rinse
off the soap, dirt particles are washed away.
QUESTION 7
What are the roles of abrasives in toothpaste?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
scrub away stains and plaque
add flavor and taste
polish the teeth
produce menthol that cools the teeth
EXPLANATION
Toothpaste contains abrasives which scrub away stains and plaque on your teeth. Abrasives also
polish the teeth so they look fresh and clean after brushing.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the reason why armpits produce bad smell?
SINGLE ANSWER
Bacteria in the armpits break down oily fluid in sweat into certain acids with bad smell.
Apocrine glands secrete oil fluid that has a natural bad smell.
Eccrine glands produce sweat that when mixed with air, produces bad smell.
Bacteria in the armpits break down dead skin cells into fatty acids with bad smell.
EXPLANATION
Apocrine glands secrete the oily fluid which is odorless before microbial activity. The oily fluid is
comprised of fats and proteins which are broken down by bacteria into certain acids with bad smell.
QUESTION 9
Tom decides to keep his face clean to prevent acnes. So he washes his face five times a day with
soap. However, after few days, acnes began appearing all over his face.
Which of the following is the most plausiblereason why Tom develops acne problems even when
he keeps his face clean all the time?
SINGLE ANSWER
The bar soap may have removed natural oils from his facial skin and cause sebaceous glands to
overproduce sebum, which eventually lead to clogged pores.
The bar soap he is using may be pH 4.7, the pH level that favors overgrowth of P. acnes, the acne-
causing bacteria.
The water he is using to clean his face is too basic, so the natural pH balance of his facial skin is
disrupted causing overgrowth of bacteria.
The water he is using to clean his face is too acidic causing the sebaceous glands to increase the
production of sweat which causes acne.
EXPLANATION
Bar soaps may remove natural oils from the facial skin and cause sebaceous glands to overproduce
sebum. When sebaceous glands become overactive, too much sebum is produced. The sebum is
combined with dead cells (keratin) create a plug where Propionibacterium acnes proliferate. The
bacterial growth causes acne.
QUESTION 10
Jenny uses an oil-based makeup for an event. Before sleeping, she attempts to remove the makeup
using water. As a result, certain components of the makeup did not wash off.
Which of the following is the best way to effectively remove the makeup?
SINGLE ANSWER
She needs to use warm water because water can only dissolve makeup components when it is at
high temperature.
She must use a facial cleanser which has oil-based ingredients which can remove makeup
components.
She does not need to do anything because the makeup will eventually wear off as she sleeps.
She must use soap with pH around 9 to 10 because makeup components can be removed at basic
pH.
EXPLANATION
Facial cleansers remove makeup, dead skin cells, and dirt that can clog the pores. Best facial
cleansers should have a pH near 4.7, the average pH of the skin’s surface. Bar soaps with high pH
(9 to 10) can disrupt the pH balance of the skin and favor the overgrowth of P. acnes.
The Major Ingredients of Personal Care Products

QUESTION 1
Which of the following ingredients is a major constituent of deodorant?
SINGLE ANSWER
aluminum chlorohydrate
cetearyl alcohol
platinum oxide
glycerol
EXPLANATION
The major ingredients of deodorant include aluminum-based compounds such as aluminum chloride,
aluminum chlorohydrate, and aluminum zincronium.
QUESTION 2
A shampoo is able to treat hair by removing certain oils, grease, and other substances.
What is the active ingredient of shampoos?

SINGLE ANSWER
surfactant
moisturizer
emulsion
coordination complex
EXPLANATION
Major ingredients of shampoos include surfactants that form micelles.
QUESTION 3
An oily nonpolar component is dissolved in ethanol with the help of cetearyl alcohol.
What is the resulting product?

SINGLE ANSWER
emulsion
moisturizer
coordination complex
surfactant
EXPLANATION
The clues to look out for is a nonpolar component and a polar component that was made miscible.
QUESTION 4
It is used for molecules that bind to a central metal ion
SINGLE ANSWER
ligands
coordination complexes
coordinate ion
lewis acid
EXPLANATION
A complex coordination compound involves a central atom (usually a metal ion) and ligands that
share its electrons with the electropositive central atom.
QUESTION 5
After treatment of triglycerides from a plant source, a viscous substance was isolated with high
boiling point.
What can be concluded from this substance?

SINGLE ANSWER
It has strong intermolecular forces.
It is a polar substance.
It is a non-polar substance.
It has weak intermolecular forces.
EXPLANATION
Viscosity often indicates the presence of strong intermolecular forces. This can be concluded due to
a high boiling point.
QUESTION 6
Ancient Egyptians used a certain substance to decorate and color the embalmed remains of their
dead.
What was the main ingredient of this certain product?

SINGLE ANSWER
pigment
surfactant
emulsifier
essential oil
EXPLANATION
A pigment is the only choice that can be used to decorate, while still having color.
QUESTION 7
Coordination compounds usually present with color hence they can be used as a coloring agent.
However, there are some complexes such as those of Zn, and Cd that do not present with color.
Which of the following is true?

SINGLE ANSWER
There is no possible electronic transition for zinc and cadmium ions.
Metals such as that of zinc and cadmium are colorless, and therefore colorless.
Zinc and cadmium are unreactive metals, and therefore will not present with color.
Zinc and cadmium have a special kind of interaction, not similar with other metals.
EXPLANATION
Zinc and cadmium ions (oxidation state of +2) will have no possible electronic transition due to a
completely filled d orbital.
QUESTION 8
The duration of the scent of a perfume is dependent on its ability to be retained on the skin.
What ingredient is added to perfume to make it retain on skin?

SINGLE ANSWER
glycerol
aluminum chlorohydrate
cetearyl alcohol
platinum oxide
EXPLANATION
Glycerol is a hygroscopic compound commonly added to perfumes.
QUESTION 9
A new body lotion on the market has ingredients extracted from animal parts, glycerol, and a few
essential oils. It claims to have skin whitening properties that target certain receptors on the skin.
In the absence of this product, what can be a substitute?

SINGLE ANSWER
marl
shampoo
dedorant
make up
EXPLANATION
Marl is an ancient cosmetic used by the Greeks as a skin whitening product. Alternatives to marl
have similar properties such as being in the form of clay substances.
QUESTION 10
EDTA is a ligand used in cosmetic products, it works to entrap excess metals found in the skin that
could be potentially harmful. However, this ligand has application in the medical industry.
Which of the following applications bestdescribe that?

SINGLE ANSWER
It is used as a treatment for heavy metal poisoning.
It is an alternative treatment for controlling skin cancer.
It is an ingredient in the creams of burn victims.
It is an over the counter prescription for treating skin mumps.
EXPLANATION
EDTA is a powerful ligand that has a high affinity towards metals. It is used in treatment for lead
poisoning.
The Precautionary Measures Indicated in Various Cleaning Products and Cosmetics

QUESTION 1
What determines the toxicity of a certain chemical substance?
SINGLE ANSWER
concentration of the substance
inherent nature of the substance
physical properties of the substance
chemical properties of the substance
EXPLANATION
The concentration of a chemical determines its toxicity.
QUESTION 2
It is the equilibrium of plants and animals with their environment.
SINGLE ANSWER
ecological balance
natural balance
environmental equilibrium
chemical equilibrium
EXPLANATION
Ecological balance refers to the interaction of various species of plants and animals with the
environment.
QUESTION 3
In checking the product label, which of the following are nonessential information to keep note of?
SINGLE ANSWER
quality of print
direction of use
storage instructions
manufacturing date
EXPLANATION
Product labels provide certain information that are essential for the product’s use and maintenance.
This include manufacturing date, storage instructions and direction of use.
QUESTION 4
Jack was using a substance for cleaning bathroom pipes. He gets a few drops of this substance on
his hand. A few minutes later, he develops rashes in his hand.
Based on his symptom, what possible warning can be found in the product label that Jack should
have read about?
SINGLE ANSWER
corrosive
flammable
poison
harmful to environment
EXPLANATION
Jack’s hand developed rashes which is a sign that the substance can be corrosive.
QUESTION 5
An aerosol insecticide is stored in a cool dark place away from direct exposure to sunlight.
Based on this information, what possible warning can be found in this product?
SINGLE ANSWER
flammable
corrosive
poison
EXPLANATION
Aerosols that are flammable substances are usually kept in cool dark places, away from direct
exposure to sunlight.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following demonstrates proper handling of household products?
SINGLE ANSWER
Powdered detergent is kept dry and sealed for future use
Insecticide is stored within the reach of children.
A can of spray air freshener is stored beside the gas stove.
A bottle of liquid lye is mixed with a bottle of bleach since they are both basic products.
EXPLANATION
To prolong the shelf life of the powdered detergent, it must be kept in a dry condition. This
information can be found in product's storage instructions.
QUESTION 7
CFCs or chlorofluorocarbons were additive ingredients in aerosol cans and used in air-conditioning
and refrigeration. They were eventually banned due to their negative effects in ozone layer.
What is the primary warning in products that contained CFCs?

SINGLE ANSWER
corrosive
flammable
poison
EXPLANATION
CFCs were harmful to the environment, specifically its negative effect in the ozone layer. Based on
this fact, the primary warning found in product labels containing this additive is 'harmful to
environment'.
QUESTION 8
A common mechanism in which certain insect-invading crop becomes pesticide resistant is the
inconsistent use of these products during peak season.
Which of these can be attributed to the resistance of these insects?

SINGLE ANSWER
The directions of the insecticide was not properly followed.
The insecticide used is well beyond expiration.
The insecticide was not stored properly.
The insecticide did not have proper ingredients.
EXPLANATION
Pesticides need to be applied on certain time intervals. The information about the intervals are
usually found in the directions of use.
QUESTION 9
Used detergents often contain sulfates and phosphate compounds. These detergents are officially
sold in supermarkets and department stores. However, these compounds often end up accumulating
in bodies of water such as lakes and rivers. This accumulation brings about an effect called
eutrophication, the uncontrollable algal boom which disrupts the biosphere.
Which of the following best describes this situation?

SINGLE ANSWER
disruption of ecological balance
improper labelling of ingredients
lack of proper direction of use
expired product used
EXPLANATION
The accumulation of a certain compound can lead to the disruption of ecological balance,
QUESTION 10
While using a certain bleach product from the market, Isabela suddenly developed rashes and
respiratory problems. Upon checking the product label certified by the respective authorities, there
were no notable toxins in high concentrations. Upon further testing, the concentrations of the
reagents were within range of parameters.
Which of the following can be concluded from this situation?

SINGLE ANSWER
Genetics and personal history of the user accounts for allergies.
There is human error that was done in testing.
Bleach is a natural health hazard that can affect anyone.
The product has a false negative error from the product label.
EXPLANATION
Different people can present with different allergies depending on the varying concentrations of the
ingredients. In this case, Isabela might be allergic to something in the solvent or the active ingredient
even at minimal concentrations.
Aristotelian Mechanics
THE EARTH IN THE UNIVERSE
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are the two realms that make up the cosmos according to ancient Greeks?
SINGLE ANSWER
terrestrial and celestial
terrestrial and natural
celestial and natural
natural and unnatural
EXPLANATION
During ancient Greek civilization, they believed that the cosmos or the universe was divided into two
realms – celestial and terrestrial.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the motion of the objects in the celestial realm according to Greek
philosophers?
SINGLE ANSWER
perfect and circular
perfect and rectilinear
unstable and circular
unstable and rectilinear
EXPLANATION
The motion of the objects in the celestial realm was perfect and circular. They all revolved around
Earth.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following describes the motion of the objects in the terrestrial realm?
SINGLE ANSWER
unstable
perfect
circular
rectilinear
EXPLANATION
The motion of the objects in the terrestrial realm was unstable and imperfect, and there should be a
cause for motion.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are the types of terrestrial motion according to Aristotelian mechanics?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
natural
voluntary
involuntary
cosmological
EXPLANATION
According to the Aristotelian mechanics, the three types of terrestrial motion are natural, voluntary,
and involuntary.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following best explains why raindrops fall according to Aristotelian mechanics?
SINGLE ANSWER
The natural state of the rain is to go to the hydrosphere.
Raindrops fall due to the gravitational attraction of the Earth.
The involuntary motion of raindrops is to fall.
The atmosphere can no longer hold the raindrops.
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotelian mechanics, raindrops fall because their natural state is to go to the
hydrosphere.
QUESTION 6
According to the Aristotelian mechanics, which of the following best describes the condition that will
allow terrestrial objects to move?
SINGLE ANSWER
There should be a cause of movement.
The celestial bodies should be aligned perfectly.
Their natural state is to move towards the ground.
They should be composed mainly of Earth element.
EXPLANATION
According to the Aristotelian mechanics, there should be a cause of motion so that terrestrial objects
would move.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following best explains why animals move?
SINGLE ANSWER
They voluntarily move die to their innate will to do so.
Their natural state is to move towards Earth's center.
The gravitational attraction of Earth forces them to move.
Their movements are dictated by the movement of celestial bodies.
EXPLANATION
Animals have the will or the innate characteristic to move, and this is the cause of movement.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following best explains why plants are considered to have involuntary motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
They do not have the will to move.
It is their natural state not to move.
The gravity of the Earth stops them from moving.
The celestial bodies stop them from moving.
EXPLANATION
Involuntary motion is the characteristic motion of plants and minerals. They cannot move because
they do not have the will to do so.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes the condition that will allow plants to move?
SINGLE ANSWER
There should be mechanical forces applied to them.
There should be celestial forces applied to them.
The Sun should be visible to give them energy.
Plants can move on their own.
EXPLANATION
Involuntary motion is the characteristic motion of plants and minerals. They cannot move because
they do not have the will to do so. They can only move due to the unnatural condition in which they
can be found, and their motion happens due to mechanical forces.
QUESTION 10
When terrestrial objects are unstable, they tend to go back to their natural state.
Where is the natural state of the following?

CATEGORISE
geosphere
clay pot
hydrosphere
river
atmosphere
carbon dioxide
thermosphere
flame
EXPLANATION
The natural state of objects made of Earth is in the geosphere; water is in the hydrosphere; air is in
the atmosphere; and fire is in the thermosphere.
Diurnal Motion, Annual Motion, and Precession of the Equinoxes

QUESTION 1
Which of the following refers to the surface where stars appear to be attached?
SINGLE ANSWER
celestial sphere
ecliptic
celestial poles
diurnal circle
EXPLANATION
Celestial sphere is the spherical surface where stars appear to be attached.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the path that the stars take in completing diurnal motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
diurnal circle
celestial sphere
ecliptic
celestial poles
EXPLANATION
Diurnal circle is the path that stars take in completing their revolution around the celestial poles.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the path taken by the sun as it moves around the celestial sphere?
SINGLE ANSWER
ecliptic
diurnal circle
celestial sphere
celestial poles
EXPLANATION
The sun’s path around the celestial sphere is the ecliptic.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a consequence of the Earth’s rotation around its axis?
SINGLE ANSWER
The sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
The constellations change their position with season.
The equinoxes wobble.
The North Star changes from Polaris to Vega.
EXPLANATION
Due to Earth’s rotation the sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west.
QUESTION 5
What happens to the circle of circumpolar stars as you get closer to the poles?
SINGLE ANSWER
increases
decreases
remains the same
changes position
EXPLANATION
The circle of circumpolar stars increases or becomes larger as you get closer to the poles.
QUESTION 6
During which time is the sun’s altitude at its maximum?
SINGLE ANSWER
summer solstice
winter solstice
autumnal equinox
vernal equinox
EXPLANATION
Due to the sun’s annual motion, its altitude changes with season. Its altitude is at its maximum in the
summer solstice and at its minimum in the winter solstice.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following can be observed due to the Earth’s revolution around the Sun?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The sun’s altitude changes with season.
Different constellations appear in the horizon throughout the year.
Circumpolar stars can be observed.
The sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
EXPLANATION
Due to the Earth’s revolution around the Sun, annual motion of the stars occurs. The Sun’s altitude
changes with season and different constellations appear in the horizon throughout the year.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following can be observed when the sun intersects the celestial equator as it revolves
around the ecliptic?
SINGLE ANSWER
The length of daytime is equal to the length of night time.
The length of daytime is greater than the length of night time.
The length of daytime is lesser than the length of night time.
Solar flares are more frequent.
EXPLANATION
As the sun revolves around the ecliptic, it intersects the celestial equator at two points which are the
equinoxes, vernal and autumnal. During an equinox, the length of daytime is equal to the length of
night time.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the driving force that causes the Earth’s axis of rotation to wobble?
SINGLE ANSWER
gravitational force of the Sun and moon
diurnal motion
annual motion
precession
EXPLANATION
Due to the gravitational force of the Sun and moon on the Earth, the Earth’s axis of rotation wobbles.
QUESTION 10
Categorize the following observations or phenomena whether they are consequences of diurnal
motion, annual motion, or precession of the equinoxes.
CATEGORISE
Diurnal Motion
Revolution of the stars around the celestial poles.
The observation of stars that never seem to rise or set.
Annual Motion
The sun’s sunrise and sunset points in the horizon changes with season.
Precession of the Equinoxes
Autumnal and vernal points change every about 26 000 years.
EXPLANATION
Diurnal motion
 revolution of the stars around the celestial poles

 the observation of stars that never seem to rise or set
Annual motion
 the sun’s sunrise and sunset points in the horizon changes with season
Precession of the equinoxes
 autumnal and vernal points change every about 26 000 years
How the Greeks Knew That the Earth Is Spherical

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the shape of the Earth according to ancient Greeks?
SINGLE ANSWER
sphere
cylinder
octagon
flat disc
EXPLANATION
Through observations, the ancient Greeks concluded that the Earth is a sphere.
QUESTION 2
What is the shape of the Earth as described by modern astronomy?
SINGLE ANSWER
oblate spheroid
ellipsoid
hyperboloid
oblate paraboloid
EXPLANATION
The shape of the Earth is a sphere with bulging equator and squeezed poles – this is known as an
oblate spheroid.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following ancient Greek philosophers computed for the circumference of the Earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
Eratosthenes
Anaxagoras
Pythagoras
Aristotle
EXPLANATION
Eratosthenes provided proof of a spherical Earth and calculated its circumference.
QUESTION 4
According to Erastothenes’ computations what is the circumference of the Earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
250 000 stadia
500 stadia
7.2 stadia
40 000 stadia
EXPLANATION
According to Erastothenes’, the circumference of the Earth is about 250 000 stadia lined up next to
each other.
QUESTION 5
In which of the following is 250 000 stadia equal to?
SINGLE ANSWER
40 000 kilometers
40 000 meters
40 000 miles
40 000 inches
EXPLANATION
250 000 stadia is about 40 000 kilometers.
QUESTION 6
In which of the following events can the circular shadow of the Earth be observed most notably?
SINGLE ANSWER
lunar eclipse
solar eclipse
summer solstice
winter solstice
EXPLANATION
The circular shadow of the Earth can be observed most notably during a lunar eclipse when the
Earth directly blocks the Sun’s rays and clearly casts its shadow on the Moon.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes the position of the North Star if you go farther away from the
equator?
SINGLE ANSWER
farther away from the horizon
closer to the horizon
The North Star is fixed wherever you are on the Earth.
It disappears completely.
EXPLANATION
As you travel farther away from the equator, the North Star appears farther away from the horizon.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following can be observed of a cruising ship if the Earth is a flat disc?
SINGLE ANSWER
It will become smaller and smaller until it disappears.
It will shrink then only the sail will be visible until it completely disappears.
It will become bigger and bigger.
It will not change its size.
EXPLANATION
If the Earth is a flat disc, a cruising ship will become smaller and smaller until it disappears. But
because it is spherical, the ship will shrink and then its hull disappears first before the sail.
QUESTION 9
During which time did Eratosthenes observe the shadows cast by a vertical stick?
SINGLE ANSWER
noon time in summer solstice
noon time in winter solstice
during a lunar eclipse
during a solar eclipse
EXPLANATION
Eratosthenes observed the shadow cast by a vertical stick at noon time on summer solstice because
this is the time when the Sun appears highest in the horizon.
QUESTION 10
According to Eratosthenes, which of the following explain why a vertical stick casts a shadow in
Alexandria but not in Syene?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The Sun is directly overhead in Syene while in Alexandria, it is only almost directly overhead.
The light rays coming from the sun are parallel, and the Earth is curved.
The light rays coming from the sun are curved, and the Earth is flat.
The Sun is directly overhead in Alexandria while in Syene, it is only almost directly overhead.
EXPLANATION
Eratosthenes explained that the Sun is directly overhead in Syene while in Alexandria, it is only
almost directly overhead. To explain this difference, he hypothesized that the light rays coming from
the sun are parallel, and the Earth is curved.
How Plato's Problem of "Saving the Appearances" Constrained Greek Models of the
Universe
QUESTION 1
According to Plato, how many planets are there in their perceived universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
seven
six
five
four
EXPLANATION
At the time, it was believed that there were seven planets in the universe, excluding the earth and
including the moon and the sun.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is believed to be the shape of the universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
sphere
ellipsoid
dodecahedron
tetrahedron
EXPLANATION
Since the motion of the bodies seemed circular around the earth, it was believed that the shape of
the universe was a sphere.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not one of the four elements that were believed to comprise the universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
human
fire
earth
wind
EXPLANATION
Though there was an indication of the presence of “living beings” in Plato’s Timaeus, it was clearly
pointed out that the universe is made up of four elements: earth, fire, air, water.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not true about the Platonic Solids?
SINGLE ANSWER
The Platonic Solids are irregular polyhedrons.
They are made up of triangles that could be broken apart.
The Platonic Solids represent four different elements comprising the universe.
When part of a Platonic solid binds with a part of another, they will be able to form some other
element.
EXPLANATION
It was explained by the Timaeus that the Platonic solids are made up of regular triangles (or
triangles that are of the same shape and size) which could be broken apart to bind with other
triangles to form a different element. Since the sides of the three dimensional figure are all the same,
then it would mean that it is a regular solid.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following facts about present day knowledge of the universe is not in line with Plato’s
cosmos?
SINGLE ANSWER
The planets do not revolve around the Earth.
There are seven planets in the entire universe.
The moon and the sun are planets that revolve around the earth.
The moon is the nearest planet to the Earth.
EXPLANATION
According to Plato’s cosmos, the planets revolve around the Earth.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about the Greek’s view of the moon and sun?
SINGLE ANSWER
Both the moon and sun are planets that revolve around the Earth.
The sun represents the element of fire, thus is represented by a tetrahedron.
The moon was revolving around the Earth while the sun was not.
The sun is the nearest “planet” to the Earth.
EXPLANATION
The nearest planet is the moon. It is also believed that both sun and moon revolved around the
earth. Furthermore, the Greeks did not have an idea yet that the sun was a giant ball of gas and fire.
Best answer is that the moon and the sun are planets.
QUESTION 7
What does the word “inscribed” means in the statement “the Platonic Solids can be inscribed in the
universe”?
SINGLE ANSWER
The outer edges of the Platonic solids can fit exactly within the shape of the universe.
When all the platonic solids are put together, they would be like a puzzle that would fit inside the
universe.
The platonic solids surround the shape of the universe, and they revolve around the shape of the
universe.
All platonic solids could be placed on the diameter of the sphere, side by side.
EXPLANATION
Inscribed means that the outer edges of the Platonic solids can fit exactly within the shape of the
universe.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following may be reasons why the Earth is believed to be the center of the universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
They have formulated equations to prove that the Earth was at the center of the universe.
For an Earth-based observer, the Earth does not seem to be moving from its position.
It is affected most by the moon which is easily observed to revolve around the Earth, it was safe to
assume that all other bodies did so as well.
All other celestial bodies seemed to revolve around the Earth, even the sun.
EXPLANATION
There are mathematical models but their calculations were not enough to prove that the earth was at
the center of the universe. It means that there are still some observable behaviour in the universe
which could not be generalized in the formulas they have created.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following may not be a strong influence of Plato’s Timaeus to the Greek’s view of the
universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
Plato was a famous philosopher at the time, whatever he said is always believed to be true.
The Timaeus has stated a number of observable instances which makes it more realistic for the
Greeks.
This was explained in a manner that involved Greek gods and goddesses, making it more believable
to the Greeks.
It is similar to other models of the universe where the Earth is at the center.
EXPLANATION
Though it was true that Plato was a famous philosopher at the time, it was also easy for the Greeks
to believe that he was a crazy person who did not tell the truth. There are still a number of Greeks
which were sceptical with his works.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a specific instance where Plato’s Universe is unique from the Geocentric
Model of the universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
It explained that the universe is created with only four elements.
It provided an observation that the universe is in the shape of a sphere.
All other bodies in the universe are observably moving around the Earth.
It explained that the Earth was an immovable center of the sphere of the universe.
EXPLANATION
The Geocentric model of the universe did not indicate anything about the elements that comprise the
universe. It was simply an idea by Plato alone.
The Models of the Universe: Eudoxus, Aristotle, Aristarchus, Ptolemy, and Copernicus
QUESTION 1
How many concentric spheres accommodate the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars in Eudoxus’ model?
SINGLE ANSWER
27
37
46
56
EXPLANATION
The Eudoxus’ model of the universe is composed of 27 concentric spheres with Earth as their
common center. The Sun, the Moon, and planets have their own spheres attached to a larger sphere
through the poles. The fixed stars also have their own spheres.
QUESTION 2
According to Aristotle, which of the following fills the spheres and causes them to move?
SINGLE ANSWER
ether
water
wind
fire
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotle, the spheres are filled with the divine and eternal ether that causes the
spheres to move.
QUESTION 3
Who was the first to propose a Sun-centered model of the universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
Aristarchus
Copernicus
Ptolemy
Aristotle
EXPLANATION
Aristarchus of Samos (born c. 310 B.C.), a Greek astronomer and mathematician, was the first to
hypothesize that the Sun is the center of the universe.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following best explains why there is no observed stellar parallax according to
Aristarchus and Copernicus?
SINGLE ANSWER
The stars are at an immeasurable distance from the Earth.
The Sun is at an immeasurable distance from the Earth.
The planets are at an immeasurable distance from the Earth.
The stars are at a measurable distance from the Earth.
EXPLANATION
Aristarchus and Copernicus believed that the stars are very far away from the Earth as evidenced by
the absence of stellar parallax.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes Aristarchus’ reasoning why the Sun is the center of the
universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
Smaller spheres should orbit around the larger ones.
Larger spheres should orbit around the smaller ones.
There is no observed stellar parallax.
There is an observed stellar parallax.
EXPLANATION
Aristarchus reasoned out that smaller spheres should orbit around the larger ones. Thus, the Moon
orbits around the Earth, and the Earth orbits around the Sun.
QUESTION 6
In the image below, which letter represents the deferent according to the Ptolemaic system?
SINGLE ANSWER
C
A
B
D
EXPLANATION
The part labeled C is the deferent. It is the path of a planet that revolves around the Earth.
QUESTION 7
In the image below, which of the following bestdescribes the part labeled as B according to the
Ptolemaic system?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the path of the planet as it revolves around the Earth.
It is the path of the planet as it revolves around the Sun.
It is the path of the Earth as it revolves around the Sun.
It is the path of the Earth as it revolves around the planet.
EXPLANATION
The part labeled as B is the epicycle. It is the path of the planet as it revolves around the Earth.
QUESTION 8
According to the Ptolemaic system, which of the following best explains why planets sometimes
move in a retrograde motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the result of a planet’s simultaneous movement around the epicycle and the deferent.
It is the result of a planet’s movement around the epicycle.
It is the result of a planet’s movement around the deferent.
It is the result of a planet’s movement around the Earth.
EXPLANATION
According to the Ptolemaic model, the simultaneous movement of a planet around the epicycle and
the deferent causes a planet to move in a retrograde motion as observed from the Earth.
QUESTION 9
By placing the Sun as the center of the universe, which of the following was eliminated from
Ptolemy’s model by Copernicus?
SINGLE ANSWER
epicycle and deferent
stellar parallax
the Earth as the center
retrograde motion
EXPLANATION
By placing the Sun at the center of the universe and the orbits of Mercury and Venus in between the
Sun and the Earth, Copernicus’ model was able to account for the changes in the appearances of
these planets and their retrograde motions. The need for epicycles in explaining motions was
eliminated.
QUESTION 10
Categorize the following models of the universe as Geocentric Model or Heliocentric Model.
CATEGORISE
Geocentric Model
Eudoxus'
Aristotle's
Ptolemy's
Heliocentric Model
Aristarchus'
Copernicus'
EXPLANATION
Eudoxus’, Aristotle’s, and Ptolemy’s models have the Earth as the center of the universe while
Aristarchus’ and Copernicus’ models have the Sun as the center.
Astronomical Phenomena Known to Astronomers before the Advent of Telescopes

QUESTION 1
Which of the following planets cannot be seen by the naked eye?
SINGLE ANSWER
Neptune
Mercury
Venus
Saturn
EXPLANATION
Neptune, together with Uranus, could not be seen by the naked eye because of their distance from
the Earth despite their size.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is known as ‘wanderers’ by ancient Greek people?
SINGLE ANSWER
planets
stars
moon
sun
EXPLANATION
The word ‘planets’ is derived from the Greek word planetes which means ‘wanderers’. These planets
were first thought of as stars that change positions periodically and did not belong to any group of
constellations in the sky.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following motion of the stars are discovered without the help of a telescope?
SINGLE ANSWER
daily rotation of the celestial sphere where stars seemed to be attached
rotation of a star around its axis
revolution of a star around a planet
circumferential motion
EXPLANATION
Stars appear to be attached to a celestial sphere that rotates around an axis in one day. This axis
intersects the celestial sphere at a point in the northern sky, and is presently close to the northern
star, Polaris.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following astronomical phenomena was the monthly basis for the ancient calendars?
SINGLE ANSWER
phases of the moon
lunar eclipse
solar eclipse
motion of the planets
EXPLANATION
The moon changes its phases in about 29.5 days and so it was made as the basis for ancient
calendars.
QUESTION 5
When does a solar eclipse occur?
SINGLE ANSWER
when the moon is in between the sun and the Earth
when the Earth is in between the sun and the moon
when the sun is in between the moon and the Earth
when the stars revolve around the Earth
EXPLANATION
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon is in between the sun and the Earth.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following can be observed during a solar eclipse?
SINGLE ANSWER
temporary darkening of the day sky
dying of crops because of the lack of sunlight
the sun completely disappears from the sky
the length of day time becomes shorter
EXPLANATION
Since the moon will be blocking out the rays from the sun, the sky will be darkened for a brief
moment.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following can be observed during a lunar eclipse?
SINGLE ANSWER
Moon’s apparent change in color
lightening of the night sky
complete disappearance of the moon from the sky
the length of the night becomes shorter
EXPLANATION
The moon appears to become reddish.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following astronomical phenomena can be observed even without a telescope?
SINGLE ANSWER
the motion of Sun, Moon, and stars with respect to the Earth
the appearance of Neptune and Uranus in the night sky
the colors of the planets
the moons of Jupiter could be observed from the Earth
EXPLANATION
The motion of Sun, Moon, and stars with respect to the Earth are easily seen and observed even
without a telescope.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following explains why astronomers called the planets as 'wanderers'?
SINGLE ANSWER
These planets also move around the celestial sphere but with different periods.
These planets look bigger than other stars.
The colors of these planets are different from other stars.
Wandering stars are visible to the naked eye even during daylight.
EXPLANATION
Though stars are believed to move in a circular path daily and change their positions yearly, it could
be observed that the planets change their positions within days or weeks – relatively faster than
other bodies in the night sky.
QUESTION 10
Astronomers have discovered very bright stars outshining other celestial bodies during sunsets and
sunrise. They have observed that during these times, other stars are less visible but these
“wandering” stars can still be seen.
Which of the following possibly explains why astronomers could easily witness “wandering stars”
during sunset and sunrise?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Light at this time is enough to block out rays from other bodies and planets are bright enough to be
seen.
During night time, the planets can easily be confused with other stars.
This is the only time that the Earth is in perfect position in the solar system to view other planets.
The Sun is at the west of the Earth during sunset and at the east of the Earth during sunrise.
EXPLANATION
Planets just look like ordinary stars as observed from the Earth without a telescope, even if they are
brighter compared to other stars.
Models of Astronomical Phenomena: Copernican, Ptolemaic and Tychonic

Astronomical
Phenomena
Copernican
Ptolemaic
Tychonic
QUESTION 1
Which of the following people was able to develop the Heliocentric model of the Universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
Copernicus
Eratosthenes
Brahe
Ptolemy
EXPLANATION
It was Nicolaus Copernicus who published the idea that the sun is at the center of the universe.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following was the proponent of the Tychonic model of the Universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
Brahe
Ptolemy
Copernicus
Eratosthenes
EXPLANATION
It was Tycho Brahe who published the idea that the Earth is at the center of the universe and the sun
revolved around it while the planets revolved around the sun.
QUESTION 3
This model explains that the planets of the Solar System revolve around the Sun, but the Earth is the
center of the universe.
SINGLE ANSWER
Tychonic model
Ptolemaic model
Copernican model
Aristotelian model
EXPLANATION
The Tychonic model explains that the planets of the Solar System revolve around the Sun but the
Earth is the center of the universe. Due to the massive size of the Sun, it attracts the remaining
planets and drags them along its revolution around the Earth.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not a model of the universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
Atomic model
Ptolemaic model
Copernican model
Tychonic model
EXPLANATION
The atomic model is a system used to describe how electrons move about the nucleus of an atom.
Not related at all to astronomical theories.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes the Geocentric model of the Universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
The Earth is at the center of the universe
The Sun is at the center of the universe
The Earth is slightly offset but very near the center of the universe.
Only the moon is at the center of the universe.
EXPLANATION
Geocentric, which means geo = Earth and centric = center, explains that the Earth is at the fixed
middle of the universe.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes the Heliocentric model of the Universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
The Sun is at the center of the universe.
The Earth is at the center of the universe.
The Earth is slightly offset but very near the center of the universe.
Only the moon is at the center of the universe.
EXPLANATION
Heliocentric comes from the Greek words helios meaning sun and centric meaning center. This
explains that the Sun is at the fixed middle of the universe.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is true about the motion of the bodies in the Heliocentric model?
SINGLE ANSWER
The planets travel around an epicyclic path which is elliptical instead of circular.
The deferent for which the planets revolve around the sun in is neither circular nor elliptical.
The planets move significantly slow around the sun.
The moon is revolving around the Earth only because it is not at all attracted to the sun.
EXPLANATION
It was explained that Copernicus found out that the epicycles are not circular paths like Ptolemy
believed but are elliptical.
QUESTION 8
Which among the following is an observable similarity among all three theories?
SINGLE ANSWER
The idea of bodies traveling through a path called epicycle while moving around a deferent is a
common concept among all three theories.
The Earth is always at the center of the universe for all three theories.
Stars at a significant distance from the center are still moving about the center.
None of the bodies in the universe are moving physically with respect to each other.
EXPLANATION
The idea that there is motion in the bodies with respect to each other are similar in all three theories
especially since the concept of the epicycle and deferent are repeatedly mentioned when the motion
of the bodies are described.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the best similarity between the Copernican theory and the Tychonic theory?
SINGLE ANSWER
The planets did not directly revolve around the Earth.
The Sun is at the center of the universe.
The moon revolved around the Earth but did not revolve around the sun.
The Earth is at the center of the universe.
EXPLANATION
In both models, all the planets revolved directly around the Sun and not the Earth.
QUESTION 10
It could be observed that neither of the three models have expressed the presence of Neptune nor
Uranus. Which of the following could be reasons for this?
SINGLE ANSWER
Since the two planets are too far for the naked eyes to see, Neptune and Uranus might not have
been discovered yet.
All three models considered Neptune and Uranus as special bodies not planets.
In all three models of the Universe, these two gas planets were considered to move in a different
path and not a part of the universe.
Both Neptune and Uranus have not yet been formed during the time of the three models.
EXPLANATION
The two gas planets have only been discovered when the telescope was invented. None of the three
models considered it because they did not have an idea that there is such a thing as Neptune and
Uranus.
Galileo's Astronomical Discoveries

QUESTION 1
Which of the following represents the low points on the moon’s surface?
SINGLE ANSWER
trenches and ditches
mountains and hills
oceans
vegetation
EXPLANATION
Galileo discovered that the moon had high points (mountains, hills) and low points (trenches,
ditches).
QUESTION 2
In which of the following arrangement of Venus, Earth, and the Sun will Venus be in its full phase?
SINGLE ANSWER
Venus – Sun – Earth
Sun – Venus – Earth
Venus – Earth – Sun
Venus does not undergo phase changes
EXPLANATION
When the Sun is in between Venus and the Earth, Venus is in its full phase and wanes as it
continues to move in its orbit.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following did Galileo observe revolving around Jupiter?
SINGLE ANSWER
planet-like bodies
the Sun
other planets
asteroids
EXPLANATION
Galileo noticed that there are planet-like bodies which are very near the planet Jupiter. He later
named the bodies or satellites as Io, Callisto, Ganymede, and Europa.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following did Galileo and Johannes Kepler measured that led them to conclude that the
stars are at immeasurable distance from the Earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
parallax
brightness
color
speed
EXPLANATION
Galileo and Johannes Kepler measured the stars' parallax that led them to conclude that they are at
immeasurable distance from the Earth.
QUESTION 5
Aside from observing sunspots, which of the following did Galileo discover about the Sun?
SINGLE ANSWER
The Sun rotates on an axis.
The Sun has moons.
Asteroids revolve around the Sun.
There are more planets discovered near the Sun.
EXPLANATION
From observing sunspots, Galileo also discovered that the Sun rotates on an axis.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes the speed of a sun spot when traveling from one side to the
other?
SINGLE ANSWER
A spot’s speed is constant.
A spot’s speed is increasing.
A spot’s speed is decreasing.
A spot’s speed varies with time.
EXPLANATION
Galileo noticed that one spot took approximately 14 days to travel from one side of the Sun to the
other while maintaining its constant speed.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following best explains why Venus cannot be seen from Earth when it is in its new
phase?
SINGLE ANSWER
The light is not reflected towards the Earth.
The Sun is blocking Venus.
Venus is at the back of Mars.
Venus does not undergo phase changes.
EXPLANATION
Venus is in its new phase when it is between the Earth and the Sun and waxes as it moves in its
orbit. During the new phase, we cannot see Venus because no light from the Sun is reflected
towards us.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following best describes the “fixed stars” using Galileo’s observation of a supernova?
SINGLE ANSWER
They are farther to Earth than the Moon.
They are nearer to Earth than the Moon.
They are at equal distances from the Earth.
They are at an equal distance of the Moon from the Earth.
EXPLANATION
The concept of supernovas helped Galileo in giving evidence that the “fixed stars” seen from Earth
are farther than the Moon.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the distance of an object from an
observer and parallax?
SINGLE ANSWER
the closer the object to the observer, the greater the parallax
the closer the object to the observer, the lesser the parallax
There is no relationship between the distance of the object to the observer and parallax.
the farther the object to the observer, the greater the parallax
EXPLANATION
The greater the distance between the two locations, the greater the parallax and the closer the
object is to the observer, the greater the parallax.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes how Galileo’s discoveries of the Moon’s craters disprove
ancient Greek beliefs regarding the Moon?
SINGLE ANSWER
Greek beliefs have defined the Moon as a perfect and smooth body.
Galileo was able to prove that the Moon revolves around the Sun.
Galileo's observations showed that the Moon has different phases.
Galileo observed that the Moon only has one gigantic mountain.
EXPLANATION
Greek beliefs have defined the Moon as a perfect and smooth body but Galileo’s observations
showed that it has craters.
Johannes Kepler's Discoveries from Tycho Brahe's Collection of Astronomical Data

QUESTION 1
Who determined the positions of 777 fixed stars accurately from his observatory in Denmark?
SINGLE ANSWER
Tycho Brahe
Johannes Kepler
Sir Isaac Newton
Nicolaus Copernicus
EXPLANATION
Tycho Brahe was able to determine the position of 777 fixed stars accurately from his observatory in
Denmark.
QUESTION 2
Who was recommended by Emperor Rudolf II to be Tycho Brahe’s assistant?
SINGLE ANSWER
Johannes Kepler
Nicolaus Copernicus
Claudius Ptolemy
Sir Isaac Newton
EXPLANATION
Emperor Rudolf II recommended Johannes Kepler to work for Tycho Brahe as an assistant.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following are the laws formulated by Kepler using Brahe’s data and observations?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The Law of Ellipses
The Law of Equal Areas
The Law of Harmonies
The Law of Inertia
EXPLANATION
From Brahe’s data, Kepler formulated three laws of planetary motion which are the law of ellipses,
the law of equal areas, and the law of harmonies.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following best explains why Brahe and Kepler had an unsteady working relationship?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Brahe feared of being shadowed by Kepler as his assistant.
Brahe did not trust Kepler with his astronomical data.
Brahe expected that he would be working as an equal with Kepler.
Kepler did not trust Brahe with his astronomical data.
EXPLANATION
Kepler and Brahe had an unsteady working relationship because Brahe mistrusted Kepler with his
astronomical data in fear of being shadowed by his assistant.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following tasks was given to Kepler by Brahe?
SINGLE ANSWER
to determine the exact orbit of Mars
to prove the geocentric model
to prove the heliocentric model
to determine the exact orbit of Earth
EXPLANATION
Kepler was tasked to figure out what path Mars followed as it revolved around the Sun.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are the conclusions that Kepler made from Brahe’s data about Mars?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
There is a force from the Sun that causes the movement of the planets.
Planets move fastest when they are nearest the Sun and slowest when farthest from the Sun.
There is a force from the Earth that causes the movement of the planets.
Planets move fastest when they are farthest from the Sun and slowest when nearest the Sun.
EXPLANATION
From Brahe’s data about Mars, Kepler postulated that there must be a force from the Sun that
moves the planets. He was able to conclude that this force would explain the orbit of Mars and that
the Earth, including all the other planets, moved fastest when it is nearest from the Sun and moved
slowest when it is farthest from the Sun.
QUESTION 7
Using Brahe’s observations and data what was Kepler’s findings about the shape of the orbit
followed by the planets?
SINGLE ANSWER
The orbit was elliptical.
The orbit was circular.
The orbit has an uneven shape.
The orbit of the planets was irregular.
EXPLANATION
Studying the observations and data of Brahe, Kepler found out that the orbit followed by planets was
not circular in shape but was elliptical.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following best explain why Kepler’s first law of planetary motion was a revolutionary
discovery in astronomy?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It disproved the long-held belief that the orbits of the planets were circular.
It explains the observed “irregularities” in the movement of Mars.
It explains the observed “irregularities” in the movement of the Earth.
It disproved the long-held belief that the orbit of the Sun was circular.
EXPLANATION
When Kepler was trying to figure out Mars’ orbit, it did not fit the then-famous theory that a planet
follows a circular path. He then postulated that instead of a circular path, planets follow an oval or an
ellipse orbit. Finally, this orbit matched his calculations and explained the “irregularities” in the
movement of Mars.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following best describes Kepler’s second law of planetary motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
When an imaginary line is drawn from the center of the Sun to the center of a planet, it will sweep
out an equal area of space in equal time intervals.
out varying area of space in equal time intervals.
out an equal area of space in varying time intervals.
out varying area of space in varying time intervals.
EXPLANATION
The second law, which is the law of equal areas, states that when an imaginary line is drawn from
the center of the Sun to the center of a planet, it will sweep out an equal area of space in equal time
intervals.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes Kepler’s third law of planetary motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
The ratio of the squares of the periods of two planets is equal to the ratio of the cubes of the planets’
distance from the Sun.
The ratio of the cubes of the periods of two planets is equal to the ratio of the squares of the planets’
distance from the Sun.
The ratio of the periods of two planets is equal to the ratio of the cubes of the planets’ distance from
the Sun.
The ratio of the squares of the periods of two planets is equal to the ratio of the planets’ distance
from the Sun.
EXPLANATION
Kepler’s third law of planetary motion or the law of harmonies states that that the ratio of the squares
of the periods of two planets is equal to the ratio of the cubes of the average distances of these two
planets from the Sun.
Kepler's Third Law of Planetary Motion

QUESTION 1
In the equation of Kepler's third law, MsMs is equal to what value?
SINGLE ANSWER
1.989x1030kg1.989x1030kg
1.989x1030m1.989x1030m
1.989x1030g1.989x1030g
1.989x1030Nm1.989x1030Nm
EXPLANATION
MsMs is equal to 1.989x1030kg1.989x1030kg.
QUESTION 2
R is Kepler's third law of planetary motion signifies −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
the length of the semi-major axis
the length of the entire path orbited by the body
the diameter of the orbit of the body around the Sun
the distance from the Sun to the farthest point the body can get
EXPLANATION
R signifies the length of the semi-major axis.
QUESTION 3
The unit of G is equivalent to −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
Nm2/kg2Nm2/kg2
kg2/Nm2kg2/Nm2
m2/kg2m2/kg2
Nkg2/m2Nkg2/m2
EXPLANATION
The unit of G in the equation is Nm2/kg2Nm2/kg2.
QUESTION 4
Which among the planets has the longest period?
SINGLE ANSWER
Uranus
Saturn
Jupiter
Mars
EXPLANATION
Uranus is the farthest among the planets mentioned.
QUESTION 5
If a planet is two times farther than Earth from the Sun, its period would be
SINGLE ANSWER
larger than Earth’s
equal to Earth’s.
smaller than Earth’s.
Zero. It is not influenced by the Sun.
EXPLANATION
The planet is farther than Earth, therefore, it is slower.
QUESTION 6
Based on Kepler’s third law, if the mass of Jupiter would only be half of what it is right now, its period
would be
SINGLE ANSWER
the same
larger
smaller
zero
EXPLANATION
The mass of the planets is negligible compared to the Sun. However, their orbits might change due
to other factors.
QUESTION 7
If a planet is half as far as Earth from the Sun, its period would be
SINGLE ANSWER
smaller than Earth's
equal to Earth
larger than Earth's
zero
EXPLANATION
The planet is farther than Earth, therefore slower.
QUESTION 8
Approximate to the nearest whole number how many Earth years would it take for Saturn to
complete one orbit. Its R is 1.433x109km1.433x109km. Assume ππ is 3.14.
SINGLE ANSWER
30
20
10
40
EXPLANATION
For this problem, you are looking for the number of Earth years. The values for R, MsMs and ππ.
Using the formula,
T2=4π2GMsR3T2=4π2GMsR3
T=4π2GMsR3−−−−−−√T=4π2GMsR3
Substitute the given. Therefore,
T=4(3.14)2(6.67x10−11Nm2/kg2)(1.989x1030kg)−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−√(1.433x1012m)3T=4(3.14)2(6.67x10−11Nm2/kg2)(1.989x1030kg)(1.433x1012m)3
T=9.35x108s=29.6years≈30yearsT=9.35x108s=29.6years≈30years
Therefore, it will take approximately 30 Earth years for Saturn to complete one orbit.
QUESTION 9
Approximate to the nearest whole number how many Earth years would it take for Neptune to
complete one orbit. Its R is 4.495x109km4.495x109km. Assume ππ is 3.14.
SINGLE ANSWER
165 years
170 years
175 years
180 years
EXPLANATION
For this problem, you are looking for the number of Earth years. The values for R, MsMs and ππ.
Using the formula,
T=4(3.14)2(6.67x10−11Nm2/kg2)(1.989x1030kg)−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−√(4.495x1012m)3T=4(3.14)2(6.67x10−11Nm2/kg2)(1.989x1030kg)(4.495x1012m)3
T=5.20x109s≈165yearsT=5.20x109s≈165years
Therefore, it will take approximately 165 Earth years for Neptune to complete one orbit.
QUESTION 10
Approximate how far should a planet be in order for it to complete an orbit in 200. years.
Assume ππ is 3.14.
SINGLE ANSWER
5.12x1012m5.12x1012m
5.12x1016m5.12x1016m
5.12x1014m5.12x1014m
5.12x109m5.12x109m
EXPLANATION
For this problem, you are looking for the value of R in 200 years. The values for T, MsMs and ππ.
Using the formula,
R3=T2GMs4π2R3=T2GMs4π2
R=T2GMs4π2−−−−−−√3R=T2GMs4π23

R=T2GMs4π2−−−−−−√3R=T2GMs4π23
R=(6311520000s)2(6.67x10−11Nm2/kg2(1.989x1030kg)4(3.14)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−√3R=(6311520000s)2(6.67x10−11Nm2/kg2(1.989x1030kg)4(3.14)23
R=5.12x1012mR=5.12x1012m
Therefore, it will take approximately 165 Earth years for Neptune to complete one orbit.
Aristotelian Conceptions: Vertical Motion, Horizontal Motion, and Projectile Motion

UNIVERSAL LAWS IN PHYSICS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an example of a violent motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
a ball kicked from the ground
water flowing in a river
a dropped pen falling to the ground
rocks falling from a mountain
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotle, violent motion is caused by an external force, either a push or a pull, applied
in an object. Therefore, the ball experienced a violent motion when pushed through kicking.
QUESTION 2
According to Aristotle, which of the following elements would a rock go back to if thrown upward?
SINGLE ANSWER
earth
air
water
fire
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotle, an object made of material similar to earth will return to earth or an object
similar to air will go back to the air. Rocks are most similar to earth; thus, rocks thrown upward will
fall back to the earth.
QUESTION 3
According to Aristotle, which of the following objects shows a projectile motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
a fired cannon ball
a leaf falling from a tree
a coin tossed in the air
the rain falling from the sky
EXPLANATION
For the projectile motion, Aristotle believed that the motion of an object is parallel to the ground until
it is the object's time to fall back into the ground. Therefore, the fired cannon ball shows a projectile
motion.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are true about the natural motion of an object according to Aristotle?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
An object will return to its natural state depending on its composition.
An object will return to the ground if it has a similar material with the earth.
An object will go back to the air if it has a similar material with the air.
An object will fall to the ground because it is thrown upward.
EXPLANATION
An object will move and will eventually return to its natural state depending on the composition that
the object is made of. An object made of material similar to Earth will return to earth or an object that
is similar to air will return to the air.
QUESTION 5
Ariel shot an arrow from a distance.
According to Aristotle, which of the following is true about this scenario?
SINGLE ANSWER
The shooting of an arrow shows a projectile motion.
The shooting of an arrow shows a violent motion.
The shooting of an arrow shows a natural motion.
The shooting of an arrow shows a free fall motion.
EXPLANATION
it is the object's time to fall back into the ground. Therefore, an arrow shot from a distance traveling
parallel to the ground shows a projectile motion.
QUESTION 6
A pebble shot using a slingshot.
According to Aristotle, which of the following is true about the scenario?
SINGLE ANSWER
The pebble experienced a projectile motion.
The pebble experienced a violent motion.
The pebble experienced a natural motion.
The pebble experienced a free fall motion.
EXPLANATION
it is the object's time to fall back into the ground. Therefore, a pebble shot using a slingshot traveling
parallel to the ground shows a projectile motion.
QUESTION 7
A crate full of fish is pulled by two men.
According to Aristotle, which of the following are true about this scenario according to Aristotle?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The crate experiences a violent motion.
The crate experiences an external force.
The crate experiences a projectile motion.
The crate experiences momentum.
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotle, a violent motion occurs in an object which moves when an external force such
as pushing or pulling is applied to it. Therefore, the crate full of fish experiences a violent motion with
an external force applied by two men pushing it.
QUESTION 8
Geoffrey released his toy balloon. He watched it as it slowly rises in the air.
According to Aristotle, which of the following are true about this scenario?
SINGLE ANSWER
The balloon experiences a natural motion.
The balloon experiences a violent motion.
The balloon experiences a projectile motion.
The balloon experiences a free fall motion.
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotle, a natural motion occurs when an object made of material similar to earth will
return to earth or an object that is similar to air will return to the air. The balloon that slowly rises into
the air has a similar composition to air, thus, experiencing a natural motion.
QUESTION 9
A boy was pushed from a height of a water slide.
According to Aristotle, which of the following is true about this scenario?

SINGLE ANSWER
The boy experienced a violent motion due to an external force.
The boy experienced a projectile motion due to an impetus.
The boy experienced a natural motion due to its similarities to earth.
The boy experienced a free fall due to the absence of external force.
EXPLANATION
According to Aristotle, an object will move if an external force such as pushing or pulling is applied to
it. Therefore, the boy experienced a violent motion due to the external force or pushing.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best explains why Aristotle’s view on motion stood for many years?
SINGLE ANSWER
Aristotle’s ideas are readily proven through observation.
Aristotle was a very influential Greek philosopher.
People at the time were gullible to the ideas of the philosophers.
Aristotle supported his ideas with laboratory experimentation.
EXPLANATION
Aristotle 's ideas were accepted and stood for many years because he was a very influential Greek
philosopher. It was not until the Middle Ages that his views in motion were under modifications and
criticisms.
Galilean Conceptions: Vertical Motion, Horizontal Motion, and Projectile Motion

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does Galileo believe about motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
Objects will continue to be in uniform motion if unimpeded.
A violent motion is caused by an external force.
Objects move because of their elemental composition.
Heavier objects fall faster than lighter objects if there is no resistance.
EXPLANATION
Galileo believed that an object in motion, if unimpeded, will continue to be in motion; an external
force is not necessary to maintain the motion.
QUESTION 2
According to Galileo, an object in uniform motion will travel a distance that is proportional to −−−−
−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
time
acceleration
velocity
speed
EXPLANATION
An object in uniform motion will travel a distance that is proportional to the time it took to travel.
QUESTION 3
If the object encountered a resistive force from a fluid equal or greater than its weight, it will −−−−
−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
have a uniform motion
accelerate
disappear
slow down
EXPLANATION
Galileo believed that if the object encountered a resistive force from a fluid equal or greater than its
weight, it will slow down and reaches a uniform motion until it reaches the bottom and stops.
QUESTION 4
A metal ball dropped in a pool went down slowly. This means that the resistive force on the ball is −
−−−−−−−−−−−_.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
equal to its weight
less than its weight
greater than its weight
equal to zero
EXPLANATION
The metal dropped in the pool encountered a resistive force equal or greater than its weight. Thus, it
will slow down and attain a uniform motion. Galileo believed that if the object encountered a resistive
force from a fluid equal or greater than its weight, it will slow down and reaches a uniform until it
reaches the bottom and stops.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following agrees with Galileo’s view of motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
A feather will be as fast as an iron ball if dropped in a vacuum.
If a 10-kg boulder is dropped to the sea, it will stop midway.
Planets revolve around the Sun because of a Prime Mover.
Smoke rises because the sky is its natural place.
EXPLANATION
Galileo believed that in the absence of a resistance, objects would fall not depending on their weight,
but on the time of fall.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about the projectile of an arrow when shot?
SINGLE ANSWER
It has both uniform motion and uniformly accelerating motion.
It creates a vacuum that sucks air in, and the air pushes the arrow.
It rises because arrows are mostly air.
It has a continuous applied force from the person who shot the arrow.
EXPLANATION
Galileo believed that a projectile is a combination of uniform motion in the horizontal direction and
uniformly accelerated motion in the vertical direction.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following agrees with Galileo’s view of motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
A flying baseball has both uniform motion and uniformly accelerating motion.
A box will stop sliding in a frictionless plane if the applied force is removed.
A balloon rises because it is mostly air, and the sky is its natural place.
An iron ball will always fall faster than a rubber ball.
EXPLANATION
A flying baseball with both uniform and accelerating motion is an example of a projectile motion.
Galileo believed that a projectile is a combination of uniform motion in the horizontal direction and
uniformly accelerated motion in the vertical direction.
QUESTION 8
According to Galileo's view, which will reach the floor of the vacuum chamber first, a sheet of paper
or a bowling ball?
SINGLE ANSWER
They will reach the floor at the same time.
The sheet of paper will reach the vacuum chamber.
The bowling ball will reach the vacuum chamber.
They will not reach the floor and will be sucked in the vacuum.
EXPLANATION
In a vacuum chamber, both the sheet of paper and the bowling ball will reach the ground at the
same time. Galileo believed that in the absence of a resistance, objects would fall not depending on
their weight, but on the time of fall.
QUESTION 9
A box sliding on the floor slowly stops.
Why is this so?
SINGLE ANSWER
There was a force that impeded the sliding box.
The applied force from the pusher disappeared.
The resistive force from the floor is equal to the applied force.
The boxes are usually made of earth, so the box, being a heavy element, stops.
EXPLANATION
Galileo believed that an object in motion, if unimpeded, will continue to be in motion. Therefore, the
box will only stop if it was impeded.
QUESTION 10
Terminal velocity is the maximum velocity that an object could travel when it is falling with air
resistance. When an object is at terminal velocity, its velocity becomes constant.
Which Galilean concept helps explains this?

SINGLE ANSWER
Due to a resistive force, an object slows down and reaches a uniform motion.
An external force is not necessary to maintain the movement of the object.
The object’s travelled distance depends on the time.
Any object will fall at the same rate.
EXPLANATION
Galileo believed that if the object encountered a resistive force from a fluid equal or greater than its
weight, it will slow down and reaches a uniform motion until it reaches the bottom and stops.
How Galileo Inferred That Objects in Vacuum Fall with Uniform Acceleration
QUESTION 1
Galileo proved that all falling objects fall with the same −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
acceleration
speed
velocity
energy
EXPLANATION
Regardless of the mass of any falling objects and neglecting air resistance, Galileo proved that all
objects fall with the same acceleration.
QUESTION 2
What material did Galileo use to study the acceleration of a falling body?
SINGLE ANSWER
inclined planes
balls
horizontal planes
rings
EXPLANATION
Galileo investigated the behavior of a moving ball on inclined planes with varying steepness.
QUESTION 3
As Galileo changed the angle of inclination of the planes he used, what happened to the value of the
acceleration of the rolling ball?
SINGLE ANSWER
The acceleration of the rolling ball increased as the steepness of the plane was increased.
The acceleration of the rolling ball stayed the same as the steepness of the plane was increased.
The acceleration of the rolling ball decreased as the steepness of the plane was increased.
The acceleration of the rolling ball became zero as the steepness of the plane was increased.
EXPLANATION
Galileo observed that the speed of the rolling ball increased as it went down, and its acceleration
increased as the steepness of the inclined plane is increased.
QUESTION 4
At what position of the inclined plane did Galileo find the greatest acceleration of the rolling ball?
SINGLE ANSWER
when the plane is inclined at 90°
EXPLANATION
Galileo also observed that the maximum rate in the change of speed of a rolling ball was reached
when the inclination of the plane was 90°.
QUESTION 5
Three objects A, B, and C with masses 5 kg, 8 kg, and 15 kg, respectively, were dropped
simultaneously. Neglecting air resistance, which object will have the greatest acceleration upon
reaching the ground?
SINGLE ANSWER
The three objects will have the same acceleration.
Object C will have the greatest acceleration.
Object B will have the greatest acceleration.
Object A will have the greatest acceleration.
EXPLANATION
All objects dropped simultaneously will fall with the same acceleration, regardless of the difference in
their masses.
QUESTION 6
Three objects A, B, and C with mass 5 kg, 8 kg, and 15 kg, respectively, were dropped
simultaneously. Neglecting air resistance, which object will reach the ground first?
SINGLE ANSWER
The three objects will reach the ground at the same time.
Object C will reach the ground first.
Object B will reach the ground first.
Object A will reach the ground first.
EXPLANATION
All objects dropped simultaneously will reach the ground at the same time, regardless of the
difference in their masses.
QUESTION 7
A rolling stone was found to pick up a speed of 3 m/s every second. What will be its speed after 5 s if
it started with 0 m/s at 0 s?
SINGLE ANSWER
15 m/s
25 m/s
9 m/s
3 m/s
EXPLANATION
As shown in the table, the rolling stone will have a speed of 15 m/s after 5 s.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements agrees with Galileo’s concept of falling objects?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Falling objects fall with changing speed.
Falling objects fall with constant acceleration.
Falling objects fall with constant speed.
Falling objects fall with changing acceleration.
EXPLANATION
Galileo’s experiments showed and proved that all falling objects move with increasing speed and
constant acceleration.
QUESTION 9
What is the acceleration of a body after 5 s if its speed increases by a value of 8 m/s every second?
SINGLE ANSWER
8 m/s 2
0 m/s 2
16 m/s 2
40 m/s 2
EXPLANATION
The rate in the change of speed is the body’s acceleration. Since the value of the rate in change of
the speed, as given, is 8 m/s this means that it is also the body’s acceleration.
2
QUESTION 10
After how many seconds will a body have a speed of 20 m/s if it has a uniform acceleration of 5
m/s and started from 0 m/s at 0 seconds?
2
SINGLE ANSWER
4 seconds
5 seconds
3 seconds
2 seconds
EXPLANATION
Beginning with 0 m/s at 0 s, the body would have the following speeds on the succeeding seconds.
The Position vs. Time and Velocity vs. Time Graphs of Constant Velocity Motion
QUESTION 1
What quantity is defined by any change in the velocity of a body per unit of time?
SINGLE ANSWER
acceleration
speed
position
time
EXPLANATION
Acceleration is the rate at which a body changes its velocity.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following corresponds to the slope of a position vs. time graph?
SINGLE ANSWER
velocity
acceleration
speed
position
EXPLANATION
The velocity of a body is represented by the slope of a position vs. time graph.
QUESTION 3
Which of the two statements below is always true?
A. A body moving with constant speed is also moving with constant velocity.
B. A body moving with constant velocity is also moving with constant speed.
SINGLE ANSWER
B only
Both statements are always true.
A only
Both statements are false.
EXPLANATION
Statement B is always true because a body moving with constant velocity means that its speed or
the magnitude of its velocity is also constant and there is no change in its direction.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are true when a body is said to be accelerating?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
the speed of the body changes
the direction of motion of the body changes
both the speed and direction of the body is constant
the velocity of the body is constant
EXPLANATION
When a body is accelerating, its velocity is changing and this can happen when there is a change in
its speed, direction, or both speed and direction.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following graphs shows a body moving with constant acceleration?
SINGLE ANSWER
ANSWER
EXPLANATION
This graph shows a body moving with constant acceleration since the slope of the velocity vs. time
graph is equivalent to acceleration and a graph with a straight line slanting to the right gives a
constant slope.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following graphs show a body moving with constant velocity?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
EXPLANATION
Both the graphs show a body moving with a constant or unchanging velocity.
The first graph is a position vs. time graph which shows a straight line slanting to the right.This
means that the slope has a constant value which corresponds to the velocity of the body.
The second graph is a velocity vs. time graph which shows a flat line. This clearly shows that as time
goes by, the velocity of the body is not changing.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following best describes the motion of a body if its position vs. time graph shows a flat
line?
SINGLE ANSWER
The body is at rest.
The body is moving with constant velocity.
The body is moving with constant acceleration.
The body is moving with constant speed.
EXPLANATION
A flat line in a position vs. time graph means that the body is not changing its position as time goes
by. In short, the body is at rest.
QUESTION 8
Given the graph below, what can be said about the body’s motion at times 1-2 seconds?
SINGLE ANSWER
The body is moving with constant velocity.
The body is at rest.
The body is moving with constant acceleration.
The body is moving with changing velocity.
EXPLANATION
At time 1-2 seconds, the body moves in a constant velocity indicated as a flat line in the velocity vs.
time graph.
QUESTION 9
What is the slope of the graph at time 4-5 seconds as shown below?
SINGLE ANSWER
2m/s22m/s2
2m/s2m/s
2m2m
2s2s
EXPLANATION
The slope of the graph at time 4-5 seconds is:
slope=y2−y1x2−x1=10m/s−8m/s5s−4s=2m/s1s=2m/s2
QUESTION 10
What is the slope of the graph at times 1-2 seconds as shown below?
SINGLE ANSWER
0m/s20m/s2
2m/s2m/s
2m/s22m/s2
0m/s0m/s
EXPLANATION
The slope of the graph at times 1-2 seconds is:
slope=y2−y1x2−x1=4m/s−4m/s2s−1s=0m/s1s=0m/s2
Acceleration in Physics
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are vector quantities?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
velocity
acceleration
speed
distance
EXPLANATION
Acceleration and velocity are vector quantities because they are described with both magnitude and
direction.
QUESTION 2
A vector quantity has −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
both magnitude and direction
direction only
magnitude only
neither magnitude nor direction
EXPLANATION
A vector quantity has both magnitude and direction.
QUESTION 3
What is acceleration?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the rate at which an object changes its velocity.
It is the rate at which an object changes its speed.
It is the rate at which an object changes direction.
It is the rate at which an object changes its momentum.
EXPLANATION
Acceleration is the rate at which an object changes its velocity.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following best illustrate acceleration used in everyday terms?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The racing car accelerates; it is moving so fast.
The racing car does not accelerate; it is moving so slow.
The racing car accelerates; it is changing directions.
The racing car does not accelerate; it is changing directions.
EXPLANATION
In everyday terms, acceleration may refer to objects which are moving so fast.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following should change in velocity to consider an object accelerating?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
magnitude
direction
both magnitude and direction
neither magnitude nor direction
EXPLANATION
An object accelerates when its velocity’s magnitude or direction changes or there is a change in both
its magnitude and direction.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best illustrates acceleration in terms of physics?
SINGLE ANSWER
The racing car accelerates; it is changing directions.
The racing car accelerates; it is moving so fast.
The racing car does not accelerate; it is moving so slow.
The racing car does not accelerate; it is changing directions.
EXPLANATION
An object accelerates if it changes its direction.
QUESTION 7
In which of the following situations does the truck accelerate?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A truck starts from rest and runs at 50 km/h after ten minutes.
A truck starts from 50 km/h and continues to run with the same speed as it turns a curve.
A truck runs at 50 km/h and suddenly stops after ten minutes.
A truck starts from 50 km/h and continues to run with the same speed for five minutes.
EXPLANATION
An object accelerates when either its velocity changes in magnitude, direction, or, both magnitude
and direction.
A truck that starts from rest and runs at 50 km/h after 10 minutes and a truck that runs at 50 km/h
and suddenly stops after ten minutes both exhibit a change in the magnitude of its velocity; thus,
they are accelerating.
A truck that starts from 50 km/h and continues to run with the same speed as it turns a curve
accelerates because there is a change in its direction even if there is no change in the magnitude of
its velocity.
QUESTION 8
You are walking at constant speed of 3 km/h.
Which of the following statements is true about your acceleration?
SINGLE ANSWER
You are not accelerating because there is no change in your velocity’s magnitude.
You are not accelerating because there is a change in your velocity’s magnitude.
You are accelerating because there is a change in your velocity’s magnitude.
You are accelerating because you are moving at a constant speed.
EXPLANATION
Since you are moving at a constant speed, you are not accelerating.
QUESTION 9
You are walking at a constant speed of 3 km/h in a zigzag trail.
Are you accelerating? Why?
SINGLE ANSWER
Yes, because there is a change in your direction.
Yes, because there is a change in your velocity’s magnitude.
No, because you are moving at a constant speed.
No, because there is no change in your direction.
EXPLANATION
Since you are in a zigzag trail, your direction changes from time to time; thus, you are accelerating
even if there is no change in your speed.
QUESTION 10
Venus is a planet with a nearly circular orbit. It travels with a nearly constant speed of approximately
126 000 km/hr.
Is Venus accelerating?
SINGLE ANSWER
Yes, because it moves in a uniform circular motion.
Yes, because it moves very fast at 126 000 km/hr.
No, because it move at a constant speed.
No, because it move in a uniform circular motion.
EXPLANATION
Objects that move in uniform circular motion have constant speeds but still accelerate because they
constantly change in direction as they go around the circular path.
The Three Laws of Motion

QUESTION 1
Who is the Greek philosopher who first studies motion based on his observations?
SINGLE ANSWER
Aristotle
Plato
Epicurus
Galen
EXPLANATION
Aristotle classified motion as natural or violent based on his observations of surroundings.
QUESTION 2
Who proposed the laws of motion in 1687?
SINGLE ANSWER
Sir Isaac Newton
Galileo Galilei
Francis Bacon
Aristotle
EXPLANATION
Sir Isaac Newton published his laws of motion in 1687 in a book called Principia Mathematica
Philosophiae Naturalis.
QUESTION 3
Which law of motion implies that forces always come in pairs?
SINGLE ANSWER
Law of Action and Reaction
Law of Inertia
Law of Momentum
Law of Acceleration
EXPLANATION
The law of action and reaction states that when a force is exerted by an object on another object, the
second object will exert the same amount of force in the opposite direction to the first object.
QUESTION 4
A cart is moving with a constant speed on a level surface.
Which of the following are the most likely to happen?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It will continue moving.
It will stop when it encounters a block along the way.
It will stop after 10 minutes.
It will stop when after 10 minutes and continue moving again.
EXPLANATION
It will continue moving unless a net external force acts on it like a block that it may encounter along
the way.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following objects has the greatest amount of inertia?
SINGLE ANSWER
4-kg cotton
3-kg steel nail
2-kg mangoes
1-kg rice
EXPLANATION
The inertia of an object depends on its mass. The greater the mass, the greater the inertia.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about the law of acceleration?
SINGLE ANSWER
When the object’s mass is small, a small amount of force is required to accelerate it.
When a force is applied on an object, it tends to increase its mass.
Acceleration depends of two things: the object’s size and the force applied on it.
The greater the mass of the object the easier it is to change its state of motion.
EXPLANATION
When the mass of the object is small, its inertia is also small. Therefore, a small amount of force
may accelerate the object.
QUESTION 7
According to the 2nd law, the mass of the object is inversely proportional to its acceleration.
Which of the following statements best explains the relationship assuming that the force applied is
constant?
SINGLE ANSWER
Increasing the mass of the object decreases the rate of its acceleration.
The acceleration decreases when the mass of the object also decreases.
When the mass of the object is increased, it has no effect in its acceleration.
Increasing the mass of the object decreases the rate of its acceleration by ½.
EXPLANATION
Inverse proportion means when one quantity increases, the other decreases. Increasing the mass of
the object decreases its acceleration and vice versa.
QUESTION 8
When one man pulls a box with a constant force, the box accelerates.
What will happen to the acceleration if two men pull the box with a mass that has been tripled?
SINGLE ANSWER
It will decrease.
It will increase.
It will remain the same.
It will be zero.
EXPLANATION
Let us say that the force applied to the box is 2N and the mass of the box is 1kg. We can express
the scenario in a mathematical explanation:
a=Fm=2N1kg=2m/s2a=Fm=2N1kg=2m/s2
If the force is doubled and the mass is tripled, then
a=Fm=4N3kg=1.3m/s2a=Fm=4N3kg=1.3m/s2
The acceleration changed from 2m/s22m/s2 to 1.3m/s21.3m/s2.
We can say that when the amount of force was increased and the mass of the box was tripled, then
the acceleration would be decreased.
QUESTION 9
When one man pulls a box with a constant mass and force, the box accelerates.
What will happen to the acceleration if another box with the same mass is added and two men will
pull the box?
SINGLE ANSWER
It will be the same.
It will decrease.
It will increase.
It will be zero.
EXPLANATION
Since another box with the same mass is added, even if the boxes will be pulled by two men, the
acceleration will remain the same.
QUESTION 10
Jose and Fernando, Fernando being the heavier one, are on their roller skates, facing each other
with their palms together. At the same moment, they pushed against each other with the same
amount of force.
Which of the statements best describes what will happen to them?
SINGLE ANSWER
Jose will move faster to the left while Fernando will move slower to the right.
Fernando will move faster to the right while Jose will move slower to the left.
Both Fernando and Jose will move with the same velocity at different direction.
None of them will move because the force will cancel out.
EXPLANATION
Based on the third law of motion, the forces exerted by Fernando and Jose will not be cancelled out
since these forces are acted on different objects, in this case, on each other. On the other hand,
based on the second law of motion, since Fernando is heavier, he will accelerate less than Jose.
Newton’s Law of Inertia vs. Galileo’s Assertion on Horizontal Motion

UESTION 1
What property of matter tends to resists a change in an object’s state of motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
inertia
mass
volume
force
EXPLANATION
Inertia keeps the object from changing its state of motion and is related to the object’s mass.
QUESTION 2
Who was the scientist who first explained the concept of inertia?
SINGLE ANSWER
Galileo Galilei
Sir Isaac Newton
Nicolas Copernicus
Aristotle
EXPLANATION
Galileo Galilei was the first to explain that all material things resist a change in its state of motion,
due to inertia.
QUESTION 3
When a ball rolls on the floor, it will eventually stop. What force causes the ball to stop?
SINGLE ANSWER
friction
weight
inertia
gravity
EXPLANATION
Friction is a force that exists between objects in contact. It is a force that tries to stop the motion of
objects.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is Galileo’s assertion on horizontal motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
When an object is left alone, it will continue to move with constant velocity.
No force is needed to start the motion of an object.
No force is required to decrease or increase the motion of an object.
The inertia of an object will keep the object moving with constant velocity.
EXPLANATION
Galileo asserted that if a moving object is left alone, which means no force acts on the object, it will
keep moving in straight line with constant speed.
QUESTION 5
In Galileo’s experiment, what force, aside from friction, affects the motion of the ball in rolling up and
down the inclined planes?
SINGLE ANSWER
gravity
weight
friction
inertia
EXPLANATION
The force of gravity either increases or decreases the speed of the ball in Galileo’s experiments.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is true about Galileo’s work on horizontal motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
When an object moves with gravity, its speed increases.
When the ball rolls down a slope, its speed increases because of friction.
In the absence of friction, the object will stop from moving.
When the object is moving against gravity, its velocity increases.
EXPLANATION
When an object is moving with gravity, it is moving in the same direction as the pull of gravity, thus
its speed increases.
QUESTION 7
What is the difference between Galileo’s assertion of horizontal motion and Newton’s 1st law of
motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
Galileo did not use the concept of force in his assertions but only used 'push or pull'.
Newton’s inertia is based on mass, while Galileo’s inertia is based on weight.
Newton’s 1st law emphasizes that a force is required to keep the motion of the object.
Galileo asserted that a force is needed to keep the motion of the object.
EXPLANATION
Galileo did not use the concept of force in his assertions but used the term 'push or pull' to signify
forces. Sir Isaac Newton was the one who fully explained the concept of force and its relation to
motion.
QUESTION 8
A ball is rolled on top of a table and slowly comes to a stop.
How would Galileo explain this phenomenon?
SINGLE ANSWER
The friction between the ball and the table stops the motion of the ball.
The ball’s inertia keeps it from moving, eventually stopping its motion.
When the ball rolls on top of the table, it is moving against gravity.
The ball stops because no force maintains its motion.
EXPLANATION
Since the ball is on a level surface, it is neither moving with or against gravity. Galileo would say that
friction between the ball and the table stops the ball from moving.
QUESTION 9
A ball is rolling to the right on a friction-free surface.
If the ball is pushed to the right, what will happen to its motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
The ball will increase its speed.
The ball will decrease its speed.
The ball will change the direction of movement without changing speed.
Its motion will remain constant.
EXPLANATION
Since a force is applied to the object in the same direction of its motion, it will increase its speed.
QUESTION 10
All statements below are similarities of Galileo’s assertion on horizontal motion and Newton’s 1st law
of motion except −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
All objects have inertia that tends to increase or decrease its speed.
Inertia is the property of an object that keeps it from changing its state of motion.
No force is needed in order to keep an object moving in a straight line with constant speed.
Force is required to change the state of motion of an object.
EXPLANATION
Inertia is the tendency to resists a change in motion of an object. To increase or decrease the speed
of an object, force must be exerted on the object.
Newton’s Second Law of Motion and Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation: Identical
Acceleration
QUESTION 1
What is the value of G or the gravitational constant?
SINGLE ANSWER
6.67x10−11Nm2kg26.67x10−11Nm2kg2
6.67x1011Nm2kg26.67x1011Nm2kg2
6.67x10−11Nm2kg6.67x10−11Nm2kg
6.67x10−11Nm2kg−26.67x10−11Nm2kg−2
EXPLANATION
The value of the gravitational constant, G is 6.67x10−11Nm2kg26.67x10−11Nm2kg2.
QUESTION 2
What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity?
SINGLE ANSWER
9.8m/s29.8m/s2
9.8m/s9.8m/s
8.9m/s28.9m/s2
8.9m/s8.9m/s
EXPLANATION
The acceleration due to gravity is equal to 9.8m/s29.8m/s2.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following represents Newton’s law of universal gravitation?
SINGLE ANSWER
F=Gm1m2r2F=Gm1m2r2
F=m1m2Gr2F=m1m2Gr2
F=Gm1m2rF=Gm1m2r
F=Gr2m1m2F=Gr2m1m2
EXPLANATION
Newton's law of universal gravitation is represented by F=Gm1m2r2F=Gm1m2r2.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following represents Newton’s law of acceleration?
SINGLE ANSWER
F=maF=ma
F=maF=ma
F=amF=am
F=gaF=ga
EXPLANATION
Newton’s law of acceleration is represented by F=maF=ma.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following equations represents the combination of Newton’s second law of motion and
law of universal gravitation for an object that is freely falling on Earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
a=GmE(rE+rFFB)2a=GmE(rE+rFFB)2
a=GmE(rE+rFFB)a=GmE(rE+rFFB)
a=Gm2E(rE+rFFB)a=GmE2(rE+rFFB)
a=Gm2E(rE+rFFB)2a=GmE2(rE+rFFB)2
EXPLANATION
The combination of Newton’s law of acceleration and law of universal gravitation for an object that is
falling freely falling on Earth is represented by a=GmE(rE+rFFB)2a=GmE(rE+rFFB)2.
QUESTION 6
In Newton’s universal law of gravitation, what is the relationship between the product of the masses
of two objects to the force between them?
SINGLE ANSWER
directly proportional
inversely proportional
equal to each other
no relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Newton’s universal law of gravitation states that the product of the masses between two objects is
directly proportional to the force between them.
QUESTION 7
What is the relationship between the square of the distance of the centers of mass of two objects to
the force between them?
SINGLE ANSWER
inversely proportional
directly proportional
equal to each other
no relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Newton’s law of universal gravitation states that the square of the distance of the centers of mass of
two objects is inversely proportional to the force between them.
QUESTION 8
In the combination of the equations of Newton’s law of acceleration and law of universal gravitation,
why was the radius of the freely falling body cancelled out that led to the
equation, a=GmEr2Ea=GmErE2?
SINGLE ANSWER
The radius of the Earth is significantly larger than the radius of the freely falling body.
The radius of the freely falling body is significantly larger than the radius of the Earth.
The acceleration of the Earth is significantly larger than the mass of the freely falling body.
The acceleration of the freely falling body is significantly larger than the mass of the Earth.
EXPLANATION
The radius of the Earth is significantly larger than the radius of the freely falling body; thus, the
radius of the freely falling body is cancelled out.
QUESTION 9
Two objects are freely falling close to the surface of the Earth. Object A is twice as massive as
Object B.
What is the value of g for Object A?
SINGLE ANSWER
equal to g
greater than g
lesser than g
equal to zero
EXPLANATION
In the absence of air resistance, objects close to the surface of the Earth fall with identical
accelerations independent of their masses.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following shows how the value of gis derived?
SINGLE ANSWER
a=[6.67x10−11Nm2kg2][5.9723x1024kg6.371x106m]a=[6.67x10−11Nm2kg2]
[5.9723x1024kg6.371x106m]
a=[6.67x10−11Nm2kg2][5.97231024m6.371x106kg]a=[6.67x10−11Nm2kg2][5.97231024m6.371x106kg]
a=[6.67x10−11kg2Nm2][5.97231024kg6.371x106m]a=[6.67x10−11kg2Nm2][5.97231024kg6.371x106m]
a=[6.67x10−11Nkg2m2][5.97231024kg6.371x106m]a=[6.67x10−11Nkg2m2][5.97231024kg6.371x106m]
EXPLANATION
The value of g is derived by substituting the values of the mass and the radius of the Earth to the
equation a=GmEr2Ea=GmErE2; thus,
a=[6.67x10−11Nm2kg2][5.9723x1024kg6.371x106m]a=[6.67x10−11Nm2kg2]
[5.9723x1024kg6.371x106m] or
a=g≈9.8m/s2a=g≈9.8m/s2.
Newton’s Law and Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

QUESTION 1
Which of the following scientific laws is an empirical law?
SINGLE ANSWER
Law of Planetary Motion
Law of Action and Reaction
Law of Inertia
Law of Acceleration
EXPLANATION
The law of planetary motion is an example of an empirical law because it is based on observation
and evidence.
QUESTION 2
It is not derived from any existing law and is evidence-based descriptions.
SINGLE ANSWER
empirical law
axiom
theory
assumption
EXPLANATION
An empirical law is based on factual observation and evidence.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is Newton’s first law of motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
An object will remain at rest or in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.
The planets move around the sun in curved paths called ellipses.
The nearer the planet is from the sun, the faster its velocity and vice versa.
The acceleration of an object depends on its mass and the force applied on it.
EXPLANATION
The first law of motion, also known as the law of inertia, states that an object stays at rest or in
motion (with same speed and direction) unless acted upon by an external force.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is not true about a scientific law?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is an educated guess about on why the natural phenomena occurs.
It is a simple description of natural phenomena.
It is supported by scientific observation and experiments.
It is a statement about a phenomena that is widely accepted to be true.
EXPLANATION
An educated guess or a hypothesis can be accepted or rejected based on the results of
experiments, however a scientific law is accepted to be true and supported by evidence.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements can be considered as an empirical law?
SINGLE ANSWER
The farther the planet is from the sun, the slower its velocity.
Planets move around the sun in a circular path.
Any object in motion will increase its velocity as a function of time.
An object at rest will not change its position and speed if no force is applied on it.
EXPLANATION
Kepler's law of planetary motion is an example of an empirical law. This statement is an
interpretation of Kepler's second law.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements bestdescribes an axiom?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is a statement that is considered to be true if assumptions are made.
It is an agreement of scientist from all over the world.
It is supported by evidence gathered through observation and experiments.
It is merely a hypothesis that can be changed by recent advancement in science.
EXPLANATION
Axioms are useful ways of thinking about a certain phenomenon. This entails the use of assumptions
to specify the conditions to which the axioms hold true.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not true about empirical laws?
SINGLE ANSWER
Empirical laws are accepted true because they come from first hand observations of phenomena.
Empirical laws are considered true because no experiment can falsify them.
Empirical laws are statements backed by results of observations and experiments.
. Empirical laws are descriptions of natural phenomena that is verified to be true.
EXPLANATION
An empirical law is based evidences gathered through experiments. First hand observations are not
reliable and may differ from person to person.
QUESTION 8
The time for a planet to revolve around the sun is related to its average distance from the sun.
This statement is an example of an −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
empirical law because the statement can be observed and measured
empirical law because a reputable scientist proposed it
axiom because the equation is widely accepted as true even without evidence
axiom because the statement can only be true if the planet is inside the solar system
EXPLANATION
The statement is the third law of Kepler’s planetary motion. It is an empirical law because it is the
result of scientific computation and experimentation.
QUESTION 9
For every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction.
This law is considered as an −−−−−−−−−−−−_.

SINGLE ANSWER
axiom because it can only be true if assumptions are made
empirical law because it is based from other scientific laws
axiom because it reflects what is observed in the natural world
empirical law because it is supported by evidences provided by experiments
EXPLANATION
The statement is Newton’s third law of motion and in order for it to be true, an assumption should be
made. An axiom holds true only within the context that they are applied. Therefore, we can say that
the Newton’s laws of motion are axioms because they hold true only when assumptions are
established.
QUESTION 10
A scientist is studying about the motion of clouds in the atmosphere. In order to describe the motion
of the clouds, he assumed an ‘ideal atmosphere’, an atmosphere that is different from the Earth.
Using this ‘ideal atmosphere’ he proposed three laws regarding the motion of clouds which are
accepted to be true.
Which of the following best exemplifies this scenario?
SINGLE ANSWER
axioms
empirical laws
hypotheses
theories
EXPLANATION
Using an ideal situation or a model provides a way of thinking about the motion of the clouds. In this
sense, the laws are axioms because they true within the ideal situation, but it is unproven or even
unprovable to be true in the real world.
The Law of Conservation of Momentum

QUESTION 1
It is the product of an object’s mass and velocity.
SINGLE ANSWER
momentum
torque
inertia
velocity
EXPLANATION
The formula of momentum is p=mv, where m is mass and v is velocity.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following quantities is notpossessed by an object at rest?
SINGLE ANSWER
momentum
inertia
mass
density
EXPLANATION
Momentum by definition is the product of mass and velocity, therefore only moving object possess
momentum.
QUESTION 3
When the momentum of an object changes, its−−−−−−−−−−−−_ also changes.
SINGLE ANSWER
motion
composition
torque
color
EXPLANATION
When a moving object changes its momentum, most likely its motion also changes.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is true about momentum?
SINGLE ANSWER
An object which moves with constant velocity has constant momentum.
Momentum is the product of object’s mass and acceleration.
An object at rest has huge amount of momentum.
When an object stops from moving its momentum reaches its maximum value.
EXPLANATION
Momentum is dependent on the object’s mass and velocity. If the velocity remains constant, so does
the momentum.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not true about collision?
SINGLE ANSWER
In a collision, the momentum of objects remains constant.
The momentum of the object is transferred to another object.
After a collision, the object may decrease or increase its momentum.
When a collision happens, the objects change their momentum which changes their motion.
EXPLANATION
After a collision, the objects change their motion which results from a change in their momentum.
QUESTION 6
An object whose mass remains constant increases its momentum.
Which of the following can best explain this situation?

SINGLE ANSWER
The velocity of the object increases.
The object is at rest.
The object’s acceleration is equal to zero.
There are no external force acting on the object.
EXPLANATION
Momentum is dependent on mass and velocity. At constant mass, momentum is directly proportional
to velocity; thus, an increase in the object’s momentum indicates an increase in its velocity.
QUESTION 7
Mona, a 45-kg student, is skating in a velocity of 7 m/s towards Alyssa, a 42-kg student, with a
skating velocity of 5 m/s. After the collision, Mona fell immediately while Mona scooted towards the
wall.
What is the velocity of Alyssa after the collision?
SINGLE ANSWER
12.5 m/s
1.2 m/s
25.2 m/s
2.5 m/s
EXPLANATION
We must first identify the given quantities.
m1=45kgm1=45kg
m2=42kgm2=42kg
v1=7m/sv1=7m/s
v2=5m/sv2=5m/s
For this scenario, we are looking for the velocity of Mona after the collision.
Using the equation of the law of conservation of momentum, let us get v′2v′2. Thus,
pbeforecollision=paftercollisionpbeforecollision=paftercollision
m1v1+m2v2=m1v′1+m2v′2m1v1+m2v2=m1v1′+m2v2′
m1v1+m2v2−m1v′1=m2v′2m1v1+m2v2−m1v1′=m2v2′
m1v1+m2v2−m1v′1m2=v′2m1v1+m2v2−m1v1′m2=v2′
v′2=(45kgx7ms)+(42kgx5ms)−(45kgx0ms)42kgv2′=(45kgx7ms)+(42kgx5ms)−(45kgx0ms)42kg
v′2=12.5m/sv2′=12.5m/s
Therefore, the velocity of the Alyssa after the collision is 12.5 m/s.
QUESTION 8
If a 1500-kg car is moving 2 m/s to the right. It collides head on with a 2000-kg van that is moving to
the left. The car and the van moved together at a speed of 5 m/s after the collision.
What is the velocity of the van before the collision?
SINGLE ANSWER
7.25 m/s
6.25 m/s
8.25 m/s
7.35 m/s
EXPLANATION
Identify first the given quantities:
m1=1500kgm1=1500kg
m2=2000kgm2=2000kg
v1=2m/sv1=2m/s
v′=5m/sv′=5m/s
For this problem, we are looking for the velocity of the van after the collision.
Using the equation of the law of conservation of momentum, let us get v2v2. Thus,
m1v1+m2v2=(m1+m2)v′m1v1+m2v2=(m1+m2)v′
m2v2m2=(m1+m2)v′−m1v1m2m2v2m2=(m1+m2)v′−m1v1m2
v2=(m1+m2)v′−m1v1m2v2=(m1+m2)v′−m1v1m2
v2=(1500kg+2000kg)5ms−(1500kgx2ms)2000kgv2=(1500kg+2000kg)5ms−(1500kgx2ms)2000kg
v2=7.25m/sv2=7.25m/s
The van is moving 7.25 m/s before collision.

QUESTION 9
A 2-kg ball moving at 4 m/s collides with a 1.5 kg-ball moving at 3 m/s. After the collision, the
velocity of the 2-kg ball is 2.5 m/s.
What will be the velocity of the 1.5-kg ball after the collision?
SINGLE ANSWER
5 m/s
8 m/s
4 m/s
7 m/s
EXPLANATION
m1=2kgm1=2kg
m2=1.5kgm2=1.5kg
v1=4m/sv1=4m/s
v2=3m/sv2=3m/s
v′1=2.5m/sv1′=2.5m/s
For this problem, we are looking for the velocity of the 1.5-kg ball after collision.
Using the equation of the law of conservation of momentum, let us get v′2v′2. Thus,
m1v1+m2v2=m1v′1+m2v′2m1v1+m2v2=m1v1′+m2v2′
m1v1+m2v2−m1v′1=m2v′2m1v1+m2v2−m1v1′=m2v2′
m1v1+m2v2−m1v′1m2=v′2m1v1+m2v2−m1v1′m2=v2′
v′2=(2kgx4ms)+(1.5kgx3ms)−(2kgx2.5ms)1.5kgv2′=(2kgx4ms)+(1.5kgx3ms)−(2kgx2.5ms)1.5kg
v′2=5m/sv2′=5m/s
The 1.5 kg object will move 5 m/s after collision.

QUESTION 10
A 0.25-kg bullet strikes and pierces a wooden block that is initially at rest. The bullet and the wooden
block moved as one unit with a speed of 5 m/s. The mass of the wooden block is 5-kg.
What is the speed of the bullet before hitting the wooden block?
SINGLE ANSWER
105 m/s
110 m/s
125 m/s
100 m/s
EXPLANATION
m1=0.25kgm1=0.25kg
m2=5kgm2=5kg
v2=0m/sv2=0m/s
v′=5m/sv′=5m/s
For this problem, we are looking for the speed of the bullet before hitting the wooden block.
Using the equation of the law of conservation of momentum, let us get v1v1. Thus,
m1v1+m2v2=(m1+m2)v′m1v1+m2v2=(m1+m2)v′
m1v1m1=(m1+m2)v′−m2v2m1m1v1m1=(m1+m2)v′−m2v2m1
v1=(m1+m2)v′−m2v2m1v1=(m1+m2)v′−m2v2m1
v1=(0.25kg+5kg)5ms−(5kgx0)0.25kgv1=(0.25kg+5kg)5ms−(5kgx0)0.25kg
v1=105m/sv1=105m/s
The bullet’s velocity before hitting the wooden block is 105 m/s.
Mass, Momentum, and Energy Conservation

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the contribution of Anton Von Lavoisier to science?
SINGLE ANSWER
law of conservation of mass
energy-mass equivalence
law of conservation of energy
law of conservation of momentum
EXPLANATION
As a chemist, Anton Van Lavoisier experimented on chemical reactions and found out that mass is
conserved after reactions.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes the law of conservation of energy?
SINGLE ANSWER
When energy is used, it is transformed into another form.
Energy is either created or destroyed, depending on the reaction.
Energy is lost if used inappropriately.
When energy is absorbed by an object, the object’s internal energy remains constant.
EXPLANATION
Energy is neither created nor destroyed; it can only be converted into other forms.
QUESTION 3
Who first attempted to quantify energy related to motion?
SINGLE ANSWER
Gottfried Leibniz
Émilie du Châtelet
Isaac Newton
Mikhail Lomonosov
EXPLANATION
Gottfried Leibniz derived a mathematical formula for energy that is related to motion.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes the implication of Lomonosov’s experiments with burning metals?
SINGLE ANSWER
The mass of the reactants after the reaction will remain the same.
The amount of reactants changes after burning.
After burning metals, something is released that changes the mass of the metals.
When substances are burned, phlogiston is released.
EXPLANATION
Lomonosov observed that the mass of the reactants was conserved after the reaction.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following describe the law of conservation of mass?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Mass in an enclosed system will neither be created nor destroyed by a chemical reaction.
The total mass of a product is equal to the total mass of the reactant in a chemical reaction.
Mass in an enclosed system will only be created not destroyed by a chemical reaction.
The total mass of the reactant is greater than the total mass of a product in a chemical reaction.
EXPLANATION
The law of conservation of mass states that mass in an enclosed system is neither created nor
destroyed by a chemical reaction. Thus, in a chemical reaction, the mass of the reactants must be
equal to the mass of the products.
QUESTION 6
What is the difference of Buridan’s theory of impetus to our accepted concept of momentum today?
SINGLE ANSWER
Momentum is the product of mass and velocity while impetus is the product of weight and velocity.
Momentum is conserved while impetus does not persist.
Momentum is possessed by any moving object while impetus is for objects thrown in air.
Momentum is related to energy while impetus is significantly different from energy.
EXPLANATION
Buridan’s impetus and our concept of momentum is almost the same except that impetus is equal to
the product of the object’s weight and velocity.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the philosophical foundation of the law of conservation of mass?
SINGLE ANSWER
Nothing comes from nothing.
Energy is neither created nor destroyed.
Every body persists in its state of rest or uniform motion.
A human being is part of a whole.
EXPLANATION
The Greek philosophy ‘nothing comes from nothing’ provides the foundation of the law of
conservation of mass. It implies that something must have come from something.
QUESTION 8
Abigail replicated du Châtelet’s experiment on dropping identical balls from different heights onto a
sheet of clay.
Which of the following best describes Abigail's findings?
SINGLE ANSWER
The higher the point of release of the ball, the deeper the dent on the clay sheet.
The heavier the ball, the deeper the dent on the clay sheet.
The faster the speed of fall of the ball, the smaller the dent on the clay sheet.
Regardless of the height of release, all identical balls will make the same dent on the clay.
EXPLANATION
A ball falling from a greater height has greater energy and deeper impression on the clay sheet
compared to a ball falling from a lesser height.
QUESTION 9
In Galileo’s experiment on the pendulum, he noticed that the pendulum rose to the same height from
where it was released.
How would you explain this phenomenon?

SINGLE ANSWER
The amount of energy of the pendulum was conserved so it rose to the same height.
The mass of the pendulum caused it to swing to the same height after release.
The momentum of the pendulum was held constant until it rose to the same height.
The momentum of the pendulum kept it moving until it reached the same height.
EXPLANATION
Galileo’s experiment showed that the energy was conserved in the pendulum causing it to swing to
the same height as it was released. If energy was not conserved, it would have stopped and have
not completed its swing.
QUESTION 10
When a matchstick is burned, its mass is different before it was burnt.
Which of the following best explains the scenario in terms of conservation of mass?
SINGLE ANSWER
When the matchstick is burnt, some part of it became gas, and some became ashes.
The remains of the matchstick weigh less because some were transformed into heat energy.
The remains of the matchstick weigh less because some were transferred to other places.
When the matchstick was ignited, some its parts were scraped off so it has lost mass.
EXPLANATION
The law of conservation of mass states that mass in an enclosed system is neither created nor
destroyed by a chemical reaction. When an object is burnt, some it turns to gas and most of it turns
to ash. The amount of gas produced and ash will be the same as the mass of the object before
burning.
Reflection, Refraction, Transmission, and Absorption of Light

LIGHT: A WAVE AND A PARTICLE
QUESTION 1
What do you call the bouncing of light as it strikes a surface?
SINGLE ANSWER
reflection
absorption
refraction
transmission
EXPLANATION
Reflection is the bouncing back of light when it strikes the surface of a material.
QUESTION 2
What property of light changes when light obliquely passes through two different media?
SINGLE ANSWER
speed of light
wavelength of light
frequency of light
color of light
EXPLANATION
When light obliquely passes two different media, the light is bent or refracted, and its speed
changes.
QUESTION 3
What type of reflection occurs when light strikes a smooth reflective surface?
SINGLE ANSWER
specular reflection
geometric reflection
diffuse reflection
irregular reflection
EXPLANATION
Regular reflection, also known as specular reflection occurs when light strikes a smooth surface like
a mirror, and light rays are reflected in one direction.
QUESTION 4
When light is transmitted, what type of material does it strike on?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
translucent
opaque
luminous
transparent
EXPLANATION
Light is transmitted when it hits the surface of either a transparent or a translucent material. It will
either completely or partly pass through these materials.
QUESTION 5
A flower appears yellow.
Which of the following statements is correct?
SINGLE ANSWER
The yellow component of light that strikes the flower is reflected while the rest are absorbed.
The yellow component of light that strikes the flower is absorbed while the rest are reflected.
The yellow component of light that strikes the flower is refracted while the rest are reflected.
The yellow component of light that strikes the flower is absorbed while the rest are refracted.
EXPLANATION
An object that appears with a particular color means that the object absorbs most of the frequencies
and reflects only the color of the object. This means that the flower absorbs all the frequencies of
light except yellow.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following situations will cause light to bend?
SINGLE ANSWER
When light strikes a surface obliquely and passes from one medium to another.
When light strikes a reflective surface.
When light strikes a surface and is absorbed by the material.
When light strikes a surface and is completely transmitted.
EXPLANATION
Light bends due to the change in its speed when it obliquely passes from one medium to another.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes how light behaves when it travels from a medium of low refractive
index to a medium with a higher refractive index?
SINGLE ANSWER
As light travels from a medium of low refractive index to a higher refractive index, the light slows
down and refracts closer to the normal line.
As light travels from a medium of low refractive index to a higher refractive index, the light speeds up
and refracts closer to the normal line.
As light travels from a medium of high refractive index to a lower refractive index, the light slows
down and refracts away from the normal line.
As light travels from a medium of low refractive index to a higher refractive index, the light speeds up
and refracts away from the normal line.
EXPLANATION
Refractive index describes how light propagates through a medium. When light travels from a
medium with a low refractive index to a medium with a higher refractive index, it slows down and
refracts closer to the normal line.
QUESTION 8
What happens to light when it is absorbed by the material?
SINGLE ANSWER
Light is converted into other forms of energy.
Light remains as light contained in the material.
Light cannot be absorbed by any object.
Light vanishes into air.
EXPLANATION
When light strikes an object, the light matches the resonant frequency of the object and makes it
vibrate at that frequency. During this event, the light energy is converted into thermal energy.
QUESTION 9
A black object appears black because −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
all the components of light are absorbed by the object.
all the components of light are reflected by the object.
all the components of light are transmitted by the object.
all the components of light are refracted by the object.
EXPLANATION
An object appears black because all the components of light are absorbed, and no component of
light is reflected by the object.
QUESTION 10
When light strikes an object, it appears white.
This means that all the components of the light is −−−−−−−−−−−−_.

SINGLE ANSWER
diffused
reflected
absorbed
refracted
EXPLANATION
When the object reflects all the components of light, it appears white.
The Emergence of Light: Newton and Descartes

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes how Rene Descartes viewed the nature of light?
SINGLE ANSWER
Light is a wave.
Light is composed of particles.
Light is composed of corpuscles.
Light is composed of nothing.
EXPLANATION
Descartes viewed light as a wave that travels in an invisible substance called plenum.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes how Sir Isaac Newton viewed the nature of light?
SINGLE ANSWER
Light is composed of particles.
Light is indivisible
Light is a wave.
Light is composed of white particles.
EXPLANATION
Newton viewed that light was composed of tiny particles which he called corpuscles.
QUESTION 3
What was material did Descartes use as a model of a raindrop to study the occurrence of a rainbow?
SINGLE ANSWER
water-filled glass sphere
prism
water-filled glass cube
vacuum
EXPLANATION
Descartes first studied the occurrence of the rainbow using a water-filled glass sphere.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes the very fine substance that Descartes believed where light travels
on?
SINGLE ANSWER
The very fine substance is composed of tiny balls.
The very fine substance is composed of tiny particles.
The very fine substance is composed of tiny specks dusts.
The very fine substance is composed of tiny bits of paper.
EXPLANATION
The very fine substance where light travels on was composed of tiny balls that affect light whenever
it passes through it.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes the force that the particles of a matter exert to the particles of light?
SINGLE ANSWER
The force that the particles of a matter exert to the particles of light are of equal amount
The force that the particles of a matter exert to the particles of light are of different amount.
The force that the particles of a matter exert to the particles of light are of varying amount.
The force that the particles of a matter exert to the particles of light have no significant amount
EXPLANATION
Newton imagined that matter is composed of particles that exert force to one another. The forces
these particles exert are of equal amount.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes how the colors of light emerge through prism according to
Descartes?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The light colors emerge when light particles change the speed of rotation of the tiny balls that
compose the very fine substance where light travels on.
Upon passing through the slit on the edge of a prism, the tiny balls on the slit starts to rotate, and
this rotation causes a change in the speed of rotation of the neighboring balls, and this change
produces color.
The light colors emerge upon passing a prism due to the difference in the mass of the colors of light.
The difference in the inertia of the colors caused the difference of deflection of each which leads to
their emergence upon passing a prism.
EXPLANATION
Descartes believed that colors of light emerge upon passing a slit on the edge of a prism due to the
change in the speed of the rotating balls.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes how colors of light emerge through prism according to Newton?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The light colors emerge upon passing a prism due to the difference in the mass of the colors of light.
The difference in the inertia of the colors caused the difference of deflection of each which leads to
their emergence upon passing a prism.
Upon passing through the slit on the edge of a prism, the tiny balls on the slit starts to rotate, and
this rotation causes a change in the speed of rotation of the neighboring balls and this change
produces color.
The light colors emerge when light particles change the speed of rotation of the tiny balls that
compose the very fine substance where light travels on.
EXPLANATION
Newton explained that the colors of light emerge upon passing a prism due to the difference in the
mass and inertia of the colors causing differences of deflection of each.
QUESTION 8
According to Newton, which of the following statements is true?
SINGLE ANSWER
Violet deflected the most because it has the least mass.
Violet deflected the most because it has the most mass.
Red deflected the most because it has the least mass.
Red deflected the most because it has the most mass.
EXPLANATION
According to Newton, violet refracts the most because it has the least mass.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is true about the mass and inertia of the colors of light?
SINGLE ANSWER
The greater the mass of a color of light, the greater is its inertia.
The greater the mass of a color of light, the lesser is its inertia.
The mass of a color of light does not affects its inertia.
The lesser the mass of a color of light, the greater is its inertia.
EXPLANATION
According to Newton, mass and inertia are directly related. The color of light that has a greater mass
also has a greater inertia.
QUESTION 10
Arrange the following colors of light according to increasing amount of deflection when light passes
through a prism.
CORRECT ORDER
orange
yellow
green
blue
EXPLANATION
The greater the mass means greater inertia which leads to lesser deflection of the color upon
passing through a prism. The colors of light, red, orange, yellow, green, blue, and violet (ROYGBV,)
are arranged according to increasing mass thus, orange will be deflected the least followed by
yellow, green, and blue.
Waves
QUESTION 1
What type of wave propagates parallel to the direction of energy transfer?
SINGLE ANSWER
longitudinal wave
transverse wave
mechanical wave
electromagnetic wave
EXPLANATION
Longitudinal waves are waves that propagate parallel to the direction of the energy transfer.
QUESTION 2
What is carried by a wave as it travels?
SINGLE ANSWER
energy
light
color
particle
EXPLANATION
Waves carry energy, and the direction of the energy transfer relative to the direction of the wave is
the other way of classifying waves.
QUESTION 3
Waves can be classified into groups. Which of the following statements give the correct basis of
classifying waves?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
based on their ability or inability to transmit energy through a vacuum
based on the direction of wave propagation relative to the direction of energy transfer
based on the direction and the amount of energy exerted to create the wave
based on the ability to change the direction of the wave relative to the direction of energy transfer
EXPLANATION
Waves can be classified in two ways. They can be classified based on (1) how the propagate; and
(2) the direction of wave propagation relative to the direction of energy transfer.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave?
SINGLE ANSWER
microwave
visible light
X-ray
sound wave
EXPLANATION
A sound wave is an example of a mechanical wave.
QUESTION 5
Which does not belong to the group?
SINGLE ANSWER
radio wave
sound wave
jump rope wave
water wave
EXPLANATION
Sound waves, jump rope waves, and water waves are examples of mechanical waves that need a
medium to travel on. Radio wave, on the other hand, does not need a medium to propagate.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is not true?
SINGLE ANSWER
All EM waves are transverse waves.
A sound wave is an example of a mechanical wave.
All mechanical waves are longitudinal waves.
All waves are transverse and longitudinal waves.
EXPLANATION
One classification of waves is based on the movement of the wave to the energy transfer. Not all
waves can be both transverse and longitudinal waves.
QUESTION 7
Visible light wave can be classified as −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
electromagnetic wave
transverse wave
mechanical wave
longitudinal wave
EXPLANATION
Visible light wave is the only EM wave that can be seen by the naked eye and since it is one of the
EM waves, it is also a transverse wave.
QUESTION 8
How are sound wave and stadium wave similar?
SINGLE ANSWER
They both need medium to travel on.
They both do not need medium to travel on.
They are both transverse waves.
They are both longitudinal waves.
EXPLANATION
Sound waves and stadium waves are both mechanical waves that need a medium to travel on.
QUESTION 9
Which is an example of a wave that is both transverse and longitudinal?
SINGLE ANSWER
surface wave
sound wave
light wave
stadium wave
EXPLANATION
Surface waves travel in a circular path which is the result of the combination of parallel and
perpendicular movement of the wave relative to the direction of energy transfer.
QUESTION 10
How are mechanical waves different from electromagnetic waves?
SINGLE ANSWER
Mechanical waves need a medium to travel on while EM waves do not.
Mechanical waves are transverse while EM waves longitudinal.
Mechanical waves do not need medium to travel on while EM waves do.
Mechanical waves are produced by vibration of charged particles while EM waves are produced on
a medium.
EXPLANATION
Mechanical waves can only propagate when a medium is available. Electromagnetic (EM) waves are
waves that can still travel even without a medium and are produced by the vibration of charged
particles.
Dual Nature of Light

QUESTION 1
What did the experiment of Galileo and Roemer want to prove?
SINGLE ANSWER
The speed of light is finite.
The speed of light is infinite.
The speed of light is slow.
The speed of light is immeasurable.
EXPLANATION
Galileo and Roemer's study wanted to prove that the speed of light is a finite quantity.
QUESTION 2
What instrument did Galileo used in his experiment?
SINGLE ANSWER
shutter lantern
lighted candle
flash light
light bulb
EXPLANATION
Galileo used shutter lanterns to observe the speed of light.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following did Roemer study closely that led him to measure the speed of light?
SINGLE ANSWER
the time of orbit of Io around Jupiter
the revolution of Io around Jupiter
the rotation of Io on its axis
the time of rotation of Io on its axis
EXPLANATION
Roemer studied the time of orbit of Io around Jupiter.
QUESTION 4
Based on Roemer’s observation, the time of orbit of the moon Io is −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
sometimes shorter than what is expected
sometimes longer than what is expected
always the same as what is expected
never the same to what is expected
EXPLANATION
The time of orbit of the moon Io was measured to be 1.76 days but Roemer observed that
sometimes it is less than this value and sometimes it is more than.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true in the idea of Roemer about the speed of light?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
When Earth is farther away from Jupiter, light needs longer time to reach Earth.
When Earth is closer to Jupiter, light needs shorter time to reach the Earth.
When Earth is closer to Jupiter light needs longer time to reach the Earth.
When Earth is farther away from Jupiter, light needs shorter time to reach Earth.
EXPLANATION
Roemer concluded based on the collected data that the time difference was due to the finite speed
of light. The light coming from Jupiter had to travel farther to reach the Earth when they are on the
opposite sides of the Sun than when they are close to each other.
QUESTION 6
How long is the time required for light to travel across the Earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
twenty minutes
ten minutes
thirty minutes
forty minutes
EXPLANATION
Roemer estimated that the time required for light to travel across the Earth’s diameter is twenty
minutes. Thus, the speed of light can be computed by dividing the diameter of the Earth’s orbit by
the time difference.
QUESTION 7
Reflection of light can be explained by its particle nature because −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
It acts the same way as a ball that hits a surface.
It acts like sound wave that echoes when it hits a surface.
It is an electromagnetic wave.
It has the fastest speed.
EXPLANATION
In the particle theory, an emitted light, whether near or far, is reflected as it arrives at the mirror
surface. Light is a particle because it reflects the same way as the ball hits a surface.
QUESTION 8
How can the wave nature of light explain its reflection property?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The theory states that light acts like sound wave that echoes when it hits a surface.
The theory states that light reflects according to its angle and and produces a reverse image.
The theory states that light is in an electromagnetic wave.
The theory states that light has the fastest speed.
EXPLANATION
In the wave theory, when a light wave struck a mirror, it is reflected according to their angles, but the
wave turned back to front and produced a reversed image. Just like the sound wave which echoes
upon striking a surface, light wave behaves the same way.
QUESTION 9
How can the wave nature of light explain its refraction property?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The theory states that light undergoes refraction by changing its direction as it passes through
different media.
The theory states that the light acts the same way the sound waves and the water waves refract.
The theory states that light is composed of tiny particles.
The theory states that light bounces like a ball hits the surface.
EXPLANATION
Based on the wave theory, when a beam of light travels into two different refractive indices, the
beam undergoes refraction by changing its direction as it passes the first medium into the next
medium. Just like the sound waves and water waves refract, light follows the same way.
QUESTION 10
How can the particle nature of light explain its refraction property?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The theory states that light particles pass through a medium and experience an attractive force
toward it.
The theory states that light particles act the same way as a ball that hits a surface.
The theory states that light particles deflect towards the surface because of a brief force.
The theory states that light particles bounce as it hit the surface.
EXPLANATION
The particle theory of light suggested that when the light particles pass through a medium, let’s say
water, they experience an attractive force towards the water. When light passes from a less dense
medium to a denser medium, it slows down and bends towards the normal which means away from
the surface.
The Photon Theory

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is true about atomic spectra?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is an energy given to the electron.
It is a series of colored lines with black spaces in between.
It is also called photons.
It is discrete bundle of electromagnetic energy moving at the speed of light.
EXPLANATION
Atomic spectra is a series of colored lines with black spaces in between. It describes the
wavelengths of an emitted light that correspond to different colors. Each element has its unique set
of spectral lines.
QUESTION 2
How is frequency related to the energy an electron carries?
SINGLE ANSWER
increasing the frequency would increase the energy of the ejected electrons
increasing the frequency would decrease the energy of the ejected electrons
increasing the frequency would not change the energy of the ejected electrons
increasing the frequency would split the energy of the ejected electrons
EXPLANATION
The energy coming from the electrons is directly proportional to its frequency, thus, increasing the
frequency would increase the energy of the ejected electrons.
QUESTION 3
Given the following electromagnetic waves, which order shows an increasing amount of energy
carried by the waves?
SINGLE ANSWER
Infrared, visible light, ultraviolet
Visible light, microwave, gamma ray
X-ray, gamma ray, radio wave
Gamma ray, x-ray, ultraviolet
EXPLANATION
Infrared, visible light, ultraviolet correctly shows an order of increasing energy carried by waves.
QUESTION 4
Why cannot other colors be used in a photographic dark room other than red?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Red has the lowest frequency compared to the rest of the colors which means it also has least
amount of energy just enough not to damage the film in a photographic dark room.
Other colors have the greater frequency compared to red which means they also have greater
amount of energy that can damage the film in a photographic dark room.
Red has the highest frequency compared to the rest of the colors which means it also has the least
amount of energy just enough not to damage the film in a photographic dark room.
Red has the highest frequency compared to the rest of the colors which means it also has the
highest amount of energy just enough not to damage the film in a photographic dark room.
EXPLANATION
Other colors of light have greater frequencies and energy than red. This means that red has the
least frequency and carries the least amount of energy enough not to damage a light-sensitive
photographic film.
QUESTION 5
Why do we get easily sunburned by ultraviolet light but not under the visible light?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Ultraviolet radiation has greater frequency than visible light.
Ultraviolet radiation has greater energy than visible light.
Ultraviolet has longer wavelengths and greater frequency than visible light.
Ultraviolet light has shorter wavelengths and greater frequency than visible light.
EXPLANATION
Beyond the visible light, the ultraviolet light has greater frequency and shorter wavelength which
means that it carries greater energy than the visible light. This explains why we easily get sunburned
under the ultraviolet rays of light than under the visible light.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are true about colors?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It is not innate to objects.
It only exists in the human visual system.
It is innate to objects.
It is determined by frequencies.
EXPLANATION
Colors are not innate to objects. They give off light that appears as colors. Colors only exist in the
human visual system. It is determined by frequencies and when it reaches the eye, it falls into a
receptor cell at the back of the eye or retina and gives signals to the brain which interprets the image
with colors.
QUESTION 7
If a given wave has a small range of frequency it would follow that −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
The wave carries less amount of energy.
The wave carries great amount of energy.
The wave has no energy.
The wave has infinite amount of energy.
EXPLANATION
The frequency of a wave is directly related to the energy it carries, therefore, a wave with a small
range of frequency carries less amount of energy.
QUESTION 8
If a given wave carries large amount of energy it would follow that −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
The wave has high frequency.
The wave has low frequency.
The wave has no frequency.
The wave has an infinite frequency.
EXPLANATION
The frequency of a wave is directly related to the energy it carries, therefore, a wave that carries
high amount of energy has a high frequency.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are true about the relationship between frequency and color in visible light?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
As the frequency increases, the color gradually changes from red up to violet.
As the frequency increases, the color stays the same.
As the frequency decreases, the color gradually changes from violet down to red.
As the frequency increases, the color gradually changes from red up to ultraviolet.
EXPLANATION
Colors are based on frequencies. Given an ample bright light, around 400 THz, a person would be
able to perceive a dull red. As the frequency increases, the color gradually changes from red to
orange to yellow to green to blue to violet.
The Relationship Between the Speed of Light, Wavelength, and Frequency

QUESTION 1
It is the distance between two consecutive identical parts of a wave like troughs or peaks.
SINGLE ANSWER
wavelength
amplitude
frequency
trough
EXPLANATION
The wavelength is the distance between two consecutive troughs or peaks. It is described by a unit
of distance or in meters.
QUESTION 2
What is the approximate value of the speed of light in vacuum?
SINGLE ANSWER
3.00x108m/s3.00x108m/s
0.03x108m/s0.03x108m/s
3.25x108m/s3.25x108m/s
Its value changes depending on the wavelength and frequency of light.
EXPLANATION
The speed of light has a constant value of approximately 300 000 000 m/s
or 3.00x108m/s3.00x108m/s in vacuum. It is directly related to both its frequency and its
wavelength but is not affected by these two; thus, it remains constant.
QUESTION 3
It is the number of wave cycles in a given period of time.
SINGLE ANSWER
frequency
wavelength
amplitude
speed of light
EXPLANATION
Frequency is the number of wave cycles or oscillations that pass a specific point in a given period of
time.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following equations describes the relationship between the speed of light, wavelength,
and frequency?
SINGLE ANSWER
c=λfc=λf
c=λfc=λf
c=fλc=fλ
λ=cfλ=cf
EXPLANATION
The relationship between speed, wavelength, and the frequency of a specific color of light is
described by the equation
c=λfc=λf
where cc is the speed of light (3.00x108m/s3.00x108m/s), λλ is the wavelength of light (in meters),
and ff is the frequency of light (in s−1s−1 or Hz)
QUESTION 5
How does the speed of light related to its frequency and wavelength?
SINGLE ANSWER
The speed of is directly related to both its wavelength and frequency.
The speed of light is inversely related to its wavelength but directly related to its frequency.
The speed of light is inversely related to both its wavelength and frequency.
The speed of light is directly related to its wavelength but inversely related to its frequency.
EXPLANATION
We can imply that the speed of light is directly related to both the light wave frequency and its
wavelength but is not affected by these two. The wavelength and frequency are inversely related to
each other; an increase in frequency will cause a decrease in wavelength and vice versa while
keeping the speed constant.
QUESTION 6
If a laser light has a wavelength of 4.2x1014Hz4.2x1014Hz, what is its wavelength?
SINGLE ANSWER
7.1x10−7m7.1x10−7m
7.5x10−7m7.5x10−7m
7.8x10−7m7.8x10−7m
7.4x10−7m7.4x10−7m
HINT
EXPLANATION
f=4.2x1014Hzf=4.2x1014Hz
c=3.00x108m/sc=3.00x108m/s
We are asked to identify the wavelength of a laser light.
To solve for λλ, we will use the equation that describes the relationship between speed, wavelength,
and the frequency of light. Thus,
c=λfc=λf
λ=cfλ=cf
λ=3.00x108m/s4.2x1014Hzλ=3.00x108m/s4.2x1014Hz
λ=7.1x10−7mλ=7.1x10−7m
Therefore, the wavelength of light is 7.1x10−7m7.1x10−7m.

QUESTION 7
What is the frequency of light if it has a wavelength of 750 nm?
SINGLE ANSWER
4.0x1014Hz4.0x1014Hz
4.2x1014Hz4.2x1014Hz
4.5x1014Hz4.5x1014Hz
4.75x1014Hz4.75x1014Hz
HINT
Convert the given value in nm to m by multiplying the given to (1m109nm)(1m109nm).
EXPLANATION
λ=750nmλ=750nm
c=3.00x108m/sc=3.00x108m/s
We are asked to identify the wavelength of light wave.
To solve for ff, we will use the equation that describes the relationship between speed, wavelength,
c=λfc=λf
f=cλf=cλ
Convert first 750 nm to meters. Thus,
750nmx1m1x109nm=7.5x10−7m750nmx1m1x109nm=7.5x10−7m
f=3.00x108m/s7.5x10−7mf=3.00x108m/s7.5x10−7m
f=4.0x1014Hzf=4.0x1014Hz
Therefore, the frequency of light is 4.0x1014Hz4.0x1014Hz.

QUESTION 8
If a specific light wave has a wavelength of 480 nm, what is its frequency?
SINGLE ANSWER
6.25x1014Hz6.25x1014Hz
4.80x1014Hz4.80x1014Hz
5.40x1014Hz5.40x1014Hz
7.25x1014Hz7.25x1014Hz
HINT
EXPLANATION
λ=680nmλ=680nm
c=3.00x108m/sc=3.00x108m/s
We are asked to identify the wavelength of a specific light wave.
To solve for ff, we will use the equation that describes the relationship between speed, wavelength,
c=λfc=λf
f=cλf=cλ
Convert first 480 nm to meters. Thus,
480nmx1m1x109nm=4.8x10−7m480nmx1m1x109nm=4.8x10−7m
f=3.00x108m/s4.8x10−7mf=3.00x108m/s4.8x10−7m
f=6.25x1014Hzf=6.25x1014Hz
Therefore, the frequency of light is 6.25x1014Hz6.25x1014Hz.

QUESTION 9
If a light wave travels with a frequency is 200 MHz, what is its wavelength?
SINGLE ANSWER
1.5 m
2.7 m
1.0 m
2.8 m
HINT
EXPLANATION
f=200MHzf=200MHz
c=3.00x108m/sc=3.00x108m/s
c=λfc=λf
λ=cfλ=cf
Convert first 200 MHz to Hz. Thus,
200MHzx106Hz=2.0x108Hz200MHzx106Hz=2.0x108Hz
λ=3.00x108m/s2.0x108Hzλ=3.00x108m/s2.0x108Hz
λ=1.5mλ=1.5m
Therefore, the wavelength of light is 1.5 m.

QUESTION 10
If the green light has a frequency of 606 THz, what is its wavelength in nanometers?
SINGLE ANSWER
500 nm
400 nm
200 nm
300 nm
EXPLANATION
f=606THzf=606THz
c=3.00x108m/sc=3.00x108m/s
c=λfc=λf
λ=cfλ=cf
Convert first 606 THz to Hz. Thus,
606THzx1012Hz=6.06x1014Hz606THzx1012Hz=6.06x1014Hz
λ=3.00x108m/s6.06x1014Hzλ=3.00x108m/s6.06x1014Hz
λ=5.0x10−7mλ=5.0x10−7m
Then, convert 5.0x10−7m5.0x10−7m to nanometers. Thus,
5.0x10−7mx1x109nm1m=500nm5.0x10−7mx1x109nm1m=500nm
Therefore, the wavelength of green light is 500 nm.
Electrons Can Behave Like Waves

QUESTION 1
Who among the following theorized that a particle can also exhibit wave characteristics?
SINGLE ANSWER
Louis de Broglie
Clinton Davisson
Lester Germer
Albert Einstein
EXPLANATION
In 1924, French physicist Louis de Broglie postulated in his Ph.D. thesis that if light with a wave
phenomenon acts like a particle, then a particle may also have a wave-like behavior.
QUESTION 2
What part of the de Broglie wavelength shows the particle nature of a photon?
SINGLE ANSWER
p or momentum
λ or wavelength
h or Planck’s constant
c or speed of light
EXPLANATION
The momentum of the photon, p, reflects the particle nature of a photon.
QUESTION 3
Which property of a wave was observed in the behavior of electrons in Davisson and Germer’s
experiment using recrystallized nickel?
SINGLE ANSWER
diffraction
interference
polarization
reflection
EXPLANATION
Based on the experiment of Davisson and Germer, the electron was bent or diffracted, a
characteristic behavior of waves.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following equations shows both the wave and particle nature of a photon?
SINGLE ANSWER
λ=hpλ=hp
E=mc2E=mc2
p=Ecp=Ec
E=hfE=hf
EXPLANATION
The equation λ=hpλ=hp is known as the de Broglie wavelength. The λ in the equation shows the
wave nature of a photon while p which is the momentum of a particle which shows the particle
nature of it.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the characteristic of the nickel crystal that made the electrons to diffract in
Davisson and Germer's experiment?
SINGLE ANSWER
The interatomic spacing of the nickel crystal is of the same size as the wavelength of electron.
The interatomic spacing of the nickel crystal is greater than the wavelength of electron.
The interatomic spacing of the nickel crystal is lesser than the wavelength of electron.
Electrons are not bent when they pass through the nickel crystal.
EXPLANATION
The wavelength of electron is of the same size as the interatomic spacing in crystal solids. This
small interatomic spacing can cause electrons, which have small wavelengths, to be bent or
diffracted, a phenomenon associated with waves that encounter a barrier or small opening.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best explains why the experimental setup of Davisson and Germer should be
placed in a vacuum chamber?
SINGLE ANSWER
To prevent the electrons from hitting other molecules.
To prevent the protons from hitting other molecules.
To prevent the neutrons from hitting other molecules.
To prevent the nickel crystal from hitting other molecules.
EXPLANATION
Davisson and Germer’s experimental setup was placed in a vacuum chamber to prevent other
molecules from hitting the electrons.
QUESTION 7
In Davisson and Germer's experiment, which of the following best describes the area where a peak
in the intensity of scattered beam of electrons was observed?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the area where constructive interference occurs.
It is the area where destructive interference occurs.
It is the area where constructive diffraction occurs.
It is the area where destructive diffraction occurs.
EXPLANATION
After bombarding the recrystallized nickel with a beam of electrons, they observed that the intensity
of the scattered beam is at the maximum at 50°. They noted that this peak in the intensity is where
constructive interference occurs.
QUESTION 8
If electrons do not exhibit a wave-like nature, which of the following best describes the pattern that
they will produce on a screen when they pass through a double-slit barrier?
SINGLE ANSWER
a two-band pattern
interference pattern
no pattern
a shadow
EXPLANATION
If the electrons exhibit only the behavior a particle, they would produce a pattern of two bands on a
screen after passing through a double-slit barrier.
QUESTION 9
After recrystallizing the nickel Davisson and Germer used in their experiment, it was the time when
they found significant results wherein the electrons produced a diffraction pattern.
Which of the following best explains the observed significant results?

SINGLE ANSWER
Recrystallizing the nickel made small holes that diffracted the electrons.
Recrystallizing the nickel made large holes that diffracted the electrons.
Recrystallizing the nickel made it a stronger target and diffracted the electrons.
Recrystallizing the nickel made it a weaker target and diffracted the electrons.
EXPLANATION
Recrystallizing the nickel made small holes in the crystal which served as a diffraction grating. A
diffraction grating is an optical device made of glass or metal with a band of equidistant, parallel
lines. When a wave encounters a diffraction grating, it bends or diffracts. The Davisson-Germer
experiment showed that the electrons could be diffracted which is one of the properties of a wave.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the pattern that electrons produce on a screen when they
pass through a double-slit barrier that exhibit their wave-like nature?
SINGLE ANSWER
interference pattern of bright and dark fringes
a two-band pattern
interference pattern of bright fringes
interference pattern of dark fringes
EXPLANATION
Since the electrons also exhibit a behavior of a wave, they would produce an interference pattern of
bright and dark fringes as they pass through a double-slit barrier.
Dispersion, Scattering, Interference, and Diffraction of Light

QUESTION 1
Which of the following refers to the separation of white light into its component colors when it is
refracted?
SINGLE ANSWER
dispersion
diffraction
scattering
interference
EXPLANATION
Dispersion is the separation of white light into its seven color components when there is a refraction
or bending of light.
QUESTION 2
In which of the following phenomena can diffraction of light be observed?
SINGLE ANSWER
shadows
rainbows
blue sky
white clouds
EXPLANATION
Diffraction can best be seen by looking at a shadow. When you look around the edges of a shadow,
you will notice blurred areas or diffraction fringes; these are the areas where diffraction of light
occurs.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following must occur in order to produce a wave that has the same wavelength but
twice the amplitude of the two waves that meet?
SINGLE ANSWER
Constructive interference where identical parts of two different waves meet.
Constructive interference should occur where opposite parts of two different waves meet.
Destructive interference should occur where opposite parts of two different waves meet.
Destructive interference should occur where identical parts of two different waves meet.
EXPLANATION
Constructive interference happens when two identical parts of two different waves meet and
produces a new wave that has the same wavelength but twice the amplitude of the original waves.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the amount of diffraction and size of
the obstacle?
SINGLE ANSWER
The smaller the size of the obstacle, the greater is the diffraction.
The larger the size of the obstacle, the greater is the diffraction.
The size of the obstacle does not affect the amount of diffraction.
The amount of diffraction depends only on the wavelength of light.
EXPLANATION
The amount of diffraction increases as the size of the obstacle decreases.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following best explain why the sky is blue?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The atmosphere is composed of tiny particles that scatter components of light with shorter
wavelengths.
Blue is a component of light that has short wavelength and is scattered easily by particles of the
atmosphere.
The atmosphere is composed of tiny particles that scatter components of light with longer
wavelengths.
Blue is a component of light that has long wavelength and is scattered easily by particles of the
atmosphere.
EXPLANATION
The sky is blue because the atmosphere is composed of tiny particles that scatter components of
light with shorter wavelengths, specifically, blue light.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best explain why light is dispersed when it passes through a prism?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The speed of light changes as it travels from air to the prism.
The colors of light have different frequencies; thus, they are refracted at different amounts producing
ROYGBIV.
The speed of light remains constant as it travels from air to the prism.
The colors of light have different frequencies; thus, they are refracted by the same amount.
EXPLANATION
When light travels from air to the prism, its speed changes and the amount of refraction depends on
the frequency of each component of light. Since the colors of light have different frequencies, they
are refracted at different amounts that makes ROYGBIV noticeable.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following best explain why clouds are white?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The water droplets in the clouds are larger that the wavelength of light.
All the components of light are scattered equally by the water droplets; thus we see white light.
The water droplets in the clouds are smaller that the wavelength of light.
Only white light is scattered by the water droplets; thus we see white light.
EXPLANATION
Clouds appear white because the water droplets in the clouds are larger than the wavelength of light
which scatter all the colors of light equally.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements best describe Rayleigh from Mie scattering?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Rayleigh scattering is the scattering of shorter-wavelength component of light.
Rayleigh scattering explains why the sky is blue.
Rayleigh scattering is the scattering of all the components of light equally.
Rayleigh scattering explains why clouds are white.
EXPLANATION
Rayleigh scattering is the scattering of shorter-wavelength component of light which explains why
the sky is blue.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following best explain why diffraction is sometimes not helpful when viewing objects
under the microscope?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
When the wavelength of light has the same size as the object, diffraction blurs the image.
When the wavelength of light is larger than the size of the object, there is no image seen.
When the wavelength of light is smaller as the object, there is no image seen.
Diffraction of light helps magnify the size of the object observed under the microscope.
EXPLANATION
Diffraction effects are sometimes not helpful when viewing objects under the microscope. When the
wavelength of light has the same size as the object, diffraction blurs the image. When the
wavelength of light is larger than the size of the object, there is no image seen.
QUESTION 10
In an interference pattern, what do the white bands and dark bands of light represent?
SINGLE ANSWER
White bands represent constructive interference while dark bands represent destructive interference.
White bands represent destructive interference while dark bands represent constructive interference.
White and dark bands both represent constructive interference.
White and dark bands both represent destructive interference.
EXPLANATION
The white bands show areas where constructive interference of light occurs while the dark bands
show the cancellation of the light due to destructive interference.
Light Phenomena I
QUESTION 1
What property of light is responsible for the occurrence of a mirage?
SINGLE ANSWER
refraction
reflection
scattering
dispersion
EXPLANATION
A mirage is an optical phenomenon which creates a displaced image of an object due to refraction of
light.
QUESTION 2
It is a material that only allows specific color of light to pass through it.
SINGLE ANSWER
filter
wood
metal
clay
EXPLANATION
A filter is a material that only allows specific color of light to pass through it, like a colored glass and
cellophane.
QUESTION 3
In which of the following will a yellow flower appear yellow when observed behind it?
SINGLE ANSWER
yellow glass
blue glass
red glass
green glass
EXPLANATION
A yellow flower will appear yellow when seen behind a yellow glass filter since it only allows the
yellow color of light to pass through.
QUESTION 4
Which side of the spoon is similar to a convex mirror?
SINGLE ANSWER
the back part that bulges outward
the front part that curves inward
the back part that curves inward
either side of the spoon can be a convex mirror
EXPLANATION
The front of the spoon that curves inward represents a concave mirror while the back part which
bulges outward is the convex mirror.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following best explains why clothes of a certain color appear differently under daylight
and incandescent light?
SINGLE ANSWER
Incandescent light emits color of lower frequency light more than the higher frequency colors.
Incandescent light emits color of higher frequency light more than the lower frequency colors.
Daylight emits color of lower frequency light more than the higher frequency colors.
Daylight emits color of higher frequency light more than the lower frequency colors.
EXPLANATION
Incandescent light emits lower frequency colors such as red, orange, and yellow. Thus, objects with
these colors are enhanced under the incandescent light rather than the daylight. We see the objects'
"true" color when they are illuminated by sunlight or daylight.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best explain why rain clouds are dark?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Rain clouds contain a lot of water droplets which absorb all the frequencies of light.
When light is absorbed in the rain clouds, nothing reaches the observer’s eye.
Rain clouds contain a lot of water droplets which reflect all the frequencies of light.
When light is reflected in the rain clouds, nothing reaches the observer’s eye.
EXPLANATION
Rain clouds appear dark because it is too thick that sunlight needs to travel through a lot of water
droplets and be absorbed before it can reach the observer’s eye.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following best explain why sunsets appear red?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Sunlight travels a greater distance as it reaches the horizon encountering more atmospheric
particles.
Atmospheric particles scatter higher frequency light until only the red light is left.
Sunlight travels a greater distance as it reaches the horizon encountering lesser atmospheric
particles.
Atmospheric particles scatter lower frequency light until only the red light is left.
EXPLANATION
Sunsets appear red because sunlight travels a greater distance as it reaches the horizon and
encounters more atmospheric particles, scattering higher frequencies of light until only the red light
is left.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following best describes an image that is produced by the front of the spoon?
SINGLE ANSWER
real and inverted
real and upright
virtual and inverted
virtual and upright
EXPLANATION
When light rays hit the front surface of a spoon, or concave mirror side, the rays tend to meet or
converge at the focal point of the mirror creating a real and inverted image.
QUESTION 9
Arrange the following processes to explain how a mirage is formed.
CORRECT ORDER
The sunlight that hits an object is reflected off to the observer's eyes.
Some of the reflected rays travel in a straight line to the observer's eyes.
Some of the reflected light rays travel through layers of air with different temperatures.
Different temperatures of the layers of air cause light to be refracted creating a displaced image of
the object.
EXPLANATION
A mirage is formed when the sunlight that hits an object is reflected towards the observer's eyes.
Some reflected light rays travel at a straight line while other reflected light rays will have to travel
through the layers of air with different temperatures. The differences in the temperature of the layers
of the air bends or refracts the reflected light rays. The refracted light rays produce a displaced
image of the tree or a mirage.
QUESTION 10
Your friend looks at his reflection on a spoon. He describes his image as upright.
On which side of the spoon is he observing his image?
SINGLE ANSWER
back part
front part
either back or front part
Spoons do not reflect light.
EXPLANATION
Your friend observes his image on the back part of the spoon which is similar to a convex mirror that
bulges outward. A convex mirror produces an upright image.
Light Phenomena II
QUESTION 1
What other names are used to mean the light phenomenon halo? Choose all that apply.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
rainbow
gloriole
icebow
nimbus
EXPLANATION
Halo is light phenomenon caused by the refraction of light upon hitting ice crystals forming the
clouds. Haloes are also known as gloriole, icebow and nimbus.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following correctly describes how a halo looks like?
SINGLE ANSWER
Bright ring formed around the sun or moon.
Bright spots of light formed in either side of the sun or moon.
An arc of colors that forms opposite the sun.
An arc of light composed of green, pink and purple colors
QUESTION 3
In the formation of sundogs, how should the ice crystals (which light strikes at an angle 22 degrees)
be oriented as they drift?
SINGLE ANSWER
The ice crystals are oriented horizontally.
The ice crystals are oriented vertically.
The ice crystals are oriented diagonally to the right.
The ice crystals are oriented diagonally to the left.
EXPLANATION
Ice crystals that make up the cirrus clouds are oriented horizontally as they drift so that when light
strikes them at an approximate angle 22 degrees, bright spots of light will be formed known as
sundogs both sides of the moo
QUESTION 4
Why is the inner edge of a sundog red hued?
SINGLE ANSWER
The inner edge of sundog is red hued because red is the color that is refracted the least.
The inner edge of sundog is red hued because red is the color that is refracted the most.
The inner edge of sundog is red hued because red is the color that is reflected the most.
The inner edge of sundog is red hued because red is the color that is reflected the least.
EXPLANATION
Compared to the other colors, red is the one refracted the least causing the inner edge of a sundog
appear red hued.
QUESTION 5
What light phenomenon is seen usually after a rain shower when the atmosphere is filled with tiny
droplets of water?
SINGLE ANSWER
rainbow
sundog
halo
parhelion
EXPLANATION
Rainbow is a light phenomenon usually seen after rain shower when atmosphere is filled with
droplets of water which serve as prism that refract, reflect and disperse light forming the colored arc.
QUESTION 6
What rainbow is formed when light refract upon hitting a droplet of water and a single internal
reflection occurs in a droplet?
SINGLE ANSWER
primary rainbow
secondary rainbow
supernumerary rainbow
tertiary rainbow
EXPLANATION
A primary rainbow is formed when light refracts upon hitting a droplets of water and a single
reflection happens inside the droplet before the light leaves the droplet.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following correctly distinguishes a primary rainbow and a secondary rainbow? Choose
all that apply.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The colors in the secondary rainbow are in the reverse arrangement compared to the colors in the
primary rainbow.
The secondary rainbow is fainter compared to the primary rainbow.
The secondary rainbow is wider compared to the primary rainbow.
The secondary rainbow is as high as the primary rainbow from the ground.
EXPLANATION
Secondary rainbow is usually seen above the primary rainbow and is fainter, wider and with colors in
reverse arrangement as compared to the primary rainbow.
QUESTION 8
What causes the reverse of the colors in a secondary rainbow as compared to a primary rainbow?
SINGLE ANSWER
Secondary rainbow is formed when two internal reflections occurs causing the reverse of the colors
as compared to primary rainbow where single internal reflection happens.
Secondary rainbow is wider and fainter making the colors in reverse arrangement.
Secondary rainbow is formed when single internal reflection occurs causing the reverse of the colors
as compared to primary rainbow where two internal reflections happens.
Secondary rainbow is formed in front of a primary rainbow which makes the colors in reverse
arrangement.
EXPLANATION
Colors in primary rainbow are seen with red in the outer part of the arc wihile in a secondary rainbow
it’s the opposite and this is due to the difference in the number of internal reflections that happens in
each rainbow, one for primary and two for secondary.
QUESTION 9
What condition must be satisfied in order for supernumerary rainbow to be formed?
SINGLE ANSWER
Light must strike small droplets of water with different sizes.
Light must strike small droplets of water with almost the same sizes.
Light must strike droplets of water with various sizes.
Light must strike droplets of water with the same altitude from the ground.
EXPLANATION
Supernumerary rainbow is created when light strikes small raindrops with almost the same
QUESTION 10
How are supernumerary rainbows unlike primary and secondary rainbo
SINGLE ANSWER
Supernumerary rainbow is not composed of the seven colors.
Supernumerary rainbow does not form an arc.
Supernumerary rainbow is not after a rainshower.
Supernumerary rainbow is seen on the same side of the source of light.
EXPLANATION
Unlike primary and secondary rainbows, supernumerary rainbow is nt composed of the seven colors
of light but instead it is the bands of green, pink and purple colors seen inside a primary rainbow.
Electricity and Magnetism: Franklin, Coulomb, Oersted, Ampere, Biot-Savart, Faraday,

and Maxwell
QUESTION 1
It is an instrument that detects the presence of an electric current.
SINGLE ANSWER
galvanometer
torsion balance
electric motor
dynamo
EXPLANATION
Galvanometer is a device that detects the presence of an electric current. The first type of
galvanometer was invented by Charles Coulomb.
QUESTION 2
It refers to the production of electricity from changing magnetic field.
SINGLE ANSWER
electromagnetic induction
electric motor
electric transformer
electric generator
EXPLANATION
Electromagnetic induction was discovered by Faraday and refers to the production of electric current
from changing magnetic field.
QUESTION 3
Maxwell formulated four equations that unified all the concepts of electricity and magnetism.
Which of the following is not included in Maxwell’s equations?

SINGLE ANSWER
Biot-Savart law
Gauss' law
Faraday's law
Ampere's law
EXPLANATION
The four Maxwell’s equations include Gauss’ law, Gauss Magnetism law, Faraday’s law and
Ampere’s law.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following analogy are true?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Ampere - galvanometer
Faraday - electric motor
Franklin - torsion balance
Coulomb - lightning rod
EXPLANATION
Ampere invented the first type of galvanometer while Faraday invented the first electric motor.
Coulomb invented the torsion balance while Franklin invented the lightning rod.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following has greatly changed the world of Physics after the discoveries of Newton?
SINGLE ANSWER
Maxwell’s equations
Coulomb’s law
Ampere’s law
Biot-Savart law
EXPLANATION
The four laws of Maxwell have revolutionized the world of Physics after Newton.
QUESTION 6
What made Oersted to discover that a current-carrying wire produces its own magnetic field?
SINGLE ANSWER
During his lecture on electric circuit, a compass needle was deflected upon switching on the circuit.
During his lecture on electric circuit, a bulb lighted up upon switching on the circuit.
During his lecture on electric circuit, a magnet was electrified upon switching on the circuit.
During his lecture on electric circuit, a wire was attracted to a magnet upon switching on the circuit.
EXPLANATION
During his lecture on electric circuit, a compass needle was deflected upon switching on the circuit
as well as upon switching it off.
QUESTION 7
According Biot-Savart law, what orientation between electric and magnetic field will give the
maximum value for the produced magnetic field?
SINGLE ANSWER
Electric and magnetic field must be oriented at right angle.
Electric and magnetic field must be oriented parallel to each other.
Electric and magnetic field can be oriented in any way.
Electric and magnetic field must not be close to one another.
EXPLANATION
According to Biot-Savart law, electric and magnetic field must have a 90 degrees angle between
them to yield the maximum value for the produced magnetic field.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following sentences is true about Coulomb’s law?
SINGLE ANSWER
Coulomb’s law states that the force between electric charges is directly proportional to the product of
the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Coulomb’s law states that the force between electric charges is directly proportional to the product of
the charges.
Coulomb’s law states that the force between electric charges is inversely proportional to the square
of the distance between them.
Coulomb’s law states that the force between electric charges is inversely proportional to the product
of the charges and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them.
EXPLANATION
Coulomb’s law tells that the magnetic force produced by electric charges is directly proportional to
the product of the charges and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the
charges.
QUESTION 9
Lightning rod is a metal with pointy end placed at the top of buildings or houses. What is the purpose
of the lightning rod?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Lightning rod is used to direct lightning that might hit a structure into the ground.
Lightning rod is used to protect a building or house for possible destruction if hit by lightning.
Lightning rod is used to gather signal that will give clearer screen in a television.
Lightning rod is used to direct lightning that might hit a structure into the air.
EXPLANATION
Lightning rod is used to direct lightning that might strike a house or building into the ground in order
to protect the structure from possible destruction.
QUESTION 10
According to Benjamin Franklin electricity is a fluid moving from one point to another, let say from
point A to point B.
Which point will be positive and why?

SINGLE ANSWER
Point A is positive since the fluid went into its direction.
Point B is positive since the fluid went out from it.
Point A is positive since the fluid went out from it.
Point B is positive since the fluid went into its direction.
EXPLANATION
According to Franklin presence of greater fluid is positive which means point A is positive since the
fluid went into its direction.
How Hertz Produced Radio Pulses

QUESTION 1
EM waves travel at the speed of −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
light
sound
energy
wind
EXPLANATION
According to Maxwell’s theory, EM waves move at the speed of light, c=3x108m/sc=3x108m/s.
QUESTION 2
According to Maxwell’s theory, a changing electric field produces a −−−−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
changing magnetic field
constant electric field
changing electric field
constant magnetic field
EXPLANATION
According to Maxwell’s theory, a changing electric field produces changing magnetic field and vice
versa.
QUESTION 3
Hertz is a unit given to the number of cycles created or completed in a unit of time known as −−−
−−−−−−−−−_.
SINGLE ANSWER
frequency
speed
amplitute
wavelength
EXPLANATION
In honor of Heinrich Rudolf Hertz, the frequency which is the number of cycles completed per unit of
time was given the name hertz.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following sentences are true about Maxwell’s theory?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A changing magnetic field induces changing electric field.
A changing electric field induces changing magnetic field.
The electromagnetic waves propagate at a speed equal to the speed of light.
The electromagnetic waves propagate at a speed greater than the speed of light.
EXPLANATION
According to Maxwell’s theory, a changing magnetic field induces changing electric field and vice
versa and EM waves propagate at a speed equal to the speed of light.
QUESTION 5
How did Hertz calculate the wavelength and frequency of EM waves in his experiment?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
measured the distance between nodes which served as wavelength of EM waves
calculated the frequency of the oscillator to get the frequency of EM waves
calculated the frequency of the nodes to get the frequency of EM waves
measured the distance between oscillators which served as wavelength of EM waves
EXPLANATION
A standing wave was formed from which he was able to measure the distance between nodes which
served as the wavelength of the EM wave while the frequency was calculated from the frequency of
the oscillator.
QUESTION 6
What event in Hertz’ experiment made him think that EM waves are being transmitted?
SINGLE ANSWER
production of spark
production of light
production of sound
production of wave
EXPLANATION
Production of spark means that the electricity was generated and from changing electric and
magnetic fields will then generate EM waves.
QUESTION 7
What quantities were needed to solve for the speed of the wave?
SINGLE ANSWER
wavelength and frequency
amplitude and wavelength
frequency and period
speed and wavelength
EXPLANATION
The quantities needed to solve the speed of EM wave are frequency and wavelength.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements are trueabout how Hertz calculated the speed of the EM waves?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Hertz made the radiation hit a broad metal sheet.
He was able to create a standing wave from which he measured the frequency of the wave.
He was able to create a standing wave from which he measured the wavelength of the wave.
He was able to provide evidence that light cannot be absorbed.
EXPLANATION
To calculate the speed of the EM waves, Hertz performed another experiment that aimed the
radiation into a wide metal sheet. A standing wave was formed from which he was able to measure
the distance between nodes which served as the wavelength of the EM wave while the frequency
was calculated from the frequency of the oscillator. From these two quantities, Hertz was able to
calculate the speed of the EM wave.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements is true about the idea proven by Hertz’ experiments with regards
to the speed of EM waves?
SINGLE ANSWER
The speed of EM waves is equal to the speed of light.
The speed of EM waves is more than that of the speed of light.
The speed of EM waves is less than that of the speed of light.
The speed of EM waves is immeasurable.
EXPLANATION
The speed of the EM wave was equivalent to the speed of light which served as a proof of Maxwell’s
theory.
QUESTION 10
In order for EM waves to be generated, how should changing electric and magnetic fields be
oriented to each other?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
perpendicular
at the right angle
at any angle
parallel
EXPLANATION
EM waves are produced by oscillating electric and magnetic field that are perpendicular or at right
angle with each other.
Theory of Special Relativity
THE PHYSICS IN COSMOS
QUESTION 1
To which of the following can the concepts of Newtonian mechanics be applied to?
SINGLE ANSWER
Objects with speed much smaller than the speed of light.
Objects with speed much greater than the speed of light
Objects with speed equal to the speed of light
Objects with speed twice the speed of light
EXPLANATION
Newtonian mechanics is only applicable to objects moving with speed considerably smaller than that
of the speed of light.
QUESTION 2
At what rate do the EM waves travel according to Maxwell's electromagnetic wave theory?
SINGLE ANSWER
3.00×108ms−13.00×108ms−1
6.00×108ms−16.00×108ms−1
3.00×10−8ms−13.00×10−8ms−1
6.00×10−8ms−16.00×10−8ms−1
EXPLANATION
According to Maxwell's electromagnetic theory, EM waves propagate with a speed equal to the
speed of light c=3.00×108ms−1
QUESTION 3
Which of the following shows the conflict between Newtonian mechanics and Maxwell's
electromagnetic theory? Choose all that apply.
SINGLE ANSWER
Newtonian mechanics tells that the speed of light depends on the speed of the observer.
Maxwell's electromagnetic theory tells that the speed of light is constant.
Newtonian mechanics tells that the speed of light is constant.
Maxwell's electromagnetic theory tells that the speed of light depends on the speed of the observer.
EXPLANATION
Newtonian mechanics tells that the speed of light depends on the speed of the observer while
Maxwell's electromagnetic theory proposed that the speed of light must be constant.
QUESTION 4
Which among the following resolves the conflict between Newtonian mechanics and Maxwell's
electromagnetic theory?
SINGLE ANSWER
Theory of special relativity
Theory of general relativity
Law of universal gravitation
Law of conservation of energy
EXPLANATION
Einstein theory of special relativity resolves the conflict between Newtonian mechanics and
Maxwell's theory of relativity.
QUESTION 5
Einstein theory of special relativity is based on what two postulates? Choose all that apply.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
The laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference moving with constant velocity
relative to one another.
The speed of light is constant in all inertial frame of reference.
The laws of physics application change based on the condition of the observer.
The speed of light depends on the speed of the observer.
EXPLANATION
Einstein theory of special relativity is based on two postulates: (1) the laws of Physics are the same
in all inertial frames of reference moving with constant velocity relative to one another and (2) the
speed of light is the same in all inertial frames of reference.
QUESTION 6
Einstein theory of special relativity explains problems that involve frames of reference moving with
which of the following characteristics?
SINGLE ANSWER
constant linear velocity
constant linear acceleration
constant linear speed
constant direction
EXPLANATION
The theory of special relativity proposed by Einstein explains problems that involve motion of frames
of reference at constant linear velocity with respect to one another.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes the speed of light according to Newtonian mechanics?
SINGLE ANSWER
The speed of light depends on the speed of the observer.
The speed of light is constant.
The speed of light depends on its source.
The speed of light is infinite.
EXPLANATION
Newtonian mechanics says that the speed of light is not constant and it depends on the speed of the
observer.
QUESTION 8
In resolving the conflict between Newtonian mechanics and Maxwell's electromagnetic theory, what
concepts of transformation was used?
SINGLE ANSWER
Lorentz transformation
Galelian transformation
Einstein transformation
Maxwell transformation
EXPLANATION
Lorentz transformation was used to resolve the calculation conflict between Newtonian mechanics
and Maxwell's electromagnetic theory.
QUESTION 9
What expression was added to Galilean transformation to make it into Lorentz transformation?
SINGLE ANSWER
11−v2c2√11−v2c2
11−vc2√11−vc2
11−v2c√11−v2c
11−vc√11−vc
EXPLANATION
11−v2c2√11−v2c2 known as the Lorentz transformation was added to Galilean transformation to
resolve the conflict between Newtonian mechanics and Maxwell's electromagnetic theory.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describes the statement: The speed of light is constant?
SINGLE ANSWER
The statement is always true
The statement is sometimes true.
The statement is never true.
The statement is sometimes false.
EXPLANATION
The speed of light is constant and it is always true.
How the Speeds and Distances of Far-Off Objects are Estimated

QUESTION 1
It is the shift in the wavelength of the emitted light which occurs when the source of light is moving
relative to an observer.
SINGLE ANSWER
Doppler Effect
Astronomical Unit
Parallax
Light years
EXPLANATION
Doppler Effect is the shift on the wavelength of the emitted light which occurs when the source of
light moves relative to an observer.
QUESTION 2
What method can be used to determine the distance of stars that are less than 300 light years
away?
SINGLE ANSWER
parallax
photometry
spectroscopy
standard candles
EXPLANATION
Measuring of star’s parallax can be used to determine their distance from earth. This method can be
used if the star is less than 300 light years away.
QUESTION 3
What is cosmic distance ladder?
SINGLE ANSWER
method used in determining the distance of far-off objects which involves several processes that
builds on one another.
method used in determining the distance of far-off objects which involves several processes that are
not related to one another.
method used in determining the distance of far-off objects which involves one process only.
method used in determining the distance of far-off objects which involves several processes that can
only measure limited distances.
EXPLANATION
Cosmic distance ladder is used by astronomers to measure distance of far-off objects. It is a
succession of methods that evolved from the fact that there is no single method that can measure all
distances of stars that are visible from earth.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following correctly defines one astronomical unit?
SINGLE ANSWER
the distance of the Earth from the Sun
the distance of the earth to the nearest planet in the solar system
the distance of the earth from the nearest galaxy
the distance that the earth travels in a year
EXPLANATION
One astronomical unit (AU) is the measure of the distance of the earth from the sun and is
approximately 1.50 x 1011 m.
QUESTION 5
If the distance of the star is increased three times what will happen to its brightness according to the
inverse square law?
SINGLE ANSWER
The brightness of the star will decrease 9 times.
The brightness of the star will increase 8 times.
The brightness of the star will decrease 3 times.
The brightness of the star will increase 9 times.
EXPLANATION
The brightness of the star will decrease 9 times since the effect of the increase in distance is an
inverse square.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly describes the luminosity of a star?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Total amount of enegy emitted by a star per unit time.
Measure of the absolute brightness of a star.
Depends on both radius and temperature of the star.
Measure of the apparent brightness of a star.
EXPLANATION
Luminosity of a star is the measure of the total energy it emits per unit of time and depends on both
radius and temperature of the star. It is also the measure of the star’s absolute brightness.
QUESTION 7
What does the inverse – square relationship between star’s brightness and distance mean?
SINGLE ANSWER
the star’s brightness decreases proportionally to the square of the distance.
the star’s brightness increases proportionally to the square of the distance.
the star’s brightness decreases proportionally when distance is doubled.
the star’s brightness increases proportionally when distance is doubled.
EXPLANATION
The inverse – square relationship between star’s brightness and distance means that if the star’s
brightness decreases let say it decreased 4 times, proportionally the distance is increased 2 times.
QUESTION 8
Given that the parallax angle of a star is 0.2 arc second. What is its distance from earth in parsec?
SINGLE ANSWER
5 parsec
4 parsec
6 parsec
3 parsec
EXPLANATION
Distance (d) of a star can be calculated given its parallax angle using the formula: d= 1/(P in
arcsecond) so, d= 1/(0.2 arcsec)=5 parsec or 16.3 lightyears.
QUESTION 9
If a star’s radius is 3 solar (3 times that of the sun) and its temperature is 2 solar, what is its
luminosity relative to that of the sun?
SINGLE ANSWER
144 times that of the luminosity of the sun
EXPLANATION
Luminosity of a star relative to our sun can be calculated with the formula: L= R T so, L= 3 2 The
2 4, 2 4=144.
star has a luminosity that is 144 times of that of the sun.

QUESTION 10
If a certain photon emitted by an object has a rest wavelength of 2x1010km2x1010km and a
measured wavelength of 3x1010km3x1010km. What is the speed of the object relative to the speed
of light?
SINGLE ANSWER
0.5 times the speed of light
5 times the speed of light
2 times the speed of light
0.2 times the speed of light
EXPLANATION
Substituting the givens to the formula will give:
v=c(5.05x1010km−5x1010km5x1010km)v=c(5.05x1010km−5x1010km5x1010km)
v=c(3x1010km−2x1010km2x1010km)v=c(3x1010km−2x1010km2x1010km)
v=c(0.5)v=c(0.5)
The speed of the object is 0.5 times of the speed of light or 1.5x108m/s1.5x108m/s.
An Expanding Universe
QUESTION 1
What does Hubble’s law states?
SINGLE ANSWER
It states that speed of distant galaxy is directly related to its distance from earth.
It states that speed of distant galaxy is inversely related to its distance from earth.
It states that color of distant galaxy is directly related to its distance from earth. d. It states that speed
of distant galaxy and its distance from earth has an inverse
It states that speed of distant galaxy and its distance from earth has an inverse square law
relationship.
EXPLANATION
Hubble’s law is a statement of the direct relationship between the speed of a distant galaxy and its
distance from earth. The further the galaxy the faster it moves away from earth.
QUESTION 2
How can Hubble’s equation explain that the universe is expanding?
SINGLE ANSWER
Hubble’s equation shows the recessional velocities of galaxies and when these are plotted relative to
their distance from earth, the graph will show a linear relationship that means the further the galaxy
the faster it moves away from earth which means the universe is expanding.
their distance from earth, the graph will show a quadratic relationship that means the further the
galaxy the faster it moves away from earth which means the universe is expanding.
their redshift, the graph will show a linear relationship that means the further the galaxy the greater is
its redshift which means the universe is expanding.
their redshift, the graph will show a linear relationship that means the further the galaxy the lesser is
its redshift which means the universe is expanding.
EXPLANATION
When the values of v calculated by the Hubble’s equation is plotted in a graph relative to the
galaxies’ distance from earth, the graph will show a linear relationship between the recessional
velocity and distance of galaxy from earth which means the further the galaxy the faster it moves
away from earth and when all galaxies surrounding earth will be considered this will show that the
whole universe is expanding in all directions.
QUESTION 3
Hubble base on his observations stated that the universe is expanding. What were his bases of
saying this?
SINGLE ANSWER
Doppler shift of distant galaxies
Recessional velocities of distant galaxies
Color of the stars in the distant galaxies
Distance of galaxies from earth
EXPLANATION
Hubble studied the Doppler shift and the recessional velocities of distant galaxies and found out that
these galaxies were moving away from the Milky Way.
QUESTION 4
The red shift of the spectral lines of distant galaxies made Hubble conclude that the galaxies were
moving away from earth but what made him state that the universe is expanding?
SINGLE ANSWER
The relationship of the distance of distant galaxies from earth and their recessional velocity showed
that the further the galaxy the faster they move away from earth, meaning the universe is expanding.
The relationship of the distance of distant galaxies from earth and their recessional velocity showed
that the further the galaxy the slower they move away from earth, meaning the universe is
expanding.
The relationship of the Doppler shift of the distant galaxies and their recessional velocity showed that
the galaxies with greater redshift in their spectral lines the faster they move away from earth,
meaning the universe is expanding.
The relationship of the Doppler shift of the distant galaxies and their recessional velocity showed that
the galaxies with greater redshift in their spectral lines the slower they move away from earth,
meaning the universe is expanding.
EXPLANATION
Based on Hubble’s law, there is a direct relationship between the distance of galaxies from earth and
their recessional velocities and this means that the galaxies further away from earth moves away
from earth with greater speed which leads to the fact that as this happens the universe is expanding.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements regarding the center of the universe is correct?
SINGLE ANSWER
The universe has no center and everything in it is moving away from each other in all directions.
Milky Way is the center of the universe for Hubble observed that everything in the universe is moving
away from it.
Andromeda galaxy is the center of the universe for everything in the universe is moving away from it.
The universe has no center for its boundaries are beyond reach to be measured.
EXPLANATION
Based on the study of scientists, though galaxies are moving away from us, our galaxy is also
moving away from them which means the universe has no center for everything in it is moving away
from each other.
QUESTION 6
What two quantities define the end of the expanding universe?
SINGLE ANSWER
The average density of matter contained by the universe and the rate at which the universe
expands.
The distance of galaxies from earth and the rate of how fast they move away from earth.
The average density of the matter contained by the universe and the distances of the galaxies from
earth.
The velocities of the galaxies and the average density of matter contained by the universe.
EXPLANATION
The fate of the universe depends on the average density of matter contained by it and the rate at
which the universe expands.
QUESTION 7
According to Hubble’s law, at what rate is the universe expanding?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
70km/sMpc70km/sMpc
20km/sMly20km/sMly
20km/sMpc20km/sMpc
70km/sMly70km/sMly
EXPLANATION
The rate at which the universe expands is shown by the Hubble’s constant of the Hubble’s law which
has the values 70km/sMpc=20km/sMly70km/sMpc=20km/sMly.
QUESTION 8
If two galaxies A and B move at the same speed away from earth, what can you say about their
distance from earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
Galaxies A and B are of the same distance from earth.
Galaxy A is further from earth than Galaxy B.
Galaxy B is further from earth than Galaxy A.
Galaxy A is twice as far from earth as Galaxy B. 31.
EXPLANATION
Based on Hubble’s law, the speed of a body as it moves away from earth is directly proportional to
how far it is from earth. Since Galaxies A and B have the same speed as they move away from earth
this means that they are of the same distance from earth.
QUESTION 9
Following Hubble’s law, what can be inferred about the distance of a certain celestial body X if it
moves thrice as fast as celestial galaxy Y which is 5 Mpc away from earth?
SINGLE ANSWER
Celestial body X is 15 Mpc away from earth.
Celestial body X is 20 Mpc away from earth 37.
EXPLANATION
Since the celestial body X moves with thrice the speed of celestial body Y then this would mean that
body X is thrice as far from earth as body Y. Body Y is 5 Mpc away multiplied by 3 would give 15
Mpc. Celestial body X is 15 Mpc away from earth.
QUESTION 10
Two galaxies A and B are being observed from earth. If galaxy A is twice as far from earth as galaxy
B, how can you describe the speed of galaxy A with respect to the speed of galaxy B as they move
away from earth.
SINGLE ANSWER
Galaxy A has a speed that is twice of the speed of galaxy B.
Galaxy A has a speed that is halved of the speed of galaxy B.
Galaxy A has a speed that is three times of the speed of galaxy B.
Galaxy A has a speed that is four times of the speed of galaxy B.
EXPLANATION
Based on Hubble’s law the distance of a galaxy from earth is directly proportional to how fast they
move away from earth which means if distance of galaxy A from earth is twice of the distance of
galaxy B from earth then galaxy A’s speed as it moves away from earth is also twice of that of galaxy
B.
Pluto was Once Thought to Be a Planet

QUESTION 1
Pluto was thought of as Planet X which is the name given to the predicted ninth planet of the solar
system since it was discovered by Tombaugh in 1930 until it was declared as a dwarf planet in the
year
SINGLE ANSWER
2006
2012
2008
2000
EXPLANATION
It was in the year 2006 when Pluto was declared a dwarf planet for it failed to clear its orbit from
other smaller bodies which is a requirement for Pluto to be still considered a planet.
QUESTION 2
What made scientists review the classification of Pluto as a planet?
SINGLE ANSWER
The discovery of bigger and heavier celestial bodies than Pluto.
The orbit of the Pluto around the Sun was elliptical.
The biggest moon of Pluto, Ceres, is almost half its mass.
Pluto’s orbit around the Sun that is tilted by 17 degrees.
EXPLANATION
When astronomers have discovered bigger and heavier celestial bodies that also orbits the sun and
are spherical made astronomers asked if they will consider them planets or they will demote Pluto
from being a planet.
QUESTION 3
Pluto, has been removed from the list as a planet. What type of celestial body is Pluto now as
announced by the International Astronomical Union (IAU)?
SINGLE ANSWER
dwarf planet
moon
asteriod
comet
EXPLANATION
Pluto is now considered as a dwarf planet as announced by the IAU on 2006 due to its inability to
clear its path from other celestial bodies on its orbit.
QUESTION 4
Which celestial body was discovered that caused the demotion of Pluto into a dwarf planet?
SINGLE ANSWER
Eris
Makemake
Haumea
Ceres
EXPLANATION
When Eris, a celestial body that is round and also orbits the Sun but is bigger and heavier than Pluto
was discovered, scientists started to question the classification of Pluto as a planet.
QUESTION 5
In what region in space are the icy-cold bodies like Pluto and its moons are found? This region
extends 50 AU from Neptune.
SINGLE ANSWER
Kuiper Belt
Andromeda galaxy
Milky Way
Orion's Belt
EXPLANATION
Kuiper Belt is the region from Neptune to 500 AU beyond. This is were icy-cold bodies like some of
the dwarf planets.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are the criteria for a celestial body to be considered a planet given by the
International Astronomical Union (IAU)?
SINGLE ANSWER
The celestial body should be round.
The celestial body should orbit around the Sun.
The celestial body should be able to clear its path from other celestial bodies.
The celestial body should be hundred times heavier than its moon.
QUESTION 7
Which among the criteria for being a planet did Pluto fail to satisfy?
SINGLE ANSWER
The celestial body should be able to clear its path from other celestial bodies.
The celestial body should be round.
The celestial body should orbit around the Sun.
The celestial body should be hundred times heavier than its moon.
EXPLANATION
Due to Pluto’s very small mass, it is not able to dominate all the celestial bodies on its path which is
the third criteria for a celestial body to be a planet.
QUESTION 8
Bodies that are round and orbit around the sun but are not able to clear their path from other
celestial bodies are called
SINGLE ANSWER
dwarf planet
star
comet
planet
EXPLANATION
Bodies that are round and orbit around the sun but are not able to dominate their path are known as
dwarf planets like Pluto and Eris.
QUESTION 9
Given a celestial body that is round and big enough to dominate everything on its orbit, can it be
called a planet? Why?
SINGLE ANSWER
No, because it was not mentioned that it orbits the sun.
Yes, because it satisfies the criteria which Pluto failed to have.
No, because the reason for it being round was not given.
No, because its size and mass were not yet known.
EXPLANATION
The given celestial body cannot be considered a planet because it was not mentioned that it orbits
the sun, which is the second criteria for a celestial body to be considered a planet.
QUESTION 10
A dwarf planet is any celestial body that is round and orbits the sun. Which of the following dwarf
planets is found between Mars and Jupiter?
SINGLE ANSWER
Ceres
Makemake
Eris
Haumea
EXPLANATION
Ceres is considered as the biggest asteroid in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter and is now
considered as one of the dwarf planets.
How Doppler Shifts and Transits Can Be Used to Detect Extrasolar Planets
QUESTION 1
What is an extrasolar planet?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
It is also called exoplanets.
A planet other than those in the solar system that orbits a star.
All planets in the universe.
A planet that is big and gaseous.
EXPLANATION
Aside from the planets in the solar system there are other planets found to orbit their own parent star
and these planets are called exoplanets or extrasolar planets.
QUESTION 2
Doppler shift and transit are what type of method in detecting extrasolar planets?
SINGLE ANSWER
indirect methods
direct methods
advanced methods
simple methods
EXPLANATION
In detecting extrasolar planets, direct or indirect methods can be used. Doppler shifts and transit are
examples of indirect methods.
QUESTION 3
What is Doppler Effect?
SINGLE ANSWER
It is the change in the wavelength of a wave due to the movement of the source.
It is the change in the speed of a wave due to the movement of the source.
It is the change in the color of a wave due to the movement of the source.
It is the change in the distance of a wave due to the movement of the source.
EXPLANATION
Doppler Effect is the change in the wavelength due to the motion of the source.
QUESTION 4
The discovery of extrasolar planets started from 1995 onwards. What do you think is the reason why
extrasolar planets are hard to be detected?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Extrasolar planets do not emit their own light.
Extrasolar planets can only be seen when it has a significant effect on its parent star.
Extrasolar planets are small to be detected.
Extrasolar planets have no properties that can be observed.
EXPLANATION
Extrasolar planets just like the planets in the solar system do not have their own light to emit making
them hard to be detected and they can only be observed if they can cause significant change in the
parent star’s brightness or path of orbit.
QUESTION 5
When light source moves toward an observer what happens to its wavelength?
SINGLE ANSWER
The wavelength is said to be blue shifted.
The wavelength tends to compress producing shorter wavelength.
The wavelength is said to be red shifted.
The wavelength tends to move to the red end of the spectrum.
EXPLANATION
When a light source is moving towards an observer, its wavelength tends to be compressed which
produces shorter wavelength and is said to be blue shifted.
QUESTION 6
When a planet passes across its parent star, it causes the brightness of the star to slightly decrease.
This method is used to detect extrasolar planets and this method is called
SINGLE ANSWER
transit
Doppler Effect
direct method
radial velocity method
EXPLANATION
Transit is when a planet passes across its parent star and causes a significant decrease in the star’s
brightness.
QUESTION 7
What type of extrasolar planets can be detected by Doppler shift and transit?
SINGLE ANSWER
big and gaseous planets
small and gaseous planets
small planets only
gaseous planets only
EXPLANATION
Doppler shift and transit can only measure extrasolar planets that are big and gaseous like our
planet Jupiter.
QUESTION 8
What can be inferred when the wavelength is said to have red shift?
SINGLE ANSWER
The wavelength tends to move to the red end of the spectrum.
The light source is moving away from the observer.
The wavelength tends to move to the blue end of the spectrum.
The light source is moving towards the observer.
EXPLANATION
Red shift means the light source is moving away from an observer and its wavelength are moving
towards the red end of the spectrum.
QUESTION 9
How is Doppler shift used in detecting extrasolar planets?
SINGLE ANSWER
Scientists observe those stars which have blue and red shifts periodically.
Scientists observe those stars which do not have Doppler shifts.
Scientists observe those stars which have red shift only.
Scientists observe those stars which have blue shift only.
EXPLANATION
Stars with periodical blue and red shift are thought to have planets orbiting around them.
QUESTION 10
Why can small planets like earth not be detected by either Doppler shift or transit method?
SINGLE ANSWER
Small planets do not cause significant change in the parent star’s path of orbit.
Small planets cannot decrease the star’s brightness significantly to be observed.
Small planets cause too much change in the parent star’s path of orbit.
Small planets are undetectable.
EXPLANATION
Doppler shift and transit can only detect big extrasolar planets since small ones do not cause
significant change in the parent star’s path of orbit and are not able to decrease the star’s brightness
significantly to be observed.

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The Formation of the Light Elements in the Big Bang Theory

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The temperature of the universe increased above 10 K.

The nucleosynthesis of helium-4 halted.

The Formation of Heavier Elements during Star Formation and Evolution

What force pulls matter together to form these regions?

The Nuclear Fusion Reactions in Stars

How Elements Heavier than Iron are Formed

The Ideas of the Ancient Greeks on the Atom

Understanding the Structure of Atom:The Contributions of J.J. Thomson, Ernest

The Nuclear Model of the Atom

The Ideas of the Ancient Greeks on the Elements

The Contributions of the Alchemists to the Science of Chemistry

What is the major problem with the use of accelerators?

The Atomic Number and the Synthesis of New Elements

Which of the following elements were produced through studies in radioactivity?

The Nuclear Reactions Involved in the Synthesis of New Elements

Which of the following is the balanced equation for this reaction?

Therefore, the balanced equation when [%{}_{96}^{244}\mathrm{Cm}%] undergoes alpha decay to

Therefore, californium-252 undergoes alpha decay to produce curium-248.

Therefore, the equation for the spontaneous fission of [%{}_{94}^{234}\mathrm{Pu}%] is [%

[%{}_a^{242}\mathrm{Pu}\rightarrow{}_{92}^\mathrm b\mathrm U+{}_2^4\mathrm\alpha%]

Which of the following are true?

Understanding the Concept of the Chemical Elements: The Contributions of John

Which of the following are true about carbon dioxide according to Dalton’s theory?

Which of the following is true about the polarity of the two compounds?

Even when it contains polar bonds, the molecule is nonpolar.

The Properties of a Molecule Based on Its Polarity

The Properties of a Substance as Effect of Intermolecular Forces of Attraction

Which substance has the strongest intermolecular forces?

Which substance most likely exhibit London dispersion forces only?

Which of the following materials can be bestused as artificial cornea?

The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures:

The Uses of Different Materials According to Their Properties and Structures:

The Structures, Properties, and Functions of Biomolecules

[%\;{\mathrm l}_2\;+\;2{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;\rightarrow\;2\mathrm{NaI}\;+\;

In the case of particle size, [%{\mathrm I}_2%] and [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm

[%\;{\mathrm l}_2\;+\;2{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm S}_2{\mathrm O}_3\;\rightarrow\;2\mathrm{NaI}\;+\;

Which reaction is the slowest?

Which reaction is the fastest?

[%2{\mathrm H}_2\;+\;{\mathrm O}_2\;\rightarrow\;2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]

The collision above closely resembles the structure of the product.

[%2{\mathrm H}_2\;+\;{\mathrm O}_2\;\rightarrow\;2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]

Which of the following statements is true?

[%2{\mathrm H}_2\;+\;{\mathrm O}_2\;\rightarrow\;2{\mathrm H}_2\mathrm O%]

1. Bonding – The catalyst forms a bond with the reacting molecules.

3. Separation – The product separates from the catalyst.

Which of the following is the role of pepsin?

[%{\mathrm C}_2{\mathrm H}_4+{\mathrm H}_2\xrightarrow{\mathrm{Pd}}{\mathrm C}_2{\mathrm

What is the catalyst in the hydrogenation reaction?

[%3{\mathrm H}_{2(\mathrm g)}+{\mathrm N}_{2(\mathrm g)}\rightarrow2{\mathrm{NH}}_{3(\mathrm

Which of the following is true about catalyzed and uncatalyzed reaction pathways?

Calculating the Amount of Reactants and Products in a Chemical Reaction

How many moles [%{\mathrm{CH}}_2{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] will be produced if two moles [%

How many moles [%{\mathrm{Cl}}_2%] is needed to react completely with 1 mole [%

How many moles of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_3{\mathrm{PO}}_4%] is needed to completely react with 2

Solving for [%x%],

How many moles of [%{\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4%] is formed when 1 mole of [%

Solving for [%x%],

How many moles of [%{\mathrm{Al}}_2({\mathrm{SO}}_4)_3%] is needed to form 1 mole [%

Solving for [%x%],

How many moles of [%{\mathrm{AlPO}}_4%] is formed when 10 moles [%

Solving for [%x%],