RM

Question 1

Marks: 1

Which is the highest order of measurement?

Choose one answer.

a. Ratio
b. Ordinal

c. Internal

d. Nominal

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 2

Marks: 1

If subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals of earlier

respondents, the sampling method is

Choose one answer.

a. Judgemental

sampling
b. Convenience

sampling

c. Quota sampling
d. Snowball sampling

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1

What is the size of the sample for estimating the true weight of the cereal container
with 95% confidence, if the variance of the weight is 4 ounces and if the estimate is
to be within 0.8 ounces of the true average weight?

Choose one answer.

a. 95
b. 100

c. 69

d. 96
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

Ideally the number of strata in a stratified sampling should not exceed

Choose one answer.

a. 5

b. 7

c. 8

d. 6

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 5
Marks: 1

Which one is a comparative scale?

Choose one answer.

a. Graphic rating

scale

b. Likert scale
c. Constant sum

scale

d. Stapel scale
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

Yes or no type of question is

Choose one answer.

a. Multiple choice

question
b. None of the options

c. Scale type question

d. Dichotomous

question
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

Test-restest reliability eliminates

Choose one answer.

a. Systemic error
b. Systematic error

c. Non systematic

error

d. Random error
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

High systematic error and low random error would lead to a

Choose one answer.

a. Valid and reliable measurement

b. Not valid and not reliable

measurement
c. Not valid but reliable

measurement
d. Valid but not reliable

measurement
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

Review of questionnaire for improving accuracy and precision is called as

Choose one answer.

 a. Editing

b. Coding
c. Data

cleaning
d. Transcribing

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

Range, mean deviation and standard deviation are permissible descriptive statistics
for

Choose one answer.

a. Nominal

scale
b. Interval

scale
c. Ordinal scale

d. Ratio scale

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

Secondary data refers to

Choose one answer.

 a. Data collected through mail survey

b. Data collected through personal

interview
c. Data collected through telephone

interview

d. Data those are already available

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

Primary data would result in

Choose one answer.

a. More accurate

measurement
b. Less resources utilization

c. Less time for analysis

d. Low cost
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

When a true null hypothesis is rejected a

Choose one answer.

a. Type Il error

occurs
 b. Type Ill error

occurs
c. Type I error

occurs
d. Type IV error

occurs
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1

One basic difference between questionnaire and schedule is

Choose one answer.

a. Questionnaire is not flexible while schedule is flexible

b. Questionnaire may provide basis for statistical analysis while schedule

does not
c. Questionnaire consists of limited questions and schedule consists of

unlimited questions
d. Questionnaire are sent through mail while the schedule is filled by the

research worker
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1

If for the above question, the incidence rate and completion rates are 90% and 95%
what is the final sample size?

Choose one answer.

a. 81
 b. 112

c. 117

d. 111

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

Under systematic sampling, the sampling interval i, if the population is 3875 and
the sample size is 100, will be

Choose one answer.

a. 39

b. 40

c. 38

d. 37

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1

Usage of statistical tools in non-probability sampling is

Choose one answer.

a. Highly favourable
 b. Moderately

favourable

c. Favourable

d. Unfavourable
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

The attitude measurement does not cover one of the following aspects; which one is
the odd one?

Choose one answer.

a. Behavioural

domain
b. Affective domain

c. Cognitive domain

d. Analytical domain

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

Likert scale yield which type of measurement

Choose one answer.

a. Interval

b. Ratio
 c. Ordinal

d. Nominal

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

Questionnaire should have

Choose one answer.

a. Implicit alternatives
b. Double barreled question

c. Generalization and

estimates

d. Unambiguous words
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Operations Research
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Started on Wednesday, 12 May 2010,

09:07 AM
Completed Wednesday, 12 May 2010,
on 09:23 AM
Time taken 16 mins
Grade 17 out of a maximum of 20
(85%)
Question 1

Marks: 1

The graphical method is useful for the game where payoff matrix is of size

Choose one answer.

a. 2 x n

b. 3 x 4
c. None of the

options

d. 4 x 4
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 2
Marks: 1

The value of the game is

Choose one answer.

a. expected gain to a player and two person

game both

b. two person game both

c. expected gain to a player

d. None of the options

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1

The symbol used to represent a decision point in a given stage from which a set of
decision alternatives will emanate

Choose one answer.

a. triangle

b. square

c. circle
d. None of the

options
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

In a two person 3 x 3 game given below ( i) (ii) (iii) a 10 13 15 b 6 9 16 c 3 6 12

Choose one answer.

 a. b is dominating

row
b. a is dominating

row
c. none of the

options
d. c is dominating

row
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 5

Marks: 1

A game is stable

Choose one answer.

a. when there is no saddle point

b. when there is a saddle point

c. when there is no saddle point and when there is a

saddle point

d. None of the options

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

Replacement of an existing machine aims at

Choose one answer.

a. lower average annual cost of using the

machine
 b. more automation and lesser dependence on

workmen

c. None of the options

d. reduction in the annual capital cost

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

The other name for resale value

Choose one answer.

a. present worth

factor
b. None of the

options

c. salvage value

d. discount value
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

The policy in which an item is replaced immediately after its failure

Choose one answer.

a. present worth factor

b. none of the options

 c. group replacement

d. individual

replacement
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

In the following payoff matrix -5 10 5 -10

Choose one answer.

a. 5 is the saddle point

b. 10 is the saddle

point
c. – 5 is the saddle

point
d. there is no saddle

point
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

If all items are replaced irrespective of whether they have failed or not is known as

Choose one answer.

a. None of the options

b. sudden replacement
 c. group replacement

d. individual

replacement
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

Formula to find present worth factor when money value decreases by r % per year

Choose one answer.

a. None of the options

b. 1 / [(1+r) to the power

n]

c. 1/ (1+r)
d. 1/[(1+r) to the power

2]
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

The major limitations while dealing with replacement situations

Choose one answer.

a. time and cost

b. cost
c. None of the

options
 d. time
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

BThe strategy for the game is B 3 5 A 5 7

Choose one answer.

a. None of the

options

b. (A2, B1)

c. (A1 , B1)

d. (A2, B2)
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1

Game theory is the study of

Choose one answer.

a. None of the options

b. selecting optimal strategies and resolving conflict

between players

c. resolving conflict between players

d. selecting optimal strategies

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1

A game where the gain of one player equals the loss of other is called

Choose one answer.

a. zero sum game

b. None of the

options
c. two person game

d. saddle point
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

One of the methods for simplifying m x n game with mixed strategy is

Choose one answer.

a. saddle point

b. dominance
c. None of the

options

d. pure strategy
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1

A game is a fair game if the value of the game is

Choose one answer.

a. greater than zero

b. zero

c. less than zero

d. None of the

options
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

The size of payoff matrix of a game can be reduced by using the principle of

Choose one answer.

a. selecting optimal strategies

b. None of the options

c. resolving conflict between players

d. selecting optimal strategies and resolving conflict

between players
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

Which of the following is an example for items gradually deteriorate

Choose one answer.

a. picture

tube
 b. tyre

c. resistor
d. micro chip

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

The outcome of the game

Choose one answer.

a. stable

b. payoff
c. none of the

options

d. strategy
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

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ibm

Marks: 1

Assume that a U.S. company used to import cheap products from Thailand.
However, the reduction in tariffs between the U.S. and Mexico due to the passage of
NAFTA now makes it cheaper to buy the same goods from Mexican suppliers. This is
an example of:

Choose one answer.

a. Trade diversion.

b. A customs union.

c. Economies of

scale.
d. Trade creation.

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 2

Marks: 1

Disney receives fees for managing theme parks in France and Japan. What is this
mode that Disney has adapted to enter the Foreign markets

Choose one answer.

 a. Licensing
b. Performance of

services

c. Franchise
d. Management

contracts
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1

Starting a business venture in a foreign nation from scratch is termed as _________

Choose one answer.

a. Green field investment

b. Portfolio investment
c. Foreign Direct

Investment

d. Joint venture
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

Which of the following is an example of an import tariff?

Choose one answer.

a. The United States charges a 5 percent tax on Mexican made shirts passing

through to Canada.
 b. Mexico charges a 5 percent tax on shirts leaving Mexico, whether destined to

the United States or to Canada.

c. The United States foregoes charging its customary 10 percent tax on foreign
made shirts for shirts made in Canada because of the free trade agreement

between the two countries.

d. Canada charges a 10 percent tax on shirts made in the United States.

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 5

Marks: 1

A regional economic group that has the same external tariff levied on goods that
are imported from non-member countries is an example of:

Choose one answer.

a. A free trade

agreement.

b. A customs union.

c. A common area.
d. A foreign trade zone.

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

Assume a country imposes import restrictions to reduce its unemployment. Which

of the following may prevent employment from increasing?

Choose one answer.

a. Workers prefer to use unemployment benefits rather than go back to work.

 b. Imports will simply increase from another country, which is not affected by

the restrictions.
c. Other industries may become uncompetitive because of having to use higher

priced domestic inputs.

d. Experience shows that exporters usually lower their prices to maintain

market share.
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

Which of the following would be an example of a natural advantage rather than an

acquired advantage for South Africa in world trade?

Choose one answer.

a. Its termination of racially mandated

discrimination

b. Its abundant wildlife

c. Its fairly skilled labor force

d. Its multicultural and multi-ethnic society

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

Contractual arrangements are

Choose one answer.

a. Joint venture
b. Licensing and
 franchising.

c. Assembly operations
d. Indirect and direct

exporting.
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

A use of the Porter Diamond is to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. Add diamonds in addition to gold as part of nation's holdings of reserves

b. Helps predict how the location of products' production will move from the
original home country to other countries and then, if successful, back home

again

c. Protect against trademark infringement

d. Identify and develop the right conditions to help countries become

competitive for specific products

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

A good example of regional economic integration is:

Choose one answer.

a. The World Trade Organization.

b. The European Union.

c. A bilateral trade agreement involving countries from two different
 regions.
d. Any trade group that involves no more than two countries from the

same region.
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

Why do high income countries primarily trade with each other?

Choose one answer.

a. High income countries produce and consume more.

b. High income countries have most of the world's

natural resources
c. High income countries have most of the world's

population.
d. High income countries subsidize their agricultural

production.
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

A disadvantage of exporting is that it ____________ .

Choose one answer.

a. Is the most expensive method of expanding

globally
b. Will always lead to the lowest possible

production costs

c. Is inconsistent with a global strategy

 d. Is quite risky
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

3M sells scouring pads in smaller packages (fewer pads per package) for some
markets. The most likely reason for this is that consumers in some countries _____.

Choose one answer.

a. Fear that their countries' high humidity will cause pads to rust before

they are used

b. Are less concerned about cleanliness

c. Have too little income to buy larger quantities at one time

d. Must adhere to strict standards to avoid pollution caused by disposing of

large packages
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1

Assume that country A has a population density of 400 people per square mile and
its neighbor, country B, has a density of 50 people per square mile. Which of the
following would likely happen according to the factor proportions theory?

Choose one answer.

a. A will send goods to B for which it has an acquired advantage in exchange for

goods for which B has a natural advantage.

b. A will send labor intensive goods to B in exchange for land intensive goods.

c. A will send capital intensive goods to B in exchange for natural resources.

 d. A will send land intensive goods to B in exchange for labor intensive goods.

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1

A reason for export restrictions is to _____.

Choose one answer.

a. Lower prices in foreign

markets
b. Lower prices in domestic

markets
c. Promote more domestic

production
d. Promote added foreign

production
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

“Factor endowments” means the extent to which,

Choose one answer.

a. A country is endowed with all

resources.

b. A country is dependent.

c. A country is self – sufficient.

d. A country is interdependent.
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1

“Dumping” is the term used to signify

Choose one answer.

a. Barter agreements.
b. Excessive imports of particular

goods.

c. No trade relationships.
d. Excessive exports of particular

goods.
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

Although countries lose potentially productive resources when educated people

leave, they gain by _____.

Choose one answer.

a. Receipt of foreign aid to compensate for the loss

b. Having more income per capita for their remaining

population
c. The influx of approximately the same number of people

from abroad
d. Receipt of remittances from the people working abroad

Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

_____ is the direct exchange of goods and/or services between two parties without a
cash transaction.

Choose one answer.

a. Barter

b. Offset
c.
Counterpurchase

d.
Counterexchange

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

GATT is the abbreviated form of

Choose one answer.

a. General agreement on trade and tariff.

b. General agreement on trade and

technology.
c. General agreement on transfers and

technology.
d. General agreement on tourism and

trade.
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Legal Aspects of Business

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Started on Friday, 14 May 2010,

08:45 AM
Completed Friday, 14 May 2010,
on 09:01 AM
Time taken 16 mins 38 secs
Grade 8 out of a maximum of
20 (40%)
Question 1

Marks: 1

To exercise the unpaid seller’s right of stoppage in transit, the seller should have
lost his

Choose one answer.

a. Right of Sue for damages

b. Right of Lien

c. Right of re-sale
d. Right of repudiation of

contract
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 2

Marks: 1

It is __________ to put any date in the case of promissory notes payable on demand.

Choose one answer.

a. Necessary

b. Not necessary

c. Mandatory
d. Neither necessary nor

compulsory
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1
An agreement to sell in respect of goods is an …………contract which creates a just
in personam

Choose one answer.

a. Executory

b. Executed

c. Void
d. Voidable

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

In case of ____________Goods, property passes to the buyer, only when the goods are
ascertained.

Choose one answer.

a. Contingent
b.
Unascertained

c. Specific

d. Future
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 5

Marks: 1

Repairs of a car and supply of spare parts required for such repairs is
Choose one answer.

a. An agreement of sell
b. A contract for work and

labour

c. A contract of sale
d. Not a valid agreement at

all
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

When no consideration is paid by the Buyer for the goods received from the Seller it
is called

Choose one answer.

a. Gift

b. Barter
c. Bailment

d. Sales
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

A distinguishing feature of special crossing is that it includes the name of ______

Choose one answer.

a. Firm
 b. Company

c. Person

d. Bank
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

Stamp is ___________ in the case of a promissory note.

Choose one answer.

a. Not required
b. None of the

options
c. May be required

d. Required
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

Bills in set are used in __________ trade transactions.

Choose one answer.

a. Inland

b. Foreign
c. None of the

options
 d. Inter State
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

The word “perishable” in respect of goods, u/s 54 of the sales of goods act, means

Choose one answer.

a. Commercially perishable and Physically

perishable

b. Physically perishable

c. Commercially perishable
d. Either Physically perishable or Commercially

perishable
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

The term “Contingent Goods” refers to

Choose one answer.

a. Goods, the acquisition of which by the Seller depends upon a

contingency

b. Goods which are not capable of identification

c. Goods which may or may be sold

d. Goods, which may or may not be bought by buyer.

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

What is the appropriate place of delivery in respect of goods sold?

Choose one answer.

a. At the place at which they are at the time of the

agreement to sell.

b. At the place at which they are at the time of sale

c. At the place determined by the carrier.

d. At the place at which they are manufactured or

produced.
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

Where no price is fixed by express agreement or by implication, the Buyer shall pay
the Seller

Choose one answer.

a. Net realizable

value

b. Resale price

c. Adhoc price
d. Reasonable price

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1
An agreement to sell in respect of goods is an executory contract which creates

Choose one answer.

a. Both A just in personam and A just in

rem

b. A just in personam

c. A just in rem
d. Neither A just in personam nor A just

in rem
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1

In the case of sale by auction, the sale is complete when auctioneer announces
completion by the fall of hammer or in any other customary manner; and until such
announcement is made, the bidder may retract (withdraw) his bid.

Choose one answer.

a. False

b. True

c. Partly true
d. None of the

options
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

Price consideration in a contract of sale can be

Choose one answer.

 a. Only by way of goods in return

b. Only by way of money

c. No consideration is required at all

d. Partly by way of money or partly by way of goods

in return
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1

“Delivery” within the meaning if Sales of Goods Act, can be

Choose one answer.

a. Constructive

b. Symbolic

c. Actual
d. Either Symbolic or Actual or

Constructive
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

Ordinarily, if any person who does not possess a good title to the goods makes a
sale, the Buyer ______ even though he has acquired it bonafide and for value

Choose one answer.

a. Would acquire possession

b. Would not acquire

 possession

c. Would not acquire title

d. Would acquire title

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

When the property in Goods is transferred to Buyer, Goods are at the …..……..risk,
irrespective of whether delivery has been made or not.

Choose one answer.

a. Carrier’s

b. Buyer’s

c. Seller’s
d. All the

options
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

“X” purchased a VCR at a public auction. Neither Auctioneer nor “X” knew at that
time that the VCR was a stolen property. In such case, the true owner can

Choose one answer.

a. Sue the Auctioneer for fraud

b. Recover the goods from X and Sue the Auctioneer

for fraud

c. Recover the goods from X

 d. Recover the goods from X or Sue the Auctioneer

for fraud
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

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Strategic
Management
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Started on Wednesday, 12 May 2010,

04:13 PM
Completed Wednesday, 12 May 2010,
on 04:23 PM
Time taken 10 mins 39 secs
Grade 16 out of a maximum of 20
(80%)
Question 1

Marks: 1

Company’s closet competitor is that firm which is in the

Choose one answer.

a. Another Industry

b. Industry
c. None of the

options
d. Strategic group

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 2

Marks: 1

An organization's strengths and weaknesses are determined relative to

Choose one answer.

a. Government
 b. Competitors

c. Its strategic business units.

d. External opportunities and

threats.
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1

Tangible resource

Choose one answer.

a. Patents
b. Reputation

c. Land
d. Brand

name
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

Barrier to Entry of new entrants

Choose one answer.

a. Buyer is not an important customer to

supplier

b. Economies of Scale
c. Supplier industry is dominated by a few
 firms

d. Products are undifferentiated

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 5

Marks: 1

Internal strengths and weaknesses are usually

Choose one answer.

a. Most important for CEOs and the board of

directors.
b. Controllable activities within an organization.

c. The major cause of organizational demise or

success.
d. Not as important as external opportunities and

threats.
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

The following strategies can be adopted by Industry in Maturity stage of industry life
cycle expect one

Choose one answer.

a. Build Market

share
b. Cost Leadership
 c. Differentiation

d. Focused
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

Firm’s ability to outperform its competitors

Choose one answer.

a. Value creation

b. Capabilities

c. Resources
d. Competitive

advantage
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

Market shares reduce in size as industry demand shrinks

Choose one answer.

a. Embryonic

stage
b. Declining

stage
c. Growth stage

d. Shake out
 stage
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

The marketing strategy emphasizes price as the key to good value; operations runs
with tight cost control; development focuses on cost reduction. Which of Porter's
competitive strategies is illustrated here?

Choose one answer.

a. Differentiation
b. Differentiation

focus

c. Cost leadership
d. Divisionalisation

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

Bioinformatics industry is in__________ stage

Choose one answer.

a. Shake out

b. Growth
c. Embryonic

d. Maturity
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

In the growth stages of the industry life cycle, the conditions present are

Choose one answer.

a. All the options

b. Technology gains a firm

footing

c. Returns are high

d. standardization increases

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

The parameters / Dimensions used in the mapping of a strategic group

Choose one answer.

a. Price
b. Product

portfolio
c. all the options

d. R & D capacity

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

Buyer groups are likely to be powerful if

Choose one answer.

a. Buyers are concentrated

b. Staging advertising battles

c. Promotional actions of

competition
d. Making new product

introductions
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1

According to Andrew grove of IBM, which is the sixth force in Environmental

Analysis?

Choose one answer.

a. Substitute product

b. Complementors
c. Bargaining power of

suppliers
d. Bargaining power of

buyers
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1
A nation’s position in factors of production such as skilled labour on the
infrastructure necessary to compete in a given industry is referred as

Choose one answer.

a. Factor endowments
b. Relating and supporting

industries

c. Demand conditions

d. Intensity of rivalry
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

Intangible resource

Choose one answer.

a. Land

b. Plant

c. Buildings
d. Brand name

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1

The following aspects are limitations of models for industry analysis except one

Choose one answer.

 a. Company

differences
b. Economic forces

c. Innovation &

change

d. Lifecycle issues
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

Over the period, structure of the Strategic Groups

Choose one answer.

a. remain constant

b. dramatically

change
c. none of the

options
d. frequently

changes
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

Demand is not growing at historic rate

Choose one answer.

 a. Growth stage

b. Shake out

stage
c. Maturity stage

d. Embryonic

stage
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

One of the following factor is not a economic forces in a macro environment

Choose one answer.

a. Inflation

b. Interest rates
c. Economic growth

rate

d. Age
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

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STM

Production
Management
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Periodical test II

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Started on Thursday, 13 May 2010,
04:15 PM
Completed Thursday, 13 May 2010,
on 04:31 PM
Time taken 16 mins 4 secs
Grade 5 out of a maximum of 20
(25%)
Question 1

Marks: 1

The characteristics life-cycle of a product consists of four periods. The rate of

consumption increases rapidly at the beginning of the

Choose one answer.

a. Decline period

b. Incubation

period
c. Growth period

d. Maturity period

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 2

Marks: 1

Which of the following characteristics are more important in the equipment selected
for mass production shops?

1 Fast output

2 Low tooling cost

3 Low labor cost

4 Versatility

The characteristics of mass production would include:

Choose one answer.

a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2, 3 and

d. 3 and 4
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1

The most important objective behind plant layout is

Choose one answer.

a. To provide conveniently located

shops

b. Economy in space
c. Overall simplification, safety of

integration

d. Maximum travel time in plant

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

Consider the following situations that would warrant study of the layout:

1 Change in the work force

2 Change in production volume

3 Change in product design

4 Competition in the market

The situation that would lead to a change in the layout would include

Choose one answer.

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 3 alone

c. 2 alone
d. 1, 2, 3 and

4
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 5

Marks: 1

For a product layout the material handling equipment must

Choose one answer.

a. Be a general purpose type

b. Be designed as special purpose for a particular

application

c. Employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.

d. Have full flexibility

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

The variable cost per unit associated with automated assembly line (VA), cellular
manufacturing (VB), and job shop production (VC), will be such that

Choose one answer.

 a. VA > VB >

VC
b. VC >VB >

VA
c. VC >VA>

VB
d. VB > VA >

VC
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

Production cost per unit can be reduced by

Choose one answer.

a. Eliminating idle time

b. Producing more with increased

inputs

c. Minimizing resource waste

d. Producing more with same

inputs
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in

Choose one answer.

a. Intermittent
 production
b. Automatic

production
c. Continuous

production

d. Job production
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

To avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout preferred is

Choose one answer.

a. Group layout

b. Product

layout
c. Process

layout
d. Static layout

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

Routing is essential in the following type of industry

Choose one answer.

a. Mass production

industry
 b. Assembly industry

c. Process industry

d. Job order industry

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

Break-even analysis shows profit when

Choose one answer.

a. Sales revenue < total

cost
b. Variable cost < fixed

cost
c. Sales revenue > total

cost
d. Sales revenue = total

cost
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is

Choose one answer.

a. Board of directors

b. Labor cost
c. High court/Supreme
 court

d. Management
Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced

Choose one answer.

a. Process layout

b. Plant layout

c. Product layout
d. Fixed position

layout
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1

The sum of the frequencies prior to a particular class is called

Choose one answer.

a. Medium

b. Mean

c. Mode
d. Cumulative

frequency
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1

Interchangeability can be achieved by

Choose one answer.

a. Better process

planning

b. Standardization
c. Better product

planning

d. Simplification
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

A low unit cost can be obtained by following

Choose one answer.

a. Product layout

b. Specialization of operation
c. Automatic material handling

equipment

d. Functional layout
Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1
Consider the following features/characteristics:

1 Need for greater variety of skills in labour

2 Intermittent flow of materials and parts

3 Preference for flexibility layout

The characteristics of job order layout would include

Choose one answer.

a. 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 1, 2 and

3
d. 1 and 3

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

Process layout is employed for

Choose one answer.

a. Repetitiveness production

b. Non-repetitiveness

production
c. Continuous type of product

d. Effective utilization of

machines
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

Break – even analysis can be used for

Choose one answer.

a. Average of above two run

analysis

b. Long run analysis

c. There is no such criterion

d. Short run analysis

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

A feasible solution space to the linear programming problem should

Choose one answer.

a. Optimize objective function

b. Satisfy the problem constraints and non-negativity

restrictions

c. Satisfy the non-negativity restrictions

d. Satisfy the problem constraints

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

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