GEN ANA SET 1 b.

Renal hilus
1. Muscle that attaches to IT band, expect c. Renal orifice
a. Gracilis d. Renal sinus
2. The sphenoid bone develops from 10. Which structure make up the brainstem
a. Endochondral development 1. Diencephalon 2. Pons 3. Medulla oblongata
b. Membranous development 4. mesencephalon
c. Both membranous and endochondral a. 1234
3. Which three muscles are considered to be the b. 123
circular muscle of the pharynx c. 234
1. Superior constrictor d. 123
2. Stylopharyngeus 11. The following muscles are innervated by the
3. Palatopharyngeus mandibular branch of the VII CN, which among the
4. Middle constrictor choices does not belong to the group?
5. Inferior constrictor a. Mentalis muscle
6. Salpingopharyngeus b. Depressor anguli oris
a. 2, 3, 5 c. Risorius
b. 1, 4,5 d. Depressor labii inferioris
c. 1,4,6 12. The following are paired cartilages of the larynx,
d. 1,2,3 except
4. Placenta is fully developed by the _ month of a. Cricoid
gestation. 5th month ( 18-20 weeks) b. Corniculate
a. 7th c. Cuneiform
b. 8th’ d. Arytenoid
c. 3rd
d. 1st
5. The two pairs of bones that make up the hard 13. The following are the rotator cuff muscle, except
palate are the right and left ANS: Teres major
a. Maxillae and mandible 14. During an inferior alveolar block injection, the
b. Maxillae and zygomatic needle passes through the mucous membrane and
c. Zygomatic and temporal the buccinator muscle and lies lateral to which
d. Palatine and maxillae muscle?
6. All of the following nerves pass through the a. Temporalis
superior orbital fissure, except b. Lateral pterygoid
a. Ophthalmic nerve cnV c. Masseter
b. Optic nerve cn II d. Medial pterygoid
c. Oculomotor nerve cn III 15. Non neuronal tissue of the CNS that performs
d. Abducens nerve cn VI supportive and other ancillary functions is called?
7. The cervical vertebra and the hand and wrist bone a. Dermatome
is b. Bursa
a. Adjunct to determine the growth status of c. Synapse
an individual d. Neuralgia (Neuroglia to diba haha)
b. Its development is affected by the increase 16. Fracture through the angle of the mandible can
in size of individual result in an upward displacement of the proximal
c. Important landmark in determining the fragment. Which of the following groups of the muscle
growth status of an individual produces this movement
8. A shallow linear depression on the surface of a a. Masseter, temporal and lateral pterygoid
tooth that does not mark the junction of primary parts b. Masseter, digastric and lateral pterygoid
of the tooth, is called? c. Masseter, temporal and lateral pterygoid
a. The oblique ridge d. Masseter, temporal and medial pterygoid
b. A supplemental groove 17. A small, pear- shaped muscular sac lying on the
c. A transverse ridge undersurface of the liver
9. Indentation in the medial border of the kidney’s for ANS: GALLBLADDER
passage of renal vessel and ureters: 18. Which of the following CN have parasympathetic
a. Renal hiatus2 activity?
ANS: III, VII, IX, X b. Receptor proteins
c. Cell recognition proteins
19. The following are the origin of the trapezius, d. Transport proteins
except 31. Smell of decomposing organic matter
Ans: lumbosacral fascia a. Sweet
20. Which bones form the floor of the nasal cavity b. Musky
Ans: palatine bone and maxilla c. Putrid
d. pungent
21.which of the following joints is a synarthrosis joint 32. When cells are no longer needed or become a
Ans: skull sutures threat to the organism, they undergo a suicide
22. Which of the following muscles serves as the programmed cell death called
forearm’s principal extensor Ans: apoptosis
Ans: triceps brachii 33. When the lungs are in the resting position, the
23. Maximum volume to which the lungs can be pressure within them. Which is called the
expanded with the greatest possible inspiratory effort intrapulmonary pressure, is equivalent to which of the
Ans: 5800 ml following
24. Superficial muscle that covers the lower jaw and a. Transmural pressure
anterior part the neck, what is the nerve supply of this b. Atmospheric pressure
muscle c. Critical pressure
Ans. cervical nerve d. Blood pressure
25. A tumor of the maxillary sinus may cause an 34. The cell type that is responsible for maintaining
overflow of tears by exerting pressure on the: bone matrix once it has formed
Ans: lacrimal gland Ans: osteocytes
26. In mccune-albright syndrome, a bony fibrous 36. The repeating units of nucleic acids or nucleotides
dysplasia of the anterior cranial base leads to the are made up of the following molecules
encasement and narrowing of the optic canal. Optic a. pyrimidine/ purine, sugar and phosphate
nerves are compressed and which other structures? b. pyrimidine/ purine and phosphate
a. Ophthalmic veins c. Nitrogenous base sugar
b. B. ophthalmic nerve cn v-1 d. Nitrogenous base and phosphate
c. Ophthalmic artery
d. Cn III, IV, VI 37. The stretch receptors of the atria that elicit the
27. Which receptors are stimulated by distension of bainbridge reflex transmit their afferent signal through
the lungs the
a. Irritant receptors a. Facial nerves to the medulla of brain
b. J receptors b. Trigeminal nerves to the medulla of the brain
c. Lung stretch receptors c. Glossopharyngeal nerves to the medulla of
d. Joint and muscle receptors the brain
28. The extent to which the lungs expand for each d. Vagus nerves to the medulla of the brain
unit increase in transpulmonary pressure is called
a. Ventilation 38. Sertoli cells produce
b. Articulation Ans: Testosterone
c. Resonance Ans: Androgen Binding Protein
d. compliance
29. Volatile, inflammable liquid obtained by the 39. At about 27 days it raptures and the stomodeum
distillation of alcohol with sulfuric acid forms a connection with the foregut
a. Peppermint Ans: Buccopharyngeal membrane
b. Musky 40. The globin portion of a hemoglobin molecule
c. Pungent consists of
d. Ethereal a. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
30. These are glycoproteins and/or glycolipids on b. Four alpha chains and four beta chains
extracellular surface which serves as ID tags to c. Three alpha chains and three beta chains
determine which species, which type of cell or d. Alpha chain and one beta chain
individual are the 41. This structure serves as the site and carries the
a. Enzymatic proteins enzymes for protein synthesis
Ans: ribosomes D Mand 2nd
42. Which of the following is considered to be the
normal hemoglobin? 55. Cervical Contours are closely related to the attachment
Ans: hemoglobin A of gingiva at the neck of tooth. The greater contour of
43. These are small fluid sacs that lie between some cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on w/c of ff
tendons and bones beneath them. What do you call surface?
A Distal surface of ant teeth
its inflammation?
B Mesial surface of post teeth
Ans: tendonitis
C Mesial surface of ant teeth
Ans. Bursitis D distal surface of post teeth
44. Which of the following in not an example of
endocytosis 56. W/c root of permanent max 1st molar is flattened
Ans: surface tension mesiodistally and has root of depressions on both its
47. All are functions of the smooth endoplasmic mesial and distal surface.
reticulum, except: A Distolingual
Ans: synthesis of proteins B Mesiofacial
48.non neuronal tissue of the CNS that performs C Lingual
supportive and other ancillary functions is called D Distofacial
a. Neuroglia
57. Of the ff teeth the____ would most likely be congenital
b. Bursa
by absent
c. Dermatome
A Mand canine
d. synapse B Max C.i
49. The fluid filled sac which provides a protective C Mesial marginal developmental groove
cushion and acts as a “ waste pail” for the developing D Max canine
embryo is the:
Ans: amnion / amniotic sac 58. The height of contour of a mand incisor when viewed
50. The unpleasant sensation of difficulty in breathing facially is located at what 3rd of the crown?
is called A cervical
Ans: dyspnea B incisal
C junction of cervical and middle
D middle

51. Which among this teeth would have its root apex 59. Within a tooth, the entire space occupied by dental
forced into the Highmore’s antrum during surgical pulp is properly referred to as
procedure? A pulp canals
A Maxillary primary 2nd Molar at age 12 B pulp chamber
B Maxillary Central Incisors C interdental space
C Maxillary 1st premolar D pulp cavity
D Maxillary 1st molar
60. Using universal system notation tooth C is w/c of the ff.
52. A child has 12 permanent and 12 deciduous teeth what A Primary right max 1st molar
is his age? B Primary left mand 2nd molar
A 4 ½ yrs C Primary right max canine
B 8 ½ yrs D permanent left max lateral
C 11 ½ yrs
D 13 ½ yrs 61. W/c of ff permanent molars has largest mesiodistal
measurement of its crown?
53. These premolar cusps are almost equal in size? A mand 1st
A Mand 2nd B mand 2nd
B max 1st C max 2nd
C Mand 1st D max 1st

54. One of its distinguishing landmark is the mesiolingual 62 When a 4th root canal exist in a max 1st molar, it is most
developmental groove? likely located in w/c of the ff roots:
A Mand 1st A distofacial
B Max 1st B mesiofacial
C Max 2nd C lingual
D distolingual
71 Height of contour occlusocervically is located within the
63 lingual lobe of an ant. teeth is referred to as the middle 3rd of the
A mamelons C cingulum A Distal surface of permanent central incisor
B lingual ridge D tubercle B lingual surface of a permanent maxillary 1st molar
64 In a longitudinal section of premolar crown, the enamel C facial surface of a permanent mand 1st milar
is thickest in the ____ third D distal surface of a permanent central incisor D. Mesial
A CEJ C middle surface of a permanent canine
B cervical D Occlusal
72 Yshaped groove is characteristics of
A mand 2nd 3 cusp type
65 From a proximal view, w/c of the ff permanent teeth B max 1st
tends to be positioned in the arch with its axis most nearly C Mand 2nd 2 cusp type
vertical? D mand 1st

A Max lateral incisor 73 The mental foramen is located most closely to the
B Mand lateral incisor A mand 2nd premolar
C max central incisor B max 1st molar
D max canine C mand canine
D mand 1st molar
66 W/c of the ff incisal angles would exhibits the
GREATEST convexity (the most rounded) 74 At birth the ff teeth are calcifying
A mesio; max central A permanent 3rd molar
B mesio: max lateral B permanent canines
C disto; max lateral C primary incisors and 1st molars
D disto; max central D primary canines and 2nd molar

67 Each of the ff morphologic structures can be seen on 75 Which of the ff teeth has its mesial contact area located
any incisors except: w/in the incisal or occlusal 1/3rd
A transverse ridge A mand central
B lingual fossa B mand 1st molar
C cingulum C mand 2nd premolar
D mesial marginal ridge D max canine

68 In the intercuspal position facial cusp of mand teeth 76 The mandible in its physiologic rest or postural resting
occlude with position has
A fossae and marginal ridges only A maximum contact of teeth
B fossae only B premature contact
C fossae, marginal ridge and embrasure C slight contact of teeth
D grooves and embrasures D no contact

69 W/c of the ff is not true regarding surface 77 in a normal occlusion the distolingual cusp of max 2nd
Of the teeth? molar occludes with a ___ of a mand ___ molar
A marginal ridges; mand 2nd molar and mand 3rd
A Distal surfaces are those most distant from the median B distal fossae ;2nd
line of the face C central fossae; 2nd
B Mesial surfaces are those towards the median line of the D central fossae;3rd
face
C Collectively, the surface that is towards the cheeks on 78 The PDL in the region of a permanent mand canine
post teeth and the lips on the ant teeth is the facial surface tends to become thinner with age probably as the result of
D The surface that is towards the lips is the lingual A reversal of function of horizontal and oblique fibers
surface B deposition of cementum and bone
C gingival cysts formed from cell rests
70 All but w/c of the ff are point angle found on post teeth D downward growth of gingival epithelium
A mesiolinguo occlusal
B distolinguoincisal 79 The prime mover in affecting a left working muscle
C mesiobuccoocclusal movement is the _____ pterygoid muscle
D distobuccoocclusal A left medial
B right medial C cementoblast
C right lateral D fibroblast
D left lateral
88 the mean age of eruption of primary mand 2nd molar is
80 When a px opens his mouth there is an audible click. A 8 months
w/c of the ff represents the most plausible explanation B 2o months
A the joint capsule has thickened C 13 moths
B the articular eminence has flattened D 27 months
C the disk and condyle lack functional coordination
D the medial pterygoid muscle is in spasm 89---

81 During a protrusive excursion the mandibular condyles 90 It helps the dental arches by the combined anchorage
progress in w/c of the ff directions of all the teeth
A forward downward A embrasure
B forward upward B proximal contact area
C Backward and downward C interproximal spaces
D backward and upward D facial contours at the cervical line

82 During a working side movement of the mand the 91 in periodontal structures, normal interdental osseous
oblique ridge of a max 1st molar passes through w/c sulcus membrane architecture is influenced to the greatest
of a permanent mand 1st molar? extent by which of the ff
A mesiolingual sulcus C distolingual sulcus A convex coronal facial contours located in the gingival
B distobuccal sulcus D mesiobuccal sulcus 3rds
B occlusal table of posterior teeth being 50-60% of the
83. The compensating curve of spee w/c the max arch faciolingual overall widths of the teeth
assumes from anterior to posterior is usually. C proximal CEJ of the adjacent teeth at the same level
A parallel to plane of occlusion D convex coronal lingual contours located in the middle
B a triangle 3rds
C covex
D concave 92 which of the following is most likely indicated for
splinting?
84 Relationship of max to mand when teeth are in A primary occlusal trauma
occlusion B mobility related to a unilateral trauma “skid” from
A articulation centric relation to centric occlusion
B overbite C Mobility with the decrease in tissue quality
C occlusion D mobility with patient discomfort
D position
93 How soon if the eruption of a permanent tooth is the
85 the transition from primary to permanent dentition apex usually fully developed?
begins with the emergence of mand permanent central A 5-6 yrs
incisor the the 1st permanent molars at ___ yrs of age B immediately
A 6-7 C 3 months
B7 D 2-3 yrs
C 7-8
D6 94 Perikymata are the result of
A Enamel hyperplasia
86 ff the initial period of functional activity, the size of the B enamel hypoplasia
pulp cavity is constantly reduced. Appreciable alteration in C early ameloblastic degeneration
the size of the pulp chamber is a direct result of D normal enamel apposition
A pulp fibrosis
B metaplasia 95 it serves as food packing between teeth
C deposition of secondary dentin A proximal contact area
D deposition of primary dentin B facial contours at the cervical line
C interproximal spaces
87 the cells of the dental pulp w/c are responsible for the D embrasures
deposition of reparative dentin are
A odontoblast 96 Permanent dentition is completed including the 3 rd
B odontoclast molars by about age
A 19 yrs
B 23 yrs
C 25 yrs
D 17 yrs

97 Absence of swallowing due to paralysis of muscle of

deglutition or muscle mastication
A dysphagia
B odynophagia
C aphagia
D asphexia

98 How many planes of movement can the mandible move

in
A three
B four
C one
D two

99 the maximum protrusive movement is approximately

A 8-10mm
B 8 mm
C 9mm
D 10mm

100 The primary dentition is completely formed by about

age
A3
B5
C4
D6