Indian Polity MCQs PDF SSC State PSC Exams PDF

GKTODAY
Indian Polity MCQs PDF [SSC, State PSC Exams]
Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
This is a dynamic PDF E-book by GKToday. The latest version of this book can be downloaded from this link
Published by: GKTODAY.IN
GKToday © 2019 | All Rights Reserved
The authors and publisher have made every effort to ensure that the information in this E-book is
correct. However, GKToday does not assume and hereby disclaims any liability to any party for any
loss, damage, or disruption caused by errors or omissions, whether such errors or omissions result
from negligence, accident, or any other cause.
This document is a property of GKToday. Unauthorized Duplication is not allowed.
Contents
......................... . .... ... . ... ..................................................................
1 – Constituent Assembly ............................................................................................................................................................................................... 3
2 – Parts & Salient Features of the Constitution ....................................................................................................................................................... 8
3 – Preamble ................................................................................................................................................................................................................... 12
4 – Union and its Territory ......................................................................................................................................................................................... 14
5 – Citizenship ................................................................................................................................................................................................................ 21
6 – Fundamental Rights ............................................................................................................................................................................................... 23
7 – Directive Principles of State Policy ..................................................................................................................................................................... 33
8 – Fundamental Duties .............................................................................................................................................................................................. 36
9 – Amendment of the Constitution ........................................................................................................................................................................ 38
10 – System of Government in India ........................................................................................................................................................................ 50
11 – Centre State and Inter-State Relations ............................................................................................................................................................. 53
12 – Emergency Provisions .......................................................................................................................................................................................... 56
13 – Union Executive: President of India .................................................................................................................................................................. 59
14 – Union Executive: Vice-President of India ........................................................................................................................................................ 70
15 – Union Executive: Prime Minister and Union Council of Ministers ............................................................................................................ 72
16 – Union Executive: Cabinet Committees ............................................................................................................................................................ 76
17 – Union Legislature: Parliament ...........................................................................................................................................................................
76
18 – Union Legislature: Parliamentary Committees & Forums ........................................................................................................................... 94
19 – Union Judiciary: Supreme Court ...................................................................................................................................................................... 95
20 – State Executive: Governor ............................................................................................................................................................................... 104
21 – State Executive: Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers ............................................................................................................... 105
22 – State Legislature: Legislative Assembly ......................................................................................................................................................... 105
23 – State Legislature: Legislative Councils ........................................................................................................................................................... 107
24 – State Judiciary: High Courts and Subordinate Courts .............................................................................................................................. 108
25 – Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir and other states ................................................................................................................................. 112
26 – Local Government: Panchayats ....................................................................................................................................................................... 114
27 – Local Government: Municipalities .................................................................................................................................................................. 118
28 – Union Territories ................................................................................................................................................................................................ 119
29 – Scheduled and Tribal Areas ............................................................................................................................................................................. 121
30 – Constitutional Bodies: Election Commission ................................................................................................................................................ 122
31 – Constitutional Bodies: Union and State Public Service Commissions ..................................................................................................... 124
32 – Constitutional Bodies: Finance Commission ................................................................................................................................................ 126
33 – Constitutional Bodies: National Commissions for SCs and STs .............................................................................................................. 128
34 – Constitutional Bodies: GST Council .............................................................................................................................................................. 129
35 – Constitutional Bodies: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities .............................................................................................................. 129
36 – Constitutional Bodies: CAG ............................................................................................................................................................................. 130
37 – Constitutional Bodies: Attorney General and Auditor General, Advocate General ............................................................................ 130
38 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Planning Commission, NDC and NITI Aayog ......................................................................................... 132
39 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Human Rights Commissions ........................................................................................................................ 133
40 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Information Commissions ............................................................................................................................ 134
41 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: CVC, CBI ........................................................................................................................................................... 134
42 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Lok Pal and Lokayuktas ................................................................................................................................. 135
43 – Co-operative Societies, Official Languages and Tribunals ........................................................................................................................ 135
44 – Party System and Elections ............................................................................................................................................................................. 137
45 – Electoral Reforms and Anti-Defection Law ................................................................................................................................................. 142
46 – Important Sections of Indian Penal Code and CrPC ................................................................................................................................. 142
© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 2

1 – Constituent Assembly
1. Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
[C] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
[D] J.B. Kripalani
Correct Answer: B [Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ]
Notes:
The constituent assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of
constitution. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution Committee.
2. In context with the Constituent Assembly, which among the following observations is / are
correct?
1. The members of Constituent Assembly were elected directly
2. The basis of seats allocation was population
3. Composition of the Constituent Assembly was roughly in line with the suggestions of the
Cabinet Mission plan

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[B] Only 2 & 3 are correct
[C] Only 1 & 3 are correct
[D] 1, 2 & 3 are correct
Correct Answer: B [Only 2 & 3 are correct]
Notes:
Election of the members of the Constituent Assembly had been elected firstly, for undivided India. Its
first sitting was held on December 9, 1946 and re-assembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India
on 14 August 1947. oIts members were elected by indirect election by the members of the Provisional
Legislative Assemblies that had been established in 1935. oThe Constituent Assembly was composed
roughly along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known
as the Cabinet Mission. As per the Cabinet Mission plan, each Province and each Princely State or group
of States were allotted seats proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10 Lakh.
As a result the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292 members while the
Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats. The seats in each Province were distributed among
the three main communities, Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
oMembers of each community in the Provisional Legislative Assembly elected their own representatives
by the method of proportional representation with single transferable vote. oThe method of selection in
the case of representatives of Princely States was to be determined by consultation. oAs a consequence
of the Partition under the plan of 3 June 1947 those members who were elected from territories which
fell under Pakistan ceased to be members of the Constituent Assembly. oThe numbers in the Assembly
were reduced to 299 of which 284 were actually present on 26 November 1949 and appended their
signature to the Constitution as finally passed.
3. The” liberty , equality and fraternity ” enshrined by Preamble is inspired by which revolution?
[A] Russian
[B] French
[C] Irish
[D] American
Correct Answer: B [French]
4. Who among the following headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities
and Tribal and Excluded Areas a committee under the Constituent Assembly?
[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru

[B] Vallabh Bhai Patel
[C] H C Mukherjee
[D] Maulana Azad
Correct Answer: B [Vallabh Bhai Patel]
5. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly ?
[A] Sachidanand Sinha
[B] B N Rao
[C] H N Kunzuru
[D] V N Menon
Correct Answer: B [B N Rao]
6. On which date Indian Constitution was finally signed by the members of the constituent
assembly ?
[A] November 26, 1949
[B] January 24, 1950 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] January 26, 1950

[D] January 24, 1949
Correct Answer: B [January 24, 1950]
7. By which among the following ways, the Constitution Assembly generally arrived at decisions
on various provisions of the Constitution?
[A] Simple Majority
[B] Two Third Majority
[C] Consensus
[D] Casting Vote
Correct Answer: C [Consensus]
8. Who among the following was the first president of Constituent Assembly of India?
[A] Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] Professor Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
[D] Dr. B R Ambedkar
Correct Answer: A [Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha]
Notes:
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first president (temporary chairman) of the Constituent Assembly
when it met on December 9, 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then became the President of the Constituent
Assembly, and would later become the first President of India. The Vice President of the Constituent
Assembly was Professor Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a former Vice-Chancellor of Calcutta University
and a prominent Christian from Bengal, who also served as the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s
Minorities Committee; he was appointed Governor of West Bengal after India became a republic.
9. The first session of constituent assembly took place on which of the following dates ?
[A] 9-23 December 1946
[B] 9-23 December 1947
[C] 20-25 January 1947
[D] 20-25 January 1950
Correct Answer: A [9-23 December 1946]

Notes:
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India took place in Constitutional Hall, New Delhi, on
9th December 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly. In
the first meeting, the assembly adopted an ‘Objective Resolution’ which later became the preamble of the
constitution. It appointed various committees. The report of the committees formed the basis on which
the first draft of the constitution was prepared. It reassembled on 14 August 1947 as Constituent
Assembly for independent India.
After partition, Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the president of Constituent Assembly of Independent India.
Professor Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was Vice President of the Constituent Assembly. While Dr.
Rajendra Prasad later became President of India, Prof. HC Mookerjee became first Governor of West
Bengal.
10. Who was the interim president of First Constituent assembly ?
[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] Sachidanand Sinha
[C] BR Ambedkar
[D] Jawharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: B [Sachidanand Sinha]
11. The constitution of India was ordained Kanta

byraowhich of the following ?
| kantarao401@gmail.com |
[A] British Government

[B] Government of India
[C] The people of India through their representatives in the Constituent assembly
[D] Viceroy of India
Correct Answer: C [The people of India through their representatives in the Constituent assembly]
12. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was not a member of which of the following committees of the constituent
assembly ?
[A] Committee on the rules of procedure
[B] Ad Hoc committee on National Flag
[C] Steering Committee
[D] Order of Business Committee
Correct Answer: D [Order of Business Committee]
13. On which of the following dates Indian Constitution was completed ? (Passed by the
Constituent Assembly)
[A] January 26, 1950
[B] November 26, 1949
Correct Answer: B [November 26, 1949]
14. Before 26 November 1949, which among the following was the governing law of India?
[A] The Cabinet Mission Plan
[B] Government of India Act 1935
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1909
Correct Answer: B [Government of India Act 1935]
15. In context of our constitution the date of 13 December 1946 is known for which of the
following?
[A] Cabinet Mission Plan

[B] Setting up of Constituent Assembly
[C] First meeting of Constituent Assembly
[D] Objective Resolution was moved
Correct Answer: D [Objective Resolution was moved]
Notes:
The historic Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 13 December 1946 and was
adopted on 22 January 1947.
16. How long did the constituent assembly take to frame the constitution?
[A] Approximately 1 year
[B] Approximately 2 years
[C] Approximately 3 years
[D] 6 months
Correct Answer: C [Approximately 3 years]
Notes:
The constituent assembly took 2 years , 11 months and 18 days to frame the constitution
17. Bring out the wrong statements:

[A] The first sitting of the Union parliament was held in 1952
[B] The idea of concurrent list has been borrowed from Australia
[C] Salaries of Judges of Supreme Court are drawn from Consolidated fund of India
[D] All are correct
Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
18. Who among the following was the vice president of the executive council in the Interim
Government 1946-47?
[A] Moti Lal Nehru
[B] Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] C Rajgopalachari
Correct Answer: B [Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru]
19. For which of the following the date August 29, 1947 is known with regard to our constitution?
[A] Constituent assembly came into being
[B] Drafting committee was set up
[C] Draft constitution got ready
[D] constitution was adopted by the constituent assembly
Correct Answer: B [Drafting committee was set up]
20. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] The number of members of the constituent assembly was increased after the Mountbatten
Plan of 3 June, 1947
[B] On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution that outlined
the basics of the constitution
[C] B N Rao was appointed the Constitutional Advisor of the Assembly
[D] First meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place of Dec 9, 1946 with Dr. Sachidanand
Sinha as its interim President
Correct Answer: A [The number of members of the constituent assembly was increased after the
Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947]
21. Who among the following headed the Union powers Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] H C Mookherjee
[C] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[D] Dr. B R Ambedkar
Correct Answer: C [Jawahar Lal Nehru]
22. Jawahar Lal Nehru headed the Interim Cabinet as _________?

[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Chairman
Correct Answer: B [Vice President]
23. Bring out the ONLY incorrect statement: Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[A] In Kesavanand Bharti Case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is part of India’s Constitution
[B] Article 34 covers the imposing of Martial Law
[C] Ideal of Justice in Indian Constitution comes from the Russian (erstwhile USSR) Constitution
[D] January 26, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly
Correct Answer: D [January 26, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly]
Notes:
January 24, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly
24. Who among the following was the chairman of the Special Committee to examine the Draft
Constitution of India ?
[A] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[B] Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyer
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] Sardar Balvant Singh
Correct Answer: B [Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyer]
25. Dr. BR Ambedkar was elected to The constituent assembly from which among the following ?
[A] United provinces
[B] West Bengal
[C] The Bombay Presidency
[D] Punjab
Correct Answer: B [West Bengal]
26. “All powers of Government and all authority-legislative, executive and judicial are derived
from the people and the same shall be exercised in the commonwealth of India through the
organizations, established by or under and in accord with, this constitution”.
The above para has been taken from which among the following (which has been characterized by
some scholars as “Constitution of Commonwealth of India”) ?
[A] Government of India Act 1935
[B] Nehru Report
[C] Objective Resolution

[D] Resolution by Swaraj Party in 1924

Correct Answer: B [Nehru Report]
27. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Legislatures of various
provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states. Why the members of the
Constituent Assembly were NOT directly elected?
[A] Congress as well as Muslim League had demanded the election of the members of Constituent
assembly members via this method only
[B] There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst the different sections
in India and formation was Constituent Assembly by directly elected members was not possible.
[C] The People of India had already given a mandate to create a Constituent Assembly from the
elected members of Legislatures of various provinces
[D] The Princely states had objected for direct elections for the members of the Constituent
assembly
Correct Answer: B [There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst the
different sections in India and formation was Constituent Assembly by directly elected members was
not possible.] Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Notes:
When the Labor Government under Clement Atlee came under power in 1940s, there was a change in
the Indian policy of Britain. The government of Clement Atlee had appointed the Cabinet Mission to look
into the matter of Constituent assembly for India. There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet
Mission amongst different sections of India and this was the primary reason that the formation of
Constituent assembly by directly elected members was not possible. Since, Jinnah and the Muslim
league wanted two Constituent assemblies one for India and one for Future Pakistan, it was decided that
the a Constituent assembly is to be formed by the newly elected legislators of the Provincial assemblies.
Thus, based upon this premise, the provinces were grouped into three regions viz. Predominantly Hindu,
Predominantly Muslim and those where both were almost equal in number. The members of
Constituent assembly were elected accordingly and it was boycotted by Jinnah et al.
2 – Parts & Salient Features of the Constitution
1. What is the number of Schedules in Constitution of India?
[A] 8
[B] 10
[C] 11
[D] 12
Correct Answer: D [12]
Notes:
Schedules are lists in the Constitution of India that categorizes and tabulate bureaucratic activities and
policy of the Government. Indian Constitution had originally eight schedules.
9th schedule was added via First Amendment Act
10th Schedule was first added by 35th Amendment {Sikkim as Associate State}. Once Sikkim became a
state of India, the 10 Schedule was repealed but later added once again by 52th Amendment Act, 1985 in
context with the “Anti-defection” law.
Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd amendment and has list of subjects under the Panchayat Raj
institutions or rural local government.
Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th amendment and enlists the subjects under Municipalities or urban
local government.
2. The Town Planning Committee comes under which among the following parts of Constitution
of India?
[A] Part VII
[B] Part IX
[C] Part IXA

[D] None of them

Correct Answer: C [Part IXA]
3. Which among the following language is NOT there in the 8th Schedule of Constitution of India?
[A] Dogri
[B] Rajasthani
[C] Sindhi
[D] Manipuri
Correct Answer: B [Rajasthani]
4. Which schedule of Indian constitution contains languages?

[A] 6th
[B] 7th
[C] 8th
[D] 9th
Correct Answer: C [8th]
5. Sindhi Language was included in the list of official languages in the 8th schedule of our
constitution in which year?
[A] 1957
[B] 1967
[C] 1969
[D] 1968
Correct Answer: B [1967]
Notes:
In the Constitution of India, there is a provision made for each of the Indian states to choose their own
official language for communicating at the state level. The selected languages, which can be used for
official purpose, have been listed in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. Originally, there were 14
languages in the 8th schedule. The further languages were added as follows:
Sindhi by 21st amendment, 1967
Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages by 71st amendment, 1992
Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali by 92nd Amendment, 2004.
6. Which among the following are considered essential for the realization of the highest good of
India’s citizens?
[A] Fundamental rights
[B] Fundamental duities
[C] DPSP
[D] Preamble
Correct Answer: A [Fundamental rights]
7. Part IV A of our constitution is related to ____?

[A] Citizenship
[B] Fundamental rights
[C] Fundamental duities
[D] DPSP
Correct Answer: C [Fundamental duities]
Notes:
Part-II: Citizenship
Part-III: Fundamental rights

Part-IV: DPSP
Part-IV A- Fundamental duities
8. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with Trade, Commerce and Inter Course within the
territories of India?
[A] Part XII
[B] Part XIII
[C] Part XIV
[D] Part XV
Correct Answer: B [Part XIII]
Notes:
Part XIII Trade, Commerce And Intercourse Within The Territory Of India Art.( 301-307 )
9. Which among the following case is related to the theory of basic structure of constitution as
propounded by Supreme court?
[A] Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
[B] Golak nath v. state of Punjab
[C] Gopalan v. State of madras
[D] SR Bommai v Union of India
Correct Answer: A [Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala]
10. Which among the following is a correct statement?

[A] USA – Supremacy of the constitution ;Britain – Supremacy of the Parliament
[B] Britain – Supremacy of the constitution ;USA – Supremacy of the Parliament
[C] Britain & USA -Supremacy of the constitution
[D] Britain & USA -Supremacy of the Parliament
Correct Answer: A [USA – Supremacy of the constitution ;Britain – Supremacy of the Parliament]
Notes:
India’s constitution combines these two contradictory principles. In India the constitution have tried to
keep a balance between the Judiciary and the parliament. While Judiciary (Supreme Court) through its
power of Judicial review can declare laws passed by the parliament as unconstitutional the Parliament
can amend the major portions of the constitution. (without affecting the basic structure of the
constitution
11. Which among the following is a written supplementary, explanatory or appended document of
Indian constitution?
[A] Part VI
[B] Preamble
[C] Schedules
[D] DPSP
Correct Answer: C [Schedules]
12. Which of the following part of Indian Constitution resembles the standard-setting Charter of
the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights of 1948?
[A] Part II
[B] Part III
[C] Part IV
[D] Part V
Correct Answer: B [Part III]
13. Which of the following parts of Indian constitution has only one article?
[A] Part XVII
[B] Part XVIII
[C] Part XIX
[D] Part XX
Correct Answer: D [Part XX]
Notes:
Part XX article 368, amendment of the constitution
14. Article 43 B in Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with:
[A] Rural Business Hubs
[B] Cooperative Societies
[C] Village Panchayats
[D] Forest Development
Correct Answer: B [Cooperative Societies]
15. Which among the following terms doesKantanot get a place| in Constitution of India?
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com
[A] Attorney General

[B] Comptroller and Auditor General
[C] Budget
[D] Cabinet
Correct Answer: C [Budget]
16. The 8th schedule of Constitution of India , originally had how many languages?
[A] 12
[B] 14
[C] 16
[D] 22
Notes:
The Constitution listed fourteen languages — Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri,
Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu — in Eighth Schedule, in 1950.
Since then, the list has been expanded thrice, once to include Sindhi, second time to include Konkani,
Manipuri and Nepali and yet again to add four more languages — Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri —
bringing total to 22 scheduled languages. The claims of many more languages for inclusion is under
consideration.
17. Which of the following is not one of the official languages mentioned in the VIIIth Schedule?
[A] Persian
[B] Sanskrit
[C] Kashmiri
[D] Nepali
Correct Answer: A [Persian]
18. Which one of the following items/Subjects belongs to the Concurrent list of the VIIth Schedule
of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Public Health and Sanitation
[B] Forests
[C] Stock Exchanges
[D] Agriculture
Correct Answer: B [Forests]
3 – Preamble
1. Which of the following words is not included in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
[A] Equality
[B] Liberty
[C] Dignity
[D] Justice
Correct Answer: C [Dignity]
Notes:
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, are having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN,
SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this 26th day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND
GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
2. Till now, the Preamble of Constitution of India has been amended for how many times?
[A] Never
[B] Once
[C] Twice
[D] Thrice
Correct Answer: B [Once]
Notes:
Preamble can be amended by Parliament using its amendment powers as per article 368. We note here
that preamble has been amended only once so far through the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act 1976.
The words Secular, Socialist and Integrity were added to the constitution.
3. India is a secular state and it is explicitly proclaimed in the ..?
[A] Preamble
[C] DPSP
[D] Schedules
Correct Answer: A [Preamble]
4. The preamble of Constitution of India is ________?

[A] A part of constitution
[B] Not a part of constitution
[C] is an annexure to constitution
[D] A schedule of the Constitution
Correct Answer: A [A part of constitution]
5. The constitution of India derives its ultimate authority from ____?

[A] Supreme Court of India
[B] Parliament of India
[C] People of India
[D] Constituent Assembly of India
Correct Answer: C [People of India]
Notes:

The Constitution draws its authority from the people and has been promulgated in the name of the
people. This is evident from the Preamble which states “We the people of India …. do hereby adopt, enact
and give to ourselves this Constitution.” This implies that the direct authority of the people cannot be
claimed or usurped by the legislature. Under the constitution, legislature is a representative body but
people constitute the ultimate sovereign.
6. In which of the following the basic aims and objectives of the constitution are discussed ?
[A] Part-I
[B] Schedule-I
[C] Part-II
[D] Preamble
Correct Answer: D [Preamble]
7. Choose the incorrect sentence among the following?

[A] The objective resolution passed by Pt Nehru was what became the Preamble of our
constitution
[B] Preamble is enforceable in court of law
[C] Preamble of Indian constitution has been amended only once in 1976
[D] Preamble proves the sovereignty lies ultimately with the Indian people
Correct Answer: B [Preamble is enforceable in court of law]
Notes:
Preamble is not enforceable in court of law . This means that It is not justifiable in nature
8. In which of the following Objectives of the constitution were incorporated ?
[A] Preamble
[C] DPSP
[D] Judicary
Correct Answer: A [Preamble]
9. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble as basic structure of the
Constitution?
[A] SR Bommai Case
[B] Kesavanand Bharti Case
[C] Ashok Kumar Thakur Case
[D] M C Mehta Case
Correct Answer: A [SR Bommai Case]
10. Which among the following was the outcome of kesavanand Bharti Case v/s State of Kerala
Case 1973?
[A] Preamble is Part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the parliament
[B] Preamble is Part of the constitution but not subject to amending power of the parliament
[C] Preamble is not a part of the constitution and is subject to amending power of the parliament
[D] Preamble is not a Part of the constitution and not subject to amending power of the
parliament
Correct Answer: A [Preamble is Part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the
parliament]
11. How many times the word “Secular” appears in our constitution?
[A] 1

[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Notes:
Preamble and article 25 a
12. Who among the following quoted “Preamble” as Political Horoscope?
[A] Thakurdas Bhargava
[B] N A Palkhi Wala
[C] K M Munshi
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru
Correct Answer: C [K M Munshi]
4 – Union and its Territory

1. The makers of Constitution of India chose the scheme of federation of India, as prevalent in
which among the following countries? Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[A] United states
[B] United kingdom
[C] Australia
[D] Canada
Correct Answer: B [United kingdom]
2. The ultimate sovereignty in the Indian Polity rests with which among the following?
[A] Parliament
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Higher Judiciary
[D] People of India
Correct Answer: D [People of India]
3. Sikkim became a new state in the Union by the __________Amendment act

[A] 32nd, 1974
[B] 35th, 1975
[C] 36th, 1975
[D] 37th, 1978
Correct Answer: C [36th, 1975]
Notes:
Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim
State day is observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of
Sikkim assumed office.
4. What is the correct chronological order of creation of Assam, Nagaland, Goa & Mizoram?
[A] Assam, Nagaland, Goa , Mizoram
[B] Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland,. Goa
[C] Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa
[D] Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Nagaland
Correct Answer: C [Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Goa]
Notes:
Nagaland was formed in 1963

Mizoram was formed in 20th Feb1987

Goa as a state was formed in 30th May 1987
5. Goa was declared as India’s 25th state in which among the following years?
[A] 1987
[B] 1988
[C] 1989
[D] 1990
Correct Answer: A [1987]
6. Which among the following state / union territory got birth with the Punjab Reorganization Act
of 1966?
[A] Haryana
[B] Hiamchal Pradesh
[C] Chandigarh
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Haryana]
7. Which among the following constitution is similar to Indian Constitution because of a strong
centre?
[A] USA
[B] Canada
[C] England
[D] Japan
Correct Answer: B [Canada]
8. India is “Union of States” this expression was borrowed from the following constitution?
[A] Canada
[B] France
[C] Australia
[D] USA
Correct Answer: A [Canada]
9. In which year Manipur and Tripura became full-fledged state of India?

[A] 1962
[B] 1968
[C] 1972
[D] 1980
Correct Answer: C [1972]
10. Which among the following formed as 22nd state of Indian union ?
[A] Goa
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Sikkim
[D] Telangan
Correct Answer: C [Sikkim]
Notes:
Sikkim emerged as India’s 22nd state on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May

of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office.
11. What was the number of state in India after the States Reorganization Act 1956, which
reorganized the boundaries of different states on linguistic basis?
[A] 13
[B] 14
[C] 15
[D] 20
12. In which schedule of Indian Constitution the territorial extent of Indian states and union
Territories is prescribed ?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd
[C] 3rd
[D] 4th
Correct Answer: A [1st] Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Notes:
First schedule lists the states and territories on of India; lists any changes to their borders and the laws
used to make that change.
13. Which of the following states were created in 1987?
[A] Maharastra, Goa & Arunanchal Pradesh
[B] Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh
[C] Goa Only
[D] Arunanchal Pradesh only
Correct Answer: B [Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh]
14. The uniform civil code which has been recommended in the directive principles is to ensure
which of the following?
[A] National Integration
[B] Economic Equality
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Fundamental duities
Correct Answer: A [National Integration]
15. Arrange Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Kerala, Maharastra in correct chronological order of
creation?
[A] Maharastra, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
[B] Kerala, Maharastra, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh
[C] Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
[D] Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, kerala
Correct Answer: C [Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur]
Notes:
Kerala (1956), Maharastra (1960), Himachal Pradesh (1970), Manipur (1971)
16. In which year Andhra Pradesh was Created?
[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1956
[D] 1960
Notes:
The congress in its Jaipur session appointed a three member committee also popularly known as JVP
committee after the name of its leaders – Jawaharlal Nehru,Vallabh Bhai Patel and Pattabhai
Sitaramaya.The committee rejected language as the bass of reorganization of states.. Potti Sreeramulu,
one of the activists demanding the formation of a Telugu-majority state, died on 16 December 1952 after
undertaking a fast-unto-death. This resulted in the creation of the first state on linguistic basis for
Telugu speaking people called Andhra State on October 1, 1953. It was later reorganized as Andhra
Pradesh in 1956
17. The Assam Reorganization act 1969 created which of the following State / states?
[A] Meghalya only
[B] Meghalaya & Mizoram
[C] Mizoram only
[D] Arunanchal Pradesh only
Correct Answer: A [Meghalya only]
18. Which among the following is 28th state of India ?

[A] Goa
[B] Jharkhand
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Orissa
Correct Answer: B [Jharkhand]
19. Which among the following act gave rise to Haryana?

[A] The Acquired Territories Merger act 1960
[B] Himachal Pradesh & Bilaspur (new State) act 1954
[C] States Reorganization Act of 1956
[D] Punjab Reorganization Act 1966
Correct Answer: D [Punjab Reorganization Act 1966]
20. The State Reorganization Act 1956 divided the country in 5 Zones. In which Zone Rajasthan
was placed?
[A] Northern Zone
[B] Western Zone
[C] Central Zone
[D] South Zone
Correct Answer: A [Northern Zone]
21. Among Meghalaya , Sikkim, Nagaland, & Assam , how many states were initially given status of
autonomous states and subsequently made full fledged states?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Notes:
Meghalaya and Sikkim

22. In which year Uttranchal was renamed as Uttarakhand?

[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007
23. JVP committee which was constituted in 1948-49 was related to which of the following ?
[A] Industrialization of India
[B] Formation of new states on linguistic basis
[C] National language of India
[D] Reservation for SC & STS
Correct Answer: B [Formation of new states on linguistic basis]
24. Which among the following was not a Union Territory before it was accorded the status of Full
Fledged state ?
[A] Himachal Pradesh Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Manipur
[C] Tripura
[D] Sikkim
Correct Answer: D [Sikkim]
25. Which among the following was the outcome of The States Reorganization Act 1956?
[A] 22 states , 9 Uts
[B] 14 states, 6 Uts
[C] 17 states, 7UTs
[D] 18 states 7 Uts
Correct Answer: B [14 states, 6 Uts]
26. Dr. Khubichand Baghel was the first person to raise a voice in favour of which of the following
states?
[A] Haryana
[B] Gujarat
[C] Chhattisgarh
[D] Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: C [Chhattisgarh]
27. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal councils?
[A] Government of India Act 1935
[B] Indian Independence Act 1947
[C] People’s Representation Act 1950
[D] States Reorganization Act 1956
Correct Answer: D [States Reorganization Act 1956]
28. Which among the following was / were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act,
1956.?
[A] Interstate Council
[B] Zonal Council
[C] Language Commission

[D] Delimitation Commission
Correct Answer: B [Zonal Council]
29. In which year Sikkim was included in the North Eastern Council ?
[A] 1992
[B] 1999
[C] 2002
[D] 2005
30. Who among the following functions as Chairman of Zonal Council?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Union Home Minister
[C] State Chief Minister elected by all chief ministers of respective states
[D] President
Correct Answer: B [Union Home Minister]
31. A bill seeking to amend which among the following provisions will not require special majority
and ratification by states?
[A] Formation of New States
[B] Election of the President
[C] Distribution of the legislative powers
[D] Representation of states in Parliament
Correct Answer: A [Formation of New States]
Notes:
Formation of New States, admission of the new states, changing boundaries, areas and names all come
under article 2,3,4 and amendment requires simple majority.
32. Which among the following term correctly represents the Zonal Councils?
[A] Advisory Bodies
[B] Actually Working Bodies
[C] Law Making authorities
[D] Administrative Bodies
Correct Answer: A [Advisory Bodies]
33. Article (1) says that India will be a Union of states Which among the following is NOT a correct
statement in this context?
[A] India is a federation and a result of an agreement by the States to join in the federation
[B] No state has a right to secede from it
[C] Neither central government nor state government can override or contravene the provisions
of the Constitution
[D] The most important subjects have been included in the Union list which has 97 subjects
Correct Answer: A [India is a federation and a result of an agreement by the States to join in the
federation]
Notes:
the use of the word Union is deliberate. The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though
India was to be a federation, the federation was not a result of an agreement by the States to join in the
federation and that the federation not being the result of an agreement no state has a right to secede

from it. Though the country and the people may be divided into different states for convenience of
administration the whole country is one integral whole, its people a single people living under a single
imperium derived from a single source – Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
34. Which of the following articles was inserted by an amendment of the Constitution of India to
give full statehood to Mizoram?
[A] Article 371 C
[B] Article 371 E
[C] Article 371 F
[D] Article 371 G
Correct Answer: D [Article 371 G]
35. Under the provisions of which of the following, 5 Zonal Councils were established in India?
[A] Constitution of India , Article 263
[B] Zonal Councils Act
[C] States Reorganization act 1956
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: C [States Reorganization act 1956]
36. “Jungapithia” is the state fish of which among the following states of India?
[A] Assam
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] West Bengal
Correct Answer: B [Arunachal Pradesh]
37. “Cervus elaphus hanglu” is the state animal of which among the following states?
[A] Jammu & Kashmir
[B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: A [Jammu & Kashmir]
38. The Integrated Action Plan (IAP) is aimed at bridging the development deficit in the extremely
backward areas that are affected by ______.
Choose the most correct option:
[A] Drought
[B] Terrorism
[C] Left Wing Extremism
[D] Widespread Poverty
Correct Answer: C [Left Wing Extremism]
39. In which among the following states, Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) was imposed
for the first time?
[A] Manipur
[B] Punjab
[C] Jammu & Kashmir
[D] 7 North East States
Correct Answer: D [7 North East States]
Notes:
AFSPA became a law on September 11, 1958. Initially, it was applicable to the seven Northeastern states
of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura. This was so
because in all these states there were movements of ethnic groups demanding separation from India.
The government felt that such insurgencies could be checked through deployment of the armed forces,
and they would need special powers to carry out their responsibilities. AFSPA was extended to J&K in
1990, on similar considerations.
5 – Citizenship
1. In which year, The Citizenship Act passed?
[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1960
[D] 1965
Notes:
Constitution of India did not codify permanent laws for citizenship and put this onus on parliament.
Using the powers of article 10 and 11, the parliament enacted Citizenship Act 1955 which has been
amended from time to time. This act mentions four ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by
birth, by descent, by registration and by naturalization. Citizenship by birth and descent are called
natural citizens.
2. The single citizenship has been introduced in the Indian constitution on the pattern of which of
the following constitutions?
[A] Britan
[B] Canada
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] USA
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
3. The Citizenship act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year ?
[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1955
[D] 1947
4. Due to an excessive number of refugees incoming to India from Sri lanka & Bangladesh, the
Citizenship act 1955 was amended and Citizenship by birth was conferred on those who have been
born on or after January 26, 1950 and ______?
[A] June 30, 1987
[B] June 30, 1997
Correct Answer: A [June 30, 1987]
5. Which are the conditions for acquiring Indian Citizenship?

[A] Domicile and Descent
[B] Domicile, Descent & Registration
[C] Domicile, Decent , Registration and Holding property

Correct Answer: B [Domicile, Descent & Registration]

Notes:
Constitution of India did not codify permanent laws for citizenship and put this onus on parliament.
Using the powers of article 10 and 11, the parliament enacted Citizenship Act 1955 which has been
amended from time to time. This act mentions four ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by
birth, by descent, by registration and by naturalization. Citizenship by birth and descent are called
natural citizens.
6. Which among the following Article deals with the rights of citizenships of certain persons of
Indian origin residing outside of India?
[A] Article 6
[B] Article 7
[C] Article 8
[D] Article 9
Correct Answer: C [Article 8]
7. In which among the following year the PIO card (persons of Indian Origin card ) was launched?
[A] 1997 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] 1998
[C] 1999
[D] 2000
8. Which of the following article deals with citizenship at the time of commencement of the
constitution?
[A] Article 5
[B] Article 6
[C] Article 7
[D] Article 8
Correct Answer: A [Article 5]
9. Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen are related to which of the following
countries?
[A] Britain
[B] USA
[C] France
[D] Italy
Correct Answer: C [France]
10. What is the minimum stay essential before a person can apply for Indian Citizenship?
[A] 2 years
[B] 5 years
[C] 7 years
[D] 10 years
Correct Answer: B [5 years]
11. In which year Indian Citizenship Act was passed?

[A] 1940
[B] 1947

[C] 1950
[D] 1955
6 – Fundamental Rights
1. In the constitution of India, the Freedom of speech and expression:
[A] Is enshrined in Part III
[B] Is absolute
[C] Can not be curtailed by legislation
[D] Can be suspended in emergency
Correct Answer: C [ Can not be curtailed by legislation ]
Notes:
FoE can be curtailed by parliamentary law.
2. Which among the following authorities decides , how far the fundamental rights can apply to
the members of the armed forces in India?
[A] President of India Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Parliament of India

[C] Arms Forces themselves
[D] Arms Forces Tribunal
Correct Answer: B [ Parliament of India ]
Notes:
Its prerogative of parliament.
3. Supreme Court has made Right to Free Education as the part of which among the following
rights?
[A] Right to life
[B] Right against Exploitation
[C] Right to freedom of speech and expression
[D] Cultural and Educational Rights
Correct Answer: A [Right to life]
4. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India abolishes the untouchablity?
[A] Article 15
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
Notes:
Abolition of untouchability has been included among fundamental rights under article 17. This is one of
the few fundamental rights available against individuals. To make untouchability law further strong,
parliament passed Untouchability (offences) Act in 1955 which came into force 1st June, 1955. This act
was further amended and renamed in 1976 as Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
5. How many freedoms are guaranteed by Article 19 (Right to Freedom)?
[A] 3
[B] 4
[C] 5
[D] 6

Notes:
Article 19 is the most important and key article which embodies the “basic freedoms”. Article 19(1)
provides that all citizens shall have the right- (originally 7, now 6)
To freedom of speech and expression;
To assemble peaceably and without arms;
To form associations or unions;
To move freely throughout the territory of India;
To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
To practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
6. The right to constitutional remedies allows Indian citizens to stand up for their rights against
anybody even the government of India. Which article says this?
[A] Article 31
[B] Article 32
[C] Article 33
[D] Article 34
Correct Answer: B [Article 32]
Notes:
Article 32 provides the right to Constitutional
Kantaremedies which
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com | means that a person has right to move to
Supreme Court (and high courts also) for getting his fundamental rights protected. While Supreme
Court has power to issue writs under article 32, High Courts have been given same powers under article
226
7. Which among the following don’t come under the purview of Right to Education?
[A] Government Schools
[B] Private Schools
[C] Madrasas
[D] Government schools funded by Private Funds
Correct Answer: C [Madrasas]
8. Which among the following articles helped the Madarsas in India to remain out of purview of
the Right to Education Act?
[A] Article 26
[B] Article 27
[C] Article 28
[D] Article 30
Correct Answer: D [Article 30]
Notes:
Article 30 is called a Charter of Education Rights. Madarsas are administrated by the Article 30.
Article 30 mandates that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to
establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Article 30 provides an absolute right to the minorities that they can establish their own linguistic and
religious institutions and at the same time can also claim for grant-in-aid without any discrimination.
9. Which among the following amendments of Constitution of India had accorded precedence to
Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
[A] 25th
[B] 42nd
[C] 59th
[D] 44th
Correct Answer: B [42nd]
10. “Right to vote” can be placed in which among the following categories?

[A] Fundamental Right

[B] Constitutional Right
[C] Fundamental Duty
[D] Legal Obligation
Correct Answer: B [Constitutional Right]
11. Right to property was made a Legal right from a Fundamental Right by which among the
following amendments to Indian Constitution?
[A] 42nd
[B] 44th
[C] 46th
[D] 48th
Correct Answer: B [44th]
Notes:
By 44th constitutional amendment act in 1978 the right to property was taken away from the category
of fundamental rights and made as a legal right. Article 19(1)(f), which guarantees the citizens the right
to acquire, hold and dispose of property and
Kantaarticle 31 relating
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com | to compulsory acquisition of property
have been omitted. It was, however, be ensured that the removal of property from the list of
fundamental rights would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
12. Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on November 26,
1949?
[A] Provisions relating to citizenship
[B] Provisions relating to elections
[C] Fundamental rights
Correct Answer: C [Fundamental rights]
Notes:
Though the constitution came into force on 26th Nov 1950. Some provisions relating to citizenship,
Elections, Provisional Parliament, temporary and transitional provisions were given immediate effect of
26th Nov 1949
The articles which came into force on 26th Nov 1949 include articles 5, 6, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 372, 388, 391,
392 and 393
13. Any member of the public or group of people may approach the court , on behalf of the
aggrieved persons for protection of his fundamental rights. This is called ________?
[A] Doctrine of public interest litigation
[B] Doctrine of Severability
[C] Doctrine of Real effect
Correct Answer: A [Doctrine of public interest litigation]
14. A boy of 12 years is employed in a factory with a hazardous job. Which among the following is
violated in this case?
[A] Right to Equality
[B] Right to freedom
[C] Abolition of Untouchability
[D] Right Against Exploitation

Correct Answer: D [Right Against Exploitation]
15. Which among the following provisions of Indian Constitution have been taken from the
Weimer Constitution of Germany ?
[A] Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights
[B] The concurrent list
[C] Constitutional Amendments
[D] Preamble
Correct Answer: A [Emergency & its effects on Fundamental Rights]
Notes:
From Russia Revolution 1917
Ideal Of Justice In Social, Education, Economic And Political
From French Revolution 1789-1799:
Ideal of Liberty, Equality and fraternity
From Govt. of India Act 1935
Federal Scheme (also from constitution of Canada)
Office of Governor
Judiciary
Public Service Commission Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Emergency
Administrative Details
From British Constitution
Parliamentary Form of Government.
Rule of Law
Legislation
Single Citizenship
Cabinet Form of Government
Prerogative Writs
Bicameralism
Parliamentary privileges
Legislative Procedure
From the Constitution of United States:
Fundamental Rights
Independent Judiciary
Judicial Review
Impeachment of President
Removal of Supreme Court Judges
Vice Presidential Ship
From Constitution of Ireland
Directive Principles of State Policy
Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha
Electoral Office And Method of President Election
From Canada Constitution
Canada is a pure federal country.
Federation with strong center
Residuary power with center
Appointment of state governors by center
Advisory/review of supreme court
From Constitution of Australia
Concurrent List
Freedom of Trade
Commerce And Inter State Trade
Joint Sitting In The Parliament
From Constitution of USSR
Fundamental Duties
Preamble
From Constitution of South Africa
Procedure for Amendment of the Constitution.
Election to the Rajya Sabha Members
From Constitution of Japan
Procedures Established By Law

From Weimer constitution of Germany
Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency
16. To enforce the fundamental rights , which among the following body has authority to
issue writs?
[A] High Courts of India
[B] Supreme Court of India
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] District courts
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
In India, both Supreme Court and High Court have been empowered with Writ Jurisdiction. Further,
Parliament by law can extend power to issue writs to any other courts (including local courts) for local
limits of jurisdiction of such courts.
17. Who among the following can suspend the fundamental rights?
[A] Parliament Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] President
[C] Prime minister
[D] Supreme court
Correct Answer: B [President]
Notes:
During national emergency, all the basic freedoms guaranteed by article 19 automatically get suspended.
During emergency, President can suspend all other fundamental rights also except Article 20
(protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty).
Such suspension needs parliamentary approval.
18. Which among the following is the most appropriate definition of Political liberty of Citizens of
India ?
[A] Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume highest office
[B] right to cast vote and participate in the election process
[C] Equal opportunity to freely move in the Political territories of India
Correct Answer: A [Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume
highest office]
19. The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to whom of the following ?
[A] Only Citizens of India
[B] All persons incase of infringement of any fundamental righ
[C] any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons
[D] none of the above
Correct Answer: C [any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons]
20. The reasonableness of the restrictions placed on Fundamental rights is decided by which of
the following ?
[A] Parliament
[B] Courts
[C] President
[D] Prime minister
Correct Answer: B [Courts]
21. Which among the following fundamental rights is available to Indian Citizens but not to
aliens?
[A] Freedom of expression and speech
[B] Equality before Law
[C] Protection of life & liberty
Correct Answer: A [Freedom of expression and speech]
22. Which among the following fundamental rights has been deleted by 44th amendment bill ?
[A] right to form associations
[B] right to property
[C] right against exploitation
[D] right to freedom of speech and expression
Correct Answer: B [right to property]
Notes:
By 44th constitutional amendment act in 1978 the right to property was taken away from the category
of fundamental rights and made as a legal right. Article 19(1)(f), which guarantees the citizens the right
to acquire, hold and dispose of property and article 31 relating to compulsory acquisition of property
have been omitted. It was, however, be ensured that the removal of property from the list of
fundamental rights would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
23. Which among the following does not come under Fundamental Duties of a citizen in India?
[A] To protect and Improve Natural Environment
[B] To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform
[C] To strive towards abolition of untouchability
[D] All are comes under fundamental duities
Correct Answer: C [To strive towards abolition of untouchability]
24. The ” Bill of rights and Judicial Review” are borrowed from which of the following countries
constitution ?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] Germany
[D] Australia
Correct Answer: A [USA]
25. Which among the following best supported the idea of inclusion of fundamental rights in our
constitution?
[A] Simon Commission 1927
[B] Nehru Committee Report 1928
[C] Swaraj Bill 1895
[D] Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals 1945
Correct Answer: D [Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals 1945]
26.
The writ of mandamus is available for the purpose of which of the following?
1. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
2. Compelling a court or Judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refuse to exercise it
3. Directing a public official or the Government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
Mandamus means “we order”. This writ is applicable in all of the given statements in this question.
27. Which article of the Indian constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme
Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
[A] Article 22
[B] Article 32
[C] Article 35
[D] Article 37 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
28. Which among the following Fundamental rights has been most controversial ?
[A] Right to Freedom
[B] Right to property
[C] Right to Freedom of religion
[D] Right to cultural & education Rights
Correct Answer: B [Right to property]
29. Bring Out the wrong statements:

[A] The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly headed by
Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Article 32 empowers an individual to approach directly to supreme court for enforcement of
his fundamental rights
[C] Article 17 & 24 are called absolute rights
[D] All are correct
Correct Answer: A [The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly
headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru]
Notes:
The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly headed by Sardar
Patel.
30. ’Sarbajit Roy versus DERC’ was a famous case in the later half of 2006. This case is particularly
related to which of the following?
[B] Fundamental duities
[C] Right to Information
[D] Income Tax
Correct Answer: C [Right to Information]
31. Which among the following statement is correct ?

[A] Right to property is a fundamental right and right to privacy is a implied right

[B] Right to property is a legal right and right to privacy is a fundamental right
[C] Right to property is a implied right while right to privacy is a legal right
[D] Right to property is a Legal right while right to privacy is a implied right
Correct Answer: D [Right to property is a Legal right while right to privacy is a implied right]
32. Which among the following fundamental rights has been to subject to maximum litigation
after inauguration of the Constitution of India?
[B] Right to Constitutional remedies
[C] Right to Property
[D] Right against exploitation
Correct Answer: C [Right to Property]
33. Article 25-28 of the Indian Constitution deal with __?

[B] Right to Equality
[C] Freedom of religion Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Constitutional Remedies

Correct Answer: C [Freedom of religion]
34. ”All those laws that were in force immediately before the enactment of the constitution shall
be void to the extent of inconsistency with the fundamental rights”. Essence of Article 13(1) which
quotes this can be placed under which of the following?
[A] Judicial Activism
[B] Judicial Review
[C] Discretionary review
[D] Judicial interpretation
Correct Answer: B [Judicial Review]
35. The Supreme court of India has held that “Where Article ___________comes in article 14 goes
out.
[A] Article 30
[B] Article 31 A
[C] Article 31 B
[D] Article 32
Correct Answer: B [Article 31 A]
36. “Test of reasonableness ” is a very important consequence under the following articles?
[A] Article 13
[B] Article 14
[C] Article15
[D] Article 16
Notes:
An important consequence of Article 14, that is Right to Equality is Test of easonableness. This means
that classification that is unreasonable is open to challenge and to this extent the policy of legislation is
open to judicial decisions.
37. Which of the following rights deal with freedom of religion?
[A] Articles 12-19

[B] Articles 19-21
[C] Articles -22,23
[D] Articles 25-28
Correct Answer: D [Articles 25-28]
38. Which among the following is an incorrect statement:

[A] Fundamental Freedoms given by article 19 are not absolute
[B] Article 19 as well as 22 deal with personal liberties
[C] Article 19 guarantees freedom of assembly
[D] All are correct
39. Which among the following is not expressly mentioned in article 19?
[A] Freedom of speech and expression
[B] Freedom of assembly
[C] Freedom to form associations Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Freedom of Press

Correct Answer: D [Freedom of Press]
40. Which of the following sections of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
Act. prohibits the conducting of admission test in schools?
[A] Section 11
[B] Section 13
[C] Section 15
[D] Section 17
Correct Answer: B [Section 13]
41. Which among the following article throws all public places to all citizens?
[A] Article 15 (2)
[B] Article 16 (2)
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
Correct Answer: A [Article 15 (2)]
42. Which of the following fundamental right is also known to have incorporated a “Necessary
Evil” of the Constitution of India?
[A] Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
[B] Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
[C] Protection of life and personal liberty.
[D] Protection against arrest and detention in certain case
Correct Answer: D [Protection against arrest and detention in certain case]
43. Who among the following has been given the power by the Constitution of India to “Impose
Reasonable Restrictions” on the fundamental rights?
[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Supreme Court
[D] Both Parliament & Supreme Court

Correct Answer: B [Parliament]
44. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office
under the State” Which among the following article says this ?
[A] Article 15
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18
45. which among the following articles of Constitution of India deals with “Prohibition of Traffic
in Human beings”, ?
[A] Article 21
[B] Article 22
[C] Article 23 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Article 24
46. Right to Safety, Right to information, Right to Choose, Right to be heard & Right to Seek
Redressal are the essential components of which among the following?
[A] Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
[B] The Consumer Protection Act
[C] The Essential Commodities Act
[D] Prevention of Corruption Act
Correct Answer: B [The Consumer Protection Act]
47. “We must not for a moment forget, it is a birth right of every individual to receive at least the
basic education without which he cannot fully discharge his duties as a citizen.”
Who among the following personalities of India is known to have made this famous statement
regarding “Right to Education”?
[A] Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
[C] Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
[D] Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam
Correct Answer: C [Maulana Abul Kalam Azad]
48. All Minority Educational Institutions are entitled to exercise rights enshrined in which among
the following articles of Constitution of India?
[A] 27
[B] 28
[C] 29
[D] 30
49. The implied right to privacy is a part of the right to “life” and “personal liberty” enshrined
under which among the following articles of Constitution of India?
[A] Article 18
[B] Article 19
[C] Article 20
[D] Article 21
50. “Right to service” is an important part of which among the following bills / act?
[A] Lokpal & Lokayukta Bill
[B] Citizen’s Charter and Grievance Redressal Bill
[C] Right to Information Act
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: C [Right to Information Act]
51. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides

protection in respect of conviction for offences. The safeguard which is not provided to the
persons accused of crime under Article 20 is :
[A] Ex-Post facto law Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Double jeopardy

[C] Prohibition against self-incrimination
[D] Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
Correct Answer: D [Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours]
Notes:
Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and
detention provided under Article 22.
7 – Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Which among the following parts of constitution of India, includes the concept of welfare
states?
[A] Preamble
[C] Directive principles
[D] Fourth Schedule
Correct Answer: C [Directive principles]
2. Article 36-51 of our constitution are related to which of the following

[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] DPSP
[C] Fundamental duities
[D] Union Executive
Correct Answer: B [DPSP]
3. Who among the following said this? ” Directive principles of State Policy are like a cheque on a
Bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?
[A] Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Prof. K T Shah
[C] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[D] KM Munshi
Correct Answer: B [Prof. K T Shah]

4. Which among the following is correct regarding Directive Principles?

[A] Positive Injunctions
[B] Negative Injunctions
[C] Justifiable Injunctions
Correct Answer: A [Positive Injunctions]
5. Supreme court ruled that ” the fundamental rights and Directive Principles ” are in fact
supplementary to each other and together constitute an integrated scheme”. This is known as
which of the following ?
[A] Doctrine of Pith & Substance
[B] Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
[C] Doctrine of Colorable Executive
[D] Doctrine of Harmonization
Correct Answer: D [Doctrine of Harmonization]
6. Which among the following is a NOT Kanta

valid reason for slow implementation of the directive
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
principles of state policy ?

[A] Lack of Political will
[B] Lack of Social will
[C] Lack of resources
[D] Vast area of country
Correct Answer: B [Lack of Social will]
7. Constitution Part IV (Article 36-51) contain the directive principles of state policy. In the
following options bring out those which include the scope of Gandhian principles?
[A] Article 40, 43, 44
[B] Article 40, 47, 48
[C] Article 47 only
[D] Article 50 only
Correct Answer: B [Article 40, 47, 48]
8. Which among the following article says that “directive principles are not enforceable by any
court but at the same time declared that they are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of
the country and it shall be duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws?
[A] Article 36
[B] Article 37
[C] Article 38
[D] Article 39
9. Which among the following was the first programme launched by Government of India to
implement the article 47 of the directive principles of state policy ?
[A] Integrated rural development programme
[B] Community development programme
[C] National Rural employment programme
[D] Drought prone areas programme

Correct Answer: B [Community development programme]
10. Which among the following justifies the reason that Directive Principles were made explicitly
unjustifiable?
[A] The state may not have political will to implement the Directive Principles
[B] The state may not need to implement the Directive principles as Fundamental rights were
made justifiable
[C] The implementation of directive principles needs resources which the states may not have
[D] The Constitution does not provide any clear guidelines to implement the directive principles
Correct Answer: C [The implementation of directive principles needs resources which the states may
not have]
11. The Proposed Article 47 (A) by Constitution Review Commission of Justice M N Venkatchaliah
in the directive Principles of state policy is related to which of the following?
[A] To amend the part IV and read it as Directive principles of State Policy and action
[B] To Control population
[C] Action against terrorism and terror activities
[D] set up National education commission

Correct Answer: B [To Control population]
12. Which of the following article was added to Indian Constitution by 25th amendment act ,
which gives the directive principles in article 39 (b) and ( c) primacy over fundamental rights
guaranteed under article 14 & 19 of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Article 31-C
[B] Article 51-A
[C] Article 42-C
[D] Article 32-C
Correct Answer: A [Article 31-C]
13. Directive principles particularly article 39 (b) and (c ) of the constitution of India are many
times referred as charters of the following?
[A] Liberty of religion
[B] Social and economic justice
[C] Liberty to move anywhere in India territories
[D] Imparting education to school children
Correct Answer: B [Social and economic justice]
14. Which among the following article allows special provisions to be made by the State in favor of
women and children ?
[A] Article 15(1)
[B] Article 15(2)
[C] Article 15(3)
[D] Article 16
Correct Answer: C [Article 15(3)]
15. Till the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the word secular was nowhere in the constitution except in
Article _________?
[A] 25

[B] 26
[C] 27
[D] 28
Notes:
Article 25 (2)(a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which
may be associated with religious practice;
16. The Directive Principles of State policy, though attractive, are not enforceable by law. But there
is one among the given options, which has been so far made enforceable by a Supreme Court fiat.
Identify that DPSP from the given options:
[A] Uniform Civil Code
[B] Free Education till the children complete age of 6 years (provision after 86th amendment act)
[C] Equal pay for equal work
[D] Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health
Correct Answer: C [Equal pay for equal work]
Notes: Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
It is true that the DPSP are not enforceable by law, yet the Supreme Court has constantly endeavored to
make the executive at least make some laws in that regard. The first option is incorrect, most of us can
figure it out. The second stands provisional as the original constitution had 14 years of age, out of which
6-14 years has now become and RTE and 0-6 years is the DPSP. There is no law in India which follows
option D. The only DPSP which has been enforced by a law is “Equal pay for equal work”. The principle of
equal pay for equal work for men and women embodied in Article 39(d) of the Constitution was first
considered in Kishori Mohanlal Bakshi vs Union of India in 1962. The Supreme Court then said that it
was not capable of being enforced in a court of law. However, the situation changed in 1982, when in
Randhir Singh vs Union of India it was unequivocally ruled that the principle was not an abstract
doctrine and could be enforced by reading into it the equality precepts enshrined in Articles 14 and 16.
The court went so far as to say that even a daily wage employee who is performing duties similar to
regular employees is entitled to the same pay. However, the Supreme Court took another turn by 1988
and veered round to the view that the principle cannot be enforced and it should remain only as a
guiding star for the law makers and judiciary. For the same purpose there is an act “Equal Remuneration
Act of 1976”, but the act has been proved toothless so far.
8 – Fundamental Duties
1. Which among the following were inserted in the constitution of India on recommendations of
Swaran Singh Committee?
[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Duties
[D] 12th Schedule
Correct Answer: C [Fundamental Duties]
Notes:
Sardar Swaran Singh committee was constituted by Indira Gandhi soon after emergency was imposed in
the country. The objective of this committee was to study the question of amending the constitution in
the light of past experiences and recommend the amendments. The 42nd amendment act which is also
called “Mini Constitution” which amended many articles and even the Preamble was a result of the
recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee. The 10 fundamental duties were also added as
per the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee
2. In which among the following parts of Constitution of India are enshrined the Fundamental
Duties?
[A] Part III
[B] Part IIIA
[C] Part IVA

[D] Part IV
Correct Answer: C [Part IVA]
Notes:
The 42nd amendment Act 1976 added a new part in the constitution part IVA. It incorporated the
fundamental duties by inserting a new article 51A below article 51. The objective of incorporating the
fundamental duties is to place before the country a code of conduct, which the citizens are expected to
follow.
3. Which among the following amendments added the Fundamental Duties as per
recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee?
[A] 38th
[B] 40th
[C] 42nd
[D] 44th
Correct Answer: C [42nd]
Notes:
Sardar Swaran Singh committee was constituted by Indira Gandhi soon after emergency was imposed in
the country. The objective of this committeeKantawas to study the
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com | question of amending the constitution in
the light of past experiences and recommend the amendments. The 42nd amendment act which is also
called “Mini Constitution” which amended many articles and even the Preamble was a result of the
recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee. The 10 fundamental duties were also added as
per the recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh committee.
4. Safeguarding the public Property , developing scientific temper and promoting communal
harmony come under which of the following ?
[B] DPSP
[C] Fundamental duties
Correct Answer: C [Fundamental duties]
5. Protection of wild life comes under which of the following in India?

[A] Fundamental Right
[B] Fundamental Duty
[C] DPSP
[D] Both 2 & 3
Correct Answer: D [Both 2 & 3]
6. The fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in which year ?
[A] 1970
[B] 1972
[C] 1975
[D] 1976
7. Which among the following is NOT a fundamental duty of a citizen?

[A] Respect for the constitution
[B] Respect for the National Flag
[C] Respect for the National Anthem
[D] Respect for the government
Correct Answer: D [Respect for the government]
8. When I respect the ideals and institutions of our constitution and respect national flag and
national anthem perform which of the following?
[A] Exercise my right to freedom
[B] Exercise my cultural and educational rights
[C] Exercise my right to constitutional remedies
[D] perform my fundamental duties
Correct Answer: D [perform my fundamental duties]
9. Which amendment bill made the number of Fundamental duties from 10 to 11 ?

[A] 42nd
[B] 44th
[C] 82nd
[D] 86th
Correct Answer: D [86th]
10. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended :

[A] The Constitution of State-Level Election Commissions.
[B] Panchayati-Raj reforms.
[C] Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
[D] Interlinking of himalayan and peninsular rivers.
Correct Answer: C [Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.]
Notes:
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about
fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal
emergency (1975-1977). The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on
fundamental duties in the Constitution. It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in
addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well. The Congress
Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.
9 – Amendment of the Constitution
1. The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution was added via the:
[A] 24th Amendment Act
[B] 52nd Amendment Act
[C] 61st Amendment Act
[D] 85th Amendment Act
Correct Answer: B [52nd Amendment Act]
Notes:
The law was added via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. The Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-
Defection Act, was included in the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the
provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
2. Via which of the following amendments, the term “Socialist” was inserted in Preamble of Indian
constitution?
[B] 42nd Amendment Act
[C] 49th Amendment Act
[D] 52nd Amendment Act
Correct Answer: B [42nd Amendment Act]
Notes:
By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), three new words were added to the preamble of the
constitution- socialist, secular and integrity.
3. Which among the following constitutional amendment act, reduced the age of voting from 21
years to 18 years?
[B] 60th Amendment Act
[C] 61st Amendment Act
[D] 62nd Amendment Act
Correct Answer: C [61st Amendment Act]
Notes:
In the year 1989 through 61st constitutional amendment act, reduced the age of voting from 21 years to
18 years
4. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution ofKanta

India, is related to which among the following?
[A] Townships
[B] Panchayats
[C] Municipalities
[D] District Boards
Correct Answer: B [Panchayats]
Notes:
73rd Constitutional Amendment 1992 provided the present shape to the Panchayati Raj System. Now the
Panchayati Raj Institutions in most of the States have been set up at three levels, village, intermediate
and district levels. But in smaller States having a population of less than 20 lakh, there are only two tiers,
the village level and the district level.
5. “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States”.
The above mandate has been enshrined in the Constitution of India, in which among the
following?
[A] Preamble
[B] Article 1
[C] Article 2
[D] Schedule 1
Notes:
Article 1(1) of the constitution of India says that “India, that is Bharat, shall be Union of States”.
Though the term “federation’ has been used in context with India, yet technically, Federation is not a
result of agreement between the units of which it is made up of. By the term “Union” we simply mean
that the units of Indian federation have no freedom to recede from it.
6. The 52nd amendment to the constitution of India is most closely related to __:
[A] Extension of Reservations in Government Jobs
[B] Provision for special status to Tripura
[C] Provisions for increasing age of eligibility for voting
[D] Provisions against political defections
Correct Answer: D [Provisions against political defections]
Notes:
7. In which among the following cases, the Supreme Court of India propounded the theory of basic

structure of the Constitution?

[A] Gopalan vs. State of Madras
[B] Golak Nath
[C] Keshvanand Bharati Case
[D] Minerva Mills
Correct Answer: C [Keshvanand Bharati Case]
Notes:
8. The amendment of the constitution can be initiated in which of the following?
[A] Loksabha only
[B] Rajyasabha only
[C] Any House of the Parliament
[D] Assembly of a state
Correct Answer: C [Any House of the Parliament]
Notes:
Part XX of the Constitution of India has only one article that is Article 368 that deals with the
amendment of the Constitution. As per thisKantaarticle, Parliament
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com | may add, amend or repeal any provision
of the constitution as per the procedure laid down for this purpose
A constitution amendment bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament. A bill for the purpose of
amendment of constitution can NOT be introduced in any state legislature.
9. In which year Dogri language was included in the eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?
[A] 2001
[B] 2002
[C] 2003
[D] 2004
Notes:
Via the 92nd Constitutional amendment 2003, 4 new languages – Bodo, Maithili, Dogri, and Santali –
were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
10. Town Planning Committees are constituted as per which among the following amendments of
Indian Constitution?
[A] 73rd
[B] 74th
[C] 75th
[D] 76th
11. In which among the following years, the Constitution of India was amended for the first time?
[A] 1950
[B] 1951
[C] 1952
[D] 1953
12. Which among the following amendments of the constitution of India fully secured the
constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd

[C] 3rd
[D] 4th
Correct Answer: A [1st]
13. Under article 368 the Indian Constitution provide methods of Amendment of different portions
of the constitution?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Notes:
amendment of the Constitution. As per this article, Parliament may add, amend or repeal any provision
of the constitution as per the procedure laid down for this purpose. However, in the Kesavanand Bharati
Case 1973, the Supreme Court has ruled that the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which
constitute the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
14. Which amendment of the constitution is related to reorganization of states on a linguistic

basis?
[A] 1st
[B] 7th
[C] 10th
[D] 15th
15. The territories of Goa, Daman & Diu were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by which
amendment bill?
[A] Tenth Amendment 1961
[B] Twelfth Amendment 1962
[C] Fourteenth Amendment 1962
[D] Fifteenth Amendment 1963
Correct Answer: B [Twelfth Amendment 1962]
16. What is the minimum number of the judges to decide an issue involving the interpretation of
the constitution or any presidential reference?
[A] 5
[B] 7
[C] 10
[D] 15
17. The ” Contingency Fund of India” was constituted by an act called ” Contingency Fund of India
Act ___________?
[A] 1950
[B] 1959
[C] 1960
[D] 1961

18. Citizens of India lost their Right to property from Fundamental Rights through which of the
following amendments?
[A] 23rd
[B] 42nd
[C] 44th
[D] 73rd
19. Free & Compulsory education to all children from 6-14 years age was made a fundamental
right by which of the following amendments?
[A] 82nd
[B] 83rd
[C] 84th
[D] 86th
20. Which among the following amendment acts is also called as a Mini constitution?
[A] 52nd Amendment Act 1985

[B] 42nd Amendment Act 1976
[C] 1st Amendment Act 1951
[D] 44thnd Amendment Act 1978
Correct Answer: B [42nd Amendment Act 1976]
Notes:
The 42nd Amendment of Indian Constitution is most comprehensive amendment to the Constitution
and carried out major changes. It is also known as “mini constitution”.
21. Who among the following reserves the right to initiate the Constitutional Amendment?
[A] Supreme Court of India
[B] Parliamnet of India
[C] President of India
[D] Union council of ministers
Correct Answer: B [Parliamnet of India]
Notes:
amendment of the Constitution. As per this article, Parliament may add, amend or repeal any provision
of the constitution as per the procedure laid down for this purpose. However, in the Kesavanand Bharati
Case 1973, the Supreme Court has ruled that the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which
constitute the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
22. Apart from giving constitutional recognition to the Municipalities which amendment lays
down that in every state two district Planning Committees shall be constituted ?
[A] 71st Amendment
[B] 72nd Amendment
[C] 73rd Amendment
[D] 74th Amendment
Correct Answer: D [74th Amendment]
23. Reservation of seats for scheduled tribes of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, & Arunanchal
Pradesh in Lok Sabha was a broad subject of which of the following Amendment Acts?
[A] 52nd
[B] 57th
[C] 61st
[D] 65th
24. Which among the following sentences is / are NOT correct ?

[A] The first amendment to the constitution was effected in 1951
[B] Originally Indian constitution had 22 parts, 395 articles and 8 schedules
[C] The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9th December 1946
[D] All are correct
25. Which among the following is not true regarding the 42nd Amendment act 1976 which is also
called a Mini Constitution of India?
[A] The amendments were mainly to give effect to the recommendation of Swaran Singh
Committee
[B] The words Liberty , Equality & Fraternity were added in the constitution
[C] Fundamental duties of the citizens added

[D] Directive principles of state policy were extended
Correct Answer: B [The words Liberty , Equality & Fraternity were added in the constitution]
Notes:
Secular, Socialist & Integrity were the terms added to the constitution
26. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment is related to Right to Education Bill ?
[A] 86th
[B] 90th
[C] 91st
[D] 97th
Correct Answer: A [86th]
27. Under which of the following amendments the power of judicial review of the Supreme Court
and High courts was restored , which was curtailed by Constitution (Forty-second Amendment)
Act, 1976?
[A] Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977
[B] Forty-fifth Amendment Act, 1980
[C] Forty-sixth Amendment Act, 1982
[D] Forty-eighth Amendment Act, 1984
Correct Answer: A [Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977]
28. Which among the following amendments provided for the deletion of article 314 inclusion of a
new article 312 A which confers powers on Parliament to vary or revoke by law the conditions of
Civil Services ?
[A] Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972
[B] Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
[C] Twenty-ninth Amendment Act, 1972
[D] Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971
Correct Answer: A [Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972]

29. Which article deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Article 356
[B] Article 360
[C] Article 365
[D] Article 368
30. Which among the following languages was included in the eighth schedule by Constitution
(21st) amendment Bill on 10 April 1967?
[A] Assamese
[B] Sindhi
[C] Gujarathi
[D] Konkani
Correct Answer: B [Sindhi]
31. Which of the following amendment bill has extended the nomination of Anglo-Indians to the
Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies by another 10 years?
[A] 107th Amendment Bill

[B] 108th Amendment Bill
[C] 109th Amendment Bill
[D] 106th Amendment Bill
Correct Answer: C [109th Amendment Bill]
32. The Constitution 100th Amendment Bill is related to which of the following?
[A] Representation of SC & ST in Assam Legislative assembly
[B] New Languages in 8th Schedule
[C] Constitution of National Judicial Commission
[D] Antidefection Law
Correct Answer: B [New Languages in 8th Schedule]
33. Which of the following amendment bill exempted the state of Bihar from the obligation of
having a tribal Welfare Minister?
[A] 92nd
[B] 93rd
[C] 94th
[D] 95th
34. The Constitution 73rd Amendment had initiated the process of political empowerment of the
Panchayats in the country. Since then, Panchayat elections have been regularly held in all the
States and Union Territories in India where Part IX of the Constitution is applicable. Which
among the
following states has been an exception to this ?
[A] Haryana
[B] Bihar
[C] Kerala
[D] Jharkhand

Correct Answer: D [Jharkhand]
35. Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2008 which was passed by the
parliament seeks to reserve what fraction of seats in the private schools for weaker sections of the
society?
[A] 10%
[B] 25%
[C] 30%
[D] 40%
Correct Answer: B [25%]

[A] The state legislative assemblies have no role to play in Constitution Amendments
[B] All provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the state
legislatures of majority of states
[C] Some provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the state
legislatures of majority of states Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Some provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the state
legislatures of all the states
Correct Answer: C [Some provisions of the constitution can be amended only after ratification by the
state legislatures of majority of states]
37. Which of the following were envisaged in the 74th Constitutional Amendment Bill?
[A] Constitution and Composition of a municipality
[B] Personnel system in a Municipality
[C] Relations between elected members (executive) of a municipality and bureaucracy
[D] All are correct
Correct Answer: A [Constitution and Composition of a municipality]
38. which of the following amendment acts of the constitution two articles were added in the
constitution to incorporate Administrative Tribunals?
[A] 42nd amendment act
[B] 44th amendment act
[C] 46th amendment act
[D] 49th amendment act
Correct Answer: A [42nd amendment act]
Notes:
The added articles were 323A & 323B
39. Which amendment of Indian constitution separated Daman & Diu from Goa?
[A] 50th
[B] 55th
[C] 57th
[D] 60th
40. Which among the following is also called as lengthiest amendment to Indian Constitution?
[A] 24th

[B] 30th
[C] 40th
[D] 42nd
Correct Answer: D [42nd]
41. The constitution 108th ( Amendment) Bill is related to which of the following?
[A] Inclusion of Gujjar Community of Rajasthan in the list of Scheduled Tribes
[B] Protection of the rights of the persons under arrest
[C] Providing One third reservation for women in Parliament and state legislative assemblies
[D] Providing protection to the consumers
Correct Answer: C [Providing One third reservation for women in Parliament and state legislative
assemblies]
42. Under which of the following articles rule of law embodied under Article 14 of Indian
constitution can be amended?
[A] Article 354
[B] Article 358 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] Article 360

[D] Article 368
43. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the purview of the procedure
of amendment as prescribed in Article 368?
[A] Article 54
[B] Article 154
[C] Article 169
[D] Article 214
44. By which of the following amendment acts of the constitution, article 31-C was inserted in the
constitution?
[A] 22nd
[B] 24th
[C] 25th
[D] 27th
45. Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Acts led to insertion of Article 21-A in
Part III of the Constitution that made free and compulsory education for all children between 6
and 14 years of age, a fundamental right?
[A] 76th Constitutional Amendment Act
[B] 80th Constitutional Amendment Act
[C] 84th Constitutional Amendment Act
[D] 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Correct Answer: D [86th Constitutional Amendment Act]
46. Which of the following languages was added to the first of the regional languages by the 21st
amendment?

[A] Oriya
[B] Kashmiri
[C] Sindhi
[D] Assamese
Correct Answer: C [Sindhi]
47. By which amendment bill , article 323A (Administrative tribunals) & Article 323B (Tribunals for
other matters) in a new part XIV A was inserted in the Indian Constitution?
[A] Constitution 40th Amendment Bill
[B] Constitution 41st Amendment Bill
[C] Constitution 42nd Amendment Bill
[D] Constitution 43rd Amendment Bill
Correct Answer: C [Constitution 42nd Amendment Bill]
48. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by 80th amendment
Bill?
[B] 270
[C] 272
[D] 274
49. Which among the following term correctly represents the Zonal Councils?
[A] Advisory Bodies
[B] Actually Working Bodies
[C] Law Making authorities
[D] Administrative Bodies
Correct Answer: A [Advisory Bodies]
50. which of the following Constitutional amendments has authorized the president to publish a
authoritative Hindi Translation of the Constitution of India?
[A] The Constitution (55th Amendment) Act
[B] The Constitution (56th Amendment) Act
[C] The Constitution (57th Amendment) Act
[D] The Constitution (58th Amendment) Act
Correct Answer: D [The Constitution (58th Amendment) Act]
Notes:
55th : statehood to Arunachal Pradesh,
56th: setting up new state of Goa and separation of Daman & Diu ,
57th : special arrangements with regard to reservation for scheduled tribes in NE states Arunachal,
Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya. Article 332 amended for this reason,
58th: authorizes president to publish an authoritative translation of constitution, 59th : empowered the
government to impose emergency in Punjab
51. By which amendment act 10th schedule was added in the Indian Constitution, giving special
status to Sikkim?


Correct Answer: A [35th Amendment Act]
52. Which among the following acts, incorporated 11th Fundamental duty in Indian Constitution?
[A] 42nd Amendment Act
Correct Answer: C [86th Amendment Act]
53. Which among the following article was inserted in the Indian Constitution by 42nd
amendment 1976, in purview of India being a signatory of Stockholm Conference of 1972?
[A] Article 45
[B] Article 47
[C] Article 47 A
[D] Article 48 A
Correct Answer: D [Article 48 A]
54. The Recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee led to which of the following
constitutional Amendments?
[A] 72nd Amendment
[B] 73rd Amendment
[C] 74th Amendment
[D] 75th Amendment
Correct Answer: B [73rd Amendment]
55. Which among the following constitutional amendment bills is known for establishment of
administrative tribunals?
[A] 41st amendment act
[B] 42nd amendment act
[C] 61st amendment act
[D] 69th amendment act
Correct Answer: B [42nd amendment act]
56. Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act ?
[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Three Tier System
[C] State Election Commission
[D] State Planning Commission
Correct Answer: D [State Planning Commission]
57. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Bill grant citizens a fundamental right to
form cooperative societies?
[A] 110th
[B] 111th
[C] 112th
[D] 113th
58. The various Amendments of Citizenship Act in 1986 have resulted in the following:
1. Dual Citizenship
2. Voting right at the age of 18 yrs
3. Difficulty in acquiring citizenship by refugees of Sri Lanka, Bangladesh etc.
Which among the above is / are correct?”
[A] 1 & 3
[B] 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: C [Only 3]
Notes:
The first thing we have to note that constitution of India has provided for a single citizenship for the
whole country. Despite of having concepts such as OCI and PIO , which have been merged now, there is
NO Dual Citizenship in India. The persons who are in these categories cannot exercise voting rights.
This means that we can eliminate option 1. The voting rights option can be eliminated because voting is
our constitutional right and the age 18 yearsKantareplaced the 21| years in article 326 by Constitution (Sixty-
first Amendment) Act, 1988. The 3rd option is correct and shows the purpose of the act.
59. There is a prescribed procedure for the amendment of the provisions of the Indian
Constitution. This feature has been borrowed from the Constitution of :
[A] Weimer Republic of Germany
[B] South Africa
[C] Ireland
[D] Canada
Correct Answer: B [South Africa]
60. Which of the following parts/ provisions of the Indian Constitution cannot be amended :
[A] Preamble to the Constitution
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Judicial Review
Correct Answer: D [Judicial Review]
Notes:
Judicial Review forms the part of the basic structure of the Constitution which cannot be altered by the
amendment procedure.
61. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has to be amended to provide for
the formation of a new State ?
[A] First Schedule
[B] Second Schedule
[C] Third Schedule
[D] Ninth Schedule
Correct Answer: A [First Schedule]
62. Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was designated
as National Capital Territory (NCT)?
[A] 63rd Amendment Act


Correct Answer: B [69th Amendment Act]
10 – System of Government in India

1. A statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India has to be placed
before parliament (known as Budget ) for every financial year (April 1 to march 31) . Which article
says this?
[A] Article 110
[B] Article 111
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 113
2. Within their respective spheres, the union and the state legislatures are made supreme and they
should not encroach on the sphere reserved for other. This concept is known as which of the
following ? Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[A] Doctrine of colorable legislation

[B] Doctrine of pith and substance
[C] Doctrine of double effect
Correct Answer: B [Doctrine of pith and substance]
3. What is the rank of Union Cabinet Secretary in the table of Precedence in India?
[A] 5th
[B] 9th
[C] 11th
[D] 15th
4. Which among the following is incorrect about Cabinet system?

[A] The proceedings of the cabinet are kept secret
[B] The Prime Minister presides the cabinet meeting
[C] Members of the cabinet are chosen by the prime minister
[D] Inner cabinet has been stipulated by our constitution
Correct Answer: D [Inner cabinet has been stipulated by our constitution]
5. Creation of a very strong centre is a ____?

[A] Federal feature
[B] Non-federal feature
[C] Quasifedral feature
[D] National feature
Correct Answer: A [Federal feature]
6. Which among the following regularly meets as a body to discharge government functions?
[A] State Ministers
[C] Cabinet
[D] Parliament
Correct Answer: C [Cabinet]
7. India borrowed the idea of the concurrent list from the constitution of which of the following
countries?
[A] Australia
[B] UK
[C] USA
[D] France
Correct Answer: A [Australia]
8. Which of the following article deals with annual Financial Statement (Budget)?
[A] Article 108
[B] Article 110
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 115
9. Which of the present ministry of Government of India was formerly Ministry of Welfare ?
[A] Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
[B] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
[C] Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
[D] Ministry of Labor and Employment
Correct Answer: B [Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment]
10. Article 13 of Indian constitution uses the words “to the extent of such inconsistency be void”
Which of the following doctrines is coherent to this ?
[A] Doctrine of Eclipse
[B] Doctrine of Waiver
[C] Doctrine of Severability
[D] Doctrine of Lapse
Correct Answer: C [Doctrine of Severability]
11. Why the Indian constitution called as Fundamental law of the land?
[A] Because Preamble indicates the source from which constitution comes that is people of India
[B] Because Constitution envisages the fundamental rights
[C] Because Constitution of India declares great rights and freedoms to all citizens of India
[D] Because the government organs owe their origin to the constitution of India and derive their
authority from & discharge their responsibilities within the framework of the constitution
Correct Answer: D [Because the government organs owe their origin to the constitution of India and
derive their authority from & discharge their responsibilities within the framework of the constitution]
12. Which among the following does not come under the jurisdiction of central Government?
[A] Land Revenue
[B] Personal Income Tax
[C] Corporate Income Tax
[D] Custom duty
Correct Answer: A [Land Revenue]

13. The Indian federalism is founded on a theory of ùnequal federalism’ under which all States are
not equal and many enjoy a special status. Under which of the following articles Nagaland Enjoys
a special status?
[A] Article 371 A
[B] Article 371 B
[C] Article 371 C
[D] Article 371 D
Correct Answer: A [Article 371 A]
14. Subject of Universities present in which of the following list ?

[A] State List
[B] Union List
[C] Concurrent List
[D] Residuary list
Correct Answer: A [State List]
15. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Price Control – Concurrent List

[B] Taxes on Lands & Buildings- State List
[C] Taxes on Income and agricultural Income – Concurrent List
[D] Audit of the accounts of Union and states – Union List
Correct Answer: C [Taxes on Income and agricultural Income – Concurrent List]
Notes:
Taxes on Income other than agriculture is in Union List . Taxes on agricultural income is in state list
16. Which among the following in India have been referred to as “Glorified Municipalities” by
critics?
[A] Nagar Nighams
[B] States
[C] Union Territories
[D] Panchayats
Correct Answer: B [States]
17. The salaries and allowances of the Governor of Indian state are charged from the____?
[A] Consolidated Fund of the State
[B] Consolidated Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] Contingency Fund of India
Correct Answer: A [Consolidated Fund of the State]
18. Which of the following Government gets the stamp duty collected on promissory notes?
[A] State Government 100%
[B] Central Government 100 %
[C] State Government 50% and Central Government 50%
[D] State Government 25% and Central Government 75%
Correct Answer: A [State Government 100%]
19. Which among the following is an essential feature of a Unitary Government ?

[A] Written Constitution

[B] Independence of Judiciary
[C] Double Citizenship
Correct Answer: D [None of the above]
20. Economic Planning comes under which of the following lists ?

[A] Union List
[B] Concurrent list
[C] State List
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: B [Concurrent list]
21. Which of the following are among the taxes levied exclusively by the Central Government and
are mentioned in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1.Corporation Tax
2.Taxes on advertisement in the newspapersKanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
3.Taxes on Agricultural income

4.Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity
[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C [1 and 2]
Notes:
Taxes on Agricultural income and Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity are levied by the State
Governments.
11 – Centre State and Inter-State Relations
1. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State
relations?
[A] 1980
[B] 1983
[C] 1987
[D] 1992
Correct Answer: B [ 1983 ]
Notes:
Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government to examine the relationship
and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within
the framework of Constitution of India. The Commission was so named as it was headed by Justice
Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The other two members of the
committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR Sen.
2. Constitution of India guarantees which of the following to the states of India?
[A] Territorial Integrity
[B] Sovereignty
[C] Right to secede from Union
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: D [ None of them ]
Notes:
The Constitution of India does not guarantee any of the above to the states.
3. The Sarkaria commission is related to which of the following?
[A] Centre and State Relations
[B] Banking & Financial Sector
[C] Elections Reforms
[D] Freedom of Press In India
Correct Answer: A [ Centre and State Relations ]
Notes:
Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria
Commission’s charter was to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central
governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India. The
Commission was so named as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the
Supreme Court of India. The other two members of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR
Sen.
4. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the legislative powers between the Union
and states?
[A] 6th schedule Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] 7th schedule

[C] 8th schedule
[D] 9th schedule
Correct Answer: B [7th schedule]
5. In case of a conflict between directive principles and fundamental rights, which shall prevail?
[B] DPSP
[C] supreme court will decide
Correct Answer: A [Fundamental rights]
6. For which of the following purpose, Rajamanar Committee was constituted ?

[A] Industrial Licensing
[B] Direct taxes
[C] Centre State Fiscal Relations
[D] InDirect taxes
Correct Answer: C [Centre State Fiscal Relations]
Notes:
A Centre-State Relations Inquiry Committee was set up by the then DMK Government of Tamil Nadu on
2nd September, 1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamanar to consider the entire question
regarding relationship that should subsist between the Centre and the States in a federal set up.
7. Economic and social planning comes under which of the following?
[A] Union List
[B] State List
[C] Concurrent List
Correct Answer: C [Concurrent List]
8. Foreign Jurisdiction comes under which of the following ?

[A] Union List

[B] State list

[C] Concurrent list
Correct Answer: A [Union List]
9. Who among the following can establish an Inter-State Council?

[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Prime minister
[D] Parliament
Correct Answer: A [President]
Notes:
Inter State council is a constitutional body set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the
Constitution of India by a Presidential Orde
10. In which of the following situations a President can establish a Inter -State Council?
[A] During an emergency
[B] When council of Ministers recommends him / her to do so
[C] When parliament passes a law
[D] When it appears to him / her that it would be serving the public interest
Correct Answer: D [When it appears to him / her that it would be serving the public interest]
Notes:
Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides If at any time it appears to the President that the public
interest would be served by the establishment of a Inter State Council
11. Based on the recommendations of which of the following committee/ commissions, Inter-State
Council has been set up on 28th May 1990 under article 263 of the Constitution for co-ordination
of Inter-State matters?
[A] Sarkaria commission
[B] Khosla Commission
[C] Mukherjee Commission
[D] Kapur Commission
Correct Answer: A [Sarkaria commission]
12. Who among the following has been given rights to legislate on residuary subjects?
[A] State government
[B] Central government
[C] both central and state governments
[D] President
Correct Answer: B [Central government ]
Notes:
Matters which are not included in any of the three lists (Union, State, Concurrent) are known as
residuary subjects
13. In the wake of the sarkaria commission report, which state suggested the abolition of the office
of the governor?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Tamilnadu
[D] Kerala
Correct Answer: B [Andhra Pradesh]
14. How many states are part of the North eastern Council ?
[A] 5
[B] 6
[C] 7
[D] 8
15. In which of the following months Quami Ekta Week or National Integration Week is celebrated
every year ?
[A] October
[B] November
[C] December
[D] January
Correct Answer: B [November]
Notes:
Quami Ekta Week is observed from November 19-25 every year
16. Who among the following was appointed head of the new commission established in 2007 to
reexamine centre-state relations?
[A] Justice Markandey Katju
[B] Justice R.M.Lodha
[C] Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi
[D] Justice K Jagannatha Shetty
Correct Answer: C [Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi]
17. Which among the following is in concurrent list ?

[A] Bankruptcy and insolvency
[B] estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land
[C] Production, supply and distribution of goods,
[D] Foreign Loans
Correct Answer: A [Bankruptcy and insolvency]
18. An state in India can borrow from the market in following conditions:
[A] At its own discretion
[B] through centre
[C] with the consent of centre
[D] under no circumstances
Correct Answer: C [with the consent of centre]
12 – Emergency Provisions
1. The Emergency Provisions of Indian Constitution have been borrowed from:
[A] Germany
[B] Japan
[C] USSR
[D] U.S.A
Correct Answer: A [Germany]

Notes:
The Emergency Provisions of the Indian Constitution have been borrowed from Germany. The part 18
of Indian constitution deals with the emergency provisions. Under the emergency provisions, if the
President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the
territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by
Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the
territory thereof as may be specified in the Proclamation.
2. How many types of emergencies are there in Constitution of India?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Notes:
The part 18 of Indian constitution deals with the emergency provisions. Three types of emergencies are
defined in the constitution-National emergency, state emergency and financial emergency
3. President can proclaim a state of Financial emergency under which among the following
articles?
[A] Article 350
[B] Article 352
[C] Article 356
[D] Article 360
4. Which among the following articles gives the power to the central government to take pre-
emptive action to protect any state against external aggression & internal disturbances?
[A] Article 355
[B] Article 356
[C] Article 358
[D] Article 360
5. Which among the following feature of Constitution of India is derived from Weimer
Constitution (of Germany)?
[A] Due Procedure of Law
[B] Procedure Established by Law
[C] Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency
[D] Right to Property as Legal right
Correct Answer: C [Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency]
6. Which among the following is true about duration of an Emergency under Article 356 and 352?
[A] Maximum duration under Article 356 can be of three years while under Article 352 it may
continue indefinitely
[B] Maximum duration under Article 352 can be of three years while under Article 356 it may
continue indefinitely
[C] Maximum duration under Article 356 as well as Article 352 , is three years
Correct Answer: A [Maximum duration under Article 356 can be of three years while under Article 352 it

may continue indefinitely]

Notes:
Article 352: Prior to 44th Amendment Bill 1978, a proclamation of emergency under article 352 could
remain in force in the first instance for 2 months. However once approved by the parliament the
emergency could remain in force indefinitely. Now, the 44th amendment has cut this power of the
executive down.
After the 44th amendment, a proclamation of emergency may remain in force in the first instance for
one month. Such Proclamation, if approved by the parliament shall remain in force for a period of 6
months (unless revoked earlier) . For further continuance approval would be required from the
parliament for every 6 months. So on approval of the parliament and not on the discretion of the
executive the emergency may continue for a longer time.
7. Which among the following article deals with the suspension of provisions of article 19 during
emergencies. ?
[A] 353
[B] 355
[C] 356
[D] 358
Correct Answer: D [358] Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
8. What kind of emergency in India has been imposed for maximum times?
[A] National Emergency
[B] Financial Emergency
[C] Constitutional Emergency
[D] Political Emergency
Correct Answer: C [Constitutional Emergency]
9. The following years a national emergency has been proclaimed so far ?

[A] 1961,1972,1975
[B] 1962,1975,1977
[C] 1962,1972,1975
[D] 1962,1971,1975
Correct Answer: D [1962,1971,1975]
10. As per the article 358, when the proclamation of emergency is made by the President under
article 352, the freedoms guaranteed in which of the following articles are automatically
suspended?
[A] Article 14
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 18
[D] Article 19
11. Which of the following constitutions interalia influenced the “emergency provisions’ in the
Indian Constitution?
[A] Constitution of Canada
[B] Constitution of Germany
[C] Constitution of Ireland
[D] Constitution of USA
Correct Answer: B [Constitution of Germany]

12. The Third proclamation of emergency under Article 352 was made by President of India on
which among the following grounds ?
[A] External Aggression
[B] Internal Disturbance
[C] Financial Instability
[D] Political Instability
Correct Answer: B [Internal Disturbance]
Notes:
Article 352 has been used for three times so far as follows:
1. Between 26 October 1962 to 10 January 1968 during the India-China war — “the security of India”
having been declared “threatened by external aggression”.
2. Between 3 December 1971 to 21 March 1977 originally proclaimed during the Indo Pakistan war, and
later extended along with the third proclamation — “the security of India” having been declared
“threatened by external aggression”.
3. Between 25 June 1975 to 21 March 1977 under circumstances of political instability under Indira
Gandhi’s prime ministership — “the security of India” having been declared “threatened by internal
disturbances”.
13. President can proclaim National Emergency under Article
Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com | 352 in the entire country or in any
part of it, on the grounds of :
[A] External Aggression
[B] Armed Rebellion
[C] Internal Disturbance
[D] Both [1] and [2]
Correct Answer: D [Both [1] and [2]]
Notes:
The term ‘armed rebellion’ did not exist in the original constitution but was inserted by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) replacing the
original term ‘internal disturbance.
13 – Union Executive: President of India
1.
With reference to the scheduled of the Indian constitution, which of the following is / are correct matches?
1. Second Schedule – Emoluments of President, Vice President etc.
2. Third Schedule – Allocation of Seats in Rajya Sabha
3. Fourth Schedule – Various forms of oaths by holders of constitutional office
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: A [Only 1 & 2 ]
Notes:
Second Schedule
Second schedule lists the emoluments for holders of constitutional offices such as salaries of President,
Vice President, Ministers, Judges and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India etc.
Third Schedule
This schedule lists the various forms of oath for holders of various constitutional offices.
Fourth Schedule
Fourth schedule enumerates the allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to States or Union Territories.
2. How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?
[A] One

[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four
Correct Answer: B [ Two ]
Notes:
Apart from N Sanjiva Reddy First President Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected unopposed for the period
1950 to 1952; but he faced opposition in further elections.
3. The constitutional position of President of India is most closely similar to __:
[A] British Monarch
[B] US President
[C] Russian President
[D] British Prime Minister
Correct Answer: A [ British Monarch ]
Notes:
Constitutional position of Indian President is closely similar to British Monarch.
4. What is the minimum age for a candidate
Kanta to be elected| as President of India?
[A] 20 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years
Correct Answer: D [35 years]
Notes:
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years
5. A bill cannot become an act of parliament, unless and until_____?
[A] It is passed by Lok Sabha
[B] It is passed by Rajya Sabha
[C] It gets assent from President
[D] It is passed by Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer: C [It gets assent from President]
6. The minimum and maximum age for a candidate to contest elections for President of India’s
office?
[A] 25 years, 65 years
[B] 35 years, 65 years
[C] 35 years , no limit
[D] 25 years, no limit
Correct Answer: C [35 years , no limit]
Notes:
Article 58 of the constitution lays down the qualifications of a president in India. These qualifications
are:
He should be a citizen of India,
He must have completed the age of 35 years
He must be qualified to become a Lok Sabha member.
He should not hold any office of profit under Union or state government.
7. Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?
[A] Article 60
[B] Article 61
[C] Article 62
[D] Article 63
Notes:
As per Article 61, President of India can be impeached on ground of violation of the Constitution.
However what amounts to violation of the Constitution has not been defined. The process of
impeachment can begin in any of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. The charges for impeachment should be
signed by 1/4 members of the house in which the process begins and a notice of 14 days should be given
to the President. The impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds of the
total membership of the House {special majority}. One passed in that house, the bill reaches to another
house, which shall investigate the charges. President has right to appear and be represented in case of
such investigations. If other house also sustains those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill
by special majority and thus president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in
other house. Since it is a bill for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here
8. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?
[A] 6 months
[B] 7.5 months
[C] 8 months
[D] 10 months
Correct Answer: B [7.5 months]
Notes:
Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This
mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and
immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses). As maximum gap
between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months
and 6 weeks, which is roughly 7.5 months.
9. The Promulgation of an ordinance by a President is done when ___?
[A] President feels that ordinance should be promulgated (on discretion)
[B] When Supreme Court advises the President
[C] When Council of Ministers advises President
[D] When any house of the parliament passes a resolution
Correct Answer: C [When Council of Ministers advises President]
10. According to Indian Constitution ,the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be
filled with in
[A] 1 month
[B] 3 months
[C] 6 months
[D] 1 year
Correct Answer: C [6 months]
11. Initially, for how long presidential rule can be imposed in a state?
[A] 6 months
[B] 9 months
[C] 12 months
[D] 15 months

Correct Answer: A [6 months]

Notes:
If the president is satisfied on receipt of a report from the governor or otherwise that a situation has
arisen in which the Government in a state cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution, he / she is empowered to proclaim an emergency. The proclamation would have to be
approved by the Houses of the parliament in same manner as in case of a War Emergency.
However, even if Parliament has approved the proclamation, it will normally cease to operate 6 months
after the Parliamentary approval. The proclamation can be repeated if necessary so as to allow the
period of emergency to continue for maximum of one year. Every such resolution approving the
emergency has to be passed by each of the houses of Parliament by a majority of not less than two-thirds
of the members present and voting.
12. An Individual Minister can be removed by ______?
[A] Prime Minister
[C] Parliament
[D] President
Correct Answer: D [President]
13. Who among the following is the Supreme Commander of Indian armed forces ?
[A] President of India
[B] Vice President of India
[C] Prime Minister of India
[D] Defense Minister of India
Correct Answer: A [President of India]
Notes:
India’s president is head of the Indian state, first citizen of India and supreme commander of the Indian
armed forces.
14. For how many times, a person can become President of India?
[A] Once
[B] Twice
[C] Thrice
[D] No limit
Correct Answer: D [No limit]
Notes:
Article 57: Eligibility for re election
A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall, subject to the other provisions of this
Constitution, be eligible for reelection to that office
15. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President?
[A] 6 months
[B] 7.5 months
[C] 12 months
[D] 15 months
Correct Answer: B [7.5 months]
Notes:
Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This
mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and
immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses)
As maximum gap between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a
ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks;
16. The system of” Proportional Representation” is used in India to elect ?
[A] Prime minister

[B] Governor
[C] President
[D] Members of Parliament
Correct Answer: C [President]
17. A Governor of a state can be dismissed from his office by __________?

[A] State Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] Council of ministers
Notes:
Although the governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his
Office, yet this term is subject to pleasure of president. The “doctrine of pleasure” has always been used
to drop governors any time and thus, Governors have no security of tenure. Further, a governor can
resign from the office by addressing resignation to President
18. Which among the following is true about tenure of India’s President?
[A] Elected for 5 years but eligible for immediate re election and can serve for two terms.
[B] Elected for 5 years but eligible for immediate re election and can serve for any number of
terms
[C] Elected for 5 years and not eligible for re election
Correct Answer: B [Elected for 5 years but eligible for immediate re election and can serve for any
number of terms]
19. All union territories are under the President of India. This comes under which of the following
powers of President ?
[A] Executive and Administrative Powers
[B] Legislative Powers
[C] Emergency Powers
[D] Judicial powers
Correct Answer: A [Executive and Administrative Powers]
20. Which among the following is not a legislative power of President of India?
[A] Appointment of 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 Anglo Indian members to Lok Sabha
[B] Assent or Withhold assent to any bill passed by the parliament
[C] Sanction given to introduction of money Bills
Correct Answer: C [Sanction given to introduction of money Bills]
Notes:
Sanction given to introduction of money Bills comes under financial powers
21. In case a dispute arise regarding the election of President of India, it is referred to the _____?
[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Attorney General
[D] Solicitor general

Correct Answer: B [Supreme Court]
22. Which of the following statement regarding the Financial Powers of President of India is
wrong?
[A] No Money bill can be introduced without the prior consent of President
[B] President prepares the budget
[C] President appoints the finance commission every five year
Correct Answer: B [President prepares the budget]
23. There shall be a President of India” which article says this?

[A] Article 52
[B] Article 53
[C] Article 54
[D] Article 55
24. Who among the following is required to cause to be laid before both houses of parliament in
respect of each year financial year a statement of estimated receipts & expenditures of the
government?
[A] Finance minister
[B] Prime minister
[C] President
[D] Vice president
25. The executive power of the Indian Union lies with which of the following ?
[A] Prime Minister
[C] President
[D] Speaker
26. Which among the following is not a correct requisite qualification for a Presidential candidate
?
[A] Not less than 35 years of Age
[B] Must not hold the office of profit
[C] Must have eligibility to become a member of Lok Sabha
[D] Must be a member of either house of the parliament
Correct Answer: D [Must be a member of either house of the parliament]
27. The following are the members of the electoral college electing the president __
[A] Elected members of Rajya Sabha
[B] Elected members of Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
[C] Elected members of the Rajya Sabha , Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
[D] Elected members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha , state assemblies and assemblies of Union
Territories
Correct Answer: C [Elected members of the Rajya Sabha , Lok Sabha and State Assemblies]
28. If there is a dispute in the presidential election it will be referred whom among the following?
[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Parliament
[D] Vice President
29. How many Former Presidents have been awarded “Bharat Ratna ” till now?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 6
[D] 5
Notes:
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Rajendra Prasad, Zakir Hussain, A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, Dr. V V Giri, Pranab
Mukherjee.
30. In India whose among the following the salary is excepted from Income Tax?
[A] President
[B] Prime minister
[C] All Ministers
[D] Speaker of Lok Sabha
31. The contingency fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which among the following
authorities?
[A] Comptroller and Auditor General of India
[B] President of India
[C] Parliament of India
[D] Prime Minister of India
Correct Answer: B [President of India]
Notes:
Please note that contingency funds of State Governments are at disposal of Governor.
32. Who among the following has right to declare any area as a Scheduled Area?
[A] Governor of the respective state
[D] State legislature
33. In whose name all the contracts of Government of India are concluded?
[A] Prime miniter of India
[C] Finance Minister of India
[D] Finance Secretary of India
34. Who among the following past presidents of India never served as a Chief Minister of a state in
India?
[A] Giani Jail Singh
[B] Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
[C] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[D] Dr, Zakir Hussain
Correct Answer: D [Dr, Zakir Hussain]
35. Who among the following presidents of India was the first Chief Minister of Modern states in
India?
[A] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[B] Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
[C] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[D] Dr. BD Jatti
Correct Answer: B [Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy]
Notes:
Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh when the state was formed in
1956 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
36. Which among the following presidents of India represented India in UNESCO once in his
lifetime?
[A] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[C] Dr. S Radhakrishnan
[D] Giani Jail Singh
Correct Answer: C [Dr. S Radhakrishnan]

[A] Both Governor and President occupy constitutional position
[B] Only Governor occupies constitutional position
[C] Only President occupied constitutional Position
[D] Neither President nor Governor occupy constitutional position
Correct Answer: A [Both Governor and President occupy constitutional position]
38. Constitution has given powers to the President and Governors regarding nomination of
members of Anglo Indian Community (in case the community does not get adequate
representation) in the Lok Sabha and State legislative Assembly respectively. Which among the
following statement is correct in this regard?
[A] President & Governor can appoint 2 members each
[B] President can appoint 2 members and Governor can appoint 1 member
[C] President & Governor can appoint 1 member each
[D] President can appoint 5 members and Governor can appoint 2 member
Correct Answer: B [President can appoint 2 members and Governor can appoint 1 member]
39. Which among the following is a correct statement?

[A] Only President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and a person punished
under Martial Law
[B] Both President & Governor can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and a person
punished under Martial Law

[C] President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and Governor can grant
pardon to a person punished under Martial Law
[D] Only President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and a person punished
under Martial Law, However Governor can grant pardon a person punished under martial law
Correct Answer: A [Only President can grant pardon to a person awarded death sentence and a person
punished under Martial Law]
40. Article 74, 75, 78 deal broadly with which of the following?
[A] Relationship between Prime Minister and president
[B] Relationship between Governor and Chief Ministers
[C] Size and nature of the council
[D] Composition of the cabinet
Correct Answer: A [Relationship between Prime Minister and president]
41. Which of the following presidents of India had shortest tenure?

[A] S Radhakrishanan
[B] Zakir Hussain Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] V. V Giri
[D] BD Jatti
Correct Answer: B [Zakir Hussain]
42. Which among the following is a correct statement regarding powers of President of India:
[A] the military powers of the president is subordinate to executive powers
[B] the executive powers of the president is subordinate to military powers
[C] the military powers and executive powers are insubordinate with regard to each other
[D] the executive powers are subordinate to diplomatic powers
Correct Answer: A [the military powers of the president is subordinate to executive powers]
43. Article 213 which embodies the ordinance making power of the governor of the state is very
similar to that of President embodies in which of the following articles?
[A] Article 111
[B] Article 115
[C] Article 121
[D] Article 123
44. Which among the following is not a privilege of the president under article 361 of the
constitution?
[A] The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and it shall be exercised by
him (or her) in accordance with the constitution
[B] the president shall not be answerable to the any court for exercise and performances of the
powers and duties of his/ her office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the
exercise of those powers and duties
[C] No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted and continued against the president in
any court during the term in the office
[D] No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the president shall be issued from any court
Correct Answer: A [The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and it shall be
exercised by him (or her) in accordance with the constitution]
Notes:
it is not a privilege of the president under article 361 , but a power as per Article 53
45. Which article of the constitution of India lays down the procedure for impeachment of the
President?
[A] Article 60
[B] Article 61
[C] Article 65
[D] Article 69
46. Which of the following president of India was only person to be elected unopposed?
[A] 4th President
[B] 5th President
[C] 6th President
[D] 7th President
Correct Answer: C [6th President] Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Notes:
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only person to be elected unopposed. He was sixth president of India.
47. Who among the following was the main rival candidate against India’s first President Dr.
Rajendra Prasad?
[A] NN Das
[B] K T Shah
[C] CH Ram
[D] S Radhakrishnan
Correct Answer: B [K T Shah]
48. The President of India appoints the Chairman and Members of the National Human Rights
Commission on whose recommendations?
[A] Prime Minister of India
[B] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[C] Home Minister
[D] All of the Above
Correct Answer: D [All of the Above]
Notes:
The Chairperson and Members of the Commission are appointed by the President on the basis of
recommendations of a Committee comprising the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of Lok
Sabha, the Home Minister, the leaders of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and the
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha as Members
49. Which of the following presidents of India headed the Indian Society of Labour Economics
(ISLE) founded in 1957 ?
[A] Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
[B] V. V. Giri
[C] Zakir Hussain
[D] BD Jatti
Correct Answer: B [V. V. Giri]
50. Which among the following appointments made by the president of India, have been the most

controversial issue ever since our constitution came into force?

[A] Appointment of Prime Ministers
[B] Appointment of the Governors of States
[C] Appointment of the Judges of the High Courts
[D] Appointment of the Attorney General of India
Correct Answer: C [Appointment of the Judges of the High Courts]
51. In which of the following conditions, the President of India declares a Financial Emergency?
[A] If he / she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability
[B] In order to meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting Government Business
[C] If the Council of Minister gets a report from the CAG and recommends so
[D] If majority of the states recommend so
Correct Answer: A [If he / she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability]
52. Who among the following can pardon the Capital Punishment?
[A] President, Governor and Administrator of Union Territory
[B] President & Governor Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] President & Administrator of Union Territory

[D] Only President
Correct Answer: D [Only President]
53. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India entrusts the President of India to
grant pardons?
[A] Article 71
[B] Article 72
[C] Article 73
[D] Article 74
54. As per which among the following articles, President of India has power to grant pardons,
reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of
any person convicted of any offence?
[A] Article 70
[B] Article 72
[C] Article 74
[D] Article 76
55. The Constitution of India provides that Trade, Commerce and Intercourse throughout the
territory of Union of India is free. However, despite this provision, a state in India can make law
for imposing taxes on imports of goods from other states in India, provided the goods produced in
other states are also taxes in that state in the same manner. Who decides whether the states can
make such law or not?
[A] The State which is imposing law itself
[B] The States which have interests in the taxes to be imposed
[D] President of India

Correct Answer: D [President of India]

Notes:
Constitution of India says that Trade, Commerce and Intercourse throughout the territory of Union of
India is free, but this is subject to some other provisions of the same part. Article 301 says that
parliament may impose restriction in some parts of the territory in the interest of general public. For
example a famine struck state may lead the parliament to enact some discriminatory law also, if that
discrimination is in favor of the public interests. The states, as per article 303 of the constitution are
allowed to impose taxes on goods imported from the other states provided they goods produced in other
states are also taxes in that state in the same manner. But who will decide, whether the states can enact
such law or not? This is to be decided by the President. Thus, if we consider that Rajasthan wants to
impose a tax on a good that is imported from Gujarat, the bill of such kind has necessarily get a sanction
from President. President may hold his/ her sanction after looking in details that the said bill is in the
public interest.
56. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for:
[A] The Ordinance Making power of the President
[B] Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
[C] Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir
[D] An Election Commission to hold free and fair elections in the country.
Correct Answer: A [The Ordinance Making power of the President]
14 – Union Executive: Vice-President of India

1. The Vice-President of India is:
[A] nominated by the President
[B] elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
[C] elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of
Parliament
Correct Answer: C [elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both
Houses of Parliament]
2. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for a candidate to be elected
as Vice president of India?
[A] 18 years
[B] 25 years
[C] 30 years
[D] 35 years
Notes:
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as Vice President of India- 35 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLA- 25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Lok Sabha-25 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as member of Rajya Sabha-30 years
Minimum age for a candidate to be elected as MLC- 30 years
3. What is the minimum years of age for candidate for office of the vice president?
[A] 25
[B] 30
[C] 35
[D] 38
Notes:
As per article 66, the candidate contesting for election of Vice-President of India should fulfill the below
conditions:
He must be a citizen of India
He must have completed age of 35 years
He cannot hold an office for profit.
He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha.
4. The Vice President is elected by an electoral college comprising votes of __________?
[A] Only members of Parliament
[B] Members of Parliament & members of Legislative Assemblies
[C] Members of Parliament, Members of Legislative assemblies and Members of legislative
councils
[D] Members of Rajya Sabha only
Correct Answer: A [Only members of Parliament]
Notes:
Like Presidential election, election of vice president is held via system of proportional representation by
means of the single transferable vote {indirect election}. However, Vice President is elected by Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha MPs. The MLAs or MLCs have no role to play here. This sounds to be an anomaly but it
is justified by giving logic that Vice President works as president of the whole country in rare occasions
when President is not available. In normal circumstances, his work is to preside the Rajya Sabha.
5. A vice president is elected by members of electoral collage consisting of the members of

__________?
[A] Rajya Sabha Only
[B] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha Only
[C] Lok Sabha , Rajya Sabha & state legislatures
[D] Lok Sabha , Rajya Sabha & state legislatures and UTs with legislatures
Correct Answer: B [Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha Only]
6. When vice president acts as the president , which among the following is/ are true?
[A] He/ She remains the chairman of the Rajya Sabha and performs the duties of the chairman of
Rajya Sabha
[B] He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker performs the duty of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer: B [He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha]
7. Who among the following held the office of Vice President of India for two consecutive terms?
[A] Dr. R Venkatramanan
[B] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[C] Dr. VV Giri
[D] Dr. S Radhakrishnan
Correct Answer: D [Dr. S Radhakrishnan]
8. Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States?
[A] Governor
[B] Chief Minister
[C] President
[D] Vice President
Correct Answer: D [Vice President]

9. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of Indian Council of World Affairs ?
[A] Foreign Minister
[B] President
[C] Vice President
[D] Prime Minister
Correct Answer: C [Vice President]
15 – Union Executive: Prime Minister and Union Council of Ministers

1. In which of the following circumstances, the prime minister of India cannot participate in
voting on a No-confidence motion against his / her government?
[A] He / She leads a coalition government
[B] He / she has minority in Rajya Sabha
[C] He / she is a member of Rajya Sabha
[D] He / she is forbidden by speaker of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: C [He / she is a member of Rajya Sabha ]
Notes:
If PM is a member of Rajya Sabha, he can participate in procedures of both houses but can vote only in
Rajya Sabha. Vote of No Confidence can be moved only in Lok Sabha so PM will not vote in it.
2. Which of the following is / are parts of Union Executive?
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Correct Answer: B [Only 1 & 2 ]
Notes:
President, the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers collectively constitute the Union Executive.
3. Who among the following heads the Central government in India?
[A] Prime minister
[B] Chief Minister
[C] President
[D] Vice-President
Correct Answer: A [Prime minister]
4. First Indian Prime Minister to resign from Office?

[A] Atal Bihari Vajpayee
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] H.D.Deve Gowda
[D] P.V.Narasimha Rao
Correct Answer: B [Morarji Desai]
5. A bill initiated by which among the following is a Government Bill?

[A] Member of Parliament from Ruling Party / Coalition

[B] Minister
[C] Member of parliament from opposition party
[D] Either 1 or 2
Correct Answer: B [Minister]
Notes:
If a bill is introduced in the house by a minister, it is called government bill or public bill. If the bill is
introduced by any other member than a minister, it is called private member bill. A private member bill
can be introduced by both ruling party and opposition MPs.
6. A minister in Union Government is individually responsible to ___?
[A] Council of Ministers
[B] Prime Minister
[C] President
[D] Parliament
7. Who among the following decides the Foreign Policy of India?

[A] President Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Prime minister

[C] Parliament
Correct Answer: D [Council of ministers]
8. Which among the following sentence is incorrect ?

[A] The members of the council of ministers are individually responsible to the President
[B] The members of councils of Ministers are collectively responsible to the parliament
[C] A vote of no confidence against any minister is taken as a vote of no-confidence against entire
council of Ministers
[D] All are correct
9. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”. Which article
states this?
[A] 75(2)
[B] 75(1)
[C] 75(4)
[D] 75(3)
Correct Answer: D [75(3)]
Notes:
Article 75: Other provisions as to Ministers
(1) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by
the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
(2) The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President
(3) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People
(4) Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the oaths of office and
of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule
(5) A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of
Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister
(6) The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time to time by law
determine and, until Parliament so determines, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule The Attorney
General for India

10. Who among the following works as chairman of Kendriya Hindi Samiti ?
[A] Minister of Culture, Government of India
[B] Prime Minister of India
[C] Vice President of India
[D] Minister of State for Official Languages
Correct Answer: B [Prime Minister of India]
11. In which of the following decade India saw, maximum number of Prime Ministers?
[A] 1961-70
[B] 1971-80
[C] 1981-90
[D] 1991-2000
Correct Answer: D [1991-2000]
12. Department of Border Management functions under which of the following ministries of
Government of India?
[A] Ministry of External Affairs Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Ministry of Defense

[C] Union Home Ministry
[D] Ministry of Commerce
Correct Answer: C [Union Home Ministry]
13. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which recommends the president
of India regarding appointments of Chairperson and members of the National Human Rights
Commission?
[A] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[B] Union Home Minister
[C] Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
[D] Union Law Minister
Correct Answer: D [Union Law Minister]
Notes:
The appointment committee consists of Prime Minister as Chairperson, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Home
Minister, leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, leader of opposition in Rajya Sabha & Deputy chairman of
Rajya Sabha.
14. Who among the following is the only Finance Minister of India who is known to have tabled the
Union budget twice on his birthday?
[A] T. T. Krishnamachari
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] Yashwantrao Chavan
[D] Pranab Mukherjee
15. Who among the following former Prime Ministers of India ,never served as Chief minister of
Indian state?
[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chandra Shekhar
[C] V P Singh

[D] P V Narsimharao
Correct Answer: B [Chandra Shekhar]
16. Who among the following is considered to be the custodian of the nation’s Finances?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Comptroller & Governor General of India
[D] Reserve Bank of India
Correct Answer: B [Finance Minister]
17. 7, Race Course Road, the official residence of Indian Prime Minister is commonly known as
___?
[A] Anugraha
[B] Chitrakoot
[C] Panchavati
[D] PM Niwas
Correct Answer: C [Panchavati]
18. Who among the following heads the National Integration Council in India?
[A] President
[B] Vice president
[C] Prime Minister
[D] A retired Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Correct Answer: C [Prime Minister]
19. “Prime Minister’s 15 Point Programme” in India is related to which among the following
segments of society?
[A] BPL families
[B] Minorities
[C] Unemployed Poors
[D] Rural Old Age people
Correct Answer: B [Minorities]
20. The premises of India’s Finance Ministry are also known as ___?
[A] East Block
[B] West Block
[C] North Block
[D] South Block
Correct Answer: C [North Block]
21. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?
[A] It is a statutory body.
[B] It is a staff agency to the Prime Minister.
[C] It has been given the status of a department.
[D] It has no attached and subordinate office under it.
Correct Answer: A [It is a statutory body.]
Notes:
PMO is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.

22. Who among the following operates the National Disaster Response Fund which was
constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Union Minister for Home Affairs
[C] Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
[D] Union Minister for Environment and Forests
Correct Answer: B [Union Minister for Home Affairs]
23. The Department of Border Management is a department under which of the following Union
Ministries?
[A] Ministry of Defence
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of External Affairs
[D] Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Correct Answer: B [Ministry of Home Affairs]
16 – Union Executive: Cabinet Committees

1. Who among the following will head the National Council for Senior Citizens?
[A] Prime Minister of India
[B] Chairman of National Development Council
[C] Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog
[D] Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment
Correct Answer: D [Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment]
17 – Union Legislature: Parliament

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
[A] Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the eligible voters
[B] Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha
[C] The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[D] President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: D [President nominates four members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha]
Notes:
Fourth statement is incorrect. President nominates two members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok
Sabha, when it is felt that the community is not adequately represented.
2. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Rajya Sabha?
[A] Rajya Sabha is a permanent body
[B] It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952
[C] Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President
[D] One-third of its members retire every year
Correct Answer: D [One-third of its members retire every year]
Notes:
Fourth statement is incorrect because one-third of its members retire every two years. Rajya Sabha is a
permanent body. It was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952. Twelve of Rajya Sabha
members are nominated by the President.
3. For how long, A joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament may be convened to consider a bill
which was passed by one house and pending in another house?
[A] 3 Months
[B] 6 Months
[C] 9 Months
[D] 12 Months
Correct Answer: B [6 Months]
4. What is the maximum size & Minimum size of a Vidhan Sabha in Indian state, as outlined in the
Constitution of India?
[A] 500,50
[B] 400,40
[C] 500,60
[D] 450,50
Correct Answer: C [500,60]
Notes:
In any state assembly maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its
strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in case of
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and
Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively
5. On the pattern of which among theKanta following countries,
rao | kantarao401@gmail.com | the parliamentary system was
established in India by the Constitution of India?
[A] United States
[B] England
[C] Australia
[D] Canada
Correct Answer: B [England]
6. A no-confidence motion against the Union Government can be initiated in which among the
following ?
[A] ONLY Lok Sabha
[B] ONLY Rajya Sabha
[C] Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
[D] ONLY Lok Sabha with prior consent of President
Correct Answer: A [ONLY Lok Sabha]
Notes:
Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha and it remains in office till it enjoys
confidence of majority of the members in Lok Sabha. Thus, a motion of no-confidence is moved to
remove the council of ministers and thus oust the government from office.
Following are conditions of No-confidence motion:
No-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha {or state assembly as the case may be}. It is
not allowed in Rajya Sabha {or state legislative council}
It is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not individual ministers or private
members.
It needs support of at least 50 members when introduced in Lok Sabha.

7. In terms of Parliamentary terminology, What do we call a rule of legislative procedure under
which a further debate on a motion can be stopped?
[A] Closure
[B] Gullitone
[C] Expunction
[D] Recess

Correct Answer: A [Closure]

Notes:
Closure is one of the means by which a debate may be brought to an end by a majority decision of the
House, even though all Members wishing to speak have not done so.
Guillotine refers to putting by the Speaker of outstanding question or questions relating to the business
in hand on expiry of the time allotted for its discussion.
While closure is preceded by a motion, guillotine is not preceded by any motion. On the last of the
allotted days at the appointed time, the Speaker puts every question necessary to dispose of all the
outstanding matters in connection with the demands for grants. During budget, guillotine concludes the
discussion on demands for grants.
8. A Lok Sabha speaker addresses his/ her resignation to whom among the following?
[A] Deputy Speaker
[B] President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Law Ministry
Correct Answer: A [Deputy Speaker]
9. How many members can be nominated to Lok Sabha by President ?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Notes:
Article 331: Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in Lok Sabha: It says that President may appoint
two members from Anglo-Indian Community to is not represented adequately, notwithstanding
anything mentioned in Article 81 which deals with Composition of Lok Sabha
10. What is the maximum duration of the interval between two sessions of parliament?
[A] 30 days
[B] 50 days
[C] 6 months
[D] 12 months
Correct Answer: C [6 months]
Notes:
From time to time, the sessions of the parliament are called upon by president. According to
constitution, the maximum gap between two sessions cannot be more than six months. Thus, in each
year, there must be two sessions of parliament. However, there are usually three sessions viz. Budget
session (between February to May), Monsoon Session (between July to September) and Winter Session
(Between November to December).
11. Which among the following articles defines the Money Bill?
[A] Article 110
[B] Article 111
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 113
Notes:
Only those financial bills which contain provisions exclusively on matters listed in article 110 of the
constitution are called Money Bills

12. The Indian Constitution has adopted Parliamentary System of Constitution from which among
the following countries?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] Japan
[D] France
Correct Answer: B [UK]
13. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by President of India?
[A] 2
[B] 10
[C] 12
[D] 15
Notes:
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of parliament which represents the states and union territories. Its
membership is fixed to maximum 250 members of which 238 are elected by the representatives of states
and union territories while 12 members are nominated by President on account of their excellence in
literature, science, art or social service
14. The law created by a legislature is called ?
[A] Money Bill
[B] Legislation or statutory law
[C] Budget
Correct Answer: B [Legislation or statutory law]
15. Which among the following has the power to legislate on the matters which are neither in the
Union List, nor in the State list nor in the Concurrent list of the Constitution of India?
[A] Parliament
[B] State Legislatures
[C] Both State legislatures and Parliament
[D] Neither Parliament nor State legislature
Correct Answer: A [Parliament]
Notes:
The subjects which are not enlisted in Union/ State/ Concurrent List are called Residuary subjects. The
power to legislate on residuary subjects lies with the parliament.
16. A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a term which extends _____?
[A] 3 years
[B] 4 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 6 years
Notes:
Rajya Sabha has an indefinite term and not subject to dissolution (Article 83.1). The term of an Individual
Rajya Sabha member is 6 years and one third of its members retire every two years, in accordance with
the rules as prescribed by the parliament of India.
17. Approval of which among the following authorities alone would be sufficient to draw funds
from Consolidated Fund of India ?

[A] Only Parliament
[B] Only President
[C] Either Parliament or President
[D] Both Parliament and President
Correct Answer: A [Only Parliament]
18. How many members can be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
Respectively?
[A] 12 & 2
[B] 10 & 2
[C] 12 & 4
[D] 12 & 6
Correct Answer: A [12 & 2]
Notes:
The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are elected from states, 20 are
elected from Union Territories and 2 are nominated by President from Anglo-Indian community if the
president thinks that the community is not adequately represented in the house
Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community is provided by the Constitution as per article 331 and
NOT by article 81. Article 331 says that: Notwithstanding anything in article 81, the President may, if he
is of opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the People,
nominate not more than two members of that community to the House of the People
19. Each House of Parliament collectively and the Members individually, enjoy certain special
powers and privileges without which they cannot discharge their functions, efficiently and
effectively. These privileges have been provided by ___?
[A] Constitution of India
[B] Act of Parliament
[C] Rule book of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer: A [Constitution of India]
20. In which year Rajya Sabha was established?

[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1953
[D] 1954
21. Which among the following schedules of Constitution of India talks about the allocation of
seats in Rajya Sabha?
[A] 3rd
[B] 4th
[C] 5th
[D] 6th
22. What can be the maximum number of members of the Lok Sabha ?
[A] 545

[B] 550
[C] 552
[D] 560
Notes:
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament which represents people. Article 81 deals with the
Composition of the Lok Sabha. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are
elected from states, 20 are elected from Union Territories and 2 are nominated by President from Anglo-
Indian community if the president thinks that the community is not adequately represented in the
house.
23. Which among the following was the strength of Lok Sabha after India’s first general elections?
[A] 289
[B] 389
[C] 489
[D] 500
24. Which among the following is the basis of representation in Rajya Sabha for States?
[A] Area
[B] Population
[C] Both A & B
[D] Neither A nor B
Correct Answer: B [Population]
Notes:
Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha is listed in Fourth Schedule of the Constitution. The seats are allocated
to each state mainly on the basis of its population.
25. New All India services can be initiated in India only if the following makes a recommendation?
[A] President
[B] Rajya sabha
[C] Lok sabha
Correct Answer: B [Rajya sabha]
Notes:
As per the Constitution of India, a new All India service can be instituted with only on the initiative of
Rajya Sabha. Article 312 of the constitution says
“Notwithstanding anything in [Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI], if the Council of States has declared by
resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary
or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or
more all India services [(including an all-India judicial service)] common to the Union and the States, and,
subject to the other provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of
persons appointed, to any such service.”
26. The chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is nominated by which among the
following?
[A] President
[B] Lok Sabha Speaker
[C] Lok Sabha Secretary
[D] Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
Correct Answer: B [Lok Sabha Speaker]
Notes:

Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing parliamentary committees, which was first
established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 provisions. This committee examines
the manners and results of spending the public funds.
Public Accounts Committee has 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha while 7 from Rajya Sabha.
The members are “elected” by members of Parliament amongst themselves via a system of proportional
representation by means of single transferable vote; so that all parties get due representation in it.
Members are elected for a period of one year. A minister cannot be a member of PAC.
Chairman of PAC is appointed by Speaker from its members. The chairman used to be of ruling party till
mid 1960s, however, now the chairman of PAC is from opposition by convention.
27. First session of Loksabha was held in which among the following years?
[A] 1950
[B] 1951
[C] 1952
[D] 1953
28. What can be the maximum number of members of Rajya Sabha?

[B] 250
[C] 255
[D] 260
29. What fraction of Rajya Sabha members retire after every two years?
[A] 2/3
[B] 1/3
[C] 1/2
[D] 1/6
Correct Answer: B [1/3]
Notes:
Rajya Sabha has an indefinite term and not subject to dissolution (Article 83.1). The term of an Individual
Rajya Sabha member is 6 years and one third of its members retire every two years, in accordance with
the rules as prescribed by the parliament of India.
30. The Parliament of India is consisted of _______:

[A] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
[B] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President
[C] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President & Prime Minister
[D] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Council of Ministers
Correct Answer: B [Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President]
Notes:
India has a bicameral parliament made of President, Rajya Sabha (Upper House / Council of States) and
Lok Sabha (Lower House / House of People). While Rajya Sabha represents states and union territories,
Lok Sabha represents people of India.
31. Which among the following is true regarding the resignation of the speaker and deputy
speaker ?
[A] The Speaker may resign by writing to Deputy Speaker but Deputy Speaker may not resign by
writing to Speaker
[B] The Deputy Speaker may resign by writing to Speaker but Speaker may not resign by writing
to Deputy Speaker
[C] The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other
[D] The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing President
Correct Answer: C [The Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other]
32. Which among the following is known as Upper House?

[A] Loksabha
[B] Rajyasabha
[C] Legislative assembly
Correct Answer: B [Rajyasabha]
33. A bill becomes an act when __________?

[A] It is passed by any house
[B] It is passed by the original house after making amendments suggested by the other house
[C] It is passed by the original house after making suggested amendments by the other house and
the President given his / her assent to it Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: C [It is passed by the original house after making suggested amendments by the other
house and the President given his / her assent to it]
34. Regarding the “starred questions” asked during Question Hour of Parliament , which among
the following is true?
[A] Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and supplementary
questions may be asked on Minister’s reply
[B] Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and supplementary
questions may not be asked on Minister’s reply
[C] Written Answer is to be given by the minister after 10 days notice and no supplementary
question may be asked
Correct Answer: A [Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and
supplementary questions may be asked on Minister’s reply]
35. Which among the following is true about the sequence of Question hour and Zero Hour?
[A] The day’s business normally starts with Question hour and Zero Hour follows the Question
Hour
[B] The day’s business normally starts with Zero hour and Question Hour follows the Zero Hour
[C] The day’s business normally starts with Question hour or Zero Hour
Correct Answer: A [The day’s business normally starts with Question hour and Zero Hour follows the
Question Hour]
36. If a member absents himself from parliament for ____days without permission of the house ,
his / her seat may be declared vacant?
[A] 60 days
[B] 90 days
[C] 100 days
[D] 180 days

Correct Answer: A [60 days]
37. A government has to resign if the no confidence motion is passed in __________?

[A] Only Lok Sabha
[B] Only Rajya Sabha
[C] Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
[D] Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer: A [Only Lok Sabha]
38. In the parliament terminology, what is the meaning of “Closure”?

[A] end of session of parliament
[B] end of proceedings of a day
[C] end of debate on a motion
[D] starting of a session
Correct Answer: C [end of debate on a motion]
39. No amount from the “Consolidated Fund of| kantarao401@gmail.com

Kanta rao India” can| be withdrawn without the authorization
from _________?
[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] CAG
[D] Prime minister
Correct Answer: A [Parliament]
40. In case of a tie in the parliament , who among the following enjoys the right to cast the
deciding vote ?
[A] Speaker
[B] Deputy Speaker
[C] President
[D] Prime minister
Correct Answer: A [Speaker]
41. What can be the maximum strength of Lok Sabha in India ?

[A] 545
[B] 550
[C] 552
[D] 555
Notes:
The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 members of which 530 are elected from states, 20 are
elected from Union Territories and 2 are nominated by President from Anglo-Indian community if the
president thinks that the community is not adequately represented in the house.
42. In a Parliamentary system, which of the following sentences is correct ?
[A] Executive is responsible to the Legislature
[B] Legislature is responsible to the Executive
[C] Executive is responsible to the people
[D] Executive is responsible to the judicary
Correct Answer: A [Executive is responsible to the Legislature]
43. What is the maximum permissible time gap between two sessions of parliament ?
[A] 3 months
[B] 6 months
[C] 9 months
[D] 12 months
Correct Answer: B [6 months]
44. Who among the following supervises the Lok Sabha secretariat ?
[A] Minister of Home Affairs
[B] Minister of parliamentary affairs
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker
[D] Prime minister
Correct Answer: C [Lok Sabha Speaker]
45. What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha ?

[B] 250
[C] 245
[D] 240
Notes:
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of parliament which represents the states and union territories. Its
membership is fixed to maximum 250 members of which 238 are elected by the representatives of states
and union territories while 12 members are nominated by President on account of their excellence in
literature, science, art or social service. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245, of whom 233 are
representatives of the States/Union Territories and 12 are nominated by the President.
46. In which type of the question a written answer is desired?
[A] Starred question
[B] Unstarred question
[C] Short notice
Correct Answer: B [Unstarred question]
Notes:
A starred question is distinguished by an asterisk and needs an oral answer. Since the answer is
oral, supplementary questions might follow a starred question.
An un-starred question requires written answer. Since the answer is given in written, there cannot
be supplementary questions that follow an un-stared question
A question relating to a matter of public importance of an urgent character asked with notice shorter
than ten days is called a “Short Notice Question” Short Notice questions are generally answered orally
47. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Money Bill ?
[A] It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha
[B] It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President
[C] The Rajya Sabha is given 1 months time period to make recommendation on a Money Bill
[D] All are correct
Correct Answer: C [The Rajya Sabha is given 1 months time period to make recommendation on a
Money Bill]
Notes:
A money bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to have passed both
houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha

48. Zero hour in the Indian parliament starts at which of the following time?
[A] 10.00 AM
[B] 12.00 PM
[C] 12.00 AM
[D] 2.00 PM
Correct Answer: B [12.00 PM]
49. Who among the following can establish a common high court for two or more states / or
Union Territories in India?
[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Governors of the two states
[D] Parliament by The Law
Correct Answer: D [Parliament by The Law]
50. The first non confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha in which of the following years?
[B] 1963
[C] 1965
[D] 1969
51. Which among the following statements is correct ?

[A] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned and presided by President
[B] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned and presided by Speaker of
the Lok Sabha
[C] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by President and presided by
Speaker of Lok Sabha
[D] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by Speaker of Lok Sabha and
presided by President
Correct Answer: C [A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by President and
presided by Speaker of Lok Sabha]
52. Indian Legislature became “bicameral” through which of the following?

[A] The Morley- Minto Reforms
[B] Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
[C] Government of India Act 1935
[D] Government of India Act 1909
Correct Answer: B [Montague-Chelmsford Reforms]
53. “A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be stopped” is
known in parliamentary terminology as__?
[A] session
[B] closure
[C] resolution
[D] de jure
Correct Answer: B [closure]

54. Which among the following bills embodies the Budget?

[A] Money bill
[B] Finance Bill
[C] Appropriation Bill
[D] All the above
Correct Answer: C [Appropriation Bill]
55. If strength of a house is 520 , 20 members are abstaining and a bill is voted in favor by 251
members, this will be an example of ___?
[A] Bill passed by simple majority
[B] Bill passed by effective majority
[C] Bill passed by absolute majority
Correct Answer: A [Bill passed by simple majority]
56. Which among the following is correct regarding Arunachal Pradesh ?

[A] Lok Sabha Seat 1 Rajya Sabha Seats 2 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Lok Sabha Seats 2 Rajya Sabha Seats 2
[C] Lok Sabha Seats 3 Rajya Sabha Seats 2
[D] Lok Sabha Seats 2 Rajya Sabha Seat 1
Correct Answer: D [Lok Sabha Seats 2 Rajya Sabha Seat 1]
57. Who among the following coined the term zero hour?
[A] Constitution assembly
[B] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[C] Indira Gandhi
[D] Press
Correct Answer: D [Press]
Notes:
Please note that this term was coined by the press in 1960s and there is no mention in parliamentary
procedure rules
58. Which among the following statements is not correct ?
[A] All money bills originate in Lok Sabha Only
[B] Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha Only
[C] Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha Only
[D] No confidence motion against council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: C [Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha Only]
Notes:
Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Rajya Sabha only and Parliament can enact
this only after Rajya Sabha passes this by two third majority.
59. In the Rajya Sabha the states have been provided representation on which of the following
basis?
[A] Area
[B] Population
[C] Number of Lok Sabha Constituencies
[D] Number of Legislative Assemblies
Correct Answer: B [Population]

60. Power to dissolve Lok Sabha is vested with ?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Council
(B)Council
Council of Ministers
[C] President
[D] Lok Sabha Speaker
61. Which among the following Bill will not be lapsed , in the event of dissolution of House?
[A] Any bill pending in Lok Sabha
[B] Any Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha
[C] Any Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha and pending in Lok Sabha Sabha
[D] Any Bill pending in Rajya Sabha & Not passed by Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: D [Any Bill pending in Rajya Sabha & Not passed by Lok Sabha]
62. Bring out the incorrect statement regarding the zero| hour?
Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com
[A] There is no mention about Zero hour in rules of procedure

[B] The Zero hour usually starts at 12.00 noon
[C] The zero hour questions can be asked without permission
[D] All are correct
63. In which of the following conditions the speaker & deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha have to
vacate the office?
[A] When Presidents wishes
[B] When the ruling party loses confidence
[C] When they are not MPs
[D] Immediately after dissolution of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: C [When they are not MPs]
64. Which among the following is correct in context with the powers of the parliament in enacting
the budget ?
[A] Parliament can increase tax but can not reduce or abolish it
[B] Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but can not increase
[C] Parliament can neither increase nor reduce or abolish a tax
[D] Parliament can increase as well as reduce or abolish a tax
Correct Answer: B [Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but can not increase]
65. For elections in Lok Sabha & Assemblies in India, the following system is used?
[A] Proportional representation
[B] Functional representation
[C] Territorial representation
[D] Communal representation
Correct Answer: C [Territorial representation]
66. During the tenure of which of the following prime ministers The Lok Sabha could never meet?
[A] Morar Ji Desai

[B] Chaudhary Charan Singh

[C] Inder Kumar Gujral
[D] H. D. Deve Gowda
Correct Answer: B [Chaudhary Charan Singh]
67. Which of the following Lok Sabha had the shortest duration?
[A] 9th
[B] 10th
[C] 11th
[D] 12th
68. Under whose prime minister ship , the Antidefection bill was passed?
[A] V P Singh
[B] Rajiv Gandhi
[C] Narsimha Rao
[D] A B Vajpayee Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: B [Rajiv Gandhi]
69. Which among the following end the life of the popular house?
[A] Session
[B] prorogation
[C] adjournment
[D] dissolution
Correct Answer: D [dissolution]
70. With which of the following Residuary Powers vests in __?

[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Council of Ministers
[D] Parliament
Correct Answer: D [Parliament]
71. The bill to amend the constitution has to be introduced & passed in which of the following
houses before presenting it to President for assent?
[A] Introduced and passed in Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
[B] Introduced & Passed in Lok Sabha
[C] Introduced & Passed in Rajya Sabha
[D] Introduced in both houses but can be Passed in Lok Sabha only
Correct Answer: A [Introduced and passed in Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha]
72. Executive is responsible to which among the following in parliamentary system?

[A] Directly to the people
[B] To the legislature
[C] To the Judiciary
[D] To cabinet
Correct Answer: B [To the legislature]

73. Under which of the following articles, 12 members (out of 250) are nominated by the President
of India from amongst persons who have special knowledge or practical experience in the fields
such as literature, science, art or social service?
[A] Article 80
[B] Article 82
[C] Article 85
[D] Article 87
74. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
[A] Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar
[B] M.A. Ayyangar
[C] Sardar Hukam Singh
[D] N. Sanjiva Reddy
Correct Answer: A [Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar]
Notes: Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
First Lok Sabha had two speakers. Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar remained speaker between 8 May 1952
and 8 Mar 1956 and M. A. Ayyangar between 27 Feb 1956 and 10 May 1957
[A] National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal
[B] Justice MM Punchi Commission is related to Centre state relations
[C] India became a party to the UN in 1945
[D] Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy
Correct Answer: D [Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy]
Notes:
India Parliament is based upon bicameralism. Bicameralism and Dyarchy are different words
[A] National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal
[B] Justice MM Punchi Commission is related to Centre state relations
[C] India became a party to the UN in 1945
[D] Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy
Correct Answer: D [Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy]
Notes:
India Parliament is based upon bicameralism.
77. In the Budget session, which among the following is known as ‘guillotine’?
[A] General discussion on the Budget
[B] The speaker puts all the outstanding demands to vote
[C] The opposition expresses desire to bring a cut motion
[D] The demand for grants are cut by Re. 1
Correct Answer: B [The speaker puts all the outstanding demands to vote]
78. Approval of which among the following is needed to draw funds from Consolidated Fund of
India?
[A] President
[B] Parliament

[D] All the above

Correct Answer: B [Parliament]
79. Who among the following decides on the matter of disqualification of a Member of Rajya
Sabha?
[A] Parliament of India by resolution
[B] Election Commission of India
[C] President by advice of Parliament
[D] President by advice of Election Commission
Correct Answer: D [President by advice of Election Commission]
80. In which of the following conditions the Government in the Centre would fall during the
budget procedure?
[A] If the Finance Bill is returned by the President
[B] If the Finance Bill is rejected by Rajya Sabha
[C] If the Finance Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha
[D] If the Cut Motion fails in the Lok SabhaKanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: C [If the Finance Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha]
81. An ordinary bill is generally circulated / put on website for purpose of eliciting the public
opinion on it during which of the following stages?
[A] Before First reading
[B] After First Reading but Before Second Reading
[C] After Second Reading but before Third reading
[D] After Third reading
Correct Answer: B [After First Reading but Before Second Reading]
82. A bill which affects the meaning and scope of which among the following can be introduced in
the parliament only on recommendation of President of India?
[A] Foreign Loans
[B] Corporation Tax
[C] Tax on Agriculture Income
[D] Export Duties
Correct Answer: C [Tax on Agriculture Income]
83. During the tenure of which of the following prime ministers The Lok Sabha never meet?
[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chaudhary Charan Singh
[C] Inder Kumar Gujral
[D] H. D. Deve Gowda
Correct Answer: B [Chaudhary Charan Singh]
84. As per the Constitution of India, a new All India service can be instituted with only on the
initiative of which among the following?
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] 2/3rd of the States of India
[D] Interstate Council
Correct Answer: B [Rajya Sabha]

Notes:
This question is based upon article 312 of the constitution which says Notwithstanding anything in
“Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI”, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not
less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national
interest so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India services
“including an all-India judicial service“common to the Union and the States, and, subject to the other
provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed,
to any such service.
85. As per the Nehru Report, the composition of India’s parliament was as follows:
[A] President, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha
[B] Crown, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
[C] Crown, House of People, House of States
[D] Crown, Senate, House of Representatives
Correct Answer: D [Crown, Senate, House of Representatives]
86. As per the provisions of the Article 94 of the Constitution of India, whenever the Lok Sabha is
dissolved, the office of the Speaker becomes vacant at which among the following time?
[A] Immediately after Lok Sabha is dissolved

[B] Immediately after the New Government is elected
[C] Immediately after election for new Lok Sabha is completed
[D] Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: D [Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha]
87. Which among the following acts has not been enacted by parliament of India?
[A] AFSPA
[B] POTA
[C] MCOCA
[D] FEMA
Correct Answer: C [MCOCA]
88. What is the difference between Union Legislature and Parliament of India ?
[A] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Parliament consists of Lok Sabha,
Rajya Sabha and President
[B] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha only, Parliament Consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha
[C] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President, Parliament consists of Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha
[D] There is no difference between the two
Correct Answer: D [There is no difference between the two]
89. Legislature of the Union which is called ‘Parliament’ consists of :

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
[D] President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: D [President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha]
90. Which of the following is incorrect about the Rajya Sabha ?

[A] The Rajya Sabha consists of 12 members nominated by the Prime Minister.
[B] One-third of its members retire every second year.
[C] The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
[D] The Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Correct Answer: A [The Rajya Sabha consists of 12 members nominated by the Prime Minister.]
91. For which of the following bills, there is no constitutional provision for a joint sitting of both
the houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock ?
[A] Ordinary bill
[B] Money bill
[C] Constitution Amendment Bill
[D] Both 2 & 3
Correct Answer: D [Both 2 & 3]
92. The Non-Votable charges or ‘Charged Expenditure’ included in the Union Budget include :
1.Salary and Allowances of the Presiding Officers of the houses of Parliament.
2.Salary and Allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
3.Salary and Allowances of the CAG.

4.Pension of the retired Judges of the Supreme Court.
5.Pension of the retired Judges of High Courts.
Select the option(s) which is/are correct?
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 1, 2 and 3
[C] 1, 2, 3 and 4
[D] All of them
Correct Answer: D [All of them]
93. Which of the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency (Areawise)?
[A] Arunachal West
[B] Ladakh
[C] Barmer
[D] Kutch
Correct Answer: B [Ladakh]
Notes:
The top five area-wise constituencies are- Ladakh (173,266 sq km), Barmer (71,601 sq km), Kutch (41,644
sq km), Arunachal West (40,572 sq km) and Arunachal East (39,749 sq km
94. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in :
[A] Lok Sabha only
[B] Rajya Sabha only
[C] Either of the two houses of the Parliament
[D] Joint Sitting of the two houses of the Parliament
Correct Answer: B [Rajya Sabha only]
95. Arrange the following functionaries/officials in their respective order of precedence-

1.Governors of states (within their respective states)
2.Former Presidents, Deputy Prime Minister
3.Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Leaders of Chief Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

[A] 1-2-3
[B] 2-1-3
[C] 3-2-1
[D] 2-3-1
Correct Answer: A [1-2-3]
96. Which Indian State has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the
Lok Sabha?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Gujarat
Correct Answer: A [Madhya Pradesh]
97. Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a
Member of Parliament?
1. If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.
2. If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.

3. If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
4. If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.
Choose the correct option:
[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 4
[D] 1,2 and 4
Correct Answer: B [Only 4]
Notes:
Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP:
(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of
Parliament-
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other
than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under
any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this
clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the
Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.
(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified
under the Tenth Schedule.
18 – Union Legislature: Parliamentary Committees & Forums
1. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office
of Profit ?
[A] 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha =Total 25 members
[B] 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30 members
[C] 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha = Total 30 members
[D] 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha = Total 22 members
Correct Answer: A [15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha =Total 25 members]
2. Which among the following committees of Lok Sabha is assisted by Comptroller & Auditor
General of India?
[A] Estimates committee
[B] Public Accounts Committee
[C] Joint Committee of salary and allowances
[D] Joint committee of Offices of Profit
Correct Answer: B [Public Accounts Committee]
3. Which among the following is a correct function of Public Accounts Committee?

[A] It works under President of India and creates accounts for various ministries
[B] It works under Comptroller and Auditor General of India and prepares accounts
[C] It is a parliamentary committee which gives report on nonplan expenditures of the
government
[D] It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller & Auditor
General of India
Correct Answer: D [It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller &
Auditor General of India]
4. Who among the following nominates the chairman of Public Accounts committee of India?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] President
[C] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[D] Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer: C [Speaker of Lok Sabha]
5. The National Disaster Response Fund, which has replaced the National Calamity Contingency
Fund on 28 September 2010, has been classified in which among the following?
[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Contingency Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] All the above
Correct Answer: C [Public Account of India]
19 – Union Judiciary: Supreme Court

1. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
[A] President
[B] Supreme Court
[D] Parliament
Notes:
Supreme Court is the final authority to interpret the constitution of India.
2. Who among the following was first woman judge of India?
[A] Leila Seth
[B] Anna Chandy
[C] Fathima Beevi
[D] Sujata Manohar
Correct Answer: C [Fathima Beevi]

Notes:
It took four decades after independence for Supreme Court to have its first women judge {Justice
Fathima Beevi was the first female judge of the Supreme Court of India whose tenure lasted from
October 6 1989 to April 29, 1992. The second was Justice Sujata V Manohar, from November 8, 1994 to
August 27, 1999}.
3. Which among the following is the correct age of retirement of Judge of Supreme Court?
[A] 58 years
[B] 60 years
[C] 62 years
[D] 65 years
Notes:
The current age of retirement for Supreme Court judges is 65 years while High Court Judges is 62 years.
4. The Supreme Court of India tenders legal advice to president of India when___?
[A] Cabinet recommends it
[B] Council of Minister recommends it
[C] President needs it Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Supreme Court wants to tender the advice

Correct Answer: C [President needs it]
5. Till now how many judges of Supreme Court of India have been removed from Office through
impeachment?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] none
Correct Answer: D [none]
6. If President and Vice President, both are unavailable, who among the following would discharge
the functions?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Lok Sabha Speaker
[C] Chief Justice of India
[D] Any person nominated by President or Vice President
Correct Answer: C [Chief Justice of India]
7. Which among the following judges is known for having pioneered the PIL or Public Interest
Litigation?
[A] Justice R N Mishra
[B] Justice PN Bhagwati
[C] Justice Venkatswami
[D] Justice Mirza Hameedullah Beg
Correct Answer: B [Justice PN Bhagwati]
8. The age for retirement of judges from supreme courts and high courts are respectively ?
[A] 65 & 62
[B] 65 & 60
[C] 65 for both
[D] 65 & 63
Correct Answer: A [65 & 62]
9. An appeal can be made in the Supreme Court of India in __________?

[A] Civil & Criminal Matters
[B] Criminal & Constitutional Matters
[C] Civil , Criminal & Constitutional Matters
[D] Constitutional and Criminal Matters
Correct Answer: C [Civil , Criminal & Constitutional Matters]
10. Who can remove a chief justice of Supreme Court ?

[A] Parliament by resolution
[B] Judges of supreme court by Majority
[C] President on a resolution by parliament
[D] President on his/ her own discretion
Correct Answer: C [President on a resolution by parliament]
Notes:
A Judge of the Supreme Court (and also High Court) can be removed from his position by President only
on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The power for investigation and proof of such
misbehaviour or incapacity is vested in the parliament. Each house, in order to remove the judge, will
have to pass a resolution which is supported by 2/3rd of members present and voting and majority of the
total membership of the house {absolute + special majority}
11. Which among the following can be called a” writ of prohibition” ?
[A] A writ issued by Supreme court or High court to inferior court
[B] A writ issued by High Court to supreme court or inferior court
[C] A writ issued by a inferior court
Correct Answer: A [A writ issued by Supreme court or High court to inferior court]
Notes:
The writ of prohibition means that the Supreme Court and High Courts may prohibit the lower courts
such as special tribunals, magistrates, commissions, and other judiciary officers who are doing
something which exceeds to their jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rule of natural justice. For
example if a judicial officer has personal interest in a case, it may hamper the decision and the course of
natural justice.
12. Who among the following is the final interpreter & guardian of Indian Constitution?
[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Supreme Court
[D] Supreme Court as well as High Court
Correct Answer: C [Supreme Court]
13. To be appointed as a judge of Supreme Court a person should have been an advocate of a High
Court for at least _________Yrs?
[A] 5
[B] 10
[C] 15
[D] 20
Notes:
To be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been
the judge of a high court for a period of 5 years or an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years or
in view of the President a distinct Jurist of the country. Thus, there is nothing which can prevent the
direct appointment of the Judges of Supreme Court from the Bar, yet, so far the appointments have been
made from the Judges of High Courts only.
14. What is the minimum number of the judges to decide an issue involving the interpretation of
the constitution or any presidential reference?
[A] 5
[B] 7
[C] 10
[D] 15
15. The power to decide an election petition in India is vested in the ________ ?
[A] Parliament
[B] Supreme court
[C] High court
[D] President
Correct Answer: B [Supreme court]
16. Supreme Court of India was created by _________?

[A] Constitution
[B] an Act of Parliament
[C] a Presidential Order
Correct Answer: A [Constitution]
17. The writ of “Habeas Corpus” can be issued in which of the following events ?
[A] to seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself
[B] to seek refund of excess taxes
[C] to seek relief from the violation of freedom to speak
Correct Answer: A [to seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself]
Notes:
Habeas Corpus literally means ‘to have the body of’. Via this writ, the court can cause any person who
has been detained or imprisoned to be physically brought before the court. The court then examines the
reason of his detention and if there is no legal justification of his detention, he can be set free. Such a
writ can be issued in following example cases:
When the person is detained and not produced before the magistrate within 24 hours
When the person is arrested without any violation of a law.
When a person is arrested under a law which is unconstitutional
When detention is done to harm the person or is malafide.
Thus, Habeas corpus writ is called bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. A general
rule of filing the petition is that a person whose right has been infringed must file a petition. But Habeas
corpus is an exception and anybody on behalf of the detainee can file a petition. Habeas corpus writ is
applicable to preventive detention also. This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as
individuals.
18. If certain case required to take a decision regarding constitution of India then which court has
power to do so?

[A] Supreme Court Only

[B] Both High Court & Supreme Court
[C] Neither High court nor Supreme Court
[D] High court only
Correct Answer: A [Supreme Court Only]
19. Civil cases, Criminal Cases and constitutional cases come under which of the following
jurisdiction?
[A] Appellate Jurisdiction
[B] Advisory Jurisdiction
[C] Miscellaneous Powers
Correct Answer: A [Appellate Jurisdiction]
Notes:
Supreme Court is the Highest Court of appeal and the writs and decrees of Supreme Court run
throughout the country. The cases come to the Supreme Court in the form of appeals against the
judgments of the lower courts and this is called
Kanta raoappellate jurisdiction.
| kantarao401@gmail.com | Appellate jurisdiction involves the
Constitution, Civil and criminal matters.
20. Who among the following can be appointed as ad hoc judges of Supreme Court ?
[A] Only Retired Judges of Supreme Court
[B] Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court
[C] Only Retired Judges of High Courts
[D] District judges
Correct Answer: B [Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court]
Notes:
If there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme
Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation
with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
21. The writ of prohibition issued by Supreme Court or High court is issued against ?
[A] Administrative and judicial authorities
[B] Only Administrative authorities
[C] Judicial or quasi judicial authorities
[D] Govt and administrative authorities
Correct Answer: C [Judicial or quasi judicial authorities]
22. If the post of both the President and the Vice-President falls vacant, the Chief Justice of India
discharges the functions of the President. For how many times this has happened in India?
[A] One time only
[B] Two Times
[C] Three times
[D] zero times
Correct Answer: A [One time only]
Notes:
only one time M. Hidaytulla is the only Chief Justice who acted as President in 1969
23. As amended in January 2009, what is paid salary of the Chief Justice of India ?
[A] Rs. 70,000
[B] Rs. 100, 000

[C] Rs. 80,000

[D] Rs. 120,000
Correct Answer: B [Rs. 100, 000]
24. The interpretation of the Constitution falls within the domain of the Constitutional Bench of
the Supreme Court. At least how many members are required for this bench?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 5
[D] 7
25. Supreme Court shall be a court of Record and shall have all the powers of such courts
including the power to punish for contempt of itself. Which article says this?
[A] Article 126
[B] Article 128
[C] Article 129 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Article 131

26. The power of Judicial review in India lies with the __?
[A] Supreme Court only
[B] High court and Supreme Court
[C] High Court only
[D] Lower courts only
Correct Answer: A [Supreme Court only]
27. What is the total number of the Supreme Court Judges (Including CJI) after the Supreme
Court (Number of Judges ) Amendment Act 2008?
[A] 28
[B] 29
[C] 30
[D] 31
28. Till which year the judges of the Supreme Court were appointed by the President on the
recommendation of the Chief Justice of India?
[A] 1990
[B] 1991
[C] 1992
[D] 1993
29. Under which of the following jurisdiction , supreme court of India is duty bound to give its
opinion on matters referred to it by President of India?
[A] Original Jurisdiction
[B] Appellate Jurisdiction
[C] Advisory Jurisdiction
[D] 1 & 2
Correct Answer: C [Advisory Jurisdiction]
30. After how many days of India becoming a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the Supreme Court
came into being?
[A] 2 days
[B] 7 days
[C] 1 month
[D] 1 year
Correct Answer: A [2 days]
Notes:
in January 28, 1950
[A] There are provisions that a retired judge of supreme court only can sit and act as judge of
Supreme court
[B] There are no such provisions exist Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] There are provisions that a retired judge of supreme court & high courts can sit and act as
judge of Supreme court
[D] There are provisions that a retired judge of high courts only can sit and act as judge of
Supreme court
Correct Answer: C [There are provisions that a retired judge of supreme court & high courts can sit and
act as judge of Supreme court]
32. Which of the following articles makes the Supreme Court a Court of Record?
[A] 125
[B] 127
[C] 129
[D] 131
Notes:
Article 129: Supreme Court to be a court of record.-
The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the
power to punish for contempt of itself.
33. Bring out the incorrect statement:
[A] In India Parliament is not supreme but the Supreme court is Supreme
[B] The independence of Judiciary is a part of basic structure of the constitution
[C] The makers of the Indian constitution kept a balance between the rigidity & flexibility in
context with amendments
[D] All are correct
34. Who among the following judges of Supreme Court of India was many times called as
“Champion of State Rights”?
[A] Justice Subba Rao
[B] Justice A K Sarkar
[C] Justice Kailas Nath Wanchoo
[D] Justice Jayantilal Chhotalal Shah

Correct Answer: A [Justice Subba Rao]
35. The concept of Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is borrowed from which of the
following?
[A] USSR
[B] USA
[C] Japan
[D] Switzerland
Correct Answer: B [USA]
36. Who among the following appoints a Judge in the High Court of Indian state?
[A] President with advice of Chief Justice of India
[B] President with Advice of Prime Minister
[C] Law Ministry
[D] President with Advice of a collegium of Judges
Correct Answer: D [President with Advice of a collegium of Judges]
37. Which among the following writs is issued against wrongful detention?
[A] Mandamus
[B] Habeas Corpus
[C] Prohibition
[D] Quo Warranto
Correct Answer: B [Habeas Corpus]
38. Which among the following is the correct implication of the “Advisory Jurisdiction” of the
Supreme Court of India:
[A] It tenders advice to the President of India on demand
[B] It tenders advice to the Prime Minister of India on legal matters
[C] It tenders advice to the Govt. of India on all Constitutional matters
[D] All of above
Correct Answer: A [It tenders advice to the President of India on demand]
39. In issuing one of the writs, the Supreme Court orders:

” the respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was exercising”.
The above declaration can be identified as which among the following writs?
[A] Prohibition
[B] Quo-warranto
[C] Certiorari
[D] Habeas Corpus
Correct Answer: B [Quo-warranto]
40. The number of the Judges in the Supreme Court of India can be increased by which among the
following?
[A] If there is a representation from the supreme court regarding the number of pending cases
and need to increase number of judges
[B] By Amendment of Constitution of India
[C] By an act of parliament

[D] By a Presidential Notification

Correct Answer: C [By an act of parliament]
41. A major failure of the judicial system in the country has been its ineffectiveness in ensuring
speedy disposal of cases under trial. This is out of line of which among the following articles of
Constitution of India which provides a right to speedy justice?
[A] Article 18
[B] Article 19
[C] Article 20
[D] Article 21
42. A person can be appointed as Attorney General of India, provided he / she is qualified to be
appointed as which among the following?
[A] Chief Justice of Supreme Court
[B] Chief Justice of High Court
[C] Judge of Supreme Court Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Judge of High Court

Correct Answer: C [Judge of Supreme Court]
43. Till which of the following years, the Supreme Court of India commenced its sittings from the
Parliament building prior to moving to the present premises?
[A] 1950
[B] 1956
[C] 1958
[D] 1960
Notes:
The Federal Court of India which came up via the Government of India act 1935 commenced its sitting in
the Chamber of Princes in the parliament building from 1937 till 1950. The SC came into being on 28
January 1950 and from that time till 1958, it commenced its hearing from there only. It moved to the
current premises in 1958.
44. Circuit bench of the Supreme Court of India is located at?
[A] Mumbai
[B] Calcutta
[C] Chennai
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: D [None of them]
45. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes
between the Centre and the States through:
[A] Appellate Jurisdiction
[B] Original Jurisdiction
[C] Advisory Jurisdiction
[D] Writ Jurisdiction
Correct Answer: B [Original Jurisdiction]
46. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be appointed as a

Judge of Supreme Court of India?

[A] 10 Years
[B] 12 Years
[C] 15 Years
[D] 20 Years
Correct Answer: A [10 Years]
20 – State Executive: Governor

1. Who among the following can remove the governor of a state from office?
[A] Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] Supreme Court
Notes:
2. For removal of a Governor from office, the President
Kanta rao seeks
| kantarao401@gmail.com | advice from __:
[A] Council of Ministers
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Chief Minister of the concerned state
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: D [None of them]
Notes:
The Governor is an agent of the President who holds the office during the pleasure of the President. So,
to remove him / her from office, president does not need to seek advice from anybody.
3. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the
States are submitted to which among the following?
[A] The President
[B] The Governor
[C] The Parliament
[D] The Chief Minister
Correct Answer: B [The Governor]
Notes:
Article 151. Audit Reports :-
(1) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union
shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
(2) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall
be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the
State.
4. Who is the chief executive head of the state?
[A] Chief minister
[B] Governor
[C] Presidnet
Correct Answer: B [Governor]
Notes:
The provisions related to state executive are in articles 153 to 167. The state executive is made of
Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers and Advocate General. The executive authority of a state
is vested in the Governor; and Governor is the constitutional head of the state in the same way as

President is the Constitutional head of the Union

5. Whose consent is required for a money bill to originate in the state legislature?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Finance Minister
Correct Answer: C [Governor]
6. The Governor of a state can __________?

[A] Nominate one third members of legislative assembly
[B] Nominate one sixth members of the legislative assembly
[C] Nominate on third members of the legislative council
[D] Nominate 12 members in legislative assembly
Correct Answer: B [Nominate one sixth members of the legislative assembly]
7. Which of the following articles says that executive power of the state is vested in the Governor?
[A] Article 152
[B] Article 153
[C] Article 154
[D] Article 155
8. The constitution of India does not provide for impeachment of which of the following?
[A] Chief Justice of India
[C] Vice President of India
[D] Governor of an Indian State
Correct Answer: D [Governor of an Indian State]
9. Who among the following functions as a Constitutional Ruler and an agent of the centre?
[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Governor
[D] Comptroller and Auditor General
Correct Answer: C [Governor]
21 – State Executive: Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers

1. Which among the following is not correctly matched? (Women Chief Ministers)
[A] Sucheta kriplani – Uttar Pradesh
[B] Nandini Satpaty – Orissa
[C] Sashikala Kadokar – Goa
[D] All are correct
22 – State Legislature: Legislative Assembly

1. What can be the maximum number of members in a legislative assembly of a state in India?
[A] 400
[B] 500
[C] 450
[D] 550
Notes:
The Legislative assembly of each state cannot have number of members more than 500 and less than 60.
However, there are three exceptions to this viz. Sikkim (32), Goa (40) and Mizoram (40)
2. What is the upper limit of election expense in a parliamentary constituency?
[A] 10 lakhs
[B] 25 lakhs
[C] 70 lakhs
[D] 1 cr
Correct Answer: C [70 lakhs]
Notes:
As per the current norms, the maximum limit of election expenses per candidate is as follows:
Lok Sabha Constituencies
70 Lakh for all States except Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Sikkim.
54 Lakh for Arunachal Pradesh, Goa andKantaSikkim = 54.00| Lakhs
70 Lakh for NCT of Delhi

54 Lakh for other Union Territories.
Assembly Constituencies
28 Lakh for bigger states and NCT of Delhi
20 Lakh for smaller states and UTs.
3. Which among the following state does not have a bicameral legislature?
[A] Maharastra
[B] Bihar
[C] West Bengal
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: C [West Bengal]
Notes:
The 7 states with bicameral legislature are Bihar, Maharastra, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir,
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
4. In which year the Metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member legislative
assembly?
[A] 1990
[B] 1991
[C] 1992
[D] 1993
5. The power to create of abolish legislative council in states is vested with which among the
following?
[A] Council of State Ministers
[B] Governor of the state
[C] Legislative assembly of the state
Correct Answer: C [Legislative assembly of the state]
Notes:
Legislative assembly of the state make recommendations and parliament makes necessary laws for this

6. When a chief Minister of outgoing minority government advises the Governor to dissolve the
legislative assembly the Governor has to _________?
[A] dismiss the assembly
[B] suspend the assembly
[C] ask the president to impose president’s rule
[D] work on own discretion
Correct Answer: D [work on own discretion]
7. Which among the following decides that there should be a Legislative Council in the state or
not?
[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Legislative Assembly
[D] Chief Minister
Correct Answer: C [Legislative Assembly]
8. As per the Government of India act Kanta

1919, the life of the Council of State and Legislative
Assembly were as follows

[A] 5 Years , 3 years
[B] 3 Years , 5 years
[C] 5 Years , 5 years
[D] 3 Years , 3 years
Correct Answer: A [5 Years , 3 years]
9. Which of the following Indian States have a Bicameral Legislature?

1.Uttar Pradesh
2.Bihar
3.Chattisgarh
4.Jammu and Kashmir
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 4
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 4]
10. Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the President but
does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] State Legislative Assemblies
[D] State Legislative Councils
Correct Answer: C [State Legislative Assemblies]
23 – State Legislature: Legislative Councils

1. Which among the following is not true about State Legislative Council in India?
[A] The Council is a Permanent House & one-third of the members retire in two years.
[B] Members of local bodies elect one-third of the total number of members of the legislative

council
[C] If a state legislative council is to be created or abolished , a resolution to that effect is to be first
passed by the State legislature by a two-third majority
Correct Answer: A [The Council is a Permanent House & one-third of the members retire in two years.]
Notes:
The Council is permanent House & TWO-THIRD of the members retire in two years.
2. The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council was abolished in 1985. In which year it was revived
back ?
[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007
3. In which year legislative council of Tamilnadu was abolished?

[A] 1983
[B] 1985
[C] 1986
[D] 1987
4. The functions of which of the following body in India are limited to advisory nature only?
[A] Legislative Council
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Lok Sabha
[D] Legislative Assembly
Correct Answer: A [Legislative Council]
Notes:
Please note that leaving case of money bills , Rajya Sabha has equal powers in legislative matters in
relation to Lok Sabha. This is not the case with Legislative council
24 – State Judiciary: High Courts and Subordinate Courts
1. The decisions of District court is subject to the _________ of the High court.
Choose the correct phrase to fill the blank.
[A] Advisory Jurisdiction
[B] Appellate Jurisdiction
[C] Original jurisdiction
[D] Judicial Review
Correct Answer: B [Appellate Jurisdiction]
2. If the Government of a State fails to enforce the Directive principals of the state Policy, a citizen
can move to which among the following courts to file a writ petition to get them enforced?
[A] No Court
[B] District Courts
[C] High Courts
[D] Supreme Court
Correct Answer: A [No Court]
3. Jurisdiction of Lakshadweep comes under __________?

[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] West Bengal High Court
[D] Mumbai High Court
Correct Answer: B [Kerala High Court]
4. Andaman and Nicobar islands judiciary falls under the supervision of the ____________?
[A] A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] A circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair
[D] A circuit bench of the Kerala High Court at Port Blair
Correct Answer: C [A circuit bench of the Kolkata High Court at Port Blair]
5. If a High Court judgment is issued in a state’s official language ,a translation in

___________must also be made available ?
[A] Hindi
[B] English
[C] Both Hindi and English
[D] None
Correct Answer: B [English]
6. Which of the following funds in charged for the salary and other allowances of the Judges of the
High Courts?
[A] Consolidated fund of India
[B] Consolidated fund of state
[C] both of them in 1:1 ratio
Correct Answer: B [Consolidated fund of state]
7. High court seat of Kerala & Lakshadweep is located at?

[A] Kozhikode
[B] Thiruvanathapuram
[C] Ernakulam
[D] Kochi
Correct Answer: C [Ernakulam]
8. Through which of the following a Federal Court was established?

[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Indian Councils Act 1892
[C] Government of India act 1919
[D] Government of India act 1935
Correct Answer: D [Government of India act 1935]
9. Which among the following set up Family Courts in India?

[A] Union Government
[B] State / UT Government

[C] Supreme Court

[D] Governor of states
Correct Answer: B [State / UT Government]
10. Under which of the following the Pondicherry judiciary comes ?

[A] Madras High court
[B] Andhra Pradesh High court
[C] Kerala High court
[D] Karnataka High court
Correct Answer: A [Madras High court]
11. Seat of Uttrakhand High court is located at:
[A] Dehradun
[B] Nainital
[C] Haridwar
[D] Tehri Garhwal Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: B [Nainital]
12. Exercising the powers conferred by clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution of India, the
President of India appoints _______?
[A] Attorney General of India
[B] A Judge of Supreme Court of India
[C] Chief Justice of A High Court
[D] Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Correct Answer: C [Chief Justice of A High Court]
13. Seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at?

[A] Jabalpur
[B] Indore
[C] Gwalior
[D] Bhopal
Correct Answer: A [Jabalpur]
14. Bring out the only correct statements:

[A] The number of the Judges in the High court is fixed by the state legislature of respective state
[B] The number of the Judges in the High court may be altered by the Governor of the state on
recommendation of the President
[C] The number of the Judges in the High court is decided by the president
[D] The number of the Judges in the High court is fixed for each state by the parliament
Correct Answer: C [The number of the Judges in the High court is decided by the president]
15. What is the current number of High Courts in India?

[A] 20
[B] 22
[C] 24
[D] 25


[A] The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not returned
[B] Under powers given by Article 111, President can withhold his / her assent to a bill
[C] A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
[D] Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality
Correct Answer: C [A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India]
Notes:
Please note that High Court Judge addresses the resignation to President of India
17. The Higher court issued a writ to a lower court preventing it from exceeding its jurisdiction.
This is referred to as ________?
[A] Certiorari
[B] Prohibition
[C] Habeas Corpus
[D] None of them Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: B [Prohibition]
18. Maximum number of states / union territories in India come under the Jurisdiction of which of
the following High Courts?
[A] Kolkata High Court
[B] Guwahati High Court
[C] High Court of Madras
[D] Bombay High Court
Correct Answer: B [Guwahati High Court]

[A] The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not returned
[B] Under powers given by Article 111, President can withhold his / her assent to a bill
[C] A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
[D] Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality
Correct Answer: C [A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India]
Notes:
Please note that High Court Judge addresses the resignation to President of India
20. The salary of the Judge of High Court are charged from which among the following:
[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Consolidated Fund of the State
[C] Contingency Fund of India
[D] Contingency Fund of State
Correct Answer: B [Consolidated Fund of the State]
21. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India gives the power to the Highcourts
to issue writs?
[A] 222
[B] 224
[C] 226
[D] 228
22. Which of the following High Courts has the largest jurisdiction in the country?
[A] Bombay High Court
[B] Guwahati High Court
[C] Allahabad High Court
[D] Calcutta High Court
Correct Answer: B [Guwahati High Court]
23. The jurisdiction covering the Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under the supervision of __:
[A] A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair
[D] A circuit bench of Supreme Court of India at Port Blair
Correct Answer: C [A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair]
25 – Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir and other states

1. The Part VI of constitution of India is not applicable to __:

[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Jammu & Kashmir
[C] Sikkim
[D] Goa
Correct Answer: B [Jammu & Kashmir]
Notes:
2. . Which article ensures the special status to Jammu & Kashmir?
[A] Article 370
[B] Article 372
[C] Article 375
[D] Article 378
Notes:
Under the Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which deals with “Temporary, Transitional and Special
provisions”, Article 370 is a temporary provision granting special autonomous status to Jammu and
Kashmir
3. Part VI of our constitution is applicable to all the states except __________?
[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Jammu & Kashmir
[C] Sikkim
[D] Assam
Correct Answer: B [Jammu & Kashmir]
4. In 1965, the head of Jammu & Kashmir was regurgitated as Governor previously called as
_________?
[A] Premier
[B] Vajeer-i-aalam
[C] Sadr -i-riyasat
[D] wazir

Correct Answer: C [Sadr -i-riyasat]
5. Which among the following is not correct regarding the article 352 ?
[A] If national emergency is proclaimed because of war or external aggression It has automatic
extension to Jammu & Kashmir
[B] If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it does not
automatically extend to Jammu & Kashmir
[C] If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it automatically
extends to Jammu & Kashmir
Correct Answer: C [If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it
automatically extends to Jammu & Kashmir]
6. The following are called “scheduled areas’ as per Indian constitution?

[A] Tribal inhabited areas located in North East India
[B] Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North East India
[C] Tribal inhabited areas located all over India including| NE states
Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com

Correct Answer: B [Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North
East India]
Notes:
Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India than North East India. Tribal areas of the
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are separately dealt with provisions given in 5th schedule
7. To deal with the common problems of Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal
Pradesh and Mizoram a North Eastern Council was set up in which year?
[A] 1965
[B] 1968
[C] 1971
[D] 1975
Notes:
North Eastern Council is a statutory, advisory body established in 1971 via the North Eastern Council Act,
1971 for three key objectives viz. balanced development of the North Eastern Region; effecting better
inter-state coordination; and maintaining security and public order in the region.
The council consists of eight member states of the North Eastern Region, viz., Arunachal Pradesh,
Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. In 2002, Sikkim became the
eighth member state of the Council. The Secretariat (Headquarters) of the Council is located at Shillong,
Meghalaya.
8. January 26, 1957 is known for which of the following?
[A] Second parliamentary term began
[B] Second general elections
[C] Second Five year plan terms started
[D] Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force
Correct Answer: D [Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force]
9. In which states of India the “Foreigners Detection Tribunals ” are active?

[A] Assam
[B] Meghalaya
[C] Tripura
[D] Mizoram
Correct Answer: A [Assam]
10. The constitution of Jammu & Kashmir was framed by _____?

[A] The same constituent assembly which framed the constitution of India
[B] A special constituent assembly set up by parliament
[C] A special constituent assembly set up by state
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: C [A special constituent assembly set up by state]
11. Legislative Powers of the State of Jammu & Kashmir don’t extend to the matters with respect
to which the Parliament has power to make laws for the states under Constitution of India. The
above provision finds its place in which among the following?
[A] Constitution of India part VI
[B] Constitution of India, article 370
[C] Constitution of India, article 238
[D] Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: D [Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir]
26 – Local Government: Panchayats

1. On which date, National Panchayati Raj Day is observed?
[A] January 28
[B] February 26
[C] March 11
[D] April 24
Correct Answer: D [April 24]
Notes:
In India, April 24th is celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Diwas every year. This day marks the
passing of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, that came into force with effect from 24 April 1993
2. In which five year plan, the Panchayati Raj System was introduced in India for the first time?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd
[C] 5th
[D] 6th
Correct Answer: B [2nd]
Notes:
The institution of Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar lal Nehru on October 2, 1959 in Nagaur
District of Rajasthan. Nine days later, Andhra Pradesh became the second state to launch Panchayati Raj
at Shadnagar near Hyderabad
3. The Three tier system of panchayti raj was adopted by which state for the first time?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Bihar
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: A [Rajasthan]
Notes:
The institution of Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar lal Nehru on October 2, 1959 in Nagaur

District of Rajasthan. Nine days later, Andhra Pradesh became the second state to launch Panchayati Raj
at Shadnagar near Hyderabad
4. A three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states having population above __________?
[A] 10 lakhs
[B] 15 lakhs
[C] 20 lakhs
[D] 25 lakhs
Correct Answer: C [20 lakhs]
5. Which among the following are included in nagar panchayat?

[A] Notified Area Committee only
[B] Town Area Committee only
[C] Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee
Correct Answer: C [Both Notified Area Committee & Town Area Committee]
6. Which of the following states in India established Panchayati Raj in 1956?

[A] Rajasthan & Maharastra
[B] Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan Only
[D] Maharastra only
Correct Answer: B [Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh]
7. Who among the following is responsible for devising the best ways to utilize available resources
of States?
[A] National Development Council
[B] State Legislature
[C] Zonal counclis
[D] Inter state council
Correct Answer: C [Zonal counclis]
8. Which among the following committee was appointed by Government of India in 1977 to
recommend for improving efficiency of Panchayati Raj institution?
[A] Ashok Mehta Committee
[B] Sarkaria Commission
[C] Tarkunde Committee
[D] Balwant rai committee
Correct Answer: A [Ashok Mehta Committee]
Notes:
In December 1977, the Janta Government appointed a 13 member committee which was headed by Mr.
Ashok Mehta. The committee was appointed for following:
What are the causes responsible for poor performance of the PRIs?
What measures should be taken to improve performance of the PRIs?
The Ashok Mehta committee submitted its report in 1978 and made more than 130 recommendations
9. Which among the following is an apex body under Panchayati Raj?
[A] Zila parishad
[B] Panchayat Samiti

[C] Mandal Parishad

[D] Gramsabha
Correct Answer: A [Zila parishad]
10. The part IX of the constitution which deals with Panchayats is not applicable to which of the
following states?
[A] Nagaland , Meghalaya & Mizoram
[B] Nagaland , Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tribal Areas of Assam
[C] Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam and Tripura
[D] Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura & Hill areas of Manipur
Correct Answer: D [Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura & Hill areas of
Manipur]
11. Which of the following states in India is exempted from reservation for Scheduled Castes in
Panchayati Raj institutions?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Assam Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] Arunanchal Pradesh

[D] Sikkim
Correct Answer: C [Arunanchal Pradesh]
Notes:
Arunanchal Pradesh by Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000
[A] Schedule Two – Salaries and Allowances
[B] Schedule Five – Scheduled Areas
[C] Schedule Six – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram
[D] Schedule Ten – panchayats
Correct Answer: D [Schedule Ten – panchayats]
Notes:
Schedule Ten (disqualifications on grounds of defection inserted by 52nd Amendment),
Schedule Eleven (list 29 subjects under panchayats administration control
13. In context of panchayati Raj in India. The date 24 December 1996 is known for which of the
following?
[A] 73rd Constitutional Amendment
[B] Report of Ashok Mehta committee was tabled
[C] Extension to the Scheduled Areas
[D] Constitution of District Planning Committee
Correct Answer: C [Extension to the Scheduled Areas]
Notes:
On 24 December 1996, Panchayats(extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 came into force
14. Which of the following year has been declared as Year of Gram Sabha?
[A] 2008-09
[B] 2009-10
[C] 2010-11
[D] 2011-12
Correct Answer: B [2009-10]

15. How many subjects are there in Eleventh schedule which was added by the 73rd amendment
Bill (1992) enshrining powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats?
[A] 21
[B] 25
[C] 27
[D] 29
16. which state launched India’s first litigation controlled Tribal Panchayat?
[A] Kerala
[B] Tamilnadu
[C] West Bengal
[D] Gujarath
Correct Answer: A [Kerala]
17. With which of the following PRIA soft is related to ?

[A] Public Relations Management Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Public Enterprises Accounting

[C] Panchayati Raj Institutions
[D] Public Private Partnerships
Correct Answer: C [Panchayati Raj Institutions]
Notes:
PRIA Soft (Panchayati Raj Institutions Accounting Software) Developed by NIC facilitates maintenance
of accounts of Panchayats. It captures the voucher level receipt and expenditure detail. The software is
being customizes to meet state-specific requirements. In a few states the software is being used,
although with a different names.
18. Which among the following is the second tier (Block level) in the 3 tier system of local self
governance in India?
[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Panchayat
[C] Panchayat Samiti
[D] Zila parishad
Correct Answer: C [Panchayat Samiti]
19. Which among the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution?

[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Gram panchayat
[C] Gram cooperative Society
[D] Nyaya Panchayat
Correct Answer: C [Gram cooperative Society]
20. The famous “Ripon Resolution” of 1882 is most closely related to which among the following?
[A] Public Services in India
[B] Educational Reforms
[C] Local Self Government
[D] Public Health Policy
Correct Answer: C [Local Self Government]

21. Which of the following committees had recommended the Panchayat Raj Finance Corporation
?
[A] Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957)
[B] K. Santhanam Committee (1963)
[C] Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
[D] G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985)
Correct Answer: B [K. Santhanam Committee (1963)]
22. which among the following parts of Indian Constitution deal with the local administration?
[A] Part IX
[B] Part IX and part IXA
[C] Part IX, Part IXA and Part XIVA
[D] Part IXA only
Correct Answer: B [Part IX and part IXA]
23. Which among the following committee is known for recommending a 3-tier Panchayati Raj
System which includes Zila Parishad at the District Level, Panchayat Samiti at the Block/ Tehsil/
Taluka Level and Gram Panchayat at the Village Level?

[A] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] GVK Rao Committee
[D] Sarkaria Commission
Correct Answer: A [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]
24. Which among the following is the basic territorial unit of Administration in India?
[A] Revenue Division
[B] Tehsil
[C] District
[D] Village
Correct Answer: C [District]
27 – Local Government: Municipalities

1. Which among the following schedules is related to the responsibilities of Municipalities?
[A] 9th
[B] 10th
[C] 11th
[D] 12th
Notes:
Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th amendment and enlists the subjects under Municipalities or urban
local government.
2. Which among the following sentence is correct ?
[A] Part IX related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities
[B] Part IX A related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities
[C] None of them are correct
[D] Both of them are correct
Correct Answer: A [Part IX related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities]

3. How many matters are listed in Schedule XII added by 74th Amendment , which are
responsibility of the municipalities?
[A] 11
[B] 16
[C] 18
[D] 20

[A] Fundamental Rights : Article 12-35
[B] Directive Principles : Article 36-51
[C] Municipalities : Article 243-245
[D] Official Language : Article 343-351
Correct Answer: C [Municipalities : Article 243-245]
Notes:
Municipalities article 243 p to 243 ZG
5. Which among the following is the most important condition to decide for the validity of
nomination of a College student, who seeks to be elected to the Municipal Council of his / her
City?
[A] He / she obtains permission from the Principal of his College
[B] He / she is a member of a Political Party
[C] His / her name figures in the Voter’s List
[D] He / she submits a declaration owing allegiance of the Constitution of India
Correct Answer: C [His / her name figures in the Voter’s List]
6. Who among the following is the first citizen of a city in India?

[A] Mayor
[B] Chairman
[C] Sheriff
[D] Member of Legislative Assembly
Correct Answer: A [Mayor]
28 – Union Territories
1. Which among the following is the official language of Union Territory of Lakshadweep ?
[A] Tamil
[B] Malayalam
[C] Great Andamanese
[D] English
Correct Answer: B [Malayalam]
2. In which year, Union Territories were introduced in India?

[A] 1949
[B] 1950
[C] 1956
[D] 1960
Notes:

Reorganization of states on linguistic lines, abolition of Class A, B, C, D states and introduction of Union
Territories by Constitution 7th amendment act
3. Delhi was called national Capital Territory by which amendment Act ?
[A] 63rd
[B] 69th
[C] 91st
[D] 93rd
4. The Amindivi islands consist of five islands of which of the Union Territory ?
[A] Andaman & Nicobar
[B] Lakshadweep
[C] Pondicherry
[D] Daman & Diu
Correct Answer: B [Lakshadweep]
5. Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming states ?

[A] Himachal Pradesh, & Tripura

[B] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura
[C] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim & Tripura
Correct Answer: B [Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura]
6. At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India were put in
four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states and union territories’ in
1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?
[A] Vindhya Pradesh
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Correct Answer: D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]
7. Which of the following Union Territory has one Rajya Sabha seat ?
[A] Dadra & nagar Haveli
[B] Daman & Diu
[C] Puducherry
[D] Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: C [Puducherry]
8. Under which of the following articles comes the appointment of Administrator of the Union
territory by the President of India?
[A] Article 239
[B] Article 240
[C] Article 241
[D] Article 242
9. Which among the following Union Territory has a Judicial Commissioner?

[A] Pondicherry
[B] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
[C] Daman & Diu
[D] Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: C [Daman & Diu]
10. Andaman and Nicobar( Protection of Aboriginal tribes )Amendment Regulation 2012 has been
promulgated under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to take such
measures for the protection of Aboriginal tribes in case of Union Territories. This regulation will
protect which of the following tribes?
[A] Onges
[B] Shompens
[C] Sentilese
[D] Jarawas
Correct Answer: D [Jarawas]
29 – Scheduled and Tribal Areas

1. Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian Constitution?
[A] Meghalaya
[B] Tripura
[C] Mizoram
[D] Manipur
Correct Answer: D [Manipur]
Notes:
Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution consists of provisions for administration of Tribal Area in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh. District or the Regional Councils in these states
may after its first constitution make rules with the approval of the Governor.
2. Since which year the government of India started recognizing the ‘Primitive Tribal Groups’
(PTGs) as more backward communities among the tribal population groups ?
[A] 1965
[B] 1970
[C] 1975
[D] 1978

[A] Third Schedule: Forms of oath
[B] Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India
[C] Seventh Schedule : Concurrent List
[D] Ninth Schedule : Land & tenure Reforms
Correct Answer: B [Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India]

[A] Third Schedule: Forms of oath
[B] Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India
[C] Seventh Schedule : Concurrent List
[D] Ninth Schedule : Land & tenure Reforms
Correct Answer: B [Sixth Schedule : Scheduled Areas of India]
5. The Supreme Court’s Samata judgment (1997) nullified all mining leases granted by the State
government of Andhra Pradesh in the Scheduled areas and asked it to stop all mining operations,
thus protecting the land of tribal people. Under which is the following schedules of Indian
Constitution, Supreme Court protected the land of the tribal people through this judgment?
[A] Schedule 4
[B] Schedule 5
[C] Schedule 6
[D] Schedule 9
Correct Answer: B [Schedule 5]
6. Which of the following is the Official language of Nagaland?

[A] Nagamese
[B] Assamese
[C] English
[D] Chang Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: C [English]
7. Which of the following are ‘erosional landforms’ ?

1.Inselbergs
2.Loess
3.Zeugen
4.Buttes
[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 3
[C] 1, 3 and 4
[D] All of them
Correct Answer: C [1, 3 and 4]
Notes:
Loess is a depositional landform (aeolian sediment formed by accumulation of wind-blown silt) whereas
the others namely, Inselbergs, Zeugen and Buttes are erosional landforms.
Inselberg is a term for an isolated hill or a lone mountain that has risen above the surrounding area,
typically by surviving erosion.
Zeugens are formed by wind abrasion where a surface layer of hard rock is underlain by a layer of soft
rock into a ridge and furrow landscape.
Buttes are formed by erosion when hard cap rock covers a layer of softer rock that is eventually worn
away. The hard rock thus resists erosion.
30 – Constitutional Bodies: Election Commission
1. In which year first general election held in India?
[A] 1948
[B] 1949
[C] 1950
[D] 1951
Notes:
The first general elections were held between October 25, 1951 and March 27, 1952
2. Who was the first Chief election commissioner of India ?

[A] KVK Sundaram

[B] SP Sen Verma
[C] Sukumar Sen
[D] Rajmannar
Correct Answer: C [Sukumar Sen]
3. Which of the following committee made a recommendation that election commission should be
a three member body ?
[A] Takunde Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] Jeevan Reddy Committee
[D] JP Committee
Correct Answer: A [Takunde Committee]
4. Who among the following is the first woman in India to head an State election commission?
[A] Neela satyanarayan
[B] Sudha Pillai Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] Rita Sinha

[D] Leena Mehendale
Correct Answer: A [Neela satyanarayan]
5. In which year 2 election commissioners were first appointed after the president of India fixed
the number of election commissioners to 2?
[A] 1980
[B] 1985
[C] 1989
[D] 1991
6. Who among the following Chief Election Commissioners of India also served as first Chief
Election Commissioner in Nepal and Sudan?
[A] Sukumar Sen
[B] K V K Sundaram
[C] S P Sen verma
[D] Dr. Nagendra Singh
Correct Answer: A [Sukumar Sen]
7. The registration of Voters is a responsibility of which among the following?

[A] Individual Voters
[B] Government
[C] Election Commission
[D] Corporations
Correct Answer: C [Election Commission ]
8. Who among the following was never a Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
[A] K.V.K.Sundaram
[B] T.Swaminathan
[C] R.K.Trivedi
[D] R.S.Verma
Correct Answer: D [R.S.Verma]
9. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of /to the :
[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: C [Panchayats and Municipalities in the State]
Notes:
The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the
Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vice President.
10. Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India?
[A] It is an independent and statutory body.
[B] It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
[C] It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political
parties.
[D] Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram
Panchayats and State Muncipalities.
Correct Answer: B [It consists of members having a tenure of six years.]
31 – Constitutional Bodies: Union and State Public Service Commissions

1. The executive power of the state is vested in __?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Council of Ministers in the state
Correct Answer: C [Governor ]
Notes:
The executive authority of a state is vested in the Governor; and Governor is the constitutional head of
the state in the same way as President is the Constitutional head of the Union.
2. Which among the following are the three types of services envisaged in the Constitution of
India?
[A] Navy Service, Air force Service and Army Service
[B] Civil Service, Military Service and Paramilitary Service
[C] All-India services, Central services and State services
[D] First Grade Service, Second Grade Service and Third Grade Services
Correct Answer: C [All-India services, Central services and State services]
Notes:
3. In which year, First Public Service Commission was set up in India?
[A] 1922
[B] 1924
[C] 1926
[D] 1928
4. Who appoints Chairman of UPSC?

[A] president
[B] Vice president
[C] Parliament
[D] Cabinet Committee on Appointments
Correct Answer: A [president]
Notes:
UPSC is constitutional body that conducts the prestigious civil services examination to select IAS, IFS
and IPS officers among others. It has been established under Article 315 of the Constitution and consists
of a Chairman and ten Members; appointed and removed by President.
The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term if six years or until they attain the
age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
5. Whom does UPSC submits it annual report?
[A] Parliament
[B] Presidnent
[C] Home minister
[D] Prime minister
Correct Answer: B [Presidnent] Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
6. Which among the following authorities can remove the UPSC chairman?
[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Prime minister
[D] Both A & B
7. Who determines the composition of UPSC?

[A] President
[B] Constitution
[C] Chairman of UPSC
8. Who can appoint and remove the members of the State Public Service Commission?
[A] Governor can appoint and remove
[B] Governor can appoint and President can remove
[C] Governor can appoint and parliament can remove
[D] Governor can appoint and assembly can remove
Correct Answer: B [Governor can appoint and President can remove]
9. By which act Public service commission in India was established for the first time?
[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Govt. of India Act 1919
[C] Govt. of India Act 1858
[D] Govt. of India Act 1935
Correct Answer: B [Govt. of India Act 1919]
10. Who among the following can recommend the removal of the Chairman of UPSC to the
President?

[A] Vice President

[B] Supreme Court
[C] Minister of Human Resources
11. Which of the following articles hints “Doctrine of Pleasure” in context with Services under
union or states?
[A] 308
[B] 310
[C] 312
[D] 314
Notes:
Article 310 of the Indian constitution incorporates the common law doctrine of pleasure. It expressly
provides that all persons who are members of the defences services or the civil services of the union of
the all-India services hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
The posts, which are expressly excluded from doctrine of pleasure

The tenure of the Supreme Court judges [Article 124], High Court judges [Article 218], Auditor General of
India [Article 148(2)], Chief Election Commissioner [Article 324], and the chairman and members of the
Public Service Commission [Article 317] are not dependent on the pleasure of the president or the
governor, as the case may be. These posts are expressly excluded from the operation of the doctrine of
pleasure.
12. Which among the following commision is known for recommendation of abolition of the IAS
and IPS?
[A] Dhebar Commission
[B] Kalekar Commission
[C] Kher Commission
[D] Rajamannar Commission
Correct Answer: D [Rajamannar Commission]
32 – Constitutional Bodies: Finance Commission

1. The name of Barindra Ghosh is associated with which among the following newspapers?
[A] Indian Opinion
[B] Jugantar
[C] Ghadar
[D] Maharatta
Correct Answer: B [Jugantar]
Notes:
Jugantar was a Bengali revolutionary paper founded in 1906 by Barindra kumar Ghosh, Abinash
Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutta.
2. Who among the following recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and State
Govt?
[A] Finance Minister
[B] Finance Commission
[C] Reserve bank of India
[D] Prime minister
Correct Answer: B [Finance Commission]

3. Who among the following recommends to the President the basis for distribution of the net
proceeds of taxes between the centre and states?
[B] RBI
[C] Finance commission
[D] Parliament
Correct Answer: C [Finance commission]
4. The establishment of a finance commission was provided by the Indian constitution by the
President within a period of ______ of commencement of the constitution?
[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 10 years
Correct Answer: A [2 years]
5. What period was covered in the recommendations of first Finance Commission ?

[A] 1951-56
[B] 1952-57
[C] 1953-58
[D] 1954-59
Correct Answer: B [1952-57]
6. Who among the following recommends the president of India regarding the principles which
should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of Consolidated Fund of India?
[B] Comptroller & Auditor General of India
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Controller General of Accounts
Correct Answer: C [Finance Commission]
7. Which among the following makes recommendations to the central government for grants in
aid to the states out of the consolidated fund of India?
[A] NITI Aayog
[B] Finance Commission
[C] Public Accounts Committee
[D] Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Correct Answer: B [Finance Commission]
8. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with constitution of which of the following
commissions?
[A] Law commission
[B] Election commission
[D] Delimitation Commission
9. Which among the following is not correctly matched ? (subject matter of articles)
[A] Article 360 – Financial Emergency

[B] Article 368 – Amendment of the Constitution
[C] Article 323 A – Administrative tribunals
[D] Article 280 – Finance Bill
Correct Answer: D [Article 280 – Finance Bill]
Notes:
Article 280 defines Finance Commission. Finance Bill comes under Article 112.
10. Which among the following is constituted by the President of India under Article 280 (1) of the
Constitution?
[A] Planning Commission
[B] Election Commission
[D] Farmer’s Commission
11. Who among the following determines the qualifications which shall be requisite for
appointment as members of the Finance Commission in India?

[C] Parliament by an act
[D] Union Cabinet
Correct Answer: C [Parliament by an act]
Notes:
Article 280 (2) (2) Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for
appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. In context
with the above article, the parliament enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act
1951
12. The provision for having a Finance Commission to sort out the revenue-sharing arrangement
between states and the Centre is part of the Constitution under which among the following
articles?
[A] Article 275
[B] Article 280
[C] Article 282
[D] Article 285
33 – Constitutional Bodies: National Commissions for SCs and STs

1. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India when Mandal Commission was
constituted?
[A] Indira Gandhi
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] Rajiv Gandhi
[D] V P Singh
Notes:
In terms of Article 340 Morarji Desai Government appointed the Second Backward Classes Commission
under the chairmanship of B P Mandal in the year1979 to investigate the conditions of the socially and
educationally backward classes and suggest measures for their advancement. The commission
submitted its report in 1980 and identified as many as 3743 castes as socially and educationally
backward classes.
27% government reservation of jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) is recommended by the
commission so that the total reservation for all ((SCs, STs and OBCs) amounts to 50%.
After ten years in 1990 that the V P Singh Government declared reservation of 27% government jobs for
the OBCs.
2. Which among the following has been provided to the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional
Forest Dwellers through The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act 2006?
[A] Legal rights on forest land
[B] Allocation of lands in places out side the forests
[C] Employment in Forest related industries
[D] 1 & 2
Correct Answer: A [Legal rights on forest land]
3. In which of the following 3 states the Article 164(1) provided a Minister in charge of tribal
welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward
classes?
[A] Bihar, West Bengal & Orissa
[B] Bihar, Madhya Pradesh & Orissa
[C] Bihar, Rajasthan & Gujarat
[D] Bihar, Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: B [Bihar, Madhya Pradesh & Orissa]
4. Which among the following commissions was established by an amendment of the Constitution
of India?
[A] National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
[B] National Commission for Minorities
[C] National Commission for Women
[D] National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Correct Answer: D [National Commission for Scheduled Tribes]
34 – Constitutional Bodies: GST Council

1. Which of the following was the first country to introduce Goods & Services Tax?
[A] India
[B] Germany
[C] France
[D] USA
Correct Answer: C [France]
35 – Constitutional Bodies: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

1. Which article empowers the president of India to appoint a Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities?
[A] Article 340
[B] Article 347
[C] Article 350 B
[D] Article 353
Correct Answer: C [Article 350 B]
Notes:
Under Article 350B, a special officer for linguistic minorities has been enshrined in the constitution.
This officer is to be appointed by the president.
Its job is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities and
report to the president.
Please note that this report is also one of those reports laid before each house of parliament and
sent to the government of the states concerned.
2. In which year a non statutory minority commission was established in India ?
[A] 1972
[B] 1975
[C] 1977
[D] 1978
3. ” Maulana Azad National Fellowship scheme” is available in India for the students of which
among the following?
[A] Muslims
[B] BPL Families of Muslims
[C] BPL Families of 5 Notified Minorities
[D] 5 Notified Minorities
Correct Answer: D [5 Notified Minorities]
36 – Constitutional Bodies: CAG

1. The accounts of which of the following are not audited by CAG?
[A] Municipal institutions
[B] State Governments
[C] Government Companies
[D] Central Government
Correct Answer: A [Municipal institutions]
Notes:
Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits the receipts and expenditure of State Governments,
Government Companies and Central Government. The audit of local bodies is not done by CAG.
2. Who among the following is called the” guardian of the public purse” of India?
[A] RBI Governor
[B] CAG
[C] Supreme court
[D] Union Finance minister
Correct Answer: B [CAG]
37 – Constitutional Bodies: Attorney General and Auditor General, Advocate General

1. For which among the following periods, an Attorney General is appointed in India?
[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 4 years
[D] Any period which the president feels suitable
Correct Answer: D [Any period which the president feels suitable]
2. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for
the?
[A] Union govt only
[B] State govt

[C] Union govt & state govt
Correct Answer: C [Union govt & state govt]
3. Which among the following articles of Indian Constitution gives right to the Attorney General
of India to speak in Houses of Parliament or their committee?
[A] Article 76
[B] Article 86
[C] Article 96
[D] Article 106
4. Which among the following is the first state in India to set up a directorate of social audit ?
[A] Haryana
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[D] Kerala
Correct Answer: C [Andhra Pradesh]
5. The Qualifications of a candidate for Attorney General must be equivalent to ___?

[A] A Judge of High Court
[B] A Judge of Supreme Court
[C] A Minimum Practice of 10 years in High Courts
[D] A Minimum Practice of 10 years in Supreme Court
Correct Answer: B [A Judge of Supreme Court]
6. The office of the Comptroller & Auditor General of India has been created in / on the basis of __?
[A] Indian Constitution
[B] A cabinet resolution
[C] A presidential Ordinance
[D] Enactment by Parliament
Correct Answer: A [Indian Constitution]
7. In which year , the Comptroller & Auditor General of India was relieved from his responsibilities
of maintenance of accounts?
[A] 1980
[B] 1982
[C] 1985
[D] 1971
8. Which of the following article deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate
General of State?
[A] 155
[B] 160
[C] 162
[D] 165
9. The Advocate-General of an state shall hold office during the pleasure of _____?
[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Chief Minister
[D] Council of Ministers
Correct Answer: B [Governor]
Notes:
Please refer article 165 (3)
10. Which among the following post is NOT dependent on the pleasure of the president or
governor?
[A] A Judge of Supreme Court
[B] A Judge of High Court
[C] Comptroller and Auditor General of India
[D] Attorney-General for India Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
Correct Answer: D [Attorney-General for India]
11. The Constitution of India gives a right to audience in all courts of India, to whom among the
following?
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] Attorney General of India
[D] Solicitor General of India
Correct Answer: C [Attorney General of India]
12. Who among the following is called the “guardian of the public purse” of India?
[A] Comptroller & Auditor General
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
[D] Prime Minister
Correct Answer: A [Comptroller & Auditor General]
38 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Planning Commission, NDC and NITI Aayog

1. For which of the following bodies, no constitutional guidelines exist?
[A] The Election Commission
[B] The Planning Commission
[C] The Finance Commission
[D] UPSC
Correct Answer: B [The Planning Commission]
2. Bring out the extra constitutional body?

[A] Finance commission
[B] Planning Commission
[C] UPSC
[D] Election Commission
Correct Answer: B [Planning Commission]

3. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

[A] Election Commission
[B] Union Public Service Commission
[C] NITI Aayog
[D] Finance Commission
Correct Answer: C [NITI Aayog]
4. which among the following established the Planning commission in 1950 as an extra
constitutional body through a resoltion?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Parliament
[C] Lok Sabha
[D] Cabinet
Correct Answer: D [Cabinet]
39 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Human Rights Commissions

1. The annual reports of which of the following bodies is NOT caused to be laid before the
Parliament by President of India?

[A] Finance Commission
[B] National Human Rights Commission
[C] Public Accounts Committee
[D] UPSC
Correct Answer: B [ National Human Rights Commission ]
Notes:
A question was asked in 2012 Prelims on this fact that the Parliamentary Committees present their
reports themselves. The Reports and Statements get by President to be laid before parliament are as
follows: 1. Annual Financial Statement 2. Reports of Auditor General 3. Annual report of UPSC 4. Reports
of Finance Commission 5. Reports of Special officers of SC & ST 6. Report of the Special officers of
Linguistic Minorities and Backward Classes. The report of NHRC is submitted to Central Government
which in turn submits to parliament.
2. Which among the following is the correct statement in context with eligibility of chairman of
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
[A] The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Judge of Supreme Court of India
[B] The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Judge of a High Court of Indian state or
Supreme Court of India
[C] The Chairman of the NHRC must have experience of 15 years of practice as a human rights
lawyer in Supreme Court of India
[D] The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: D [The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court of
India]
Notes:
Composition of NHRC:
Chairperson must have been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court;
one Member who is or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court;
one Member who is, or has been, the Chief Justice of a High Court;
two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of, or practical experience in,
matters relating to human rights,
Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities, and the National Commission for Women shall
be deemed to be Members of the Commission (The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993)
3. The setting up of which of the following is NOT mentioned in constitution?
[A] Finance Commission

[B] Lok Sabha Secretariat
[C] Election Commission
[D] National Human Rights Commission
Correct Answer: D [National Human Rights Commission]
4. Who among the following can be a chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Any serving judge of Supreme Court
[B] Any retired Judge of Supreme Court
[C] Serving Chief justice of India
[D] Retired Chief Justice of India
Correct Answer: D [Retired Chief Justice of India]
40 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Information Commissions

1. Which among the following committee related to backward Classes?
[A] Rajamannar Committee
[B] Sarkaria Commission Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] Kaka Kalelkar Commission

[D] Rangarajan committee
Correct Answer: C [Kaka Kalelkar Commission]
Notes:
In 1953, the central government established a Backwards Classes Commission under Kalelkar’s
chairmanship with the charter to recommend reforms for removing inequities for underprivileged
people. The Commission issued its report in 1955, recommending, among other things, that the
government grant special privileges to untouchables and other underprivileged people
41 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: CVC, CBI
1. Which of the following brings Out The – Citizens Guide to Fight Corruption ?
[A] Transparency International
[B] Central Vigilance Commission
[C] Consumer Co-operative Societies
[D] Anti-corruption Bureau
Correct Answer: B [Central Vigilance Commission]
2. Which of the following was set up on the basis of recommendation of Shri K. Santhanam
committee?
[A] Central Vigilance Commission
[B] National Commission for Minorities
[C] States Reorganization Commission
[D] National Knowledge Commission
Correct Answer: A [Central Vigilance Commission]
3. On the recommendations of Santhanam Committee, which among the following offices was set
up in India?
[A] Central Vigilance Commission
[B] Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
[C] Foreign Investment Promotion Board
[D] Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Correct Answer: A [Central Vigilance Commission]

42 – Non-Constitutional Bodies: Lok Pal and Lokayuktas

1. The concept Lokpal / Lokayukta Office in India is based upon which of the following?
[A] Parliamentary Commissioner in UK
[B] Ombudsman in Scandinavia
[C] Council of State in France
[D] Council of State in Germany
Correct Answer: B [Ombudsman in Scandinavia]
2. Indian lokpal is synonymous to the institution of Ombudsman existing the

___________countries?
[A] Scandinavian countries
[B] Nordic countries
[C] Benelux countries
[D] G-7 countries
Correct Answer: A [Scandinavian countries]
3. The establishment of LokPal in IndiaKantawas recommended by the Administrative Reforms

Commission (1966) on the lines of Ombudsman in the following countries?

[A] Finland & Norway
[B] Finland, Denmark & Norway
[C] Finland, Norway, Denmark & Switzerland
[D] Finland, England & Norway
Correct Answer: B [Finland, Denmark & Norway]
4. Which among the following was the first state in India to constitute an institution of
Lokayukta?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Orissa
[D] Rajasthan
Correct Answer: C [Orissa]
43 – Co-operative Societies, Official Languages and Tribunals

1. In which year, first Official Language Commission was constituted?
[A] 1952
[B] 1955
[C] 1958
[D] 1959
Notes:
The first official language commission was appointed in 1955 with B.G. Kher as chairman and it
submitted its report in 1956 which was presented to parliament in 1957 and examined by a joint
parliamentary committee.
2. Which among the following is the correct designation of Hindi in India?

[A] National language
[B] Language of communication between states & centre
[C] The Official Language of the Union of India

[D] Official and National Language of India

Correct Answer: C [The Official Language of the Union of India]
3. The first official language commission was appointed in 1955. Who was the chairman of this
commission?
[A] KM Munshi
[B] B. G. Kher
[C] MC Chhagla
[D] Kalekar
Correct Answer: B [B. G. Kher]
Notes:
The first official language commission was appointed in 1955 with B.G. Kher as chairman and it
submitted its report in 1956 which was presented to parliament in 1957 and examined by a joint
parliamentary committee.
4. In which year maximum number of languages were added to the Eighth Schedule ?
[A] 1967
[B] 1982 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] 1997
[D] 2003
Notes:
1967 (Sindhi), 1992 (Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali), 2003 (Bodo, Maithili, Santhali & Dogri)
so answer is 2003
5. Which among the following is first Classical Language?
[A] Sanskrit
[B] Konkani
[C] Malayalam
[D] Tamil
Correct Answer: D [Tamil]
Notes:
The new category of classical language was created in 2004 and Tamil was declared first classical
language of India
Tamil in 2004,Sanskrit in 2005,Kannada in 2008, and Telugu in 2008
6. The Official Language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script and English could be also
used for official purposes” which of the following article says this?
[A] 343(1)
[B] 348(1)
[C] 346
[D] 345
Correct Answer: A [343(1)]
7. Which among the following language comes under 8th schedule of Indian Constitution?
[A] Bhojpuri
[B] Mizo
[C] Rajasthani
[D] Dogari
Correct Answer: D [Dogari]

8. Hindi comes under in which of the following categories?

[A] National Language of India
[B] Mother Tongue of India
[C] Official Language of India
[D] Oldest Language of India
Correct Answer: C [Official Language of India]
9. Khasi and Garo languages are mostly spoken in which of the following states of India?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Nagaland
[C] Meghalaya
[D] Tripura
Correct Answer: C [Meghalaya]
10. Who among the following is widely remembered for his efforts in achieving the Official
Language of India status for Hindi?
[A] Mahavir Tyagi Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[B] Purshottam Das Tandon

[C] Jayaprakash Narayan
[D] Bhagwan Das
Correct Answer: B [Purshottam Das Tandon]
11. 14th September, 1949 Constitution-makers of the country decided to accord the status of
_________ to Hindi.
Choose the most correct option:
[A] National Language of India
[B] Official Language of India
[C] Official Language of Union
[D] National Language of Union
Correct Answer: C [Official Language of Union]
44 – Party System and Elections

1. In which state EVM machines were first used?
[A] Tamil nadu
[B] Kerala
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Odisha
Correct Answer: B [Kerala]
2. The maximum number of candidates an EVM machine can support is _______?

[A] 36
[B] 56
[C] 64
[D] 72
3. Which party of India has more or less the same symbol as that of Republican Party of USA?
[A] Samajwadi party
[B] Bahujan Samaj party

[C] Janta Dal (United)
[D] TDP
Correct Answer: B [Bahujan Samaj party]
4. A political party in India acquires the status of registered party if it secures what fraction of
votes in a state?
[A] 1%
[B] 2%
[C] 3%
[D] 4%
Correct Answer: A [1%]
5. Section 28 A of the Representation of the People Act provides for registration of Political parties
by the election commission of India. This act was enacted in which year ?
[A] 1948
[B] 1949 Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] 1950
[D] 1951
6. Dr. T. M. Nair is related to which of the following ?

[A] Justice party
[B] Labour party of India
[C] Forward Bloc
[D] Trade union
Correct Answer: A [Justice party]
7. In which year the age for voting rights was reduced from 21 to 18?
[A] 1980
[B] 1982
[C] 1986
[D] 1989
Notes:
28 March 1989, By Constitution Sixty First Amendment 1989
8. In which year Government of India banned conducting exit polls and publishing these results
from the time the polls start until all phases of the election are completed?
[A] 2004
[B] 2006
[C] 2008
[D] 2010
9. Which among the following regarding NRI’s Voting rights is correct ?

[A] NRIs can not vote in parliamentary and assembly elections
[B] NRIs can not vote in parliamentary elections but can vote in assembly elections

[C] NRIs can vote in parliamentary elections but can not vote in assembly elections
[D] NRIs can vote in parliamentary as well as assembly elections
Correct Answer: D [NRIs can vote in parliamentary as well as assembly elections]
10. The Constitution 61st Amendment act 1988 substituted the words “Eighteen years” for
“Twenty One years” so that a person who attains the age of 18 years is eligible to vote. In which
article this amendment was made?
[A] Article 321
[B] Article 325
[C] Article 326
[D] Article 330
11. Which among the following regional political parties in India has the Party logo of two leaves?
[A] DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam)
[B] AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam )
[C] MDMK (Marumalarchi Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam )
[D] PMK (Pattali Makkal Katchi)

Correct Answer: B [AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam )]
12. Who among the following is a leader of Janata Dal-Secular?

[A] Lalu Prasad Yadav
[B] Sharad yadav
[C] H.D. Deve Gowda
[D] Ajit Singh
Correct Answer: C [H.D. Deve Gowda]
13. Which among the following political parties have supported (In principle) the demand of Harit
Pradesh?
[A] Indian National Congress
[B] Bhartiya Janta Party
[C] Bahujan Samaj Party
[D] Samajwadi Party
Correct Answer: C [Bahujan Samaj Party]
14. Which among the following was NOT a political party at the time of its foundation?
[A] Sikkim Democratic Front
[B] Mizo National Front
[C] Shiv Sena
[D] Uttarakhand Kranti Dal
Correct Answer: C [Shiv Sena]
15. In which of the following states, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first
time in India?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] West Bengal
Correct Answer: B [Kerala]

Notes:
The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in part of Parur Assembly
Constituency in Kerala in 1982, on experimental basis. Later, the extensive use of EVMs started in 1998.
16. Which among the following is a correct definition of the Political Party in India?
[A] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India registered with the
Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Article 324 of Constitution of India
[B] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India notified as a
Political party by the Election Commission of India
[C] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India which has been
able to secure certain number of votes as prescribed by the Election Commission
[D] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India registered with
the Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Section 29A of Representation of
People Act, 1951
Correct Answer: D [Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India
registered with the Election CommissionKanta asrao a| kantarao401@gmail.com
political party |
under provisions of Section 29A of
Representation of People Act, 1951]
Notes:
Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951 says- Registration with the Election Commission of
associations and bodies as political parties. — 1. Any association or body of individual citizens of India
calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of this Part shall make an
application to the Election Commission for its registration as a political party for the purposes of this
Act.
17. As per the Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of Political Parties and Candidates by
Election Commission of India they can’t hold public meetings during the period of _____ hours
ending with the hour fixed for the close of the poll.
[A] 12
[B] 24
[C] 36
[D] 48
18. As per the Code of Conduct by Election Commission of India for Party in Power, Ministers and
other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from what time ?
[A] 24 hours before the commencement of the election
[B] The time elections are announced by the Commission
[C] 36 hours before the commencement of the election
[D] 48 hours before the commencement of the election
Correct Answer: B [The time elections are announced by the Commission]
Notes:
Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the
time elections are announced by the Commission
19. What has been the maximum number of candidates in any constituency in India at any election
so far?
[A] 133
[B] 333
[C] 533
[D] 1033

Notes:
In Modakurichi Assembly Constituency of Tamil Nadu there were 1033 contesting candidates during the
general election to Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly in 1996. The ballot papers were in the form of a
booklet.
20. When was the EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) first introduced in elections (on experimental
basis) ?
[A] 1989-90
[B] 1992-93
[C] 1998-99
[D] 2002-03
Correct Answer: A [1989-90]
21. In India, the EVMs ( Electronic Voting Machines) have been devised and designed by Election
Commission in collaboration with which among the following?
[A] Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronic Corporation of India
[B] DRDO and Central Electronics LimitedKanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |
[C] DRDO and Rajasthan Electronics and Instruments Ltd.
[D] Central Electronics Limited and Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
Correct Answer: A [Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronic Corporation of India]
22. What is the maximum number of votes which can be cast in Electronic Voting Machine?
[A] 2840
[B] 3840
[C] 5000
[D] 6500
Notes:
EVMs can record a maximum of 3840 votes. As normally the total number of electors in a polling station
will not exceed 1500, the capacity of EVMs is more than sufficient
23. Normally, under the Election Commission’s norms, how far can a polling station be from your
house?
[A] 1 km
[B] 2 km
[C] 3 km
[D] 4 km
Correct Answer: B [2 km]
Notes:
According to Para 3 of Chapter II of Handbook for Returning Officers, polling stations should be set up in
such a manner that ordinarily no voter is required to travel more than two kms to reach his polling
station.
24. What is the maximum number of candidates which EVMs (Electronic Voting Machine) can
cater to?
[A] 32
[B] 64
[C] 78
[D] 100


Notes:
EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit.
If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first
Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be
attached and if the total number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to
cater to a maximum of 64 candidates.
25. During Elections what will happen, if the number of contesting candidates in a constituency
goes beyond 64?
[A] Candidates beyond 64 are Not allowed in a constituency.
[B] Separate EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) will be used.
[C] EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. Voting by means of ballot box will be used.
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: C [EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. Voting by means of ballot box will be
used.]
Notes:
n case the number of contesting candidates goes beyond 64 in any constituency, EVMs cannot be used in
such a constituency. The conventional method of voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper will
have to be adopted in such a constituency. EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is
provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second
Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of
candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total number of candidates
exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a maximum of 64 candidates.
45 – Electoral Reforms and Anti-Defection Law
1. Article 326 of Indian Constitution originally granted electoral franchise to every Indian Citizen
who has not been declared a bankrupt, criminal, insane, or a non resident and has attained age of
____________?
[A] 18 years
[B] 20 years
[C] 21 years
[D] 25 years
Correct Answer: C [21 years]
46 – Important Sections of Indian Penal Code and CrPC

1. Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code is related to which among the following?
[A] Murder
[B] Culpable Homicide
[C] Death under Negligence
[D] Rape
Correct Answer: D [Rape]
Notes:
Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code defines rape.
Section 376 defines the punishment for rape.
2. In which year Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force?
[A] 2004
[B] 2006
[C] 2008
[D] 2010

Notes:
It was passed in 2005 but Ministry of Women and Child Development has issued a notification to bring
it into force from 26th October, 06
3. In which year Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) was repealed?
[A] 1973
[B] 1975
[C] 1978
[D] 1980
4. In which of the following cases , Supreme Court of India held the Bundhs illegal as they cause
violation of Article 19(1) and 21 of the constitution in addition to causing a national loss?
[A] People’s Union for Civil Liberties v/s Union of India
[B] Communist party of India (M) v/s Bharat Kumar and Others
[C] Tata Press Ltd. v/s MTNL
[D] Union of India v/s Association for Democratic Reforms
Correct Answer: B [Communist party of India (M) v/s Bharat Kumar and Others]
5. Sexual Harassment comes under which section of Indian Penal Code?

[A] 355
[B] 368
[C] 376
[D] 509
6. In which year, the protection of Civil Rights Act which provides for a punishment for offences
related to caste and religion was passed?
[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1960
[D] 1965
7. In which year “The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act” was enacted?
[A] 2003
[B] 2005
[C] 2007
[D] 2009

Indian Polity MCQs PDF SSC State PSC Exams PDF

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Indian Polity MCQs PDF SSC State PSC Exams PDF

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

GKTODAY

Indian Polity MCQs PDF [SSC, State PSC Exams]

Kanta rao | kantarao401@gmail.com |

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 2

Cabinet Mission plan

[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru

[C] January 26, 1950

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 4

11. The constitution of India was ordained Kanta

[A] British Government

[A] Cabinet Mission Plan

17. Bring out the wrong statements:

20. Bring out the only incorrect statement:

Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947]

22. Jawahar Lal Nehru headed the Interim Cabinet as _________?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 7

[D] Resolution by Swaraj Party in 1924

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 8

[D] None of them

4. Which schedule of Indian constitution contains languages?

7. Part IV A of our constitution is related to ____?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 9

10. Which among the following is a correct statement?

[A] Attorney General

Correct Answer: B [Forests]

4. The preamble of Constitution of India is ________?

5. The constitution of India derives its ultimate authority from ____?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 12

7. Choose the incorrect sentence among the following?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 13

4 – Union and its Territory

3. Sikkim became a new state in the Union by the __________Amendment act

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 14

Mizoram was formed in 20th Feb1987

9. In which year Manipur and Tripura became full-fledged state of India?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 15

18. Which among the following is 28th state of India ?

19. Which among the following act gave rise to Haryana?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 17

22. In which year Uttranchal was renamed as Uttarakhand?

[C] Language Commission

30. Who among the following functions as Chairman of Zonal Council?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 19

5. Which are the conditions for acquiring Indian Citizenship?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 21

Correct Answer: B [Domicile, Descent & Registration]

11. In which year Indian Citizenship Act was passed?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 22

[B] Parliament of India

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 23

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 24

[A] Fundamental Right

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 25

Correct Answer: D [Right Against Exploitation]

Procedures Established By Law

Correct Answer: B [Courts]

Correct Answer: B [Article 32]

29. Bring Out the wrong statements:

31. Which among the following statement is correct ?

© 2019 GKToday | All Rights Reserved | https://www.gktoday.in 29

33. Article 25-28 of the Indian Constitution deal with __?

[D] Constitutional Remedies

[A] Articles 12-19