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ANIRUDH NAIR
AN26439
From here we can once again use the binomial theorem to write:
X p X q
= xi xm
i m
i m
X p
X q
i
= x xk−i
i k−i
i k−i
P P
Proof. Proof of 1.22 We know that x∈X d(x) = A∈F |A| (Prop. 1.7). If we make an
incidence matrix M = (mx,A ) of F, like as in the proof for prop. 1.7, but with 2 matrices
for both Ai and Aj , we can then take M T M for Ai ∩ Aj . Then counting the number of ones
corresponds to the intersection of the two sets.
1
Final Exam - Grad. Prob. A - 2020 Due date: Tuesday December 15th at 9:00AM
PNotice that if we change the index from x ∈ X on the sum from the left hand side, we get
x∈Ai d(x) and using idea in the previous paragraph, we get:
X m
X
d(x) = |Ai ∩ Aj |
x∈Ai j=1
b−a
=⇒ P r(B̄) ≥
b
b−a
=⇒ P r(X ≥ M − b) ≥
b
Proof. Proof of 20.5 Note: let’s say for convenience that a sub-matrix with all 1’s is called
an ”all-1” sub-matrix. Take a random n x n 0-1 matrix A = (aij ). Take f(A) to be the
number of all-1’s in the matrix A. Now create a new matrix A∗ = a∗ij by switching all of the
1’s in each alone in A to a 0 and no 1’s are switched twice (so if two all-1’s share the same
1 then it is switched only once). Then A∗ contains no all-1’s since at most f(A) 1’s were
switched, so X X
a∗ij ≥ aij − f (A)
Now we let A = (aij ) be a random nXn matrix with probability P (aij = 1) = p. Then we
get: X X
E( a∗ij ) = E(a∗ij ) = n2 p
and 2
n 2
E(f (A)) = pa
a
2 2
This is because there are na a x a sub-matrices that are all-1’s with a probability pa . Thus,
if we apply the linearity of the expectation to the inequality at the beginning, we get:
2
n
X 2
∗ 2
E aij ≥ n p − pa
a
If we approximate na = na /a! and set p = (a − 1)!2/(a −1)−2/(a) , we get:
2
P ∗ P ∗ 2 2
ka (n) ≥ aij ≥ E aij ≥ (1 − a−2 ) (a − 1)! a2 −1 n2− a
2
Then setting = (1 − a−2 )(a − 1)! a2 −1 , we get the result:
2
ka (n) ≥ n2− a