Aircraft Maintenance Rules and Regulations MCQ

1.
On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine is covered under

A. CAR series D part I.
B. aircraft rule 70.
C. aircraft rule 72.
D. CAR series D part III.
2. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval are covered under

A. IAF 60(2).
B. IAR 62.
C. CAR series D part II.
D. Both a and c are correct.
3. Alert value means

A. maximum reliability index.
B. minimum reliability index.
C. maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range.
D. None of the above.
4. When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will

A. monitor the corrective programmes closely to determine their effectiveness and indicate the necessity of
the amendment.
B. keep the DGCA informed of the progress and effectiveness of the corrective programme.
C. inform the manufacturer of the aircraft for taking corrective action.
D. Both a and b is correct.
5. Reliability is a function of
A. maintenance.
B. basic design.
C. personal training.
D. All of the above.
6. IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to

A. specify the standard of balloons maintenance.
B. specify the standard of glider maintenance.
C. specify the standard of aircraft maintenance.
7. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/re-working parts to a
given standard is termed as
A. maintenance.
B. overhaul.
C. top overhaul.
8. An item is judge damage-tolerant

A. if structural element or assembly is judged significant because of reduction in aircraft residual strength
or loss of structural function.
B. if it can sustain damage & the remaining structure can withstand reasonable load or excessive structural
deformation when the damage is detected.
C. a and b are correct.
D. All of the above are correct.
9. S.S.I. Are
A. solid structure items.
B. structuallly significant instruction.
C. significant service instruction.
D. structural significant item.
10. S.S.I are

A. structural assembly.
B. structural assembly which is judge significant because of the reduction in aircraft residual strength.
C. damage tolerant item.
11. On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy

A. of fit and forget it.
B. of fit until failure.
12. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy

A. of fit and forget it.
B. of fit until failure.
C. Both a and b are correct.
13. Substantial damage means

A. any damage beyond repair.
B. any damage which necessitate the replacement of any component.
C. any damage necessitating the replacement or extensive repair of any major component.
D. any damage beyond economical repair.
14. Approved maintenance process is monitored by

A. hard time maintenance.
B. on-condition maintenance.
D. aircraft mechanical delay & PDR.
15. The continuing capability of the aircraft to perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation for
which it was designed is termed as
A. maintenance.
B. condition monitoring.
C. airworthiness.
D. on-condition.
16. Hard time maintenance is carried out at

A. calendar time.
B. no. of cycles.
C. no. of landing.
D. any one of the above is correct.
17. In an approved maintenance process, pilot report is computed as

A. rate per 1000 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
B. rate per 100 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
C. rater per 1000 hrs of operation/per 500 departures.
D. any one of the above is correct.
18. S.S.I.D contains

A. significant structural item, method of inspection and required corrective action.
B. supplemental structural inspection document.
C. approved programme to be included in a.c. manual.
19. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameter in a
A. tabulated form.
B. graphical form.
C. graphical form if feasible or tabulated form.
D. graphical & tabulated form.
20. The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition

A. during take off.
B. during landing.
C. during ground rein.
D. during cruise level flying.
21. The life record of all the engine acessories is available in

A. T.B.O charts.
B. J.L.B.
C. Engine log book.
D. O/H procedure sheet.
22. Every engine parameter has an alert value which is fixed by

A. operator.
B. DGCA.
C. RAO.
D. operator in consultation with RAO.
23. Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period of

A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
24. Alert values are

A. reference values only.
B. accepting limits only.
C. both a and b are correct.
25. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded
A. in the engine log log book.
B. in the aircraft log book.
C. by an AME.
D. both a and b are correct.
26. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded
A. after post overhaul test of the engine.
B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable.
C. at periods approved as per the approved maintenance schedule.
D. All the above are correct.
27. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by
A. lincensed AME.
B. QCM.
C. Dy QCM.
D. any authorised person.
28. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is measured in terms of

A. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to number of engine flight hours.
B. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation to number of airframe flight hours.
C. the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in relation to number of airframe hours.
D. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to propeller flight hours.
29. If the operator's reliability index is above the alert value, he will
A. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 25th day of the month.
B. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 10th day of the month.
C. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 25th day of the month.
D. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 10th day of the month.
30. Reliability index is

A. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of
airframe and engine combination.
B. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that particular type of
airframe and engine combination.
C. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of
airframe.
D. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of
engine.
31. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from
A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance.
B. un-schedule removals.
C. sampling inspection.
32. Alert value is numerically equal to

A. 'Mean value' plus "standard deviation".
B. 'Mean value' plus "two standard deviation".
C. 'Mean value' plus "mode value".
D. 'Mode value' plus "two standard deviation".
33. The requirements to CAR are applicable to all

A. schedule airlines.
B. private airlines.
C. air taxi operator.
D. All are correct.
34. Alert notice is issued by

A. the DGCA.
B. the RAO.
C. the QCM.
D. the RMU.
35. A person of issue of ATPL shall have

A. 1500 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC.
B. 2000 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC.
C. 1500 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC.
D. 3000 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC.
36. Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is

A. 06 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 18 months.
D. 24 months.
37. Alert Notice will be issued by the R.M.U.
A. to all concerned persons of the organisation.
B. in duplicate to the RAO.
C. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month.
38. Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft is approved in

A. category 'A'.
B. category 'C'.
C. category 'B'.
39. A firm doing processing of aircraft components by electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying,
heat treatment, etc. is approved in
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'.
D. category 'F'.
40. A firm approved in category 'A'

A. carries out maintenance of aircraft.
B. carries out manufacture of aircraft.
C. carries out storage & distribution.
D. carries out manufacture storage & distribution.
41. A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is approved in

A. category 'B'.
B. category 'C'.
C. category 'D'.
D. category 'E'.
42. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics sets is approved in

A. category 'A'.
B. category 'E'.
C. category 'D'.
D. category 'C'.
43. A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure test of aircraft approved

A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'.
D. category 'E'.
44. An organisation approved in carrying out propeller overhaul is approved in

A. category 'C'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'D'.
D. category 'E'.
45. Firms approvedin category 'E'

A. can carry out maintenance of aircraft.
B. can carry out manufacture of aircraft.
C. can carry out training of aircraft personel.
D. can carry out distribution of fuels.
46. A firm carrying out chemical analysis physical test and metallurgical tests is approved in
A. category 'E'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category "E & D'.
D. All these are correct.
47. One copy of all documents used in the system of quality control in respect of activities performed
including all incoming certification is preserved for a minimum period of
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
48. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of

A. six months.
B. one year.
C. two years.
D. five years.
49. Release notes are distributed as follows
A. 1st copy to consignee, 2nd copy to organisation records.
B. 1st copy to organisation records, 2nd copy to consignee.
C. 1st copy to supplier, 2nd copy to RAO.
D. 1st copy to RAO, 2nd copy to supplier.
50. First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to

A. organisation records.
B. supplier.
C. consignee.
D. RAO.
51. 'Release notes' is signed by

A. a person approved by DGCA.
B. a person approved by RAO.
C. a person named in terms of approval.
52. Certificate of approval is cancelled by

A. DGCA.
B. RAO/DAI.
C. Director of Airsafety.
D. Both b and c are correct.
53. To get type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments, one should submit the
following
A. maintenance manual.
B. detailed drawing.
C. type instruction & type service manual.
54. Which of the following statement is false?

A. in case any conponent or equipment fitted on aircraft is due for replacement earlier than the validity of
flight release certificate issued by AME, the FRC automatically ceases to be valid the item or component is
not removed in a stipulated time.
B. FRC is invalid if aircraft suffers any major damage.
C. The validity of FRC is 12 hrs of operation of four days, whichever is earlier.
D. The pilot can certify pre-flight inspection schedule in respect of an aircraft engaged in non-schedule
operation provided he is approved by DGCA.
55. Approved maintenance organisation, maintaining private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their
A. Maintenance system manual.
B. Quality Control manual.
C. Operation manual.
D. Engineering Organisation manual.
56. As per CAR series E part I, storing and distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a firm is
approved in
A. category 'C'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category 'A'.
D. category 'F'.
57. Manufacturer means

A. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of airframe, engine, aircraft components or items of
equipment to approved specifications and drawings.
B. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of aircraft.
C. an organisation engaged in the maintenance of aircraft.
58. Type certificate means a certificate issued

A. to an organisation engaged in the manufacture of particular 'type of aircraft'.
B. to a particular type of aircraft or for a series of aircraft.
C. by RAO to signify the design of a type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment.
D. by DGCA to signify the design of a type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment.
59. An organisation engaged in manufacture of aircraft component issues

A. certificate of maintenance.
B. certificate of airworthiness.
C. certificate of approval.
D. certificate of manufacture.
60. An organisation desiring approval in category 'B' for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA
A. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
B. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
C. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
D. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg.
61. 'Aircraft goods' means

A. any part of the soundness and correct functioning of which is essential to the continued airworthiness or
safety of the aircraft.
B. aircraft components and items of equipment.
C. aircraft components or materials, including paints, dopes, thinner, fuel lubricant and special petroleum
products intended in use in civil aircraft.
D. Both a & b are correct.
62. Certificate of approval

A. is a document issued by an approved organisation and defines the scope of organisation.
B. is a document issued by an organisation to state its approval in category viz, 'A', 'B' etc.
C. is a document issued by DGCA to an approved organisation and giving the scope of approval.
63. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials and goods and certifying
that the same were obtained from an approved source after manufacture /repair /overhaul is called
A. sale certificate.
B. release certificate.
C. release note.
64. Rejection note is a document

A. issued by DGCA to an approved organisation to cover the return of aircraft component received under
incoming certificate.
B. issued by an approved organisation for purpose of advising the details of rejection of certified aircraft
goods which fail to meet applicable requirements.
C. issued by RAO to cover the return of any aircraft component received under incoming release note.
D. Both a & c are correct.
65. All AME's should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once
A. in a year.
B. in two years.
C. in six years.
D. in five years.
66. An organisation seeking approval in any of the categories A to G should

A. apply to RAO in duplicate.
B. apply to DGCA in duplicate.
C. apply to DGCA in duplicate along with the enclosures.
D. apply to RAO in duplicate along with the enclosures.
67. An organisation seeking approval will normally submit

A. two different types of manual.
B. three different types of manual.
C. three different types of manual in three sets.
68. Three different manuals required for approval of an organisation are

A. Q.C. manual, M S Manual, Structural Repair manual.
B. Q.C. manual, Structural Repair manual, Engine Overhaul manual.
C. Q.C. manual, Engine Overhaul manual M S manual.
D. Q.C. manual, M S manual, Engineering Organisation manual.
69. Engineering Organisation manual is

A. approved by DGCA.
B. approved by RAO.
C. organisational set-up (organisation tree) of the firm with particular reference to the duties and
responsibilities of the various major units of engineering facility like production, quality control
D. approved by operator.
70. Quality Control manual is approved by

A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. DGCA in consultation with RAO.
D. Director Aeronautical Inspection.
71. Maintenance System manual is approved by:

A. DGCA.
B. DGCA in consultation with RAO.
C. Controller of Airworthiness.
D. RAO in consultation with DGCA.
72. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect
of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is contained in
A. Engineering Organisation manual.
B. Q.C. manual.
C. M.S. manual.
73. Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance' to 'operation' is contained in
A. Q.C.manual.
B. M.S. manual.
C. Engineering Organisation manual.
D. Both a and b are correct.
74. As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory instruments and equipments required for having single
engine are
A. altimeter, ASI, RPM indicator.
B. altimetr, ASI, watch.
C. altimeter, ASI, fire extinguisher.
D. altimeter, ASI.
75. Installation of FDR is a must for issue/renewal/validity of C of A on

A. all turbine engined aircraft.
B. all aircraft above 15000 kg.
C. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg and above.
D. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above.
76. A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure indicator is a must on aircraft
A. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR.
B. manufactured after 30th June 1978.
C. intended to cruising above 30000 feet.
D. on international flight over international waters.
77. The installation of CVR is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft with
A. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg.
B. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above.
C. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above.
D. None is correct.
78. Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities are
not available the certification may be deferred to
A. inspection associated with next flight certification.
B. next 100 hours schedule.
C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Any one of the above.
79. Mechanical stream means the trades of

A. airframe and engines.
B. machine and engines.
C. instruments and autopilots.
D. None is correct.
80. Avionic stream means the trades of

A. radido communication and navigation system.
B. electrical and instruments system.
C. autopilots and radar systems.
D. All are correct.
81. Concurrent experience means

A. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of the same stream.
B. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of different streams.
C. experience acquired simultaneously on engine and instruments system.
82. Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding

A. 24 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 3 months.
83. AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to

A. ICAO type I licence.
B. ICAO type II licence.
C. ICAO type III lincece.
D. ICAO type IV licence.
84. AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to

A. ICAO type I licence.
B. ICAO type II licence.
C. ICAO type III licence.
D. ICAO type IV licence.
85. Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to specific type of

A. aircraft.
B. engine.
C. electrical equipment.
D. All are correct.
86. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to
show an additional experience of
A. three months.
B. six months.
C. twelve months.
D. None is correct.
87. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have
to show on additional experience of
A. 12 months with 3 months recent experience.
B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience.
C. 6 months with 3 months recent experience.
D. 6 months.
88. An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total
aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which
A. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 3 month recent experience.
B. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience.
C. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 12 month recent experience.
D. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience.
89. AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter
A. with AUW below 5700 kg.
B. with AUW below 15000 kg.
C. with AUW below 3000 kg.
D. with AUW below 2000 kg.
90. Person having valid AME licence covering aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an extension
of glider will have to show a recent experience of
A. 12 months on particular type of glider.
B. 6 months on particular type of glider.
C. 3 months on particular type of glider.
D. 1 month on particular type of glider.
91. AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston engines
A. below 500 BHP.
B. below 450 BHP.
C. below 300 BHP.
D. below 250 BHP.
92. For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C' the candidate should have
A. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience.
B. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months should be recent experience.
C. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months should be recent experience.
D. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience.
93. For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate must possess
A. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical test.
B. a licence in category E,I and R.
C. BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have undergone an approved training course on integrated avionics
system.
D. All are correct.
94. Licence in category 'X' is issued for

A. overhaul of V.P. propeller.
B. overhaul of radio equipment.
C. overhaul of electrical system installed on light aircraft.
95. An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper I, II and III of AME licence examination after he/she
has acquired at least
A. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience.
B. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience.
C. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category.
D. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category.
96. The licence in category R pertaining to heavy aircraft will be endorsed as

A. valid for communication/navigation/radar system installed on the under mentioned aircraft.
B. HF, VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega, DME weather radar etc. on particular type of aircraft.
C. 'valid for heavy aircraft'.
97. Airborne communication system includes

A. VHF, HF, CVR, FDR, audio equipment.
B. VHF, HF, VLF/omega ADF, audio equipment.
C. VHF, HF, CVR, audio equipment.
D. VHF, HF, VOR, ILS audio equipment.
98. Airborne navigation system includes

A. ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic equipment.
B. ADF, VHF, HF, FDR, VLF/omega and CW hyperbolic equipment.
C. WX Radar, DME, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder.
D. WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder.
99. Airborne radar system includes

A. ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder.
B. ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder HF.
C. WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC transponder.
D. WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder.
100. CAR are issued by DGCA

A. to amplify any specific aircraft rule for the understanding of the operator.
B. as a statutory requirement, non-compliance of which is a violation.
C. to meet the technological developments and changes in maintenance concept on sophisticated new
generation aircraft.
D. All above are correct.
101. The purpose of itnroduction of CAR series C is

A. to stipulate the requirement of recording, reporting, investigation, rectification and analysis of defect.
B. to raise in general the safety consciousness of the operator quality control organisation.
C. to indicate an analytical approach to reliability monitoring during maintenance to insure safety of
operation and timely preventive maintenance measures.
D. to introduce a procedure by which operator maintenance standard can be monitored from a distance.
102. All major defects experienced by an organisation engaged in maintenance/major maintenance

A. should only be reported to DGCA in the manner specified in the CAR.
B. may also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft / aircraft componentsw for seeking advice to
prevent recurrence of defects.
C. It is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of major defects to undertake continuous
assessment of structural integrity.
D. Both b & c are correct.
103. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
A. identifying potential problems.
B. optium utilisation of aircraft.
C. achieving operational economy.
D. keeping in force with present day technology.
104. An "item of equipment" means

A. functionally significant item on aircraft.
B. an essential unit on aircraft for safety of aircraft or its components.
C. it is a self contained unit.
D. a combination of all.
105. The content/scope/frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised

A. only when maker so desires.
B. only when DGCA so desires.
C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA.
D. only after incorporation of a major modification.
106. A critical I.F.S.D means

A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control.
B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test flights.
C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing abnormal indication.
107. According to CAR series D part II "condition monitoring" component means

A. that contains those units and system which may be operating for a limited period.
B. either approved by DGCA or the QCM of the organisation.
C. that contains those units and system which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without
affecting the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.
D. a configuration deviation list (CDL) in respect of transport category aircraft.
108. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorised individual it should
be promptly intimated to
A. owner/operator of the aircraft.
B. International Airport authority of India.
C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office.
D. Both a & c are correct.
109. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category may be used for

A. research or experimental purpose.
B. racing aircraft.
C. carrying passengers/mails/goods or for imparting training.
D. normal category after obtaining permission from DGCA.
110. While operating an agricultural aircraft the minimum requirement for preflight inspection
A. must be carried before each flight.
B. may be carried out once before the first flight of the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have suffered
from any defect or damage.
C. need not be carried out if the flight release certificate is valid.
D. None of the above is correcty.
111. If the defects observed in the aircraft other than public transport aircraft at places other than normal
base they may be recorded in the
A. defect register which must be carried on board.
B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect register kept at normal base.
C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register.
112. As per CAR series 'C' part I the records associated with the defects and their rectification shall be
preserved for a period of
A. one year.
B. six months.
C. two years.
D. Not required to be preserved.
113. In determining the proven 'service life' of an aircraft or any of its component might be the factor that
will be kept in view will be the
A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation and applicant's own service experience on similar type
of components.
B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e. shorthaul and longhaul operation.
C. other operator service experience of similar equipment.
D. All are correct.
114. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for
approval. This is not applicable in case of
A. non-schedule operators.
B. private operators.
C. gliding clubs.
D. schedule operators.
115. The application form for change of ownership of aircraft is

A. CA 23.
B. CA 28.
C. CA 27.
D. CA 98.
116. With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every
passenger seat by
A. schedule operator.
B. non-schedule operator.
C. state aircraft.
117. Deficiency list is to be approved by DGCA. This is applicable to

C. private operator.
118. Alert value means maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable
operating range which will not cause malfunction to an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is
applicable to
A. all aircraft engines.
B. piston engines only.
C. turbine engines only.
D. small aircraft engine operator only.
119. The formal for maintenance of records of fuel and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light
aircraft engine is given in
A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976.
B. CAR series D part V.
C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make for himself and get it approved by DGCA.
D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970.
120. The grant of approval to an organisation in any category will depend upon
A. the request of the applicant.
B. capability/capacity to perform the work.
C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical staff.
121. How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft?
A. From the pink page of relevant log book.
B. From the green page of log book.
C. From the white page of log book.
D. From the manufacturer.
122. All aircraft registered in India must have

A. fire extinguisher and defuelling means.
B. fire extinguisher and first aid Kit, contents of which, has been certified by an AME.
C. play-card indicating up-to what estent smoking is allowed.
123. As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident which has major defect
A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the departure day.
B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off.
C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection.
124. Mark the correct statement

A. MEL does not include flying controls, complete engine and landing gears.
B. MEL may not include items like galley equipment entertainment systems, passengers, convenience
equipment which do not effect the airworthiness of the aircraft.
C. not withstanding the MEL, AME need not to certify the aircraft for flight release or a pilot need not to
accept the aircraft for flight if it is feared that it is unsafe to do so.
D. All are correct.
125. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on

A. the capacity of the firm to undertake the job.
B. the equipment available and technical literature.
C. suitable & QCM & Dy QCM.
126. Only one of the following need not have the approval of the maintenance organisation
A. private owner of aircraft.
C. schedule operator.
D. aircraft owned by state govts.
127. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation is approved by the
A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
B. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines and Air India.
C. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the region.
D. Only b & c are correct.
128. The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on the part of schedule operator
A. to examine the nature of defect experience on the previous day.
B. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate.
C. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature.
D. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in co-operation with AID.
129. If during an investigation the cause of the defects is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft
maintenance engineer
A. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM immediately.
B. the offender is issued show-cause notice.
C. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of
penal action.
D. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action.
130. All major defects experienced by an organisation during maintenance should be reported to DGCA
A. in the manner specified in CAR.
B. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention
of recurrence of similar defects.
C. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of only structural defects.
131. For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine system for functioning in flight, the crew member
should record all necessary parameter readings
A. once during each sector of flight.
B. only under stabilised cruise condition.
C. during climbing phase soon after take off.
D. only under emergency condition of flight.
132. On public transport aircraft the defects reported by the pilot are recorded in
A. jib column II.
B. flight report book and the aircraft can only be released for further flight when duly rectified by the AME.
C. flight report book only when the nature of the defect is major.
D. defect register maintained by the Quality Control Manager to ensure corrective action.
133. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of engine parameters (EGT/EPR/TAS/N1/N2) is

intended to
A. evaluate alert values.
B. detect in-service deterioration.
C. establish aerodynamic cleanliness.
D. determine reliability index.
134. An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by
A. manufacturer.
B. the DGCA.
C. the RMU.
D. the QCM.
135. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at
A. optimum utilisation of aircraft.
B. achieving operational economy.
C. identifying potential areas.
D. keeping in pace with present day technology.
136. Aircraft noise level requirements

A. are applicable to supersonic aircraft.
B. relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports.
C. may be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or class of aircrafts.
D. should have been complied with an aircraft before 21.12.85.
137. The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt
out in
A. M E L.
B. C D L.
C. Flight Manual.
D. M S manual.
138. Maintenance procedure for GPWS will be included in

A. Quality Control Manual.
B. Maintenance System Manual.
C. Flight Manual.
D. appropriate maintenance schedule.
139. The contents of scope and frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised
A. only when makers so desire.
B. only when DGCA so desires.
C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA.
D. only after the incorporation of a major modifications.
140. A major defect investigation

A. should not be done in haste.
B. should be done with speed for timely preventive/curative action.
C. to pin-point the cause is more important.
D. any one of the above.
141. The purpose behind recording of defects and inflight instrument reading is to achieve
A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical quality control system.
B. effective monitoring.
C. timely corrective action.
142. When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or a major defect
is found
A. DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying.
B. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate authority of
the country of registration of the aircraft.
C. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration and
allows the aircraft to fly.
D. None of the above is correct.
143. Critical shut-down are those

A. which cause aircraft structural damage, generate projection or fires adversely effecting the
controllability of aircraft.
B. shut down for test or training.
C. those which cannot be put down or feathered.
144. A current list of all in-flight shut down rate, engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted in a
consolidated manner to the RAO
A. by the 15th of each month.
B. by the end of each month.
C. by the tenth of each month.
145. When a new issue of any CAR parts becomes effective

A. the earlier parts stand cancelled.
B. the earlier issued stands cancelled.
C. the earlier issue of that particular CAR part stands cancelled.
D. the earlier series stand cancelled.
146. At present one copy of each CAR is supplied free to

A. all AME's.
B. all pilots.
C. all owners/operators of the aircraft.
D. All the above.
147. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is
the responsibility of the
A. operator/owner.
B. head of the organisation.
C. AME.
D. QCM.
148. When minor changes are made to a CAR part

A. a new issue is issued.
B. a new part is issued.
C. an amendment is issued.
D. new series are issued.
149. Whenever a new issue of a CAR part is issued it is given

A. an issue number.
B. a part no.
C. issue number along with the date of issue.
D. issue number along with the date of issue & date of effectively.
150. The certification to the effect that any servicing, modification, repair, inspection have been carried out
in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the DGCA is called
B. certificate of flight release.
C. certificate of maintenance review.
D. release note.
151. Public transport aircraft can

A. undertake aircraft work.
B. also be a private aircraft.
C. carry passengers but not cargo.
D. carry persons or cargo for renumeration.
152. Flight time as per aircraft rules means

A. the moment aircraft first moves under its own power for taking off until it comes to rest at the end of the
flight.
B. synonymous to the term "block to block".
C. synonymous to term "chock to chock".
153. Contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state

A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with another state.
B. contracted for a particular condition for carrying passengers.
C. which is for the time-being a party to the convention of the ICAO.
D. which is for the time-being a party to the IATA.
154. Flight manual is a manual

A. associated with the C of A.
B. associated with the C of R.
C. associated with the FRC.
D. which need not be carried on board.
155. During refuelling of aircraft

A. aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may remain 'ON'.
B. steady parking light and such switches may be operated.
C. no special precautions are necessary for ground power supply.
D. the ground power unit, tractor and similar equipment shall be located outside the defined "danger zone".
156. The form used for applications for approcal of firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR
series E part I is
A. CA 180.
B. CA 182.
C. CA 28.
D. CA 23.

A. A normal category aircraft can be used for only manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category.
B. Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and agricultural spraying.
C. Aerobatic category can be used for all categories.
158. On an India registered aircraft a mandatory modification is to be carried in a non-contracting state.

The following can carry the modification:
A. An approved person of the non-contracting state.
B. A person having qualification recognised by DGCA.
C. An approved person of contracting state.
159. The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights:
A. C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list.
B. FRC, JLB.
C. Route guide.
160. For taxying an aircraft, a person having AME cat 'C' licence should possess the following:
A. RT licence if required.
B. Qualified to use radio communications.
C. A person should know layout of aerodrome.
D. a, b & care correct.
161. To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments should contain the
following:
A. Maintenance manual.
B. Detailed drawings.
C. Types instructions and typed service manual.
D. All the above.
162. Disposable load is

A. Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during emergency conditions.
B. All persons and their belongings.
C. Empty load and variable load.
D. Fuel and oil which is unusable.
163. Engine power check on ground is done on helicopter by

A. an AME having vast experience.
B. an AME having licence on that engine.
C. flight crew.
D. All the above.
164. An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and coming back without landing at any
other place, should carry the following document (I) C of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency check-
list (IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (VII) Pilot Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable.
A. 1,2,3,4.
B. 2,6,7,3.
C. 4,5,8,3.
D. All the above.
165. The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having
A. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above.
B. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above.
C. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 kg or above.
D. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or above.
166. A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a document

A. which contains those units and systems which may remain inoperative in service for a limited period.
B. approved by the DGCA.
C. which contains those units and systems which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without
effecting safety and airworthiness of the airc.
D. Both (b) & (c) are correct.
167. The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before
A. C of A renewal.
B. type certifcation of aircraft.
C. complete overhaul of the aircraft.
D. no. (a) above, as specified in operation manual.
168. Approved maintenance organisation maintaining private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their
A. maintenance system manual.
B. quality control manual.
C. operation manual.
D. engineering organisation manual.
169. For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is
A. C of A.
B. C of R.
C. type certificate.
D. log book.
170. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for a period of

A. one year from the date of issue.
B. six months from the date of issue.
C. six months from the date of expiry.
171. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
A. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D'.
B. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25.
C. as laid down by australian govt. for agricultural aircraft.
D. Both (a) & (b) are correct.
172. The two preventive maintenance processes are known as

A. hard time & condition monitoring.
B. hard time & conditioning.
C. on-condition & condition monitoring.
D. on-condition & hard time.
173. The minimum conditions to be complied with under aircraft rules, before any aircraft is allowed to be
flown are:
A. the aircraft has been maintained as per stipulated maintenance schedules by the DGCA.
B. Maintenance has been carried out by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person.
C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in the
specified period.
D. Aqll are correct.
174. One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A
A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure.
B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing.
C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due.
D. Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at their stipulated T.B.S.'s.
175. Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division
"Private Aircraft". This aircraft can be used for
A. experimental purposes.
B. aerial works.
C. aerobatic purposes.
D. flying executives to their factory without any remuneration.
176. A public transport aircraft is categorised in "Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. Can it
execute any steep turns?
A. No.
B. Yes.
C. Limited bank if specified in flight manual.
D. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to increase in G-forces.
177. A manual associated with C of A containing limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be
airworthy is called
A. operating manual.
B. Q C manual.
C. maintenance system manual.
D. flight manual.
178. 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list' are applicable as per rules on which of the following
category/classification of aircraft.
A. For all aircraft engaged in public transport.
B. For state aircraft.
C. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation including training aircraft.
D. All aircraft registered in India.
179. MEL is applicable to aircraft operated by:

A. private operator.
C. schedule & non-schedule operator.
D. by all aircraft having C of A.
180. MEL allows the aircraft to

A. keep on flying for unlimited period.
B. keep on flying for limited period.
C. fly from transit station to base station where maintenance facilities exist.
181. Invoking MEL for a period longer than absolutely necessary will result in
A. increased crew load and increased airworthiness.
B. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
C. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness.
D. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
182. MMEL stands for

A. Main Minimum Equipment List.
B. Manufacture Minimum Equipment List.
C. Master Minimum Equipment List.
D. Mandatory Minimum Equipmet List.
183. MEL is framed on

A. operator experience.
B. the basis of MMEL.
C. approval by DGCA.
D. All the above.
184. Deficiency list includes

A. wings, flight controls, landing gears.
B. complete Engine & its accessories.
C. galley equpment, entertainment system.
D. none of the above.
185. An AME after releasing the aircraft after invoking MEL

A. shall inform the pilot of the aircraft of the same.
B. shall inform the RAO of the same.
C. shall make an entry in the technical log and placard the inoperative system.
D. Both (a) & (c) are correct.
186. Deficiency list (MEL) is applicable

A. to transit station.
B. to terminal station.
C. only to main base station.
D. All the above.
187. When an aircraft is flying on MEL

A. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours.
B. the operator has to inform the RAO and DGCA in writing within 24 hours.
C. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours if aircraft is released under the purview of
MEL from the parent base.
188. The MEL pre-amble contains

A. procedure for release of aircraft with items of equipment unserviceable as per MEL.
B. when and where the defects/items will be rectified/replaced.
C. defining the main base and transit stations.
D. (a), (b) & (c) are correct.
189. Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared under the purview of aircraft rule
A. 60 A.
B. 62 B.
C. 7 B.
D. 70 B.
190. Cockpit check-list means

A. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after the flight.
B. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after and before the days
of flight.
C. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and
in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft.
D. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew & ground crew in the
order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of a aircraft.
191. A list containing items of action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed, whenever
emergent situations develop in flight on account of failures/malfunction of aircraft systems/components and
requiring extra alertness on the part of flight crew is
A. safety list.
B. emergency list.
C. emergency check list.
D. Cockpit check-list.
192. A list containing items of inspections/action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed
and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft is
A. check-list.
B. cockpit check-list.
C. emergency check-list.
D. safety list.
193. Bonded store is a store where
A. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting DGCA approval.
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved
sources.
C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval.
194. Quarantine store is a store where

A. airtworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting DGCA approval.
B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved
sources.
C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources.
D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval.
195. Separate stores are maintained for

A. inflammable goods.
B. bearings.
C. propellers.
D. hardwares.
196. Incoming release notes or other equipvalent documents shall be preserved for
A. two years.
B. five years.
C. ten years.
D. till the life of covered item.
197. Release note contains

A. a cross reference to the outgoing certification document.
B. a cross reference to the incoming certification document.
C. details from the outgoing certification of any deviation from the approved design document.
198. 'Chief Instructor' is a mandatory requirement for organisation approved in

A. category 'A'.
B. category'C'.
C. category 'F'.
D. category 'G'.
199. The 'Pass marks' in approved training school shall not be less than
A. 80%.
B. 70%.
C. 60%.
D. 90%.
200. In case of re-examination of failed candidate in approved training school the passing mark shall not be
less than
A. 80%.
B. 90%.
C. 70%.
D. 60%.
201. The duration of training period for specialised course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. manufacturer of aircraft/engines.
D. organisation.
202. In an organisation approved in category 'G' during any course the practical training shall not be
normally
A. less than 50% of total training time.
B. less than 40% of total training time.
C. more than 50% of total training time.
D. more than 40% of total training time.
203. A candidate appearing for examination in any approved course should have at least
A. 60% attendance.
B. 70% attendance.
C. 80% attendance.
D. 90% attendance.
204. The Q.C.M. & Dy Q.C. M. are approved by the

A. Chief Engineer of an airline operator.
B. controller of Airworthiness.
C. Managing Director of an organisation.
D. DGCA.
205. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation are approved by the

B. Q.C.M of only Indian Airlines & Air India.
C. controller of Director of Airworthiness of the region.
206. The component life list is a part of

A. Maintenance System manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation.
B. Quality Control manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation.
C. Maintenance system manyual and may be revised in concurrence of the DGCA.
D. Quality control manual, once approved by DGCA can be revised by the Quality Control Manager.
207. When any component or item is drawn from the bonded stores by the AME, he should ensure that
there is a
A. proper release note available.
B. certificate of maintenance release available.
C. certificate of safety available.
D. consignment note available.
208. Every Inidian registered aircraft is required to possess

A. certificate of Airworthiness.
B. current and valid certificate of airworthiness before it is flown.
C. certificate of Airworthiness only for test flight.
209. To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid C of A is the responsibiloity of
A. D.G.C.A.
B. Regional Airworthiness Office.
C. Manufactuere of the Aircraft.
D. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft.
210. The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition by subjecting the aircraft & component to
A. periodical inspections as approved by D.G.C.A.
B. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved by the D.G.C.A.
C. carry out repairs/modifications as required by D.G.C.A.
211. It is the responsibility of the owner to
A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating limitations.
B. report all defects encountered in flight or during routine maintenance to A.I.D.
C. record such defects as per procedure specified in C.A.R. series 'C'.
D. a,b,c are correct.
212. Operator co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D.

A. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D.
B. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D. in supervising the engineering activities.
C. Both a & b are correct.
D. Both a& b are not correct.
213. A.I.D. Officers monitor the airworthiness standards stipulated by D.G.C.A.

A. through medium of spot checks.
B. through investigation of defects reported to them.
C. through the D.G.C.A.
214. Technical officers of R A O may require owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft components
for inspection.
A. whenever they like.
B. when the operator / owner is ready.
C. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance with prescribed airworthiness standards.
D. All the above.
215. The main objective of the Airworthiness authority is to ensure

A. design levels of reliability.
B. operating safety of civil registered aircraft.
C. promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards of airworthiness.
D. All are correct.
216. An unintentional landing effected on account of failure/malfunction of an aircraft component or a

system is
A. forced landing.
B. heavy landing.
C. normal landing.
D. emergency landing.
217. The maintenance process requiring assembly inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed
period is
A. preventive maintenance.
B. hard time maintenance.
C. on-condition maintenance.
D. None.
218. The maintenance process for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of failure
or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft is called
C. condition monitoring.
D. preventive maintenance.
219. Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in situ/bench
test, etc. to determine the continued serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components without having to
dismantle them completely and before such components reach a critical stage in their operation is termed as
C. condition monitoring.
D. preventive maintenance.
220. Preventive maintenance is

A. on-condition.
B. hard line.
C. on-condition and hard time.
D. condition-monitoring.
221. Condition monitoring is

B. preventive maintenance.
C. a & b is correct.
222. Preventive maintenance is

A. hard time.
B. work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or aircraft system
in an airworthy condition.
C. on condition.
D. a, b, c are correct.
223. Private operator shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the
D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every six months.
C. every nine months.
D. every twelve months.
224. Non-schedule operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to
the D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
B. every three months.
C. every six months.
D. every nine months.
225. Schedule operators would furnish the information concerning major defect / incident/ accident to the
D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
C. every nine months.
D. every year.
226. Aerial work operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to
D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
C. every three months.
D. None.
227. Training aircraft operators would furnish the information concerning major defect/ incident /accident
to D.G.C.A.
A. every month.
C. every three months.
D. None.
228. If the A.I.D. observes adverse 'trends' in performance of aircraft he

A. suggests additional preventive maintenance.
B. proposes varying the frequency of existing preventive maintenance.
C. suggests incorporation of modifications on mandatory basis.
D. All are correct.
229. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio between

A. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per
1000 Hrs.
B. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per
number of scheduled service during the period.
C. number of services which were despatched in time per 1000 hrs.
D. number of services which were despatched in time per no. of scheduled service during the period.
230. If there is no information concerning individual major defect /incident /accident the operator
A. does not have to send any information to R.A.O.
B. does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A.
C. has to send a "NIL' information.
D. All the above.
231. CAR is issued under rule

A. 133 A.
B. 133 B.
C. 133 C.
D. 62 B.
232. Procedure for issuing of CAR including amendments, if any, is covered in CAR
A. series A part I.
B. series B part I.
C. series B part II.
D. series A part II.
233. CAR series A part III refers to

A. procedure for issue of CAR.
B. objective of AID.
C. targets of AID.

A. CAR is issued bearing different series identification serial as I, II, III etc.
B. CAR is issued bearing different parts such as A,B,C etc.
C. CAR is issued bearing different series identification alphabetical letter such as series A,B,C etc.
235. A current list of all CAR with amendments, is also issued

A. at the beginning of each year.
B. at the end of each year.
C. in the middle of each year.
236. When substantial changes are made to a CAR part

A. a new issue is issued.
B. a new part is issued.
C. new series are issued.
D. new series and part are issued.
237. All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined aircraft of licensed air transport service shall
demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use, variation in speed
during descent not to exceed
A. 5 MPH above the stipulated speed.
B. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed.
C. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
D. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed.
238. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot check loss in height shall not exceed
A. 500 feet.
B. 1000 feet.
C. 1500 feet.
D. 2000 feet.
239. The PIC of every aircraft shall before commencing any flight satisfy himself of the
A. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft.
B. sufficient length of runway is available.
C. engines are developing correct power.
D. All are correct.
240. The responsibility of briefing the passengers of smoking limitation lies with
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot.
C. AME.
D. QCM.
241. Critical phase of flight includes

A. taxying.
B. take off and landing.
C. all flight operations conducted below 10000 feet except cruise flight.
D. All are correct.
242. Duties not required for safe operation of the aircraft includes company required calls made
A. for ordering galley supplies.
B. for confirming passenger's connections.
C. for promoting airlines.
D. All are correct.
243. No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an aircraft unless
A. a crash helmet is worn.
B. a headgear is worn.
C. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying goggles over and above the spectacles.
D. All are correct.
244. Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public transport aircraft is contained in
A. CAR series F part II.
B. CAR series F part III.
C. CAR series O part II.
D. CAR series O part III.
245. PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient amount of fuel for the flight considering
A. adverse affects of weather.
B. availability of an alternate aerodrome.
C. emergency that may be expected during the flight.
D. All are correct.
246. The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required
shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
247. The fuel carried in case of propeller driven aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at least
the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned hence to an alternate.
B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes.
248. The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least the
amount sufficient to allow the aircraft
A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned.
B. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes.
C. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes.
D. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 metres above the destination aerodrome.
249. The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to which
the flight is planned and there-after for a period of
A. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
B. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
C. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
D. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
250. In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft operation one should consider
A. meteorological forecast.
B. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays.
C. one instruments approach at the destination aerodrome including one missed approach.
D. All are correct.
251. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to
A. fly to first point of intended landing.
B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes.
C. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes.
D. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes.
252. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under IFR condition is to
A. fly to first point of intended landing.
B. fly to first point of intended landing and then to alternate.
C. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes.
D. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes.
253. Minimum fuel required for operation of supersonic aircraft

A. is same as for turbo prop aircraft.
B. is same as for turbo jet aircraft.
C. is same as for helicopter.
D. None is correct.
254. A helicopter with such performance that in case of critical power unit failure it is able to land on the
rejected take off aread or safely condinue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on the failure
occurred is called
A. performance class I helicopter.
B. performance class II helicopter.
C. performance class III helicopter.
D. performance class IV helicopter.
255. A helicopter with such performance that, in case of critical power unit failure it is able to safely
continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined
point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required is called
256. A helicopter with performance such that in case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a
forced landing must be performed is called
257. All helicopters below 2000 kg AUW must be equipped with

A. an accurate time piece showing time in hour minutes and seconds.
B. pilot may use his personal watch in lieu of (a).
C. as in (b) provide the watch is accurate and shows time in hours, minutes and seconds.
D. All are correct.
258. Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition to instruments in VFR flying shall have
A. slip indicator.
B. position lights.
C. landing lights.
D. All are correct.
259. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio equipment capable of
receiving signals providing
A. guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected.
B. guidance to a point from which instrument landing can be effected.
C. guidance to ATC transponder.
D. guidance to WX radar.
260. All helicopters intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable
means of floatation if distance from land corresponds to more than
A. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
B. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed.
C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
D. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
261. Flight data recorders are 'must' for all helicopters

A. with AUW of over 7000 kg.
B. with AUW of over 5700 kg.
C. with AUW of over 2700 kg.
D. with AUW of over 2000 kg.
262. CVR's are must for all helicopter

A. with AUW of over 7000 kg.
B. with AUW of over 5700 kg.
C. with AUW of over 2700 kg.
D. with AUW of over 2000 kg.
263. FDR used on helicopter shall be

A. type IV FDR.
B. type III FDR.
C. type II FDR.
D. type I FDR.
264. FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least
A. the last 25 hours of operation.
B. the last 10 hours of operation.
C. the last one hour of operation.
D. the last 30 minutes of operation.
265. CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least
A. the last 25 hours of operation.
B. the last 10 hours of operation.
C. the last one hour of operation.
D. the least 30 minutes of operation.
266. Operation of helicopter is contained in

A. CAR series F part I.
B. CAR series F part IV.
C. CAR series O part I.
D. CAR series O part IV.
267. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or landing
usually expressed in times of
A. MDA/G.
B. DA/H.
C. MDA/H.
D. All are correct.
268. An alternate aerodrome

A. is always the aerodrome of departure.
B. may be aerodrome of departure.
C. is at least 500 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.
D. is at least 450 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.
269. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to

A. mean sea level.
B. average sea level.
C. threshold elevation.
D. tower elevation.
270. Decision height (DH) is referred to

A. mean sea level.
B. average sea level.
C. threshold elevation.
D. tower elevation.
271. MDA/H is specified altitude or height in a

A. non-precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference.
B. non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference.
C. precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference.
D. precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference.
272. Civil twilight ends in the
A. evening when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon.
B. morning when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon.
C. evening at 6 P.M.
D. morning at 6 A.M.
273. The colour of marking of 'break in points' in aircraft shall be

A. red.
B. yellow.
C. outlined in white to contrast with the background.
D. All are correct.
274. Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after
A. 31-12-1970.
B. 31-12-184.
C. 01-12-1970.
D. 01-12-1984.
275. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on
board when flown beyond
A. 20 nautical miles away from land.
B. 50 nautical miles away from land.
C. 100 nautical miles away from land.
D. All are correct.
276. Flight recorders are not required for aircraft below

A. 15000 kg.
B. 7000 kg.
C. 5700 kg.
D. None is correct.
277. The radio equipment installed in aircraft registered in India shall

A. not be operated in flight unless it has been inspected and certified as being in proper working order by a
person authorised by the DGCA.
B. be installed and operated with a licence issued by DGCA.
C. be operated only by a person who holds appropriate licence issued by DGCA.
D. All are correct.
278. CAR series R Part I pertains to

A. aircraft radio equipment.
B. installation of communication equipment.
C. installation of navigation equipment.
D. installation of radar equipment.
279. While installing anew avionic system on an aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the
AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that
A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after installation.
B. empty weight C.G. remains same after installation.
C. loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation.
D. C.G. should remain in limit after installation.
280. For approval of an avionic installation, in absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall submit
the modification details along with
A. six copies of drawing to RAO.
B. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
C. three copies of drawing to RAO.
D. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
281. On comletion of structural and electrical wiring on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for
A. continuity.
B. insulation and continuity.
C. bonding and insulation.
D. All are correct.
282. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper insulation to ensure that
A. radio interference is least.
B. static interference is maximum.
C. precipitation static interference is minimum.
D. static interference is minimum.
283. After installation of new avionic system on an aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by
A. AME cat 'R'.
B. AME cat A & C.
C. AME cat A, C & R.
D. AME cat 'B'.
284. Installation of a new avionic system on an aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining
A. the permission from DGCA.
B. the permit from DGCA.
C. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications.
D. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications.
285. CAR series R part III pertains to

A. aircraft radio equipment.
B. installation of aircraft radio equipment.
C. maintenance of airborne radio equipment.
D. installation and maintenance of airborne radio equipment.
286. Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus as may be specified is required as per IAR
A. 9A.
B. 9 Sub-rule 3.
C. 51 A, sub-rule 3.
287. Maintenance of airborne communication and navigation equipments shall be carried out in accordance
with
A. CAR series E part II.
B. CAR series E part III.
C. CAR series R part II.
D. CAR series R part III.
288. Maintenance check carried out on radio equipments are

A. in situ checks & bench checks.
B. bench check only.
C. boroscope checks.
D. NDT checks.
289. FRC of a radio communication system installed on a flying training club aircraft is
A. valid for 24 hours.
B. 12 hours or 7 days elapsed time.
C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time.
D. None is correct.
290. FRC of a radio communication/navigation system installed on a flying training club aircraft is
A. valid for 24 hours.
B. valid for 200 hours.
C. valid for 90 days.
D. valid for 30 days.
291. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must to
carry out
A. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter.
B. bonding of RF cables.
C. insulation of radio equipments.
D. All are correct.
292. FTD checks of ADF, VHF, HF, VOR & ILS equipment are carried out
A. once in six months.
B. once in a year (for valve equipment).
C. once in 2 years (for valve equipment).
D. None is correct.
293. Final test data check of solid state equipment shall be carried out
A. once in six months.
B. once in a year.
C. once in 2 years.
D. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major check.
294. Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the range and performance of WX Radar, Omega NAV,
HIS, RMI, DME and R NAV after
A. the day's flying.
B. 10 days of flying.
C. 90 days of flying.
D. 180 days of flying.
295. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or lightning strike has to be inspected for
A. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised.
B. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for any possible damage to glass components.
C. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to the wire.
D. All are correct.
296. Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft radio equipment shall be carried out by
A. AME cat 'R'.
B. AME cat 'B' (radio).
C. AME cat A & B (radio).
D. AME cat 'X' (radio).
297. CAR series S part I pertains to storage of
A. aircraft instruments.
B. aircraft hardware.
C. aircraft engines.
D. aircraft tyres.
298. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at
two point on the treads. The tyres should be turned to a new position
A. every month or so.
B. every 2 months or so.
C. every 3 months or so.
D. every 6 months or so.
299. The storage temperature of rubber parts should

A. between 50 degree F and 70 degree F.
B. between 50 degree C and 70 degree C.
C. between 50 degree F and 90 degree F.
D. between 50 degree C and 90 degree C.
300. The relative humidity of the room where hoses are stored shall be around
A. 50%.
B. 60%.
C. 65%.
D. 75%.
301. Aircraft hoses should be stored

A. in coiled state.
B. in coiled state supported in racks having support tubes.
C. in coiled state with french chalk sprayed.
D. in coiled and supported state so as to relieve stresses.
302. The storage/shelf life of group A hoses are

A. 10 years from the cure date.
B. 6 years from the cure date.
C. as in (a) before installation pressure test should be carried out 1.5 times the working pressure.
D. None is correct.
303. The service life of group A houses are

A. 10 years.
B. 8 years.
C. 6 years.
D. 4 years.
304. The service life of group B hoses are

A. 10 years.
B. 8 years.
C. 6 years.
D. 4 years.
305. The service life of group A and group B hoses can be increased by
A. 8 years.
B. 6 years.
C. 4 years.
D. 2 years.
306. Group 'A' hoses are

A. fuel, oil.
B. pneumatic pressure hoses.
C. hydraulic pressure hoses.
D. All are correct.
307. Group 'B' hoses are

A. fuel, oil.
B. hydraulic return line and instrument hoses.
C. fuel return line.
D. All are correct.
308. The 'shelf life' of valve seats used in hydraulic system is
A. 10 years from the cure date.
B. 8 years from cure date.
C. 6 years from the cure date.
D. 4 years from the cure date.
309. Rubber seals which have been stored for more than four years should be checked for deterioration by
stretching the seal to
A. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
B. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
C. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
D. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification.
310. The maximum service life of rubber seals shall not exceed
A. 8 years.
B. 6 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 4 years.
311. The calendar life of reciprocating engines are

A. 10 years.
B. 8 years.
C. 6 years.
D. None is correct.
312. Series aircraft means

A. aircraft manufactured in series.
B. arcraft supplied in series.
C. aircraft belonging to 'A' series.
D. None is correct.
313. Flight test means the flying of an aircraft

A. without any passenger on board for the purpose assessing the deterioration in performance.
B. as in (a) and also assessing the satisfactory completion of maintenance.
C. as in (a) and can carry passengers.
D. as in (a) and (b) and can carry passengers.
314. Test flight of an Indian airlines aircraft will be carried out

A. during C of A renewal.
B. after 'top-overhaul'.
C. after 'block-overhaul'.
315. A private aircraft shall be flight tested

A. during C of A renewal.
B. subsequent to change of an engine.
C. for the purpose of evaluation of engine power.
D. All are correct.
316. On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not be carried out after change of
A. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out.
B. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out.
C. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out.
D. All are correct.
317. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement by

A. an overhauled engine.
B. re-installation of the engine in the same position.
C. engine removed from any position of the same aircraft to any other aircraft.
D. All are correct.
318. Test flight shall be continued if practicable at

A. maximum AUW.
B. minimum AUW.
C. 3/4 of maximum AUW.
D. 1/2 of maximum AUW.
319. The routine test flight procedure will at least insure

A. that the cruise speed at the cruising engine power is within the range specified.
B. that the stalling speed has not increased beyond the figure specified by the manufacturer/DGCA.
C. that 'al-engine-operating' climbed performance is within acceptable limits specified by the
manufacturer/DGCA, while effecting climb at the 'best climbing speed'.
D. All are correct.
320. The responsibility of recording the results of test flight lies entirely with
A. PIC.
B. Co-pilot.
C. Flight Engineer.
D. AME.
321. The observed actual climb performance is related to the test condition
A. means altitude.
B. means temperature.
C. means weight.
D. All are correct.
322. When an India registered aircraft suffers major damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of
A. the operator to inform the RAO.
B. the operator to inform the DGCA.
C. the operator to inform the DAI.
D. None is correct.
323. On receipt of a report regarding major defect/damage to an aircraft, officer incharge of RAO
A. may formally suspend the C of A.
B. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft.
C. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of
aircraft to which the aircraft belongs.
324. The owner/operator during carrying out rectification of major defect

A. shall not submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection.
B. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection during rectification work.
C. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection only when rectification is complete.
D. None is correct.
325. When a suspended C of A is revalidated it is

A. for one year.
B. for the period the original revalidation would have lasted had the suspension not taken place.
C. for six months.
326. Aircraft rule 53 and 53A together

A. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during maintenance of aircraft.
B. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during maintenance of aircraft
and also the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft.
C. prescribes the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft.
D. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during manufacture of aircraft
and also the persons authorised to certify the manufacture of aircraft.
327. CAR series F part VI deals with
A. rebuilding of aircraft.
B. rebuilding of damaged aircraft.
C. rebuilding of aircraft wreckage.
D. All are correct.
328. Only those aircraft are permitted to be rebuilt

A. which were earlier type certificated.
B. which were flying with C of A.
C. which has sufficient data regarding maintenance and prformance standards.
D. All are correct.
329. Rebuilding means

A. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness
standards and fitted in an aircraft to be type certificated.
B. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness
standards and then fitted to type certificated aircraft.
C. assembling an aircraft from parts approved by AME to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then
fitted to an aircraft to be type certificated.
D. None is correct.
330. An approved firm can undertake the rebuilding of

A. all aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg.
B. all pressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg.
C. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg.
D. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 3000 kg.
331. Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number by the constructor. This number will normally be the
number assigned
A. to the wing.
B. to complete aircraft.
C. to the fuselage.
D. None is correct.
332. The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft will be affixed

A. to the wing by permanent means.
B. to the fuselage by permanent means.
C. to the cockpit by permanent means.
D. All are correct.
333. Registration number assigned to a rebuilt aircraft

A. will be the same registration number which was given to aircraft of which fuselage was a part.
B. will be the same registraqtion number which was given to aircraft of which airframe was a part.
C. in case of new fuselage or imported fuselage new registration mark will be allotted.
334. Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the constructor must insure that
A. proper history of parts are available.
B. parts purchased are genuine.
C. parts are imported.
335. AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must be endorsed in

A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B".
C. category 'C'.
D. category 'D'.
336. Aircraft parts are completely stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of aircraft during
rebuilding if the parts had been in storage for more than
A. ten years.
B. eight years.
C. five years.
D. two years.
337. Series F part VII contains

A. C of A renewal procedure.
B. suspension of C of A.
C. spcial flight permit.
338. Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or damage shall not undertake any flight without specific
permission of DGCA vide
A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
339. DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft when the C of A is suspended vide
A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2.
B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3.
C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4.
D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5.
340. A special flight authorisation is a permission accorded

A. by DGCA.
B. to ferry-fly an aircraft.
C. to carry special persons (VIPs).
341. A special flight permit is a permission

A. to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs, modifications and maintenance
required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed.
B. for production flight testing new production aircraft.
C. to authorise flight for special purposes.
D. All are correct.
342. The operator who wishes to avail a special flight permit must submit an application to RAO indicating
A. the crew required to operate the aircraft.
B. the crew required to operate the equipment.
C. the purpose of flight.
D. All are correct.
343. The RAO may authorise a special ferry flight subject to

A. inspection or tests by the operation for determining the safety of aircraft for the intended flight and
certified to that effect by appropriately licensed AME.
B. limitation that the operating weight on any ferry flight must be the minimum necessary.
C. manufacture for which the aircraft is limited.
D. All are correct.
344. Special flight authorisation issued by regional/sub-regional airworthiness office is valid

A. for one week.
B. upto arrival at destination airport.
C. upto arrival at destination or date whichever is applicable.
D. All are correct.
345. On completion of special flight the operator with render

A. to RAO any abnormality encountered during flight.
B. to DGCA any abnormality encountered during flight.
C. to DGCA action taken at base to render aircraft airworthy.
346. General requirements regarding maintenance and certification of Aircraft is dealt in

A. CAR series F part V.
B. CAR series F part VI.
C. CAR series F part VII.
D. CAR series F part VIII.
347. Operator who do not have their own facility for maintenance and certification of aircraft
A. can't maintain & fly their aircraft.
B. have to request DGCA for certification.
C. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled.
D. can get maintenance and certification performed by organisation approved for the purpose.
348. Important schedules like heavy landing, post lighting strike, post propeller strike etc. should be
submitted to the RAO for approval in
A. duplicate.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate.
D. None.
349. All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant log books within
A. an hour of completion.
B. six hours of completion.
C. 24 hours of completion.
D. 48 hours of completion.
350. If aircraft log book is not readily available because of aircraft being away from the base then
A. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the JLB.
B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the RAO.
C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to DGCA.
D. All are correct.
351. FRC will become invalid

A. if unapproved parts are used.
B. if unapproved manoeuvers are taken.
C. if aircraft suffers major damage.
352. Validity of FRC of schedule operator including corporation is

A. 12 hours of aircraft operator operation.
B. 24 hours.
C. as stated in approved QC manual.
D. as stated in approved maintenance system manual.
353. Validity of FRC of flying training aircraft

A. is valid for every 24 hours (one day).
B. is valid for 12 hours of aircraft operation when aircraft is away from main base.
C. is valid for 4 days elapsed time when aircraft is away from main base.
D. All are correct.
354. FRC of aerial work aircraft is

A. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier.
B. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier.
C. 10 hours of aircraft operation or 4 days elapsed time whichever is earlier.
D. 12 hours of aircraft operation or 7 days elapsed time whichever is earlier.
355. FRC of private aircraft is valid for

A. 50 hrs/30 days.
B. 25 hrs/15 days.
C. 10 hrs/7 days.
356. Validity of FRC of State Govt. aircraft is

A. 50 hrs/30 days.
B. 50 hrs/60 days.
C. decided by the RAO is consultation with the operator.
D. None is correct.
357. Validity of FRc of Radio communication equipment of training aircraft is

A. 30 days elapsed time.
B. 60 days elapsed time.
C. 90 days elapsed time.
D. None is correct.
358. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of training aircraft is

D. None is correct.
359. Validity of FRC of Radio communication equipment of private aircraft is

D. 180 days elapsed time.
360. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of private aircraft is

D. 180 days elapsed time.
361. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 kg and above is signed by

A. persons authorised in two category.
B. persons authorised in three category.
C. persons authorised in four category.
D. persons authorised in five category.
362. In case of private aircraft the schedule of inspection lower than 50 hrs may be carried out by
A. the pilot holding C.P. licence on that particular type of aircraft.
B. the pilot having vast experience.
C. the pilot having at least ALTP.
D. None is correct.
363. Flight release certificate is signed in

A. duplicate.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate.
D. None is correct.
364. FRC is preserved for

A. one month from the date of issue.
C. one year from the date of issue.
D. Not required to be preserved.
365. Distribution of FRC is done as follows:

A. one copy to RAO.
B. one copy is kept in aircraft.
C. one copy is with organisation record.
366. Rule 53 of aircraft rule specifies that

A. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment on such aircraft shall periodically be
inspected/overhauled and certified.
B. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must be obtained from approved sources.
C. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must possess a valid release note.
D. All are correct.
367. Schedule maintenance includes the following work

A. replacement of "life limited" item.
B. heavy landing schedule.
C. lighting sticks schedule.
D. All are correct.
368. Unschedule maintenance includes the following work

A. special inspections such as x-rays.
B. replacement of "lifed" components.
C. heavy landing schedule.
D. All are correct.
369. Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection of structural components for damage due to
A. environmental deterioration.
B. accidental damage.
C. fatigue.
D. All are correct.
370. To ensure structural integrity of aging aircraft manufacturers have issued

A. SSIP.
B. CPCP.
C. SSIP & CPCP.
D. fatigue prevention document.
371. The owner/operator shall inform to RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance about the
commencement of all the inspection schedules
A. of 100 hrs and above.
B. of over 100 hrs.
C. of over 300 hrs.
D. All are correct.
372. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
B. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less).
C. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
D. None is correct.
373. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's
of components upto a maximum of
A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less).
C. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less).
374. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
375. Damage due to environment in form of corrosion and stress corrosion is

A. environmental damage.
B. corrosion damage.
C. fatigue damage.
D. accidental damage.
376. Aging aircraft are those aircraft which have

A. completed their life.
B. completed their service life.
C. completed their designed service life.
D. completed their designed economic life.
377. Multiple site damage are

A. five or more dents on one site.
B. five or more cracks on one site which link up in to longer crack.
C. fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to link up into longer crakcs.
D. All are correct.
378. At present SSID have been issued for

A. B 200C, C 90A, B 737.
B. A 35, B 55, C 90a.
C. B 737, B 747, HS 748.
D. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152.
379. Design economic life of Airbus is

A. 10 years.
B. 20 years.
C. 30 years.
D. 50 years.
380. Design economic life of B 737 is

A. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
B. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
C. 20 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes.
D. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes.
381. Design economic life of B 747 is

382. Design economic life of B707 is

383. Design economic life of Douglas, F27 & HS-748 are

A. 20 years.
B. 30 years.
C. 40 years.
D. 50 years.
384. The control system of which duplicate inspections are carried out are
A. flying controls.
B. engine controls.
C. engine controls & flying controls.
D. flying, engine and associated controls.
385. Duplicate inspection of all control system shall be made

A. after rigging.
B. before the first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging.
C. before the first flight after C of A.
D. before C of A flight.
386. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by
A. persons approved for the purpose in an approved organisation.
B. a flight engineer.
C. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the type of aircraft.
387. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away from the base in carried out by
A. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the aircraft.
B. by any CPL holder.
C. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA.
388. RAO can authorise a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if
A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 6 months experience of the type of
aircraft involved.
B. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 3 months maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved.
C. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and one year maintenance experience on
the type of aircraft involved.
D. All are correct.
389. Series 'F' part XII deals with

A. inspection of wooden aircraft.
B. duplicate inspection of flying controls.
C. duplicate inspection of engine controls.
390. Aircraft of composite contruction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate of
airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
391. Factors causing wood deterioration are

A. chemical action of glue due to aging.
B. mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage.
C. development of fungus.
D. All are correct.
392. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are especially prove to
A. timber shrinkage.
B. glue deterioration.
D. None is correct.
393. Certificate of compliance is a certification to the effect that all the works on
A. the aircraft have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA.
B. the aircraft component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA.
C. the glider component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA.
394. All gliders shall be equipped with

A. variomate.
B. RPM indicator.
C. VOR.
D. ADF.
395. The constructions of gliders shall be maintained and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in
A. CAR series I part I.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series F part XIII.
D. CAR series F part XIV.
396. The C of A of gliders is renewed only during test flight

A. stall test has been satisfactorily carried out.
B. spin test has been satisfactorily carried out.
C. loop test has been satisfactorily carried out.
D. All are correct.
397. If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of a glider then its C of A
A. will not be renewed.
B. will not be renewed in any case.
C. will not be renewed temporarily.
D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited.
398. Components and spare parts used on gliders

A. should be covered by a release note.
B. should be covered by a certificate of maintenance.
C. should be covered by a rejection note.
D. None is correct.
399. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders is valid for

A. six months.
B. three months.
C. one month.
D. one day.
400. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders should be preserved for

A. one month.
B. three months.
C. six months.
D. not required to be preserved.
401. Gliders should be weighed

A. on a routine basis.
B. every three years.
C. before issue of C of A.
D. None is correct.
402. Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders which meet with accidents and damages beyond
economical repairs shall be preserved
A. for one year after the date of accident.
B. for five years after the date of accident.
C. for ten years after the date of accident.
D. for two years after the date of accident.
403. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A, the C of
A is issued on form
A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 56.
D. CA 57.
404. Rejection note is a document issued byan approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of
rejection of aircraft good/parts
A. for which high prices are quoted.
B. common to automobile industry.
C. ground equipment.
D. which fail to meet applicable requirement.
405. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on

A. capacity of the firm to undertake the job.
B. equipment available and technical literating.
C. suitable QCM & Dy. QCM.
D. all the above.
406. Only one of the following need not have the approval of maintenance organisation
A. private owner of aircraft.
C. shceduled airlines.
D. aircraft owned by State Govt.
407. The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre
flight inspection is carried out by
A. a pilot as per approved schedule.
B. an AME.
C. a pilot having AME licence also.
D. an approved person as per approved schedule.
408. As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and aircraft certified in normal category shall not be
used for purpose mentioned either in
A. special category or aerobatic category.
B. special category or passenger sub-division.
C. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division.
D. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft sub-division.
409. An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
B. carriage of goods.
C. aerial work.
410. As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft away
from base can be carried out by a pilot
A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type of aircraft.
B. or any AME or flight engineer.
C. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition that person authorised as per para 3.3.1 of the CAR do
the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base.
D. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer.
411. For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the aircraft has been maintained in accordance with
continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject to
A. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection schedule.
B. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection schedule.
C. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of inspection.
D. 500 hrs inspection schedule.
412. An aircraft above 2000 kg is required to be weighed

A. every two years.
C. every three years unless required to be weighed in accordance with para 4.3 of the CAR series 'X' part
II.
D. only when it sustains damage requiring extensive repair.
413. The maintenance schedules of an organisation are approved by the

B. QCM of only Indian Airlines and Air India.
C. Controller of Director of Airworthiness of region.
414. The lives of the components of an aircraft are approved by

A. DGCA.
B. QCM.
C. CAW of the region.
D. CE of an organisation.
415. The C of A an imported aircraft can be revalidated by the DGCA

A. if the C of A for export is issued by the country of origin.
B. if the aircraft meets the type certificate issued by the country of origin.
C. if it meets all requirements and standards laid down by the DGCA.
D. All are correct.
416. C of A renewal of aircraft under continuous maintenance system can be effected

A. while the aircraft is flying.
B. after completion of the minimum of 100 hours inspection schedule.
C. provided all mandatory modifications and major defects are not outstanding.
D. All are correct.
417. An aircraft can be ferry-flown only when the

A. DGCA permits on application.
B. pilot in command certifies it as safe.
C. QCM of the operator permits.
D. None is correct.
418. Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less than 2000 kg AUW are
A. every C of A renewal.
C. need not be re-weighed on routine basis.
D. every overhaul.
419. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported in to India the minimum standard of
manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be
A. as laid down in CAA, B CAR section 'K' & 'D'.
B. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25.
C. as laid down by Australian Govt. for agricultural aircraft.
420. Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows that it is valid for 'Normal category' - sub-division
private aircraft. This aircraft is used for
A. experimental purposes.
B. aerial-work.
C. aerobatic purposes.
D. carriage of executives of his factory without any remuneration.
421. One of the following conditions does result in automatic suspension if C of A

A. whenever aircraft develops a defect that effects primary structure.
B. whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing.
C. approved inspection schedules are not completed when due.
D. whenever 'lifed' components are not remjoved as stipulated in T.B.O.'s.
422. For powered gliders, following instruments are required

A. free air temperature gauge.
B. free air temperature gauge is not required if cqarburettor heating gauge is there.
C. oil temperature gauge.
423. Validity of flight release for radio equipment for flying club aircraft is
A. 90 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 50 hrs/30 days.
D. 100 hrs/90 days.
424. For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then
the validity of the next currency of C of A would start from the date of
A. test flight.
B. inspection.
C. expiry of C of A.
D. None of the correct.
425. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance
hangar by
A. an appropriately licensed AME.
B. pilot under training may be allowed.
C. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm.
426. Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine
aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are
A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers.
B. having seating capacity of 100 or more.
D. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to all aircraft.
427. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly as

A. passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft.
B. freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed.
C. aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft.
D. None is correct.

A. flight release should be preserved for six weeks.
B. aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years.
C. journey log book should be preserved for 2 years.
D. None is correct.
429. For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the
shore the equipments required are
A. life saving rafts in sufficient number.
B. two days food.
C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF.
D. Both a and c are corret.
430. An aircraft certificated in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake
A. carriage of mails.
B. carriage of goods.
C. aerial work.
D. None is correct.
431. Gyro instruments are overhauled at every

A. 2 years/1000 hours.
B. 1 year/2000 hours.
C. 3 years/2000 hours.
D. 2 years.
432. Life of automatic pilots (except gyro units) are

A. 2 years.
B. 2 years/1000 hours.
D. one year.
433. Life of engine instruments are
A. 2 years.
B. 2 years/1000 hours.
D. one year.
434. altimeters are to be overhauled

A. every year.
B. every alternate year.
C. every 2 year.
D. 2 years/3000 hours.
435. Free air temperature gauge has to be

A. overhauled every year.
B. overhauled every 2 years.
C. bench-checked every 2 years.
D. bench-checked every 3 years.
436. Temperature required for storing of instruments is

A. 15 degree centigrade.
B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade.
C. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade.
D. below 5 degree centigrade.
437. Places storing instruments shall have humidity below

A. 60%.
B. 70%.
C. 75%.
D. 80%.
438. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. four years.
D. six years.
439. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed

A. one year.
B. one year and at the end of six months bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
C. two years.
D. two years and at the end of one year bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
440. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months
A. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use.
B. shall be subject to bench check before use.
C. shall be subject to overhaul before use.
D. All are correct.
441. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with
A. instruments as required.
B. equipments as required.
C. radio apparatus as required.
D. All are correct.
442. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of
A. two years.
B. three years.
C. five years.
D. All are correct.
443. All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time after
A. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew.
B. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
C. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
D. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
444. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in
A. FAA TSO C 91a.
B. FAR Part 91.
C. B CAR C 91a.
445. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than
A. 3 g.
B. 4 g.
C. 5 g.
D. 8 g.
446. The requirement of ELT for training aircraft is/will be effected from
A. 30th April 1992.
B. 31st July 1992.
C. 31st December 1992.
D. 31st December 1993.
447. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft

A. as far as possible.
B. in the Radome section.
C. as aft as possible.
D. in the centre of the aircraft.
448. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on
board
A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles.
B. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land.
C. when the take off approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a
possibility of ditching.
D. All are correct.
449. Two sets of portable, water resistant, self-survival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried
on board on long range over water flights by all
A. aircraft.
B. private aircraft only.
C. public transport aircraft only.
D. non-schedule operators.
450. CHT gauge is mandatory on each

A. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250.
B. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 300.
C. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250.
451. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as
A. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail.
B. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail.
C. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail.
D. All are correct.
452. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for

A. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW.
B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
C. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW.
D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights.
453. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or more shall be provided with VOR and DME when flying
at or above
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200.
C. FL 220.
D. FL 240.
454. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data
recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of
A. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours.
B. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours.
C. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours.
D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours.
455. Black box contains

A. CVR, FDR/DFDR.
B. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR.
C. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS.
D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS.
456. An anti-collision light, intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft
A. having AUW of 3000 kg and above.
B. having AUW of 5700 kg and above.
C. having AUW of 15000 kg and above.
D. All are correct.
457. For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for
machines with a seating capacity of more than
A. 100 persons.
B. 30 persons.
C. 10 persons.
D. 5 persons.
458. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight
crew/passenger compartments will be less than
A. 700 metres.
B. 600 metres.
C. 375 metres.
D. All are correct.
459. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient
stored breathing oxygen for
A. all crew members and passengers.
B. pilot and co-pilot only.
C. all crew members and 30% passengers.
D. all crew members and 10% passengers.
460. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any
dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of
A. 4000 metres.
B. 7600 metres.
C. 10000 metres.
D. 13000 metres.
461. CAR series I part III deals with

A. aircraft equipment.
B. aircraft instruments.
C. maintenance of test equipment.
D. All are correct.
462. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board

A. pilot and co-pilot.
B. one passenger.
C. two passengers.
D. pilot and one passenger.
463. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be equipped with

A. first aid kit.
B. artificial horizon.
C. turn and bank indicator.
D. All are correct.
464. All helicopters shall be equipped with

A. RPM indicator for main rotor.
B. RPM indicator for tail rotor.
C. floats when operated over water beyond auto rotative/gliding distance from land.
465. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than 620
mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently stored breathing oxygen for
A. all crew members.
B. for all crew and passengers.
C. for all crew and 10% passengers.
D. for all crew and 30% passengers.
466. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced

A. when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hours.
B. when 50% of their useful life has expired.
C. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for rechargeble batteries) has expired.
D. All are correct.
467. The requirement of ELT operating on 406.0 MHZ is/will be mandatory from
A. 30th April 1992.
B. 31st December 1992.
C. 31st December 1993.
D. None is correct.
468. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on
board. Their numbers should be at least
A. 1 of each rating.
B. 2 of each rating.
C. 3 of each rating.
D. 4 of each rating.
469. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with
A. consent of DGCA.
B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time.
C. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time.
D. None is correct.
470. Ammeters and voltmeters are

A. overhauled every two years.
B. bench checked every year.
C. bench checked every two years.
D. None is correct.
471. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and
allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The change in indication from the original heading shall not
exceed
A. one degree.
B. two degrees.
C. three degrees.
D. five degrees.
472. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel
A. amount to reach the destination.
B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination.
C. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed.
D. None of above.
473. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work
aircraft
A. 200 hours/180 days.
B. 50 hours/30 days.
C. 25 hours/15 days.
D. 100 hours/90 days.
474. During refueling of aircraft

A. aircraft radio electrical and radar swtiches may remain 'on'.
B. steady parking light and such switches may be operated.
C. no special precaution is necessary for ground power supply.
D. the ground power unit tractor and siilar equipment shall be located outside the defined 'danger zone'.
475. Other conditions remaining unchanged during refuelling of the aircraft

A. passengers embarking/disembarking are not permitted under any condition.
B. smoking is not permitted within 30 metres from aircraft or fuelling equipment.
C. a little spilage if, can be washed into the drain.
D. All the above statements are correct.
476. According to IAR check correct statement

A. helicopter is aeroplane.
B. balloon is an aircraft.
C. kite is a flying machine.
D. All are wrong.
477. For certification of ignition apparatus of light aircraft the AME should have his licence in
A. Category 'A'.
B. Category 'B'.
C. Category 'C'.
D. Category 'X'.
478. The Indian Aircraft Rule 61 9revised) became effective from

A. 1st Jan 1991.
B. 31st Jan 1991.
C. 1st April 1991.
D. 1st April 1992.
479. Application for appearing in the AME licence examination is submitted on from
A. CA 9.
B. CA 9 (Revised).
C. CA 9 (annex I).
D. CA 9 (Appendix A).
480. The written paper of AME licence examination comprised

A. general papers, basic papers.
B. general papers, basic papers & specific papers.
C. basic papers and specific papers.
D. general paperss and specific papers.
481. The basic paper consists of

A. Paper I, II.
B. Paper I, II, III.
C. Paper III.
D. Paper II, III.
482. The pass percentage in AME licence examination is

A. 80%.
B. 70%.
C. 80% in quiz type and 70% in essay type.
D. 70% in quiz type and 60% in essay type.
483. The pass percentage of specific paper is

A. 80%.
B. 70%.
C. 60%.
484. Defence personnel appearing in AME licence exam are exempted from appearing in
A. paper I, II, III.
B. paper II, III.
C. multiple chioce question of Paper I, II, III.
D. multiple choice question of paper II, III.
485. Those applicants who are not engaged in any organisation but meet all the requirements for appearing
in the AME licence exam
A. can't appear in the AME licence exam.
B. can't appear in the AME licence exam after obtaining permission from the RAO.
C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin
he last worked.
D. may directly send their application to Director of Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi.
486. The candidates who have passed all the written papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test
for issue or extension of AME licence will be intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form
A. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation.
B. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region.
C. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region.
D. CA 73 to the candidate.
487. DGCA will recognize the approved course of a foreign country provided it has been approved by that
country and is
A. of two months' duration.
B. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft.
C. of one month duration for heavy aircraft.
D. of one month duration for light aircraft.
488. AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C' is issued in combined form whose
A. AUW is below 5700 kg.
B. AUW is below 3000 kg.
C. AUW is below 2000 kg.
D. None is correct.
489. A combined specific paper for airframe and engine is undertaken for helicopter whose
A. AUW is below 15000 kg.
B. AUW is below 5700 kg.
C. AUW is below 3000 kg.
D. AUW is below 2000 kg.
490. A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify

A. all parts of airframe for assembly and condition.
B. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor.
C. main gear boxes.
D. All are correct.
491. An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter can certify

A. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor.
B. main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes.
C. engine mounts and cowls for condition & security of attachment.
D. All are correct.
492. Certification of electrical system for condition, proper functioning and rectification of minor defects of
helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in
A. category 'A'.
B. category 'B'.
C. category 'E'.
D. category 'X'.
493. Endorsement of AME licence is contained in

A. CAR series L Part I.
B. CAR series L Part II.
C. CAR series L Part III.
D. CAR series L Part IV.
494. A candidate applying for endorsement in category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in general
paper III if he
A. has vast experience.
B. has open rating in category 'D'.
C. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'.
D. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of aircraft for which endorsement is required.
495. According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part IV group V contains
A. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW.
B. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW.
C. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg AUW.
496. In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg AUW
comes under
A. group IV.
B. group V.
C. group VI.
D. group VII.
497. Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in
A. group IV.
B. group V.
C. group VI.
D. group VII.
498. Avionics system includes instruments, electrical and radio systems of

A. Boeing 737.
B. Boeing 747.
C. Airbus A 300.
D. Airbus A 320.
499. The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised only in respect of such operation
A. and aircraft as are entered on his licence.
B. and airframes, powerplants, aircraft systems including electrical instruments and radio systems and
component as are entered on his licence.
D. None is correct.
500. An AME can exercise his privileges only

A. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less
than 12 months.
B. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less
than six months.
C. when within the preceding 12 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less
than 3 months.
D. when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not less
than 3 months.
501. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for
A. certification of major modification.
B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of minor repair.
D. certification of replacement of approved components.
502. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for
A. certification of major modification.
B. certification of major repair.
C. certification of replacement of approved components.
D. All are correct.
503. The holder of category 'A' licence for light aircraft is entitled to issue
A. certificate of maintenance for instruments.
B. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems.
C. certificate of maintenance for autopilots.
D. All are correct.
504. The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue

A. certificate of maintenance for airframe.
B. certificate of maintenance for engine controls.
C. certificate of maintenance for engine fuel, oil & coolant system.
D. All are correct.
505. An AME licenced in category 'C' undertake

A. dismantling of main casing of a turbine engine.
B. dismantling of main rotating assembles of a turbine engine.
C. dismantling of piston engines, other than piston/cylinder assemblies.
D. None is correct.
506. Certification of DR compass will be done by person holding licence in

A. cat 'X' for compass.
B. cat A with a note valid for DR compass.
C. cat D with a note valid for DR compass.
507. A person will be deemed to be engaged in aircraft maintenance if

A. he has undergone an approved refresher course run by approved training schools.
B. he is employed in production division of aircraft manufacturer.
C. he is employed as an AME in an airline.
D. All are correct.
508. If an AME has certificated the work on appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty then the
log book entry on his behalf can be made by
A. any other AME.
B. Chief Engineer.
C. Quality Control Manager.
D. All are correct.
509. Grant of open AME licences is contained in

A. CAR series L PART VII.
B. CAR series L part VI.
C. CAR series L part V.
D. CAR series L part IV.
510. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover
A. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg.
B. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg.
C. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg.
D. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg.
511. 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston engines not exceeding
A. 500 BHP.
B. 400 BHP.
C. 300 BHP.
D. 250 BHP.
512. 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for aircrafts
D. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given.
513. For obtaining an open rating on single engine aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below 3000
kg an AME should
A. have held an AME licence for 5 years continuously.
B. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his licence.
C. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not exceed 3000 kg.
D. All are correct.
514. For 'open rating endorsement' on all single engined aircraft of composite construction with an AUW
not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should have
A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years continuously.
B. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite construction of which at least two should be single
engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg.
C. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as applicable.
D. All are correct.
515. An applicant desirous of having an open rating in category 'R" for aircraft below 5.700 kg AUW must
have
A. held an AME 'R' licence for three years continuously.
B. held an AME 'R' licence for five years continuously.
D. None is correct.
516. A composite construction of an aeroplane means

A. its skin covering is of one material.
B. its skin covering is of two different materials.
C. its skin covering is of two or more different materials.
D. its skin covering (including flight control surface) is of two or more different materials.
517. An organisation seeking approval for cadmium plating will submit to DGCA
A. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
B. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg.
C. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
D. all of the above.
518. An organisation seeking approval for any electroplating will submit to DGCA
A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
B. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
C. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg.
519. A firm seeking approval for hand chromium plating has to submt
A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar.
B. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar.
C. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar.
D. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar.
520. A certificate issued in respect of a complete aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's approved
or authorised persons certifying that the aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule and is
airworthy in all respects and is safe for flight for a period specified in the certificate, is called
A. certificate of flight release.
B. certificate of flight approval.
C. release note.
D. certificate of maintenance.
521. An organisation undertaking calibration of instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to the
activities of CAD is approved in
A. catory 'A'.
B. catory 'D'.
C. catory 'F'.
D. catory 'E'.
522. An organisation approved in category 'D' after completion of work issues a

B. certificate of manufacture.
C. test report.
D. rest flight report.
523. Certificate of manufacture contains

A. signature of AME.
B. firms approval number.
D. none of the above is correct.
524. A firm approved in category 'E' can carry out

A. distribution of aviation fuel.
B. blending of aviation fuel.
C. distribution of paints.
525. The number allotted to a petroleum product which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing is
called
A. serial number.
B. batch number.
C. part number.
D. identification number.
526. Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be
certified on
A. approved release note quoting batch no.
B. test report number and specification.
D. None of them is correct.
527. The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation
fuel
A. to certify the quality of the product.
B. to certify the quantity of the product.
C. to certify the contents of the product.
528. Refueling voucher shall be

A. serially numbered with the batch number specification details and quantity to be delivered.
B. shall be prepared in triplicate.
529. Stores where materials bearing evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked
called
A. current store.
B. quarantine store.
C. airworthy store.
D. bonded store.
530. Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials, awaiting evidence of having been received from
approved sources are stocked is called
A. stand-by store.
B. quarantine store.
C. airworthiness store.
D. bonded store.
531. Check-list is carried

A. in safe place in aircraft.
B. in laminated form and is readily accessible to the flight crew in flight.
C. need not be carried on board it forms a part of flight manual.
D. both (b) & (c) are correct.
532. Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's own experience must be carried only after obtaining
the concurrence of
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. Manufacturer.
D. FAA.
533. Alteration to the Check-list may also by made by

A. RAO.
B. DGCA.
C. manufacturer.
D. Both (b) & (c) are correct.
534. CAR Series B part I pertains to

A. cockpit & emergency check-lists.
B. emergency check-list.
C. deficiency list (MEL).
535. CAR Series B part II pertains to

A. cockpit & emergency check-lists.
B. emergency check-list.
C. deficiency list (MEL).
536. Any part, the soundness and correct functioning of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the
continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its occupants is termed as
A. aircraft system.
B. aircraft component.
C. aircraft item.
D. All the above.
537. A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising out of any cause other than damage
which would preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function that would
reduce the expected service life of the aircraft or aircraft component is termed as
A. snag.
B. P D R.
C. defect.
D. minor defect.
538. Defect means

A. a condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising from any cause other than damage.
B. a condition which preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function.
C. a condition which would reduce the expectable service life of the aircraft or aircraft component.
539. Maintenance means any type of

A. overhaul, repair, adjustment, testing.
B. inspection, testing, adjustment, repair.
C. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, treatment, repair, replacement or modification.
D. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, treatment, repair, replacement, reconditioning or modification.
540. A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects
discovered as a result of the occurrence of any emergency or in the course of normal operation or
maintenance is called
A. repetitive defect.
B. minor defect.
C. major defect.
D. defect.
541. Repetitive defect means

A. a defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of rectification.
B. continuous defect.
C. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft.
D. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft or on another
aircraft of the same type.
542. An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole or part of it as per published schedule is known as a
A. normal operator.
B. private operator.
C. schedule operator.
D. non-schedule operator.
543. All major detects shall be reported to concerned RAO (AID)

A. within 24 hours.
B. in writing.
C. in writing or on telephone followed by written information.
D. All are correct.
544. All particulars of the initial information format of defect report shall be submitted by the operator to
the RAO
A. within one month.
B. within four months.
C. within 7 days.
D. within 15 days.
545. Initial information format of major defect contains

A. aircraft type & registration, date and place of occurrence, nature of defect.
B. modification action taken, defect report as made by the pilot/AME.
C. no information.
546. Investigation of major defect shall be completed
A. within one month.
B. within six months.
C. within four months.
D. within two months.
547. Which of the following forms a part of final investigation report?

A. Apparent on actual cause of defect.
B. Action taken by the operator against manufacturer.
C. Duration of defect.
D. Aircraft type & registration.
548. Mechanical delay is any delay of

A. 15 minutes or more.
B. 30 inutes or more.
C. 15 minutes or more to schedule services.
D. 30 minutes or more to schedule services.
549. Any mechanical delay has to be reported to the RAO within

A. 24 hours.
B. 7 days.
C. 24 hours of receipt of information by the main base station.
550. The final defect investigation report has to be sent

A. in duplicate to DGCA.
B. in duplicate to RAO.
C. in triplicate to RAO.
D. in triplicate to DGCA.
551. Records associated with the defect shall be preserved for a period of
A. two weeks.
B. six weeks.
C. one year.
D. ten years.
552. Component associated with major defect shall be preserved for a period of
A. one week from the date of intimation of defect.
B. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect.
D. need not be preserved.
553. Failure of a component or a system that results in taking emergency action in flight is a
A. defect.
B. major defect.
C. repetitive defect.
D. minor defet.
554. Which one of the following is known as major defect

A. significant contamination of fuel.
B. fuel starvation in flight.
C. none of the above.
555. Defect leading to critical malfunctioning of any system or depriving the pilot some of the critical
aspect of its controls is
A. minor defect.
B. major defect.
C. repetitive defect.
D. snag.
556. Recording of in-flight instrument readings and reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR
A. series A part II.
B. series C part I.
C. series C part II.
D. series D part II.
557. Recording of all parameters readings, as indicated by the respective instruments under appropriate
columns of the approved flight report including the A.V.M. readings is the responsibility of
A. AME.
B. QCM.
C. Flight crew.
D. Chief Engineer.
558. In-flight instruments reading should be recorded

A. at least once in each sector of flight.
B. at least once in each sector of flight under stabilized cruise condition.
C. in the event of emergency condition of flight.
D. both b & c are correct.
559. If there is no defect reported by the crew in a previous day's flight

A. AME will release the aircraft for next day's flight.
B. AME will not release the aircraft for next day flight.
C. AME will consult the QCM and release the aircraft for next day's flight.
D. AME will release the aircraft if a 'NIL' entry has been made in the PDR by the pilot duly signed.
560. Defects observed at a place away from the normal base are recorded in
A. JLB.
B. airframe log book, section III.
C. JLB, (col XI).
D. defect register.
561. Series C Part-IV refers to

A. reporting of defects observed on all aircraft.
B. recording of in-flight instrument readings.
C. analytical study of in-flight instrument readings.
D. All the above.
562. If deterioration is observed in aircraft's performance in respect of engine

A. RAO may require accomplishment of such curative measures as considered necessary.
B. may even require replacement of the deteriorated engine.
C. RAO may requrie the carrying out of test flight to determine the increase in drag.
563. The main purpose of investigation of defects

A. is to avoid recurrence of defects.
B. to find the person who has caused the defects.
C. as in (a) and to find the cause of defects.
564. If it is determined that defect was caused by the careless and casual attitude or negligence of technical
staff
A. DGCA will take action as per the aircraft Act and aircraft rules against the staff.
B. operator will take departmental penal action as per the rules against the staff.
C. DGCA action does not stop an operator from taking penal action against its staff.
D. All of the above are correct.
565. All major defects shall be reported to RAO

A. in writing within 12 hours.
B. telephonically only.
C. in writing (or telephone followed by a letter) within 24 hours (working hours of AID).
D. in writing when full information is available.
566. After initial reporting of major defects to the regional airworthiness office, the remaining detailed
information must be furnished within
A. 7 days in an approved defect report form.
B. 4 months, after awaiting investigation report.
C. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect.
D. a period stated in the quality control manual.
567. After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has not observed any defect…
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry been signed and dated by crew.
B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engg. Maintenance.
C. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot.
D. the 'NIL' report need not be signed.
568. Approved release note contains

A. series no. of engine if component is for engine.
B. serial no. of aircraft if component is for airframe.
C. DGCA approval no. and date.
D. signature of the chief engineer of the firm.
569. For making changes in maintenance control by reliability programme you need the due approval of
A. owner of aircraft.
B. operator of aircraft.
C. airworthiness authorities.
D. C.E.M./QCM.
570. Air & Fuel consumption in cause of light aircraft should be

A. recorded in engine log look after 25 hours.
B. recorded in engine and aircraft log books.
C. recorded after post overhaul of the engine.
571. FDR contains

A. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading, vertical acceleration against a time scale.
B. time, altitude, airspeed & magnetic heading.
C. vertical acceleration, altitude and airspeed against time scale.
D. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading against time scale.
572. To get an organisation approved under approval system the organisation has to
A. fill CA-182 form.
B. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO.
C. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for inspection and approval.
573. Entry in log book can be signed
A. by appropriately licensed AME.
B. by a technician.
C. by key persons of organisation.
D. by an AME having vast experience.
574. Petroleum in bulk means

A. petroleum contained in any receptacle of 900 litres.
B. petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 900 litres.
C. petroleum contained in receptable but less than 900 litres in capacity.
D. None is correct.
575. Approval under category 'E' according to CAR series E refers to

A. fuel oil and lubricants storage & distribution.
B. testing laboratories.
C. manufacture of aircraft, aircraft component and item of equipment.
D. training school.
576. After completion of test flight pilot has not observed any defect
A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry has been signed and dated by crew.
B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engineering maintenance.
C. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot.
D. the NIL report need not be signed.
577. Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance system manual in accordance with latest issues of
CAR are the responsibility of
A. CEM/QCM.
B. airworthiness authorities.
C. owner of the aircraft.
D. operator of the aircraft.
578. Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the
clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW below
A. 15000 Kgs.
B. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired from commercial watch maker.
C. 2000 kgs.
D. 3000 kgs.
579. As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution of previously certified aircraft/part, by a firm is
approved in
A. category 'C'.
B. category 'D'.
C. category 'A'.
D. category 'F'.
580. Rejection note is a document issued by an approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of
rejection of aircraft goods/parts
A. for which high prices quoted.
B. common to automobile industry.
C. ground eqiupment.
D. which fails to meet applicable requirement.
581. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued
on form
A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 56.
D. CA 57.
582. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW
of 15000 kg and above can be done by
A. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop.
B. any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite experience in specific training and QCM
approval.
C. the key person of the concerned shop.
D. Any one of above as the circumstances demand.
583. The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an imported component provided
A. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the airworthiness authority of the country of
manufacturer.
B. it meets DGCA's standard.
C. it is approved by CAA/FAA only.
D. Both A and b and correct.
584. S.S.I.D identifies fatigue proof areas to specify

A. appication of specific NDT.
B. frequency of SSI.
C. the damage tolerance retaining.
D. all of the above.
585. An AME school shall submit to the DGCA for approval of

A. a training manual.
B. a school organisation manual.
C. quality control manual.
586. The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the records of
A. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses.
B. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of more than two months duration.
C. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of any duration.
587. Examination papers of an approved training school shall be preserved for a period of
A. three months from the date of examination.
B. six months from the date of examination.
C. nine months from the date of examination.
D. twelve months from the date of examination.
588. For any change in course material prior permission of

A. DGCA is must.
B. RAO is must.
C. Controller/director of that region is must.
589. Instructors who are employed full time on instructional duties relating to specific types of
aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of
A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months).
B. not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months).
C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months).
D. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year).
590. Whenever an approved school introduces a new course or modifies the existing course DGCA should
be informed at least
A. two weeks in advance.
B. two months in advance.
C. one month in advance.
D. not required to be informed.
591. Quality control check of the products is carried out by

A. representative of DGCA.
B. CEM.
C. QCM/Dy QCm.
592. Regional airworthiness office receive the

A. 1st copy of release note.
B. 1st copy of rejection note.
C. 3rd copy of rejection note.
593. CAR series 'F' part I refers to

A. procedures relating to registration of aircraft.
B. procedures relating to registration of microlight aircraft.
C. procedures relating to registration of balloon.
D. All are correct.
594. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India

A. to register an aircraft in India.
B. to import an aircraft in India.
C. to fly aircraft in India.
D. to maintain an aircraft in India.
595. Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no person shall fly any aircraft unless
A. it has been registered.
B. it bears nationality & registration.
C. it bears name & address of the owner.
D. All are correct.
596. The nationality and registration mark should be affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 37.
B. 30.
C. 35.
D. 33.
597. Registration of the aircraft by the DGCA

A. is for the purpose of controlling the safety of aviation in India.
B. is for establishing the legal ownership of an aircraft.
D. None is correct.
598. An aircraft in India is registered in

A. Three categories.
B. Two categories.
C. One category only.
D. Four cateries.
599. Aircraft registered in category 'B' is

A. owned by a citizen of India.
B. by a company or corporation registered.
C. by a company whose chairman and at least two thirds of directors are citizens of India.
600. An aircraft registered in category 'B' is owned by
A. a person residing/resident in or carrying on business in India without citizenship.
B. a person resident/residing in or carrying on business in India without citizenship.
C. citizen of India.
D. a foreign national.
601. Application for registration of aircraft is given in

A. CA 23.
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 28.
D. CA 28 (appendix A).
602. Certificate of registration is valid for

A. one year.
B. six months.
C. two years.
603. When an aircraft is solid to another person or company or ceases to be owned by the owner indicated
on its certificate of registration its registration is deemed to have been cancelled in accordance with
A. rule 30.
B. rule 28.
C. rule 28 (appendix A).
D. rule 33.
604. When a person buys an old aircraft already registered in India then the certificate of registration must
be accompanied by
A. the previous certificate of registration duly endorsed on the reverse by the old owner.
B. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming his
ownership.
C. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the aircraft to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds
in the full.
D. All are correct.
605. Temporary certificate of registration is valid

A. for one month.
B. for one week.
C. until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India.
D. until the validity of the C of A.
606. For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration the owner has to apply to
A. RAO.
B. DGCA.
C. DAI.
607. When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost, for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has
apply along with
A. mutilated C of A.
B. photostat copy of C or R.
C. original C of A.
D. the prescribed fees.
608. A register of all civil aircraft registered in India is maintained at
A. Ministry of Civil Aviation.
B. DGCA.
C. HAL.
D. All of them are correct.
609. The nationality mark of all Indian registered aircraft are

A. E.I.
B. I.O.
C. A.V.U.
D. V.T.
610. The size and method of affixing the registration marking is given in
B. CAR series F part III.
C. car SERIES X part I.
611. Procedure for issue/revalidation of type certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is contained in
A. CAR series E part II.
B. CAR series E part III.
C. CAR series F part II.
D. CAR series F part III.
612. Aircraft rule 49 empowers

A. the DGCA to revalidate C of A.
B. the DGCA to issue C of A.
C. the DGCA to issue type certificate for aircraft.
D. All are correct.
613. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft
rules
A. 49A.
B. 49B.
C. 49C.
D. 49.
614. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as in
A. IAR 49.
B. IAR 49 c Annexure II.
C. CAR series F part II annexure U.
D. CAR series F part II Annexure II.
615. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the
A. CAR series F part I annexure I.
B. CAR series F part I annexure II.
C. CAR series F part II annexure II.
D. CAR series F part II annexure I.
616. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that
the aircraft meets with the requirements of
A. FAR 23 & 25.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
617. Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and
construction confirms with the
A. FAR 23 & 25.
B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & 29.
D. BCAR 27 & 29.
618. An aero engine manufactured outside India can be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to
A. FAR 33.
B. JAR 33.
C. FAR 30.
619. DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect of engine/propeller under the purview of
A. Aircraft rule 49.
B. Aircraft rule 49A.
C. Aircraft rule 49B.
D. Aircraft rule 49C.
620. For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft imported to India which of the following document is
not required
A. type-certificate.
B. type-design datasheet.
C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable.
D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual.
621. Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA may visit the country of manufacturer
A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the representative of the manufacturer.
B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the airworthiness authority of the country of
manufacturer.
D. Both a and b are not correct.
622. DGCA has to revalidate the type certificate of imported aircraft

A. just as it is.
B. it can modify it.
C. it can impose special condition for safe operation of aircraft in India.
D. it cannot modify it.
623. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA
A. test flight report of the aircraft.
B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval.
C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval.
624. The certification of aircraft/aircraft component manufactured in India shall be done by approved
authorised person as per
A. aircraft rule 53.
B. aircraft rule 53A.
C. aircraft rule 53B.
D. aircraft rule 53C.
625. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a period
of
A. 1 year.
B. 2 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.
626. The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out as in accordance with
A. form CA 57.
B. form CA 56.
C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule.
D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA.
627. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft/aircraft component

A. approval of DGCA is must.
B. written approval of manufacturer is must.
C. approval of QCM/CEM is must.
D. All are correct.
628. A major modification is one

A. which has no appreciable effect on the weight and balance.
B. which has no appreciable effect on the structural strength.
C. which has appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic affecting the airworthiness
of the aircraft/aircraft component.
629. A minor modification is one

A. which has appreciable effect on the weight and balance.
B. which has appreciable effect on the structural strength.
C. which has appreciable effect on the flight characteristic of aircraft/aircraft component.
630. Designs submitted for type approval shall bear

A. description title & drawing number.
B. description title and date of issue.
C. description title, issue number and date of issue.
631. A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges
A. straight way on a new aircraft.
B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of six months.
C. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of three months.
D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of one month.
632. For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to apply on form
A. CA 29.
B. CA 29 (revised).
C. CA 68 B.
D. CA 68 A.
633. AME's licence will be renewed only if in the preceding 24 months he has been engaged in aeronautical
engineering duties for a period of
A. 24 months.
B. 18 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 6 months.
634. Which of the following AME's will be considered to be employed in AME activity and will be
considered for renewal of their licences
A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel vendors.
B. as a member of flying crew.
C. approved organisation stocking aircraft components.
635. An AME to keep his licence valid will have to submit a medical certificate
A. every 6 months.
B. every 12 months.
C. every 24 months.
D. it depends on the age of AME.
636. When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a period of more than one year but less than two years,
his licence can be renewed after
A. an oral check by the RAO.
B. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. paper IV.
C. a warning to the AME.
D. All are correct.
637. AME's shall submit their licence for renewal at least

A. 7 days before expiring.
B. 15 days before expiring.
C. 30 days before expiring.
D. None is correct.
638. If an AME submits his licence between 15 days to 30 days after expiry
A. it will be renewed with a warning to AME.
B. it will be renewed from the date of receipt.
C. it will be renewed from the date of last validity.
D. None is correct.
639. The licence of Indian AME's working aboard will be renewed

A. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working.
B. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working in consultation with the DGCA
hqrs.
C. by any authority acceptable to ICAO.
D. by the DGCA Hqrs.
640. BAMEC is issued when a candidate passes

A. Paper I, II of AME licence exam.
B. Paper I, II, III of AME licence exam.
C. Paper I, II, III, IV of AME licence exam.
D. All are correct.
641. BAMEC is issued under the provision of

A. CAR series L part VIII.
B. CAR series L part VII.
C. CAR series L part VI.
D. CAR series L part V.
642. BAMEC is issued in

A. four categories.
B. five categories.
C. six categories.
D. seven categories.
643. The candidate for issuance of BAMEC must be of

A. 17 years.
B. 18 years.
C. 20 years.
D. 21 years.
644. Application for grant of Authorisation to an AME/approved person is forwarded to

A. QCM.
B. RAO/Sub-RAO.
C. DGCA.
D. Chief Engineer.
645. An AME proposed for authorisation should be

A. holder of current AME licence in relevant category.
B. employed with the organisation on a full-time basis.
C. having at least 3 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft /engine /equipment etc.
D. All are correct.
646. If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must
A. possess licence in category B.
B. possess at least 6 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft.
C. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at least 70% marks in the examination.
D. All are correct.
647. Authorisation will not be issued to a person

A. failing in the examination for issue of licence in which the subject of authorisation is covered.
B. being considered blameworthy in any investigation of defect.
C. being considered blameworthy in any investigation of accident by the DGCA during the preceding 6
months.
D. All are correct.
648. The validity of an authorisation may be extended to a maximum period of

A. twleve months.
B. six months.
C. three months.
D. one month.
649. For grant of approval to certify overhaul the candidate should be of

A. 17 years.
B. 18 years.
C. 20 years.
D. 21 years.
650. For grant of approvl a candidate must be

A. 20 years of age.
B. at least a matriculate.
C. Holding BAMEC in relevant category.
D. All are correct.
651. Approval is granted in

A. duplicate, one copy to person and one copy to RAO.
B. triplicate, one copy to person, one copy to RAO and one coyp to DGCA.
C. only single copy.
D. All are correct.
652. Approval is valid for

A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 24 months.
653. Flight Engineer Examiners are appointed as per rule

A. 41A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937.
B. 61A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937.
C. CAR series L part V.
D. CAR series L part VI.
654. A person appointed as Check Flight Engineer must have held a

A. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as
FE.
B. Current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 3000 hours flight experience as
FE.
C. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of two years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE.
D. None is correct.
655. Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least 500 hours flight experience of which not less than
A. 100 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application.
B. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application.
C. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application.
D. 50 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application.
656. Flight Engineer Examiner appointment is valid for

A. 24 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 6 months.
D. None is correct.
657. A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may be renewed subject to the condition that he has
A. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
B. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
C. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
D. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months.
658. A Check Flight Engineer should be sponsored by

A. an approved organisation.
B. air transport operator.
C. Central Govt. Organisation.
D. State Govt. Organisation.
659. In order to seek approved welder's certificate, apart from other requirements the candidate is required
to submit
A. two different test pieces, as per DGCA requirements.
B. three different test pieces, as per FAA requirements.
C. three different test pieces, as per CAR series L part VI.
D. two one test piece, as per CAR series L part VI.
660. Welder's approval is issued

A. materialwise.
B. processwise.
C. material and processwise.
D. material and jointwise.
661. Unpressurised aircraft operating at altitude between 620mb to 700 mb for more than thirty minutes of
flight should be provided with
A. adequate supply of oxygen for crew plus 10% pax.
B. all crew and passengers are to be provided with sufficient oxygen.
C. only pilot and co-pilot are to be provided with oxygen.
D. None is correct.
662. Engineers undergoing training under GETS shall have

A. degree in engineering.
B. P.G degree in engineering.
C. P.G degree in electronics.
D. All are correct.
663. GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of
A. 6 months of training.
B. 12 months of training.
C. 18 months of training.
D. 24 months of training.
664. GETS at present is run by

A. Pawan Hans Ltd.
B. Indian Airlines & Air India.
C. Both a & b are correct.
D. The passing marks in GETS is.
665. The passing marks in GETS is

A. 70% in each and 80% in aggregate.
B. 60% in each and 70% in aggregate.
C. 80% in each and 90% in aggregate.
D. None is correct.
666. Pass marks in GETS re-examination is

A. 70%.
B. 80%.
C. 90%.
D. None is correct.
667. Re-examination in GETS can be held after 15 days break within

A. 30 days from the date of completion of the main course.
B. 45 days from the date of completion of the main course.
C. 60 days from the date of completion of the main course.
D. 90 days from the date of completion of the main course.
668. Candidate under GETS will have to repeat main course if he

A. fails to secure 80% marks in aggregate in main course.
B. fails in any one phase with less than 60% marks in the main course.
C. fail in the tandem course.
D. All are correct.
669. GETS candidate fails in three oral-cum-practicual examinations, he again undergoes a refresher course
and will be again eligible for
A. three oral-cum-practical examinations.
B. two oral-cum-practical examinations.
C. only one oral-cum-practical examination.
D. None is correct.
670. If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical test again after taking the refresher course
A. he will get two more chances to appear in oral-cum-practical test.
B. he will get one more chance to appear in oral-cum-practical test.
C. he will have to take the main course again.
D. All are correct.
671. The pass marks in refresher course of GETS is

A. 70% in each phase and 80% in aggregate.
B. 60% in each phase and 80% in aggregate.
C. 60% in each phase and 70% in aggregate.
D. 80% in each phase and 90% in aggregate.
672. When an AME licence is lost by the holder (other than act of God) then for a duplicate licence
A. he has to pay no fees.
B. he has to pay only half fees.
C. he has to submit FIR, of the lost licence.
673. An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of a duplicate AME licence if
A. the licence is more than 25 years old.
B. the licence is more than 20 years old.
C. the licence is more than 10 years old.
D. the licence is more than 5 years old.
674. Mandatory modification/inspection is issued under the purview of aircraft rule

A. 49A.
B. 49B.
C. 49D.
D. 51A.
675. Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried out in accordance with aircraft rule
A. 49A.
B. 49D.
C. 50A.
D. 50D.
676. Aircraft rule 52

A. lays down the acceptable standards for modification/repair.
B. provides for incorporation of modification in aircraft.
C. requires modification/inspection to be carried out in aircraft.
D. All are correct.
677. Mandatory modifications/inspections prescribe the mandatory action required for

A. continued safe operation of the aircraft.
B. continued airworthiness of aircraft.
C. keeping the C of A valid.
D. All are correct.
678. Airworthiness directive means an instruction issued by an airworthiness authority

A. which amends an approved document.
B. which requires a modification.
C. to keep aircraft, aircraft components in an airworthy condition.
D. All are correct.
679. Mandatory modifications and inspections are promulgated by

A. the manufacturer of the aircraft.
B. the DGCA.
C. the airworthiness authority.
D. the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer of aircraft.
680. DGCA will declare only those service bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those
A. whom DGCA thinks so.
B. are issued in red colour.
C. in respect of which AD's are issued.
681. DGCA will declare all modifications issued by

A. DGCA as mandatory.
B. FAA as mandatory.
C. CAA as mandatory.
D. All are correct.
682. A consolidated list of all mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft engines and equipment are
compiled and distributed by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. manufacturer.
D. approved organisation.
683. C of A will not be renewed if it is observed than

A. any modification is due on aircraft.
B. only mandatory modification is due on aircraft component.
C. any inspection is due on item of equipment.
D. All are correct.
684. CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged in
C. private aircraft.
D. All are correct.
685. Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft owners/operators shall comply with
A. the engineering requirements as specified by the DGCA.
B. the maintenance requirements as specified by the DGCA.
C. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA.
D. All are correct.
686. List of components with approved overhaul lives is given in

A. quality control manual.
B. maintenance system manual.
C. engineering organisation manual.
D. All are correct.
687. Single engined aircraft with retractable undercarriage shall not be used in
A. schedule, VFR operation.
B. non-schedule VFR operation.
C. non-schedule night operation.
D. All are correct.
688. A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the maximum gross weight shall be capable of maintaining
level flight with one engine inoperative at an altitude of not less than
A. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute.
B. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute.
C. 3000 feet above the water.
689. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement of
A. non-schedule operator.
B. schedule operator.
C. flying training aircraft.
D. private aircraft.
690. The maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members is contained in
A. quality control manual.
B. maintenance system manual.
D. All are correct.
691. The maximum flight altitude for each route as required for scheduled operations forms a part of
A. operation manual.
B. route guide.
C. flight manual.
D. All are correct.
692. Operation manual contains

A. the procedure for refuelling the aircraft.
B. the condition under which oxygen shall be used.
C. a list of navigational equipment to be carried.
D. All are correct.
693. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued
should any instrument have become inoperative is in
A. flight manual.
B. emergency check list.
D. all are correct.
694. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operation manual and airplane flight
manual then precedence will be given to
A. operation manual.
B. flight manual.
C. flight crew operation manual.
D. any one can be accepted.
695. For operation of single engined aircraft there shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of not
more than
A. 150 miles.
B. 260 miles.
C. 150 km.
D. 260 km.
696. When an aircraft is landing under INE, it shall be provided with a radio equipment capable of
receiving signals
A. from VOR station.
B. from ATC transponder.
C. providing guidance to a point from which visual landing can be effected.
D. from ILS system.
697. The required number of aircrew on a licensed air transport service is found in aircraft
A. flight manual.
B. C of A.
C. C or R.
698. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by the DGCA that they are familiar
A. with its loading.
B. with ATC system.
D. None is correct.
699. The first pilot of an airlines shall have made at least

A. one flight as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR condition.
B. two flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR conditions.
C. three flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly VFR conditions.
D. as in (a) also in IFR condition.
700. All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
A. once a year.
B. once in two years.
C. twice a year.
D. None is correct.
701. Proficiency check of licenced air transport service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of
A. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months.
B. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months.
C. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months.
D. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months.
702. Instruments rating check of a pilot is carried out

A. every year.
B. every two years.
C. twice a year.
D. every six months.
703. The IR check of a pilot carried out by an approved check pilot includes
A. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use.
B. recovery from spins.
C. recovery from loops.
D. All are correct.
704. During an IR check the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard
variation in height shall not exceed
A. 100 feet.
B. 150 feet.
C. 200 feet.
D. 300 feet.
705. The expected climbed performance shall be obtained from

A. flight manual.
B. operations manual.
C. pilot's notes.
D. All are correct.
706. The observed actual climb performance (in terms of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more
than
A. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
B. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
C. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
D. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
707. ROC correction factor graph for constant speed propellers is available in
A. CAR series C part I.
B. CAR series C part II.
C. CAR series T part I.
D. CAR series T part II.
708. The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR series T part II are
A. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F).
B. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree C).
C. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor.
D. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor.
709. The nationality and registration marks of an airship appears

A. on the fuselage and wing.
B. on the hull.
C. on the fuselage and stabilizer.
D. on the fuselage and vertical fin.
710. The registration marking on the aircraft shall appear

A. on the right half of the lower surface of the wing.
B. on the left half of the lower surface of the wing.
C. as in (a) and on the fuselage.
D. as in (b) and on the fuselage.
711. The height of registration marks on an aircraft shall be at least

A. 60 cm.
B. 50 cm.
C. 22 inches.
D. 50 inches.
712. The height of registration marks on the aircraft fuselage shall be at least
A. 60 cm.
B. 50 cm.
C. 20 cm.
D. 30 cm.
713. The width of each letter of (except letter I) and the length of hyphens shall be
A. two-third of the height of the letter.
B. three-fourth of the height of the letter.
C. three-eighth of the height of the letter.
D. one-half of the height of the letter.
714. The thickness of the lines of letters of registration marking shall be

A. one-eighth of the height of letter.
B. one-eighth of the width of letter.
C. one-sixth of the height of letter.
D. one-sixth of the width of letter.
715. The separation between the letter of registration marking shall not be less than
A. one-quarter of letters length.
B. one-quarter of letters width.
C. one-third of letters length.
D. one-third of letters width.
716. The separation between the letters of registration marking shall not be less than
A. one-quarter of letters height.
B. one-third of letters height.
C. two-third of letters height.
D. one-sixth of letters height.
717. Weight and balance control of aircraft is dealt in

A. IAR 58.
B. IAR 56.
C. IAR 49.
D. None is correct.
718. Aircraft weight schedule shall include

A. type of engine.
B. type of aircraft.
C. registration marking of aircraft.
719. During weighing of aircraft the equipment installed are

A. oil should be full.
B. hydraulic fluid should be full.
C. all instruments should be installed.
D. all are correct.
720. The aircraft shall be weighed in the presence of

A. chief engineer.
B. QCM.
C. representative of RAO.
D. All are correct.
721. The weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained

A. for 10 years.
B. for 5 years.
C. for 2 years.
D. till it is replaced by a fresh schedule.
722. The calculated C.G. position for 'take off & land before take off are computed for
A. aerial work aircraft.
B. private aricraft.
C. public transport aircraft.
D. All are correct.
723. The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall preserved for a period of
A. one month from the date of issue.
C. one year from the date of issue.
D. two years from the date of issue.
724. Mark the wrong statement

A. During loading it must be ensured that the aircraft cabin floor loading limitation are not exceeded.
B. The load must be securely tight.
C. The load must be placed behind the passengers the cabin.
D. The load tying ropes must be of sufficient strength to withstand the loads imposed on it in flight.
725. The first aid kit container shall be
A. of steel.
B. of aluminium alloy.
C. moisture and dust proof.
D. All are correct.
726. The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box shall by at least
A. 1 inch high.
B. 3/2 inches high.
C. 2 inches high.
D. 5/2 inches high.
727. First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished and certified by a
A. private medical practitioner.
B. Govt. medical practitioner.
C. any medical practitioner.
D. any medical practitioner holding M.B.B.S. degree.
728. The drugs contained in the physician's kit are intended to be administered only by
A. an air hostess.
B. PIC.
C. Co-pilot.
D. medical practitioner.
729. All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 50 shall be equipped with
A. one first aid kit and one physician kit.
B. two first aid kits and one physician kit.
C. three first aid kits and one physician kit.
D. one first aid kit only.
730. Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than
A. 150.
B. 100.
C. 60.
D. 20.
731. To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of
A. QCM.
B. Pilot in command.
C. AME.
D. M.B.B.S. doctor.
732. The contents of the first aid kit of a public transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer once
in
A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 18 months.
D. 24 months.
733. The contents of the first aid kit of training aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in
A. 6 months.
B. 12 months.
C. 18 months.
D. 24 months.
734. the training of the crew members of public transport aircraft engaged in schedule and non-schedule
services in application of first aid is undertaken by
A. owner/operator.
B. RAO.
C. DGCA.
D. Director of Air Safety.
735. Contents of the physician's kit shall be certified by

A. Chief Medical Officer.
B. Medical Officer incharge.
C. medical practitioner.
D. medical practitioner with at least M.B.B.S. degree.
736. Details of furnishing materials used in aircraft are contained in

A. CAR series F part IV.
B. CAR series X part IV.
C. FAR part 25.
737. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as
15000 kg or above shall be
A. self-extinguishing.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant.
738. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall be

A. self-extinguishing.
B. at least flame-resistant.
C. flame resistant.
D. None is correct.
739. Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR 25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all
aircraft
A. above 15,000 kg AUW.
B. above 5,700 kg AUW.
C. above 3,000 kg AUW.
D. above 2,000 kg AUW.
740. Concession means

A. a permission by the DGCA for free flight.
B. a permission by the DGCA to use a limited quantity or material not in conformity with that approved by
manufacturer.
C. a permission by the DGCA to rebuild an aircraft.
741. Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of material, effecting major modification is submitted to
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. DGCA and RAO.
D. DAW.
742. Concession form is submitted to the RAO in

A. duplicate.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate.
D. None is correct.
743. Concession application for carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to
A. QCM.
B. DGCA.
C. RAO.
D. DAW.
744. DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the
standard aeronautical practice spelt out in
A. AC 43.13 manual, CAIP.
B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK).
C. BCAR 43, CAA 43, JAR 21.
D. None is correct.
745. An approved copy of concession form is preserved by the applicant for

A. 10 years.
B. 2 years.
C. 2 years after the aircraft is withdrawn form use.
D. as long as the log books are kept.
746. Aircraft log books are made under the pursuance of

A. IAR 67.
B. IAR 68.
C. IAR 57.
D. None is correct.
747. The number of different log books requirement for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are
A. three.
B. four.
C. five.
D. six.
748. DGCA shall issue

A. JLB.
B. Engine log book.
C. Airframe log book.
D. All are correct.
749. Detailed record of replacements, major repair & overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in
the
A. first section of the log book.
B. second section of the log book.
C. third section of the log book.
D. third section of the JLB.
750. The third section of the airframe log book will contain
A. routine inspection records.
B. modification records.
C. replacement records.
D. overhaul records.
751. The first section of journey log book contains

A. routine inspection records.
B. minor repair records.
C. major repair records.
D. None is correct.
752. In accordance with CAR flight is recorded as
A. chock to chock.
B. take-off to touch down.
C. take-off to touch down may be adopted after obtaining approval from RAO.
D. All are correct.
753. When a component having its own log book is removed from aircraft, the reason for removal should
be entered in
A. the component relevant log book.
B. flight log book and aircraft log book.
C. aircraft log book.
754. When an engine is changed, the hours flown, the serial members and part numbers as appropriate of
'lifed' parts, which are not changed with the engine should be entered in
A. the relevant log book.
B. the log book of the replacement engine.
C. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book.
D. as in (c) and also in JLB.
755. When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the
A. JLB and signed by the pilot.
B. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot.
C. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately licenced AME.
D. relevant log book and signed by the pilot.
756. Log books carried on board an aircraft are

A. JLB.
B. JLB, flight log book, aircraft log book.
C. working copies of airframe and engine log books.
757. When an aircraft meets with an accident and is damaged beyond repair, then the
A. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years.
B. engine log book is preserved for 2 years.
C. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years.
D. All are correct.
758. Log book other than aircraft, engine & propeller log book are preserved for
A. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use.
B. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use.
C. ten years.
D. ten years from the date of last entry.
759. When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67
A. the C of A will cease to be valid.
B. the C of A will be cancelled.
C. the C or R will be cancelled.
D. the FRC will be cancelled.
760. Valid documents are carried on board an India registered aircraft in accordance with
A. CAR series X part VII.
B. CAR series X part VII IAR 7.
C. CAR series X part VII IAR 57.
D. CAR series X part VII IAR 67.
761. 'Group A' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft are/is
A. C or R.
B. C of A.
C. FRC.
D. All are correct.
762. 'Group B' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft is/are
A. FRC.
B. Flight Manual.
C. C or R.
D. All are correct.
763. The documents as required in group A and group B shall be carried on board all aircraft
A. at all times.
C. with AUW below 15,000 kg.
D. None is correct.
764. An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of its starting place and returns without landing
elsewhere to its starting place, needs to carry
A. only documents, of group A.
B. only documents, of group B.
C. documents of group A and group B.
D. None is correct.
765. Passenger safety information briefing card is carried on

A. all aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above.
B. all aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above.
C. all passenger aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above.
D. all passenger aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above.
766. Application for type approval has to be submitted in form

A. as per annexure I of IAR 49A.
B. as per annexure I of IAR 49.
C. as per annexure I of CAR series F part I.
D. as per annexure I of CAR series X part IX.
767. Application for type approval is submitted to

A. DGCA.
B. DGCA (via RAO).
C. DGCA (atten : Director of Aeronatucial Inspection).
D. DGCA (Atten : Director of Airworthiness).
768. Application for type approval is submitted in

A. duplicate.
B. triplicate.
C. quadruplicate.
D. None is correct.
769. Applicant for type approval shall submit

A. C of A.
B. C of R.
C. a complete list of drawing.
D. All are correct.
770. Along with the application for type approval the applicant should submit
A. C of A no of the aircraft.
B. nationality and registration marking of the aircraft.
C. endurance (based on operational experience).
D. All are correct.
771. If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of aircraft is jeopardised it can
A. cancel or suspend a type certificate.
B. endorse a type certificate.
C. incorporate a modification in type certificate.
D. All of them are correct.
772. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR series F part II annexure I
A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm.
B. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm.
C. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm.
D. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm.
773. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to
the DGCA
A. length of fuselage.
B. length over all, height over all.
D. None is correct.
774. For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension
to the DGCA
A. length of fuselage.
B. overall length.
C. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor, main rotor blade chord.
D. All are correct.
775. Aircraft rule 50 empowers the

A. Govt. of India to issue/renew C of A.
B. RAO to renew/revalidate c of A.
C. DGCA to issue/revalidate C of A.
776. All aircraft registered in India must possess a current and valid C of A before it is flown is a
requirement as per
A. Aircraft rules 50.
B. Aircraft rules 30.
C. Aircraft rules 15.
D. Aircraft rules 50 A.
777. CAR series 'F' part III

A. lays down the procedure for obtaining certificate of registration.
B. lays down the procedure for obtaining Indian certificate of registration.
C. lays down the procedure of obtaining Indian certificate of airworthiness.
D. lays down the procedure of obtaining certificate of airworthiness.
778. For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported
meets the approved airworthiness standards of
A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25.
B. FAR 23 & FAR 25.
C. FAR 27 & FAR 29.
D. All are correct.
779. C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA
A. cannot be issued/renewed.
B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance
standards is conveyed to him.
C. both a and b are correct.
D. none of them is correct.
780. Application for obtaining C of A is to be submitted in form

A. CA 23 (Appendix A ).
B. CA 23A.
C. CA 25 (Appendix A).
D. CA 25.
781. For issuance of C of A the owner/operator shall supply free of cost

A. original log books along with record of modification with a certificate from the Chief of Inspection that
no modification/airworthiness directive/inspection is pending.
B. two sets of type certificate.
C. two sets of MMEL.
D. all are correct.
782. In case any deficiency is noticed during inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C of A
A. the owner will be informed and he will be responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed out.
B. C of A will not be issued.
C. the owner may be asked to carry out any modification/airworthiness directives which is considered
essential for the safety of the aircraft.
D. both a and c are correct.
783. For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA
A. to the manufacturer for completion.
B. to the owner/operator for completion.
C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion.
D. All are correct.
784. Validity of C of A is
A. for one year.
B. for six months.
C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft.
785. C of A validity of imported aircraft is

A. for one year.
B. for six months.
C. the validity period shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A.
786. Validity of C of A
A. is for one year.
B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft.
C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A.
787. Short-term C of A is issued for

A. un-airworthy aircraft.
B. aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration marking.
C. aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking.
D. aircraft having service life of less than one year.
788. The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if

A. he feels so.
B. required data are not made available.
C. reasonable apprehension exists regarding its airworthiness.
D. both b and c are correct.
789. Documents which must accompany the application for the issue of C of A are/is
A. form CA 83.
B. form CA 84.
C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of 1969.
790. The three general categories of aircraft are

A. normal, special, aerobatic.
B. passenger, mail, goods.
C. aerial, private, agricultural.
D. passenger, normal, special.
791. Normal category aircraft are

A. passenger, mail.
B. goods, aerial.
C. private, passenger.
D. All are correct.
792. Aircraft certificated in normal category can be used

A. in all sub-divisions.
B. in special category.
C. in specific sub-division (s) certificated.
D. None is correct.
793. Private aircraft means

A. all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft.
B. shall not be used for hire or reward.
C. shall not be used of any kind of remuneration.
D. All are correct.
794. A state Govt. aircraft certificated in normal category sub-division shall be a

A. passenger aircraft.
B. private aircraft.
C. research aircraft.
D. racing aircraft.
795. Research aircraft is a subdivision of

A. normal category.
B. aerobatic category.
C. special category.
D. experimental category.
796. Racing aircraft is a subdivision of

A. normal category.
C. experimental category.
D. special category.
797. Aircraft certificated in normal category shall not be used in

A. special category.
C. private category.
D. All are correct.
798. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category

A. may be used in special category.
B. may be used in normal category.
C. may be used for experimental work.
D. may be used for racing.
799. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between
A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
800. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in aerobatic category are between
A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g.
B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g.
C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g.
D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
801. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the requirements
of
A. FAR 15.
B. FAR 26.
C. FAR AD (87-01-40).
D. FAR 21.
802. Class II & Class III aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by
A. export C of A.
B. airworthiness approval tag.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA.
803. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by

A. export C of A.
C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA.
804. Complete aircraft comes under

A. class I aeronautical product.
B. class II aeronautical product.
C. class III aeronautical product.
D. class IV aeronautical product.
805. An aircraft which is being exported to India via flyway should

A. display Indian nationality and registration marking.
B. display foreign nationality and registration marking.
C. have ferry flight authorisation.
806. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported to India is
the responsibility of
A. exporter of the aircraft.
B. importer of the aircraft.
C. DGCA.
D. FAA.
807. 'Noise standards' acceptable in India for issuance of Indian C of A are

A. same as required for issuance of US C of A.
B. same as required for issuance of UK C of A.
C. same as required for issuance of CAA C of A.
D. same as required in JAR 21.
808. Class II & III aeronautical products imported in India must accompany
A. airworthiness approval tag.
B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R).
C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P).
D. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L).
809. Engine/propellers imported in India must accompany
A. export C of A.
C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L).
810. Reconditioned/used/surplus parts must be certified as per
A. FAR part 145.

B. FAR part 65.
C. FAR part 43.
D. All are correct.
811. Requirement for renewal of C of A is contained in

A. CAR series 'F' part IV.
B. CAR series 'F' part III.
C. aircraft rule 5.
D. both b and c are correct.
812. Validity of C of A can be extended for

A. 3% of flight hours.
B. 10% of calendar period.
C. no extension is granted.
813. Application of renewal of C of A should be made preferably

A. 10 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
B. 15 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
C. 7 days in advance of expiry of C of A.
D. none is correct.
814. In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired then fcr renewal
A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by oficer incharge RAO.
B. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by operator/QCM.
C. the quantum of work required has to be decided by manufacturer.
815. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO
A. All log books.
B. JLB.
C. Procedure sheets cf past one year.
D. All the above.
816. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO

A. C of A, C of R.
B. WT license.
D. None is correct.
817. Renewal of certificate of airworthiness of Indian registered aircraft abroad

A. cannot be carried out and should be avoided.
B. can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA.
C. C of A will be renewed in the normal manner.
818. C of A shall cease to be valid if

A. approved inspection schedule is completed when due.
B. 'lifted' components are replaced on expiry of stipulated lives.
C. unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out.
D. All are correct.
819. If mandatory modifications are not carried out as and when called for
A. the C of R will cease to be valid.
B. the C of A will cease to be valid.
C. the WT license will cease to be valid.
D. All are correct.
820. Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are required to be maintained by
A. individual AMEs.
B. airlines.
C. approved organisation.
D. All are correct.
821. Aircraft with AUW below 5700 can be maintained by

A. individual AMEs.
B. approved organisation.
C. authorised personnel of approved organisation.
D. All are correct.
822. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued by
A. DGCA.
B. RAO.
C. QCM.
D. All are correct.
823. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued by
A. individual AMEs.
B. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to cover the type of aircraft involved.
C. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to cover the type of engine involved.
824. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document after the
expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A
A. will start from the date of inspection.
B. will start from the expiry of last C of A.
C. will start from the date of submitting the application.
D. All are correct.
825. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted on

A. form CA 25.
B. Appendix to form CA 25.
C. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part III.
D. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part IV.
826. Suspended C of A will be revalidated

A. only upto the date the previous currency of the C of A had remained valid, if it had not been suspended.
B. for another one year.
C. cannot be revalidated.
D. None is correct.
827. Aircraft rules 55(1)

A. provides for automatic suspension of C of A.
B. empowers the DGCA to suspend C of A.
C. empowers the DGCA to cancel C of A.
D. All are correct.
828. DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an aircraft under the purview of
A. Aircraft rules 55.
B. Aircraft rules 55 (1).
C. Aircraft rules 55 (2).
D. Aircraft rules 55A.
829. Suspension of C of A is dealt in

B. CAR series F part IV.
C. CAR series F part III.
D. CAR series F part V.
830. The certification of airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended if

A. it is modified or repaired otherwise then in accordance with approved procedure.
B. suffers major damage.
C. develops a major defect.
D. All are correct.
831. Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of private aircraft may not be necessary if ground facilities
are not available till
A. inspection associated with next flight certfication.
B. next 100 hrs schedule.
C. align with any schedule within 50 hours.
D. Any one of the above.
832. OAT gauge is a must

A. on all aircraft intended for flying.
B. on aircraft undertaking night flying on VFR.
C. on aircraft fitted with engine with carburettor air temp. control but without carburettor air temperature
gauge.
833. A two-way communication system and navigation equipment are essential

A. when an aircraft is flying under IFR.
B. when an aircraft is flying through controlled air space.
C. suplemented with appropriate ground facilities.
D. comprehensively all above.
834. CAR series L part I deals with

A. issue of AME licences.
B. classification of AME licences.
C. experience requirements for issue of AME licences.
D. Comprehensively all above.
835. Aircraft rule 61 lays down the

A. minimum qualification for issue of AME licence.
B. minimum experience for issue of AME licence.
D. None is correct.
836. Light aircraft means an aircraft

D. None is correct.
837. Heavy aircraft means an aircraft

A. with AUW of 5700 kg and above.
B. with AUW of 15000 kg and above.
C. with AUW of 3000 kg and above.
D. None is correct.
838. Registration and airworthiness of Microlight aircraft is contained in

A. CAR series F part XIV.
B. CAR series F part XV.
C. IAR 62.
D. IAR 62 B.
839. Microlight aircraft includes

A. hang gliders.
B. powered hang gliders.
C. light aircraft.
D. None is correct.
840. Microlight aircraft means

A. a single seater or two seater aircraft.
B. a fixed wing aircraft.
C. wing area not less than 10 sq meters.
D. all are correct.
841. Maximum AUM of a microlight aircraft is

A. 250 kg.
B. 300 kg.
C. 350 kg.
D. 450 kg.
842. All airworthy mcrolight aircraft should possess a

A. valid certificate of airworthiness.
B. valid certificate of safety.
C. valid permit to fly.
D. All the above.
843. The registration markings assigned to the microlight aircraft shall be painted
A. on the lower surface of the wings.
B. also on each side of fuselage.
C. or on the upper half of the vertical fin.
D. All are correct.
844. A permanent placard should be affixed on the microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants stating
that
A. valid for day flying only.
B. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud flying.
C. the aircraft has not been certificated to international requirements.
845. Permit to fly is valid for

A. six months.
B. nine months.
C. one year.
D. two years.
846. In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry out the pre flight and all inspections up to
A. 5 hours.
B. 10 hours.
C. 20 hours.
D. 25 hours.
847. Only appropriately licensed AME can perform any schedule higher than
A. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
B. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
C. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
D. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft.
848. All columns of microlight aircraft log book should be filled by

A. an AME and signed by him.
B. an appropriately licensed AME.
C. QCM and signed by him.
D. the pilot and signed by him.
849. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the entire air space over the territory of
A. Delhi.
B. Jammu and Kashmir.
C. Tamilnadu.
D. Punjab.
850. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the areas falling within
A. 10 km from international border.
B. 20 km from international border.
C. 25 km from international border.
D. 50 km from international border.
851. The restricted flying areas are notified by the

A. DGCA in consultation with the Home Ministry.
B. Defence Ministry.
852. Application for permit to fly for microlight aircraft is submitted on

A. from CA 28.
B. appendix to CAR series F part II.
C. annex I to CAR series F part XIV.
D. from CA 182.
853. Requirement for manufacture registration and airworthiness control of hot air balloons is contained in
A. IAR 62.
B. IAR 15.
C. CAR series F part XIV.
D. CAR series F part XV.
854. Ballon means

A. a power-driven lighter than aircraft.
B. a non power-driven lighter than aircraft.
C. a non power-driven heavier than aircraft.
D. a power-driven heavier than aircraft.
855. Envelope means the enclosure

A. in which the lifting medium is contained.
B. in which balloon is contained.
C. which is used to accommodate balloon occupants.
D. which is used to cover the balloon.
856. 'Basket' of balloon means

A. the container suspended beneath the envelope.
B. the container suspended beneath the balloon.
C. basket used for the balloon occupants.
857. A hot air balloon used for personal flying a pilot

A. must have a permit to fly.
B. must have a type certificate.
C. need not have a type certificate.
858. All manned free balloons are required to be registered as per

A. CAR series F part XV.
B. CAR series X part XV.
C. CAR series X part I.
D. CAR series F part I.
859. The identification plate of balloon shows
A. registration markings.
B. constructor's name.
C. balloon's serial number.
D. All the above.
860. Flight release for a balloon has to be issued carry

A. 24 hours.
B. 36 hours.
C. 48 hours.
D. seven days.
861. A pilot can carry out inspection schedules up to

A. 5 hours in case of balloons.
B. 10 hours in case of balloons.
C. 15 hours in case of balloons.
D. 25 hours in case of balloons.
862. Only an AME can carry out any inspection schedule higher than
A. 10 hours in case of ballons.
B. 15 hours in case of ballons.
C. 25 hours in case of ballons.
D. 50 hours in case of ballons.
863. Procedure/worksheet pertaining to balloon shall be preserved for at least

A. two years after completion of work.
B. five years after completion of work.
C. ten years after completion of work.
864. Records/worksheet pertaining to 'lifed' components of balloons shall be preserved for

A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
865. All-India registered balloon must carry on board

A. certificate of registration.
B. certificate of airworthiness.
C. cockpit and emergency check list in laminated form.
866. The operating of the balloon flight will only be undertaken during
A. day time under VFR condition.
B. past noon session.
C. pre noon session.
D. between sunrise to sunset.
867. In general a flight manual contains

A. three sections.
B. four sections.
C. five section.
D. six sections.
868. Guidance for the preparation of flight manual is given in
A. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part III section (9) chapter II.
B. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section (9) chapter III.
C. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part 9 section III chapter II.
D. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section III chapter 9.
869. If an approved flight manual is not ammended up-to-date

A. the C of A will be valid.
B. the C of A would cease to be valid.
C. the C or R would cease to be valid.
870. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to
A. RAO.
B. sub-RAO.
C. DGCA.
871. Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component items of equipments from being modified, repaired,
replaced, inspected or overhauled except by an approved person of contracting state whose approval is
recognised by the DGCA
A. Rule 60.
B. Rule 61.
C. Rule 56.
D. Rule 51.
872. Normally no parts should be used from the parts pooled beyond
A. 25 hours of operation.
B. 50 hours of operation.
C. 100 hours of operation.
D. 200 hours of operation.
873. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is included in the appropriate
A. flight manual.
B. QCM.
C. cockpit check list.
D. emergency check list.
874. CAR series 'H' Part I deals with

A. unusable fuel supply.
B. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of aircraft.
C. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter.
D. All are correct.
875. Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is not available the procedure recommended to
determine, is
A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel system from the lowest point in the supply line.
B. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in each tank.
C. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the
fuel quantity gauge.
D. All are correct.
876. The fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at

A. five litres.
B. ten litres.
C. zero litres.
D. unusable fuel.
877. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated

A. at every C of A.
B. at the time of installation.
C. at the nearest major check.
D. All are correct.
878. A properly calibrated dip stick is carried on board

A. all aircraft.
B. all light aircraft and helicopters.
C. all helicopters.
D. all heavy aircraft.
879. Aircraft fuelling procedure is laid down in

A. CAR series H part II.
B. CAR series H part I.
C. IAR 25 A.
880. Fuelling zone is regarded as the area extending

A. 25 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
B. 15 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
C. 10 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
D. 06 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point.
881. As a general guide the fuelling place should be at least

A. 30 metres from the hangar.
B. 25 metres from the hangar.
C. 20 metres from the hangar.
D. 15 metres from the hangar.
882. The aircraft shall not be fuelled within

A. 30 metres of radar equipment in use.
B. 25 metres of radar equipment in use.
C. 20 metres of radar equipment in use.
D. 15 metres of radar equipment in use.
883. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of

A. density.
B. kg.
C. tonnes.
D. volume.
884. Exhaust of the refuelling vehicle shall not pass over the
A. fuelling hose.
B. intake hose.
C. both a and b is correct.
D. none is correct.
885. Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded
A. to the fuelling equipment.
B. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is removed.
C. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is removed.
D. None is correct.
886. Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet
outlets within
A. 50 metres of the aircraft.
B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment.
C. 30 m,etres of the aircraft.
D. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment.
887. Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be fitted with

A. spark arrestors.
B. flame traps.
C. fire extinguishers.
888. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used within
A. 5 metres of fuelling equipment.
B. 6 metres of fuelling equipment.
C. 15 metres of fuelling equipment.
D. 30 metres of fuelling equipment.
889. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent.
D. None of them correct.
890. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall
A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board.
C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent.
D. None of them correct.
891. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation covering an area greater than 5 square metres, then all
persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a place at least
A. 6 metres from the spillage.
B. 15 metres from the spillage.
C. 30 metres from the spillage.
D. 43 metres from the spillage.
892. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of
A. CAR series I part I.
B. CAR series I part II.
C. CAR series I part III.
893. Instruments shall be inspected prior to installation to insure that

A. the instruments are approved for the type of aircraft.
B. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or
equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation.
C. the range of any coloured sector marked on instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified in the
aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine manufacturer manual as applicable.
D. All are correct.
894. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated and compensated

A. at the time of initial installation of a compass.
B. as specified in operator's MS manual.
C. after installation of a new electrical system.
D. All are correct.
895. Flame resistant material as per CAR Series X part IV

A. is not susceptible to combustion to the point of propagating a flame after ignition source is removed.
B. susceptible to combustion or to the point of smouldering.
C. which will not catch fire at all.
D. which will not ignite fire to any material.
896. The test flight is not necessary for an engine change in an aircraft
A. having 4 engines.
B. having 2 engines.
C. having single engine.
D. only C above is wrong.
897. On a two-engine aircraft, a test flight after an engine change is

A. mandatory.
B. not mandatory.
C. mandatory for aircraft above 5700 kg AUW.
D. mandatory for aircraft above 15,000 kg AUW.
898. A fire-proof metal plate is affixed on the aircraft to indicate

A. C of A number and its date of issue.
B. name of manufacturer and date of manufacturer.
C. name and address of registered owner, registration mark.
D. smoking is permitted.
899. Regarding the log books, mark the correct statement:

A. In engine log book repairs are entered in section-III.
B. In propeller log book, major repairs are entered in section-2.
C. Log book entry must be made within 24 hours.
D. Component log book must be preserved for six months after permanent withdrawal of component.
900. Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should have seats upholstery, harness, belts etc. are made of
A. self-extinguishing materials.
B. flame resistance materials.
C. no smoking type materials.
D. flame proof materials.
901. Validity or C of A in case of imported aircraft shall

A. be six months.
B. be one year.
C. begin from the date of issue of Indian C of A.
D. begin from the date of issue of original export of C of A and will normally be for a period of one year.
902. Validity of C of A would remain continuous

A. if the inspection is carried out more than one month in advance of the expiry date.
B. if the inspection is carried out not more than 15 days in advance of the expiry date.
C. if the inspection is carried out not more than 7 days in advance of the expiry date.
D. if the inspection is carried out not more than 30 days in advance of the expiry date.
903. If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the same day, the pre-flight inspection may be carried out
A. before each take-off.
B. after every three take-offs.
C. once before the first flight of the day.
D. None is correct.
904. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport
shall not
A. be more than 15 years in age.
B. be more than 10 years in age.
C. be more than 12 years in age.
D. None is correct.
905. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public
transport shall not
A. have completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
B. have completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
C. have completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
D. have completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
906. DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be imported for operation if it is more than
A. 50 years old.
B. 25 years old.
C. 20 years old.
D. 15 years old.
907. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not be
A. more than 20 years in age.
B. more than 15 years in age.
C. more than 10 years in age.
D. None is correct.
908. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public
transport shall not have
A. completed 50,000 pressurization cycles.
B. completed 45,000 pressurization cycles.
C. completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
D. completed 30,000 pressurization cycles.
909. For the import of tools/equipments required for maintenance/testing etc. of imported aircraft the
importer
A. should contact FAA.
B. should contact CAA.
C. should contact DGCA.
D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from DGCA.
910. For the export of aircraft spares/items of equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain exigencies the
operator shall
A. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA.
B. contact the aircraft manufacturer.
C. contact the airworthiness authority of place of manufacturer.
911. Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a
period of
A. 7 days.
B. 3 days.
C. 2 days.
D. 24 hours.
912. All refuelling tanks shall be cleaned

A. once in two years.
B. once a year.
C. once in six months.
D. every month.
913. All-lined tank should be inspected for lining defects and internally inspected for cleanliness
A. every five years.
C. every two years.
D. every year.
914. Fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and sediments

A. once in three days.
B. once in two days.
C. every day.
D. every week.
915. Hose and protection filters of 100 mesh gauze should be inspected
A. every day.
B. every week.
C. every fortnight.
D. every month.
916. Water sampling extraction pits should be checked for water

A. daily.
B. weekly.
C. monthly.
D. yearly.
917. Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period less than
A. 12 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 3 months.
918. Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period of less than
A. 12 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 3 months.
919. AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft tanks only through
A. 100 mesh gauze.
B. 150 mesh gauze.
C. 180 mesh gauze.
D. 200 mesh gauze.
920. Fuel is assessed as unsatisfactory for use in aircraft if a sample shows

A. Globules of water.
B. Cloudiness.
C. more than a trace of sediment.
D. All are correct.
921. Fuel taken out of fuel bulk storage and aircraft fuelling vehicle for checking the state of fuel should be
at least
A. 5 gallons.
B. 3.5 to 4.5 gallons.
C. 0.75 to 1 gallon.
D. None is correct.
922. Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be calibrated once in
A. 10 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 2 years.
D. once a year.
923. Primary Indicator colour for AVGAS pipeline is

A. Red.
B. Black.
C. Violet.
D. Yellow.
924. Primary Indicator colour for Jet A-1 pipeline is

A. Red.
B. Black.
C. Violet.
D. Yellow.
925. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth
A. once in two years.
B. once in 18 months.
C. once in a year.
D. once in 6 months.
926. Aviation delivery hoses shall confirm to

A. I.S./BS/API Specifications.
B. IS/BS/DGCA Specifications.
C. IS/DAW/BS Specifications.
D. IS/BS/DAW Specifications.
927. Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of
A. 20 microns.
B. 15 microns.
C. 10 microns.
D. 5 microns.
928. Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator
monitor with a nominal rating of
A. 20 microns.
B. 15 microns.
C. 10 microns.
D. 5 microns.
929. A hand glider if unpowered weighs less than

A. 300 kgs (AUW).
B. 250 kgs (AUW).
C. 200 kgs (AUW).
D. 150 kgs (AUW).
930. A single-seater powered hang glider weighs less than

A. 375 kgs (AUW).
B. 300 kgs (AUW).
C. 275 Kgs (AUW).
D. 150 Kgs (AUW).
931. A double seater powered hang glider weighs less than

A. 375 Kgs (AUW).
B. 300 Kgs (AUW).
C. 275 Kgs (AUW).
D. 150 Kgs (AUW).
932. A powered hang glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
A. 100 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 90 knots calibrated air speed.
C. 80 knots calibrated air speed.
D. 70 knots calibrated air speed.
933. Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed not exceeding
A. 50 knots calibrated air speed.
B. 40 knots calibrated air speed.
C. 30 knots calibrated air speed.
D. 25 knots calibrated air speed.
934. All hang gliders before flight must possess a

A. Valid c of A.
B. permit to fly.
D. None is correct.
935. All hang gliders must possess

A. Valid C of A.
B. permit to fly.
C. C or R.
936. Validity of permit to fly for hang glider is

A. one year.
B. six months.
C. three months.
D. None is correct.
937. Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its
components shall be carried out by
A. pilots.
B. AMES.
C. persons authorized by the DGCA.
D. None is correct.
938. Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out by
A. pilot incharge.
B. AME.
C. person authorized by the DGCA.
D. None is correct.
939. Hang glider must be equipped with

A. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge.
B. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge, ELT.
C. Altimeter, ASI & ELT.
D. ASI & ELT.
940. The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have
A. 50 hrs of hang glider.
B. 25 hrs of hang glider.
C. 10 hrs of hang glider.
D. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual machine.
941. Reweighing of Aircraft of AUW more than 2999 kg shall be done

A. every 5 years.
B. every 3 years.
C. every 2 years.
D. every year.
942. The first aid kit container shall be of

A. white background with red cross.
B. red background with white cross.
C. green background with white cross.
D. white background with green cross.
943. Standard weight for CREW for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 85 kgs.
B. 75 kgs.
C. 70 kgs.
D. 65 kgs.
944. Standard weight for PASSENGER for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 85 kgs.
B. 75 kgs.
C. 70 kgs.
D. 65 kgs.
945. Standard weight for CHILDREN for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 50 kgs.
B. 40 kgs.
C. 35 kgs.
D. 30 kgs.
946. Standard weight for INFANTS for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as
A. 30 kgs.
B. 20 kgs.
C. 15 kgs.
D. 10 kgs.
947. The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be kept by the operator for a period of
A. 5 years.
B. 2 years.
C. 1 years.
D. 6 months.
948. Electromagnetic Interference whether conducted or radiated can be categorized by

A. band width.
B. amplitude behaviour.
C. waveform and occurrence.
D. All are correct.
949. The occurrence of electromagnetic interference can be categorized as

A. periodic & random.
B. periodic & aperiodic.
C. periodic & instant.
950. Global Positioning Systems (GPS) act as

A. navigation equipment.
B. an aid to navigation.
C. communication equipment.
D. radar system.
951. An AME trainee clears paper I, II, III on HS 748 aircraft of AME's licence examination. The operator
will consider him for grant of approval only after
A. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA'.
B. he has successfully completed a specific training subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the
DGCA and adjugded fit for approval.
C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a board chaired by QCM.
D. None is correct.
952. In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the
aircraft rule 1937
A. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as long
as it is valid.
B. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator.
C. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the privilege of their licence only after obtaining special
authorisation from the DGCA.
D. None is correct.
953. Aircraft should be flight tested

A. at the time of C of A.
B. subsequent to maintenance repair or modification which effects operational or flight characteristic of the
aircraft.
C. on three engine aircraft, if two engines are changed a test flight shall be carried out.
D. All are correct.
954. Glider is a
A. aircraft.
B. airship.
C. aerodyne.
D. All are correct.
955. According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft means an aircraft used for
A. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other remunerative purpose.
B. as in (a) is not used for public transport.
C. as in (a) also used for public transport.
D. All are correct.
956. 'Aerodrome' means any difinite or limited

A. ground or water are intended to be used either wholly or in part for the landing or departing of aircraft.
B. as in (a) and includes all buildings & sheds.
C. as in (b) and also includes vessels, piers and other structures.
D. None is correct.
957. An aircraft whose support in flight is derived dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion
relative to the air is called
A. aerodyne.
B. aeroplane.
C. gyroplane.
D. aerostat.
958. An aricraft supported in the air statically and includes all airships and balloons is termed as
A. aerodyne.
B. aerostat.
C. gyrostat.
D. None of them.
959. Any machines which can derive support in the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than reactions
of the air against the earth surface is called
A. aeroplane.
B. aircraft.
C. aerostat.
D. aerodyne.
960. A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions
on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight is termed as
A. aerodyne.
B. aerostat.
C. aeroplane.
D. aircraft.
961. A powe driven lighter-than-aircraft is a

A. airship.
B. flying machines.
C. aerostat.
D. All are correct.
962. An aeroplane capable of taking off from and alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is
called a
A. seaplane.
B. gyroplane.
C. hydroplane.
D. amphibian.
963. Kite is an
A. aerodyne.
B. aircraft.
D. aerostat.
964. Balloon is
A. aerostat.
B. aerodyne.
C. kite.
D. All are correct.
965. 'Contracting state' means any state which is for the time being a party to
A. a convention on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7, 1944.
B. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7 1944.
C. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at New York on December 7 1944.
D. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at Delhi on December 7, 1944.
966. Convention means

A. the convention relating to ICAO.
B. the convention relating to air safety.
C. the convention relating to air traffic.
D. the convention relating to International air safety.
967. 'Dangerous goods' means

A. explosive.
B. non-explosive.
C. any good which is likely to endanger the safety of aircraft or person or thing on board the aircraft.
D. All are correct.
968. Flying machine/s may be

A. helicopter.
B. aeroplane.
C. gyroplane.
D. All are correct.
969. State aircraft includes

A. military aircraft.
B. State Government aircraft.
C. Central Government aircraft.
D. All are correct.
970. Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only with the special permission of
A. director of Civil Aviation Security.
B. commissioner of Airport Security.
C. DGCA.
D. All are correct.
971. No alcoholic drink shall be consumed by the operating crew members

A. 6 hours before the commencement of the flight.
B. 8 hours before the commencement of the flight.
C. 10 hours before the commencement of the flight.
D. 12 hours before the commencement of the flight.
972. No animals/reptiles shall be carried by air without permission from

A. a doctor, authorised for it.
B. NAA.
C. DGCA under rule 34-A.
D. DGCA under rule 24-C.
973. Minimum age for solo control of aeroplane is

A. 16 years.
B. 17 years.
C. 18 years.
D. 21 years.
974. Minimum age for solo control of glider is

A. 16 years.
B. 17 years.
C. 18 years.
D. 21 years.
975. Minimum age of issue of CPL is

A. 16 years.
B. 17 years.
C. 18 years.
D. 21 years.
976. No paper containing printed matter shall be dropped from aircraft unless written permission of
A. District Magistrate is obtained.
B. Commissioner of Police is obtained.
C. Director Air Safety is obtained.
977. For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number
of cabin attendents required are
A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
978. contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state

A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with a nother state.
B. contracted for any particular condition for carriage of passengers.
C. which is for the time being a party to convention of the ICAO.
D. which is for the time being a party to ICAO.
979. Aircraft rule 62 deals with

A. fee payable for all licence exams of DGCA.
B. fee payable for AME licence exams of DGCA.
C. fee payable for renewaql of AME licence exam.
980. Aircraft 69 refers to

A. notification of accidents.
B. report on accidents.
C. removed and preservation of damaged aricraft.
981. When an accident occurs it has to be notified by the PIC/operator/owner to the

A. DGCA.
B. District Magistrate.
C. DM & officer-in-charge of the nearest police station.
D. as in (c) and (a).
982. Information of accident to DGCA shall be made within

A. an hour of occurrence.
B. 12 hours of occurrence.
C. 24 hours of occurrence.
D. 48 hours of occurrence.
983. Initial accident information to DGCA shall contain

A. nationality and registration marks of the aircraft.
B. the region in which the aircraft is based.
C. cause of accident.
D. all are correct.
984. Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be removed from a wrecked aircraft under the supervision
of
A. a magistrate.
B. an officer of police department.
C. an officer of CAD.
D. All are correct.
985. Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed under the supervision of
A. a magistrate.
B. an officer of CAD.
C. an officer of post and telegraph department.
D. All are correct.
986. Investigation of accident is carried out in

A. one way.
B. two ways.
C. three ways.
D. None is correct.
987. Slaughtering of animal is prohibited within

A. 5 km of aeroplane reference point.
B. a radius of 8 km of aerodrome.
C. a radius of 10 km of aerodrome reference point.
D. a radius of 5 km of aerodrome reference point.
988. Period of validity of aerodrome licence is

A. one year.
B. two years.
C. five years.
D. ten years.
989. Route guide contains

A. communication facilities, navigation aids available on the route to be flown.
B. meterological minima for each of the aerodromes to be flown.
C. instruments let down procedure for aerodrome on route.
D. as in a.b.c and specific instruments for computation of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carrie don
board.
990. An applicant for Assistant Flight Instructor rating shall be of atleast

A. 19 years.
B. 20 years.
C. 21 years.
D. 25 years.
991. Air traffic control service means a service provided for purpose of
A. signalling aircraft.
B. preventing collisions between aircraft.
C. manoeuvring and obstruction.
D. All are correct.
992. Cruising level means level maintained during

A. descent.
B. ascent.
C. straight and level flight.
D. significant portion of a flight.
993. Area over which flight by aircraft is prohibited, is

A. the area included within in a radius of 1 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
B. the area included within in a radius of 2 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
C. the area included within in a radius of 1 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
D. the area included within in a radius of 2 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay.
994. Student for issuance of student pilot licence shall pass

A. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology.
B. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology air navigation.
C. an oral examination in air regualtion aircraft and engine aviation meteorology.
D. an oral examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology and air navigation.
995. An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence shall produce evidence of having flown
A. 15 hours solo.
B. 20 hours solo.
C. 25 hours solo.
D. 30 hours solo.
996. Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence may be a flight to a point beyond
A. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
B. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
C. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
D. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure.
997. An applicant for issuance of private pilot must have at least
A. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
B. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
C. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
D. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure.
998. The validity of PPL is

A. 12 months from the date of issue.
B. 24 months from the date of issue.
C. 12 months from the date of issue for person below 38 years of age.
D. 12 months from the date of issue for person above 38 years of age.
999. Night rating is valid only when the licence holder has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as
pilot in command within the
A. preceding 3 months.
B. preceding 6 months.
C. preceding 9 months.
D. preceding 12 months.
1000. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so that there is a danger of collision
A. each shall alter its heading to the right.
B. each shall alter its heading to the left.
C. one shall dive and other shall climb.
D. all are correct.
1001. an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming an angle of
less than
A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
B. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
D. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter.
1002. When two or more heavier than aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing
A. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first.
B. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first.
C. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft at the lower altitude.
D. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft at the higher altitude.
1003. Aerobatic in aircraft shall be carried out at a height of at least

A. 500 m above the ground.
B. 600 m above the ground.
C. 1000 m above the ground.
D. 2000 m above the ground.
1004. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ground visibility is less than
A. 3 kms.
B. 5 kms.
C. 8 kms.
D. 10 kms.
1005. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ceiling is less than
A. 200 m.
B. 300 m.
C. 500 m.
D. 1000 m.
1006. Which of the signal means that grave and imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance is
requested
A. a parachute flare showing red light.
B. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying "MAYDAY".
C. rocket or shells throwing red light.
D. All are correct.
1007. The two flag signals corresponding to the letter NC of the international code of signal means
A. urgency signal.
B. assistance signal.
C. distress signal.
D. All are correct.
1008. Which of the following is an urgency signal?

A. Repeated switching on and off of the landing light.
B. Repeated switching on and off of the navigation light.
C. a succession of white pyrotechnical light.
D. all are correct.
1009. A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of spoken work "SECURITE" means
A. urgency signal.
B. distress signal.
C. safety signal.
D. All are correct.
1010. A series of green flashes from aerodrome traffic control means

A. clear to land.
B. clear for take off.
C. return for landing.
D. All are correct.
1011. A steady red light directed towards the aircraft in flight means
A. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
B. do not land for the time being.
C. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating.
D. None is correct.
1012. A series of white flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight means

A. return for landing.
B. return to starting point on the aerodrom.
C. clear to take.
D. All are corret.
1013. Red pyrotechnical light directed towards an aircraft flight means

A. stop approach.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
C. not with-standing any previous instructions do not land for time being.
D. All are correct.
1014. A steady green light direted towards an aircraft on the ground means
A. cleared for taxi.
B. taxi clear of landing area in use.
C. cleared for take off.
D. return to dispersal.
1015. A series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground means
A. return to starting point on the aerodrome.
B. aerodrome unsafe do not land.
C. taxi clear of landing area in use.
D. returned for landing.
1016. A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals indicate that
A. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited.
B. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
C. special precaution must be observed in approaching to land.
D. special precaution must be observed in landing.
1017. Horizontal dumbel indicates that the aircraft are required to

A. land on runway.
B. land, take off on runway.
C. taxi on tzxiway only.
D. All are correct.
1018. A horizontal white dumbel with black bar perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the
dumbel indicates that aircraft are required
A. to land & take off on runway only.
B. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.
C. taxi on taxi ways only.
1019. Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is
A. fit for landing.
B. fit for movement of aircraft.
C. unfit for movement of aircraft.
D. None is correct.
1020. A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area indicates
that
A. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC.
B. the direction of take off is to be verified with the aerodrome control tower.
C. the aircraft can take off from any direction.
D. None is correct.
1021. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black against yellow background indicates
A. the place at which weather information are available.
B. the place at which report concerning air traffic services are made.
C. the place at which catering facility is available.
D. None is correct.
1022. Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or to any
property on land or water or in air shall be punishable with imprisonment up to
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 9 months.
D. 12 months.
1023. A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his head indicate
A. a straight ahead signal.
B. a stop signal.
C. power cut signal.
D. All are correct.
1024. Left arm downward, right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward is a signal for
A. turn to y9our left.
B. turn to your right.
C. start right engine.
D. start left engine.
1025. Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms from extended position inwards in a signal for
A. chocks away.
B. insert chocks.
C. start moving.
D. cut power.
1026. Circular motion of right hand at head level with left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to
A. start engine.
B. start turning.
C. rate of turning.
D. slow turning.
1027. Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward is signal for
A. slow down.
B. cut motor.
C. start engine.
D. None is correct.
1028. Arms down with palm towards ground then moved up and down several times is a signal for
A. slow down.
B. speed up.
C. expedite taxi.
D. None is correct.
1029. Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms outwards is a signal for
A. slow down.
B. cut motors.
C. chocks away.
D. insert chocks.
1030. Arms down with palms towards grounds, then either right or left hand waved up and down indicating
that
A. slow down motor on left side.
B. slow down motor on right side.
C. slow down motor on indicated side.
D. None is correct.
1031. Arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inwards is a signal for
A. all clear.
B. this bay.
C. straight back.
D. slow down.
1032. Arms above head in vertical position palms facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal
forward position repeating is a signal for
A. straight ahead.
B. straight back.
C. this bay.
D. all clear.
1033. For tail to star board point left arm down and right arm brought from overhead vertical position to
horizontal forward position repeating right arm movement
A. turn while backing.
B. straight back.
C. this bay.
D. all clear.
1034. Arms extended horizontally sideways is a signal for hovering helicopter to

A. keep hovering.
B. move upward.
C. move downwards.
D. None is correct.
1035. Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering
helicopter to
A. move side ways.
B. move down wards.
C. move up wards.
D. None is correct.
1036. Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm swing in
front of body in same direction, in a repating movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to
A. move horizontally.
B. move partially.
C. move upwards.
D. move downwards.
1037. Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to
A. land.
B. move horizontally.
C. move downwards.
D. move upwards.
1038. No pilot of a flying machine shall in his capacity as such pilot, fly for more than
A. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
B. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
C. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
D. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days.
1039. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for a period of not less than
A. 2 years for the date of last entry.
B. 3 years for the date of last entry.
C. 4 years for the date of last entry.
D. 5 years for the date of last entry.
1040. An open rating is given for all conventional types of aeroplanes having an AUW
A. not exceeding 450 kg.
B. not exceeding 500 kg.
C. not exceeding 1000 kg.
D. not exceeding 1500 kg.
1041. A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less than
A. 150 hours of flight time as PIC.
B. 200 hours of flight time as PIC.
C. 250 hours of flight time as PIC.
D. 500 hours of flight time as PIC.
1042. For night rating a pilot must have at least

A. 20 hours of night flight as PIC.
B. 50 hours of night flight as PIC.
C. 100 hours of night flight as PIC.
D. 150 hours of night flight as PIC.
1043. The projection on the earth surface of the path of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is
usually expressed in degrees from true north is called
A. true heading.
B. magnetic heading.
C. track.
D. None is correct.
1044. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group XXX means

A. distress signal.
B. urgency signal.
C. safety signal.
D. None is correct.
1045. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group 'TTT' means

A. PAN PAN signal.
B. urgency signal.
C. May-day signal.
D. safety signal.
1046. The period of validity of a CPL for a person over 40 years but below 45 years is
A. 24 months.
B. 18 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 6 months.
1047. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by night which shall consist of a
flight on stipulated route of not less than
A. 60 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere.
B. 100 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere.
C. 120 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere.
D. None is correct.
1048. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight
on a stipulated route of not less than
A. 150nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome.
B. 200 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome.
C. 250 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome.
D. All are correct.
1049. Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur category are those which are built for
A. Development or Research.
B. Sports.
C. Education.
D. all are correct.
1050. Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be flown only by persons having at least
A. ATPL.
B. SCPL.
C. CPL.
D. PPL.
1051. DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur built aircraft are
A. Pre-cover inspection.
B. Final Airworthiness Inspection.
C. Precover and Final Inspection.
D. None is correct.
1052. Maintenance of amateur built aircraft can be carried out by

A. any AME.
B. by any person acceptable to DGCA.
C. any approved person.
D. All are correct.
1053. It is mandatory for amateur built aircraft that

A. 50 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME.
B. 100 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME.
C. 200 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME.
D. 100 Hrs/C of A renewal to be carried out by AME.
1054. 'Permit to Fly' of an aircraft is valid

A. for 3 months.
B. for 6 months.
C. for 12 months.
D. Until C of A is issued.
1055. Initially the life of amateur built aircraft is restricted to

A. 10 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 2 years.
D. 1 year.
1056. Experimental built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for
at least
A. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
B. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
C. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination.
1057. Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at
least
A. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
B. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
C. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
D. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination.
1058. The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance for aircraft manufactured in India is
A. ISO 9000.
B. ISO 9001.
C. ISO 8000.
D. ISO 2000.
1059. Global positioning system at present is accepted as

A. an aid to navigation.
B. sole means of navigation.
C. a replacement to GNS.
D. none is correct.
1060. Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover, clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs
A. in the 3'O clock position.
B. in the 5'O clock position.
C. in the 7'O clock position.
D. in 3 or 9'O clock position.
1061. Fuel samples should be checked for

A. traces of sediments.
B. Globules of water.
C. Cloudiness.
D. All are correct.
1062. The upper sample of fuel is taken from a depth upto

A. 1/10th of the depth of the product below the top surface.
B. 1/8th of the depth of the product below the top surface.
C. 1/6th of the depth of the product below the top surface.
D. 1/4th of the depth of the product below the top surface.
1063. Fuel sampling shall be carried out preferrably before

A. 10 am.
B. 8 am.
C. 6 am.
D. 5 am.
1064. pressure Gauges, Thermometers, Hydrometers used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 2 years.
1065. A clean room as per CAR series I part IV should always

A. be slightly pressurised.
B. be slightly below the normal pressure.
C. be at prevailing outside atmospheric pressure.
D. be at sea level pressure.
1066. A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in general should have a humidity level of not less than
A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 30%.
D. 40%.
1067. Certificate of First Aid Kit should be signed by

A. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree.
B. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree and it should also be endorsed by an AME.
C. Any Registered Medical Practitioner.
D. a and c are correct.
1068. Production Test Flight of 'Series' type of aircraft can be carried out by
A. a person holding at least CPL on that type of aircraft.
B. a person holding at least ATPL on that type of aircraft.
C. a person specifically endorsed for Test Flight.
D. a person holding at least CPL and approved by DGCA to carry out production Test Flight.

Aircraft Maintenance Rules and Regulations MCQ

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Aircraft Maintenance Rules and Regulations MCQ

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1.

On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine is covered under

2. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval are covered under

3. Alert value means

4. When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will

6. IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to

8. An item is judge damage-tolerant

10. S.S.I are

11. On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy

12. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy

13. Substantial damage means

14. Approved maintenance process is monitored by

16. Hard time maintenance is carried out at

17. In an approved maintenance process, pilot report is computed as

18. S.S.I.D contains

20. The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition

21. The life record of all the engine acessories is available in

22. Every engine parameter has an alert value which is fixed by

23. Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period of

24. Alert values are

28. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is measured in terms of

30. Reliability index is

32. Alert value is numerically equal to

33. The requirements to CAR are applicable to all

34. Alert notice is issued by

35. A person of issue of ATPL shall have

36. Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is

38. Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft is approved in

40. A firm approved in category 'A'

41. A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is approved in

42. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics sets is approved in

43. A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure test of aircraft approved

44. An organisation approved in carrying out propeller overhaul is approved in

45. Firms approvedin category 'E'

48. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of

50. First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to

51. 'Release notes' is signed by

52. Certificate of approval is cancelled by

54. Which of the following statement is false?

57. Manufacturer means

58. Type certificate means a certificate issued

59. An organisation engaged in manufacture of aircraft component issues

61. 'Aircraft goods' means

62. Certificate of approval

64. Rejection note is a document

66. An organisation seeking approval in any of the categories A to G should

67. An organisation seeking approval will normally submit

68. Three different manuals required for approval of an organisation are

69. Engineering Organisation manual is

70. Quality Control manual is approved by

71. Maintenance System manual is approved by:

75. Installation of FDR is a must for issue/renewal/validity of C of A on

79. Mechanical stream means the trades of

80. Avionic stream means the trades of

81. Concurrent experience means

82. Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding

83. AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to

84. AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to

85. Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to specific type of

94. Licence in category 'X' is issued for

96. The licence in category R pertaining to heavy aircraft will be endorsed as

97. Airborne communication system includes