SK0 003

CompTIA SK0-003
SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

Practice Test
Version 3.2
CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center?
A. Entry logging
B. Combination locks
C. Card keys
D. Dead bolts
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth?
A. AGP
B. PCI-E x16
C. PCI-X
D. PCI
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 3
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Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a
server? (Select TWO)
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A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem.
B. Verify full system functionality.
C. Replicate the problem.
D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems.
E. Identify any changes to the server.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

D. FTP
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware
resource requests from virtual machines?
A. Guest OS
B. Virtual Center
C. VT
D. Hypervisor
Answer: D
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Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server?
A. Terminate the back end of the chain.

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B. Set the jumper to device ID 0.

C. Terminate both ends of the chain.
D. Set the jumper to cable select.
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 7
A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault
tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored?
A. RAID 1 +0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8

Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in
an array?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system
board?
A. Third-party vendor
B. BIOS manufacture website
C. Operating system manufacture website
D. Server's manufacture website
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 10
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Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses
3.3v across the line?
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A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3
B. High-Voltage Differential
C. Low-Voltage Differential
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms?
A. Excessive cooling
B. Dust buildup
C. Poor ground wires

D. Wet floors
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process?
A. Load differential tape

B. Verify backup
C. Load new tapes
D. Perform a full backup
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13
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Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity?
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A. Compact flash drive
B. SATA hard drive
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C. Blu-Ray drive
D. SDLT Tape drive
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 14
An administrator is adding memory to a server. Once the system boots up, the same amount of
memory appears as before the upgrade. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The memory is not the correct CAS latency.

B. The memory is not installed in the correct slot.
C. The memory does not have the correct timing.
D. The memory is not the correct speed.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15

Which of the following is an advantage of SMP?
A. Smaller initial investment

B. Doubles memory requirements
C. Higher simultaneous thread processing
D. Decreases overhead
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. Once the server in turned back on, the
administrator notices that the memory has not changed. The system board website says the board
should accept the new amount of memory. Which of the following should the administrator do
FIRST?
A. Replace memory chips with known good memory chips.

B. Reset the memory chips.
C. Update the BIOS.
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D. Upgrade the server OS
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 17
A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives. All drives are attached to
a RAID controller. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5
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array. How much usable disk space will this array have?
A. 288GB
B. 360GB
C. 432GB
D. 728GB
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer. The error
states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its
primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is
the MOST likely cause for this error?
A. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory.
B. The user's account was removed from Active Directory.
C. The computer was disjoined from the domain.
D. The user typed in the wrong password
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they
had been working on all morning. To troubleshoot this problem, which step should the
administrator take FIRST?
A. Reboot the file server.

B. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem.
C. Ask the user to reboot their PC.
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D. Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the
administrator.
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 20
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Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall?
A. Implement an application exception.

B. Implement an access control list (ACL).
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C. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80.

D. Implement port blocking on port 80.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
After a virus outbreak, which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft
environment? (Select TWO)
A. WSUS
B. Terminal services
C. Remote management cards
D. Group policy

E. SNMP
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 22
An administrator has been having problems with server security. Many of the servers have been
infected with viruses in the past. Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid
OS exploits?
A. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS).

B. Implement a dual-factor authentication method.
C. Implement a patch management process.
D. Implement stronger user passwords.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
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A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following RAID
levels would provide the FASTEST performance?
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A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1+0
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C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO)
A. Enhanced stability
B. Vendor supported
C. Higher number of available component choices
D. Lower cost
E. Enhanced security
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 25
A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be
retained for no longer than three years. Which of the following locations should an administrator
configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE).
A. Local workstations
B. Backup tapes
C. Domain controllers
D. Email server
E. SMTP gateway
F. Proxy server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
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Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0?
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A. High fault tolerance
B. Ease of failure recovery
C. High performance
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D. No configuration
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 27
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Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building
systems?
A. Server build checklist

B. Server baselining tools
C. Architecture diagrams
D. Hardware compatibility list
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can
be used?

A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. Failover site
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS). Which of the following
is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Battery needs to be replaced

B. Light switch is turned off
C. Smart cable is disconnected
D. UPS needs a firmware update
Answer: A om
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QUESTION NO: 30
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Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X?
A. Sensitivity to background noise

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B. Height of the card

C. Shared bus topology
D. Point-to-point bus topology
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
When installing external SCSI devices, terminators are required on: (Select TWO)
A. the SCSI adapter.

B. each device.
C. the first device.
D. the last device.
E. the server's parallel port.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Verify full system functionality.

B. Implement the change.
C. Test the theory to determine the cause.
D. Root cause analysis.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem?
A. IEEE 1394
B. SCSI
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C. Serial
D. SATA
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following tools restricts device installation?

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A. Default domain policy

B. Group Policy
C. Disk Management
D. File share properties
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack
into an installation when the media does not include the service pack?
A. Templates

B. RIS
C. Ghost
D. Slipstreaming
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an
internal SLA. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task?
A. Define a test server group, install the patches and if successful schedule installation on
production servers.
B. Define a test server group, schedule installation on production servers and then install all
updates and patches.
C. Install the patches during a non-working hour.
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D. Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation.
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 37
A server has a single, half height, PCI-X 3.3v slot available. Which of the following cards can fit in
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this slot? (Select THREE)
A. Half Height, Universally Keyed PCI card

B. Full Height, 3.3v PCI-X card
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C. Half Height, x16 PCI Express Card

D. Half Height, 3.3v PCI card
E. Half Height, Universally Keyed PCI-X card
F. Full Height, Universally Keyed PCI card
G. Half Height, x8 PCI Express Card
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a
Windows installation?
A. Press F6

B. Press ESC
C. Press any key
D. Press Alt+F8
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount
server?
A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives

B. Blade servers offer more rack density
C. Blade servers are typically faster
D. Blade servers allow for more RAM
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 40
An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage. The
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administrator powers up the server, during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the
drive lights flash. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the
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problem?
A. Check the backplane cabling.

B. Check the server BIOS.
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C. Update the RAID controller firmware.

D. Install the latest hard drive firmware
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server. The system POSTs fine and the NIC
is recognized by the OS, but it does not receive an IP address. Which of the following is the MOST
likely cause of this?
A. The NIC is not on the HCL.

B. The driver is incorrect on the server.
C. The patch cable has not been seated properly.

D. The NIC is not seated properly.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network?
A. SAS
B. SCSI
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
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Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible?
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A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
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C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 44
An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. After bringing the
system online, customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server. The
administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. The customers
continue to report issues. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The server's firewall is misconfigured.

B. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly.
C. The web server was not installed properly.
D. The company firewall is misconfigured
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 45
When load balancing traffic between two web servers, which of the following technologies
provides the LOWEST cost solution?
A. Active/passive cluster
B. Active/active cluster
C. Log shipping
D. DNS round robin
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46
When an administrator is troubleshooting a system, which of the following describes the NEXT
course of action if a change does not solve the problem?
A. Establish a new theory of probable cause.

B. Reverse the change.
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C. Implement the next logical change.
D. Perform a root cause analysis.
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip?

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A. EDO
B. L1
C. xD
D. DDR
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 48
A new storage array must be configured for a database server. This array will store transaction
logs that are always being written. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault
tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity?
A. RAID 0

B. RAID 3
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on

every server. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem?
A. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server.

B. Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date.
C. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP.
D. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board.
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 50
A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192.168.100.0/24. A DHCP server is

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available on subnet 192.168.101.0/24. The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP
server. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem?
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A. Assign the workstation a static IP address.

B. Add a second DHCP server to the 192.168.101.0/24 subnet.
C. Add a DHCP relay to the 192.168.100.0/24 subnet.
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D. Add a DHCP server to the 192.168.100.0/24 subnet
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share

permissions?
A. File permissions are less granular than share permissions.

B. Full control can only be set using file permissions.
C. File permissions are more granular than share permissions.
D. Full control can only be set using share permissions.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 52
An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. When the
administrator runs the patch installer, the install fails. The administrator tries again, and the
installer fails again. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server.
B. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install.
C. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed.
D. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
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Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file?
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A. FTP
B. DHCP
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C. DNS
D. WINS
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 54
SMP is considered to be a form of:
A. mail protocol.
B. monitoring protocol.
C. mapped printer.
D. multi-processing.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization?

A. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary
B. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained.
C. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic.
D. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly
prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use?
A. Remote configuration
B. No physical hardware to setup
C. Native RIS integration
D. Clone the machine from a template
Answer: B om
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QUESTION NO: 57
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Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server. All expansion cards stop working
simultaneously. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
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A. Motherboard
B. Operating system
C. Expansion cards
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D. Riser cards
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO)
A. Riser cards
B. Water cooling
C. Shroud
D. Baffle
E. Heat sinks
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following BEST describes a DAS?
A. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels.

B. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network.
C. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached
technologies
D. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the
company LAN?
A. Tape library
B. NAS
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C. Optical jukebox
D. SAN
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement?
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A. ECC
B. RAID
C. Pairing
D. Registered
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache?
A. L3 cache operates faster than the system processor

B. L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor.
C. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns.

D. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 63
Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure?
A. Extreme temperature variances

B. Extreme humidity variances
C. Power stability fluctuations
D. Excessive dust accumulation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 64
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Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array?
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A. 3
B. 4
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C. 5
D. 10
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 65
When running a Windows server, which option is used with the ping command to convert
numerical addresses to host names?
A. -r
B. -a
C. -v
D. -n
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66

Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the
functionality of a DHCP server?
A. /renew
B. /flushdns
C. /release
D. /all
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 67
Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a
certain type of printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Corrupted print spooler software

B. Memory leak in one of the print drivers
C. The disk drive is out of free space
D. Memory leak in the print spooler
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 68
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After a server has been installed into a rack, an administrator must ensure which of the following?
A. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel

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B. The system is labeled so that it can be identified

C. Verify the change control process can be implemented
D. Determine the correct power requirements
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 69
A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN, but can connect by IP
address. Other users are not having a problem. An administrator verifies that the user can
successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup.
The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns. Which of the following should the
administrator do NEXT?

A. Examine the Imhost file.
B. Flush the cache on the DNS server.
C. Flush the cache on the WINS server.
D. Examine the hosts file
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter?
A. 1-7
B. 1-16
C. 0-7
D. 0-15
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program?
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A. Distributed Application Server

B. Dedicated Application Server
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C. Peer-to-Peer Application Server

D. File and Print Server
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible
power supply (UPS)?
A. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs.

B. The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power.
C. The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate.
D. The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed?
A. SODIMM
B. SDRAM
C. DDR3
D. DDR2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 74
Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly. During the
investigation, the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high
level of activity. Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools?
(Select TWO).
A. Page File
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B. Disk Utilization
C. System Temperature
D. Processor Utilization
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E. Network Utilization
Answer: B,E
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QUESTION NO: 75
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Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default?
A. .exe
B. .Ini
C. .msi
D. .dll
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis?
A. Fan

B. Heat sink
C. Shroud
D. Radiator
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data?
A. Incremental
B. Differential
C. Full
D. GFS
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 78
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Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the
following?
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A. FTP server
B. PXE support
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C. CUPS
D. Installation CD
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high
availability between two web servers with static content?
A. Multicast
B. Active/passive cluster
C. Active/active cluster
D. DNS round robin
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 80
An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the
server and begins the troubleshooting process. Which of the following is the FIRST place the
administrator should look for specific information about the problem?
A. The supporting documentation

B. The vendor website
C. The Internet
D. The server event logs
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple
shared drives?
A. Configure individual user accounts

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B. Logon scripts
C. Local policy
D. Set NTFS permissions
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 82
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A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following?
A. Increased heat output

B. Damage of the hardware
C. Loss of storage data
D. Decreased performance
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 83
An administrator notes that after a recent power outage, some open files were corrupted on one
affected file server. Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine
the cause of this corruption?

A. The server's memory
B. The server's RAID controller battery
C. The server's processor
D. The server's NIC teaming configuration
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. Since implementing the new
network, individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues. Which of
the following would resolve this issue?
A. Add another wireless access point.

B. Add another DHCP server.
C. Disable the wireless DHCP server.
D. Change the default gateway of the wireless router
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 85
An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server.

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The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into
production. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?
A. Identify necessary operating system updates

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B. Implement the change

C. Document the change
D. Schedule system down time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 86
When cabling a rack, which of the following is BEST practice?
A. Use rack specific cabling hardware

B. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers
C. Channel all power cables down the sides, and all network cables down the center
D. Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations?
A. NTP
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 88
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Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment?
A. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to
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enhance performance.
B. Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage.
C. A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to
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increase processing power and overall performance

D. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher
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availability.
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 89
An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server.

Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore?
A. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online.

B. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline.
C. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online.
D. Take a differential backup while the server is online.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 90

The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing that the administrator should do?
A. Evacuate all personnel.

B. Notify staff of the potential service outage.
C. Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives.
D. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 91
Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. TFTP
D. SNMP om
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 92
How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable?

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A. 3
B. 4
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C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 93
An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain
controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows?
A. Update the time and date in the BIOS.

B. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller.
C. Update the firmware to the latest version.
D. Configure IPMI on the new board.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 94
A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate
web page as their default home page. Which of the following methods should an administrator use
to BEST comply with this policy?
A. Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon.

B. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy.
C. Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure
compliance.
D. Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
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After performing a copy backup of a file server, the archive bit on the backed up files will be which
of the following?
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A. Deleted
B. Unchanged
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C. Set
D. Copied
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been
replaced?
A. Tape restore utilities

B. Imaging utilities
C. Partitioning utilities
D. Array management utilities
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 97
A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup
method?
A. Greatest, Final, Sequential

B. Full, Partial, Incremental
C. Monthly, Weekly, Daily
D. Full, Differential, Incremental
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following?
A. Mirroring with striping

B. Striping with dedicated parity
C. Striping with distributed parity
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D. Independent disks with shared parity
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 99
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While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server, the system administrator has
determined that the video firmware should be updated. Which of the following sources should be
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used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO).
A. Third-party manufacturer
B. Video chipset manufacturer
C. Server manufacturer
D. Operating system manufacturer
E. Shareware file sharing site
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 100
An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second

Windows server. Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the
monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO).

A. WMI
B. RIS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
E. SMTP
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 101
Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS?
A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order

B. Power being lost during the upgrade process
C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade
D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade
Answer: B om
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QUESTION NO: 102
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An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and
receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
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A. Corrupt file system table

B. Backplane failure
C. Multiple drive failure
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D. Bad cable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 103
Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 104
Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage
capacity?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. Flash
D. SCSI
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 105
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Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files?
A. GFS
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B. Full
C. Differential
D. Incremental
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 106

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A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing
strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the
problem?
A. IP address is classful.
B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address.
C. IP address is a subnet network address.
D. IP address is classless
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 107
An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following
should the administrator do FIRST?

A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures.
B. Review the system logs to check for errors.
C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline.
D. Apply all security updates to the system.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram?
A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout
B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout
C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests
D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following are ways to transport SAN traffic? (Select TWO)
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A. SATA
B. iSCSI
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C. SCSI
D. Fiber channel
E. PAT A
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Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 110
Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes?
A. Proper labeling
B. Asset management
C. Keeping good vendor logs
D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 111
In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive
operation?
A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position.

B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive.
C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1.
D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when
hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the
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monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices?
A. MIBs
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B. SMTP
C. WMI
D. DHCP
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 113

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A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to
determine the problem?
A. Loop back plugs

B. Power supply tester
C. System logs
D. TDR
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 114
When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to
cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

A. Third party cables
B. Third party memory
C. Signed drivers
D. Server type
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 115
Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple
servers through a fiber channel?
A. JBOD
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. NAS
Answer: B om
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QUESTION NO: 116
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Which of the following file systems are native to *nix?
A. FAT
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B. EXT3
C. NTFS
D. FAT32
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select
TWO)
A. Chipkill
B. Memory RAID
C. Registered memory
D. ECC
E. Hot spare

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 118
An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured

every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version. Which of the following is the BEST
solution to address this problem?
A. The current system configuration should be documented for future use.

B. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented.
C. A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized.
D. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 119

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An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. The administrator powers up the server
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and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. Which of the following is the cause?
A. Redundant power supply failure

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B. CPU overheating
C. Memory failure
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D. Hard disk failure
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 120
A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server; however, when the server is
booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer. From which of the
following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO).
A. Format command
B. Hypervisor
C. Computer Management
D. Disk Management
E. Virtual Center
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first, then striping of the disks?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 122
A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. Which of the following steps should the
technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem?
A. Reseat all main components

B. Try to replicate the problem
C. Flash the BIOS
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D. Reinstall the operating system
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 123

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After applying a new driver to a NIC, the server reboots and fails to restart. Which of the following
is the BEST way to resolve the problem?
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A. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver.

B. Boot the server, press F8 and access last known good configuration.
C. Restore the server using last backup tape.
D. Boot the server with ASR option.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA?
A. New Technology File Systems (NTFS)

B. Digitally signed device drivers
C. Virtual machine components

D. Multiple RAID configurations
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 125
An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape. The
administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes.
Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO).
A. Enable compression on the LTO2 drive

B. Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive
C. Reduce the amount of data on the backup
D. Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes
E. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next
Answer: A,C
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QUESTION NO: 126
Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity?
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A. Inadequate RAM
B. Slow processor
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C. PCI bus
D. Excessive network traffic
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 127
A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not
have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully. Which of the following is
the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully?
A. Install a second UPS.

B. Increase the size of the swapfile.
C. Increase the size of the pagefile.
D. Install an extended battery pack into the UPS
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 128
Fibre channel requires which of the following elements?
A. FC Initiator
B. Multi-Mode fibre
C. Physical Adapter
D. Fibre Target Management Agent
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 129
Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed
every three months?
A. Replace the rubber mats in the server room

om
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B. Clean the servers to limit dust buildup
C. Wash the outside of the servers
D. Replace the server fans
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 130

Ce
Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10?
A. Poor performance
B. No fault tolerance
C. Not supported by many RAID controllers
D. Higher cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 131
Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off?
A. Plug and Play

B. Warm site
C. Hot plug
D. Hot site
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 132
Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO).
A. A device transfers data directly to the memory.

B. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor.
C. A device connects to another device without involving the processor.
D. A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory.
E. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor
Answer: A,C
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QUESTION NO: 133
Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the
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OS crashes?
A. VPN
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B. KVM over IP
C. Telnet
D. Remote Desktop
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 134
A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. Which of the following components
should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network?
A. Increase the amount of RAM

B. Use a lower voltage power supply
C. Add a hardware firewall
D. Install redundant NICs
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a
server?
A. Defrag
B. IPCONFIG /release
C. Firmware update
D. Baseline
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 136
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A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company
policy. Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB. Currently, the
server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive. Which of the following should the server
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administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job?
A. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application.

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B. Reduce the amount of data to be backed up.

C. Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive.
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D. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 137
Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays, and daily backups are done the rest of the
week. Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only
requires two backup sets to recover the system?
A. Incremental and snapshot

B. Full and differential
C. Full and incremental
D. Differential and incremental
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 138
Which of the following is a public IP address?
A. 172.31.254.40
B. 10.100.11.1
C. 192.168.100.1
D. 172.15.16.76
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 139
A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired. Which of the
following should be considered FIRST?
A. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive

B. Data security policies and procedures om
C. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive
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D. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 140

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Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0?

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A. Striping with parity

B. Striping with mirroring
C. Mirroring
D. Striping
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 141
A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been. The system
administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the
previously taken baseline. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use
of system resources. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem?
A. Add additional RAM to the user PC

B. Troubleshoot the user PC
C. Add additional RAM to the server
D. Add additional hard drive space to the server
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 142
A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time. Which of the
following describes this capability of the processor?
A. Dual processing
B. Multi-processing
C. Multi-tasking
D. Multi-threading
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 143
An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server. When the server is running
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POST the controller does not appear as present. Which of the following could be the reason for
this?
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A. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date.

B. The server does not have the correct drivers.
C. The server hard drives have not begun to spin.
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D. The server has too little memory installed.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 144
A system administrator needs to maintain 1.2TB of storage for a database server. There are six
250GB drives available in the server for storage space. Which of the following RAID configurations
would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors?
A. RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs

B. RAID 5 across all 6 drives
C. RAID 10 across all 6 drives
D. RAID 0 across all 6 drives

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly?
A. RAID implementation
B. Disk-to-disk replication
C. Server-to-server clustering
D. Hot site replication
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
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Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only
determining factor?
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A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
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D. RAID 10
Answer: D
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Ce
QUESTION NO: 147
At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL?
A. Prior to purchasing hardware

B. Before installation
C. When installing drivers
D. After installation
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 148
Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open
files?

A. Differential backup
B. Snapshot
C. VSS
D. Incremental backup
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 149
Which of the following defines memory interleaving?
A. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache
B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank
C. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor
D. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 150

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A. Mirroring with striping

B. Mirroring with fault tolerance
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C. Striping
D. Striping with distributed parity
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 151
An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. A backup site must
be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable. To reduce costs, this backup
site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. It must contain equipment
and the ability to restore data from the data center. Which of the following site types should be
considered to meet these requirements?
A. Hot site
B. Warm site
C. Cold site
D. Active failover site

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 152
Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data
and stores data on separate servers?
A. Full
B. Disk imaging
C. Incremental
D. Tape backup
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 153
om
Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector?
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A. SATA-2
B. SAT A
C. ATA-2
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D. SCSI
Answer: C
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Ce
QUESTION NO: 154
According to best practices, which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a
newly installed Windows Server OS?
A. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration.

B. Disable the Guest account.
C. Apportion additional storage.
D. Apply all relevant updates and patches.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 155
A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time. Which of the
following should the technician do FIRST?

A. Monitor processor performance logs
B. Constantly check the task manager
C. Use performance server logs
D. Establish a baseline for the server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 156
Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors?
A. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel.

B. Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment.
C. Remove the floppy drives from the system.
D. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling.
Answer: D
om
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QUESTION NO: 157
In a workgroup, all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT
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A. activate the scopes.

B. authorize the server.
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C. configure the scopes.

D. install DHCP service.
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 158
Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors
within System Properties in a Windows Server?
A. RISC
B. Multicore
C. Symmetric multi-processing
D. Hyper-V
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 159
A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. The server currently has
a single 3.0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket. The only processor that is
available from a manufacturer is a 3.0GHz 2Mb cache model. Which of the following is the BEST
reason why this upgrade will not work?
A. The socket size does not match

B. The cache is from a different manufacturer
C. The processors do not match
D. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 160
om
A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory, the administrator verifies permissions are set for
the directory. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the
user on the IT directory?
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A. Set folder permissions to 760.
B. Set folder permissions to 770.
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C. Set folder permissions to modify

D. Set folder permissions to full control
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 161
A server is having problems booting into the operating system. Which of the following can provide
important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause?
A. System logs
B. Firmware updates
C. POST messages
D. Application logs
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 162

An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server, but has not determined the
cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. Which of the following should the
administrator do prior to escalating the issue?
A. Gather information from users.

B. Reboot the server.
C. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system.
D. Perform a root cause analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 163
In order to provide the lowest access latency, the optimal place for the system swap file is on
A. an external USB 1.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache.

B. the fastest storage device available in the system.
C. a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache.
D. the operating system partition.
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 164

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Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine?
A. Hypervisor
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B. Guest OS
C. Virtual Center
D. Host OS
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 165
Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically?
A. Run the disable command.

B. Disable the device using Device Manager.
C. Review manufacturer manual.
D. Reboot the server, logon in Safe Mode, uninstall the driver.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 166
Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds?
A. To eliminate excessive alerts

B. To increase the number of threads
C. To monitor use of VPN traffic
D. To allow more email to come through
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 167
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Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds?
A. Ultra2 SCSI
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B. SAT A
C. Ultra320 SCSI
D. SAS
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 168

Ce
Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC
addresses?
A. DHCP
B. ARP
C. DNS
D. RARP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 169
Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites. An administrator wants to test
that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address. Which of the following tools would allow the
administrator to test name resolution?

A. net view
B. ipconfig
C. dig
D. ifconfig
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 170
Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP
server?
A. Second Modem
B. Second CPU
C. Second HBA
D. Second PBX card
Answer: D om
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QUESTION NO: 171
ille
An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server. Which of the following is the
BEST solution to accomplish this?
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A. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit.

B. Install a PBX card.
C. Install a second NIC card.
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D. Install a fail-over cable.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 172
A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS:
A. is attached to a local disk controller.

B. does support multipath I/O.
C. never uses an IP address for network connectivity
D. always uses an IP address to access data.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 173
A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they
have grown. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC
system?
A. Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables

B. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks
C. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours
D. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 174
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Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP
on the server?
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A. Configure netsh settings in case of backup
B. Restart the server
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C. Notify users
D. Uninstall TCP/IP
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Answer: D
Ce
QUESTION NO: 175
A data center has had a power outage. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST
once the power is restored?
A. Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance.
B. Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation.
C. Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first.
D. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 176

Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all
necessary data in the LEAST amount of time?
A. Daily
B. Incremental
C. Normal
D. Differential
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 177
Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email?
A. A
B. MX
C. PTR
D. AAAA om
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 178
Click on the Exhibit button. Which of the following connectors is image D?

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A. 80 Pin SCSI Connector

B. 68 Pin SCSI Connector, High Density
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C. 50 Pin SCSI Connector, High Density

D. 50 Pin SCSI Connector, Low Density
QUESTION NO: 179
An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. After replacing the network card some
users can access the server but others cannot. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the
administrator should check?
A. Default gateway
B. The ports on the switch
C. Port security on the server's switch port
D. Ethernet cable

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 180
A Windows file server has run out of space. In the interim the administrator is moving several
archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server
file shares. After the move, a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the
items that have been moved. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue?
A. The temporary server was formatted as NTFS.

B. The manager is a power user on the temporary server.
C. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32.
D. The manager is an administrator on the temporary server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 181

om
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A mail server keeps shutting down. The administrator gets an error message over temperature
error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST?
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A. Power supply fan

B. CPU fan
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C. Heat sink
D. Case fan
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 182
An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing. The administrator reviews the
server and the print service is started. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. The drivers for the printers are failing.

B. The spool folder is full.
C. The spool folder is not on the C drive.
D. A network printer was disconnected.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 183
A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server
running Windows Server 2003. The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB. The
administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. This file needs
to be saved on the server. Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this?
A. Convert the filesystem to EXT3.

B. Convert the filesystem to VMFS.
C. Convert the filesystem to NTFS.
D. Convert the filesystem to FAT32
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 184
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A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of
the following purposes?
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A. UID switch
B. Power switch
C. Cooling fan switch
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D. Chassis intrusion switch
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 185

Ce
Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous
full backup?
A. Snapshot
B. Incremental
C. Copy
D. Differential
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 186
For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP, the DHCP server must have
configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO).

A. Gateway address
B. SNA server
C. Mail server
D. Web server
E. Subnet mask
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 187
Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor
details on page counts?
A. WMI
B. DHCP
C. SNMP
D. MIB
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses?

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A. DNS
B. WINS
C. FTP
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D. DHCP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 189
Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a
service on a company server?
A. Implement ACLs.
B. Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access.
C. Implement anti-spam software on the server.
D. Implement anti-virus software on the server.

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 190
A server is configured with two network cards. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at
the same time without assigning more than one IP address, which of the following load balancing
techniques should be used?
A. Clustering
B. NIC teaming
C. OSPF
D. VLAN tagging
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 191

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Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance
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for memory?
A. RAID
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B. Registered memory
C. ECC
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D. Memory pairing
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 192
An application server is running slowly. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected
that the disk queue length is high. Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation?
A. Add more disk drives.

B. Increase the amount of virtual memory.
C. Add a faster processor.
D. Add more memory to stop paging to disk.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 193

Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive?
A. RAID array management

B. CHKDSK
C. Monitoring agents
D. Partitioning management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 194
Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data?
A. System image
B. Incremental backup
C. System state restore
D. Differential backup
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 195

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Two file servers have run out of local disk space. The internal drives are at capacity and the
company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. Which of the following is the MOST
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cost effective solution to add storage to both servers?
A. Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage.
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B. Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution.
C. Attach a USB drive to one of the servers.
D. Add a NAS to the environment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 196
An administrator will replace five current servers. Which of the following is the MOST important to
review before installing new servers?
A. Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load

B. Verify if server consumes 220V
C. Verify CPU load

D. Verify if server consumes 110V
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 197
Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is
WORM media?
A. CD-RW
B. CD-R
C. DVD-RW
D. Flash
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 198 om

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Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic
eavesdropping?
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A. Fiber optic
B. Fast Ethernet
C. Coaxial
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D. Thicknet
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 199
Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and
subsequently fixed?
A. RAID
B. ECC
C. CAS
D. SDRAM
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 200
Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to
connect to a SAN via a fiber channel?
A. SATA
B. iSCSI
C. SCSI
D. HBA
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 201
Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial
institution?
A. Local laws and regulations

B. Escalation procedure regulations
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C. Manufacturer's regulations
D. Server OEM regulations
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 202
An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving
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an error. Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error?
A. XD
B. NX
C. VT
D. Hyperthreading
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 203
Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance?
A. Four drives with RAID 0

B. Four drives with RAID 3

C. Four drives with RAID 5
D. Four drives with RAID 10
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 204
A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday
through Saturday. How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure
occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 205
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized
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environment?
A. Multiple types of network cards were used.

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B. The environment is outside of the DMZ.

C. Hardware used is not on the HCL.
D. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives.
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 206
Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments?
A. Disk
B. Tape
C. Optical
D. Flash
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 207
An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server
boots into Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The system needs to boot to Windows first, prior to booting into Linux.
B. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support.
C. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS.
D. The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 208
A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The backup scheme in place was full
backups every Sunday, incremental backups on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and differential
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backups on Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday. To fully restore the server, which of the following is
the LEAST amount of backup sets required?
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A. One
B. Two
C. Three
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D. Four
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 209

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Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication?
A. Low communication latency

B. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded
C. Improper termination
D. Too many SCSI devices on one system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 210
An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server. A performance critical
application will use this storage space for a database. The database will be replicated between
multiple servers. Cost and performance are the most important considerations. Which of the

following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array?
A. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives

B. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives
C. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives
D. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 211
Users are having trouble printing in terminal services. The administrator finds that whenever a
certain user prints the print spooler crashes. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The user is using a PostScript driver.

B. The printer is not on the HCL.
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C. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print.
D. The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server.
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 212
Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline?
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A. System Resource Monitor

B. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
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C. Replication Monitor
D. Performance Monitor
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 213
An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on
a default Windows installation. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to:
A. remote users.
B. account operators.
C. server operators.
D. backup operators

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 214
An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators
when hardware and applications are having issues. All devices are configured with SNMP, but the
administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. Which of the following settings would BEST
provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO).
A. Setting up a custom community name

B. Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161
C. Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161
D. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices
E. Installing new MIBs
Answer: D,E
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QUESTION NO: 215
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Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN
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connectivity?
A. HBA
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B. PBX
C. VoIP
D. NIC
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 216
Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new
server?
A. Humidity monitors, Biometrics, and fire suppression

B. Cooling, rack space, and power requirements
C. Service level agreements, uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment, and CCTV
D. Biometrics, fire suppression, and power requirements
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 217
While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. While powering on the
server, a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST. Which of the following could
be done to prevent this problem?
A. Use ESD equipment.

B. Verify correct voltages are being supplied.
C. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues.
D. Install compatible PCI cards
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 218
An administrator installs a driver, reboots the DC, and logs in to configure the NIC. Once the
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administrator opens the NIC properties, the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into
Windows. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do?
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A. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration.
B. Reseat the NIC.
C. Boot into Safe Mode.
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D. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 219

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When configuring a DHCP server, which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP
users? (Select THREE)
A. Database server
B. NTP server
C. DHCP server
D. SQLServer
E. DNS server
F. Domain name
Answer: C,E,F
QUESTION NO: 220

Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation?
A. Emergency exits
B. The test plan
C. Payroll
D. All IT contact numbers
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 221
An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. After troubleshooting
the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again.
Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take?
A. Implement preventative measures.

B. Close the issue.
C. Document the outcome. om
D. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 222

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When adding another server to an existing rack mount system, which of the following should the
administrator consider FIRST?
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A. Load on UPS
B. Rack temperature
C. Room temperature
D. Ease of access
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 223
A. Fault tolerance and failure recovery

B. Fault tolerance and zero configuration
C. Zero configuration and high performance

D. High performance and fault tolerance
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 224
Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6?
A. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.

B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.
C. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5.
D. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 225

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An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory. When the administrator
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restarts the server after the upgrade, it times out. Which of the following could be the cause of the
problem? (Select TWO).
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A. Processor failure
B. Third party memory
C. Disk drive failure
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D. ESD during the upgrade

E. Backplane failure
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Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 226
Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment?
A. Higher administrative complexity

B. Increased level of security
C. More effective usage of computing resources
D. Improved performance for users
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 227
Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN?
A. Higher data integrity

B. Lower cost of implementation
C. Higher redundancy
D. Increased performance
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 228
Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server?
A. Determine backups available, restore backups, and verify data.

B. Restore applications, restore data, and verify data.
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C. Restore OS, restore system applications, and restore data.
D. Contact end users of outage, restore backup data, and verify data.
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 229

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A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the
room and is causing power load problems. Additional power is available, but not using the central
UPS. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an
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upgrade of the central UPS can occur?
A. Continue plugging into the central UPS, but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems.
B. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS.
C. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS.
D. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher
than stated
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 230
There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power
supply (UPS) software. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error.
This server has two processors, 16GB of memory, and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives. Which of the

following is the MOST likely cause?
A. A failed RAID controller

B. Two failed processors
C. Two failed sticks of memory
D. Two failed drives
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 231
When implementing a solution to a problem, which of the following is the BEST course of action to
take?
A. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional.

B. Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware
and move onto software
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C. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function.
D. Implement one change at a time, reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem.
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 232

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Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance?
A. RAID 1
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B. SAS
C. SAT A
D. JBOD
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 233
Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating
environment?
A. Temperature
B. Lighting
C. Structural columns

D. Elevation
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 234
The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server. The
administrator notices that the file pagefile.sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space. Which of the
following would BEST resolve this problem?
A. Move the page file to a free drive.

B. Delete the file.
C. Add more memory.
D. Remove the page file from system properties
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 235

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Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO)
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A. Remote desktop software

B. Dedicated management card
C. Telnet session
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D. IP KVM
E. VPN
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 236
A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Database
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 237
Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN
tunnel?
A. AES
B. TKIP
C. 802.1q
D. ISAKMP
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 238
Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation
records? (Select TWO)
A. Antivirus software version

B. Battery replacement date
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C. Wire shelving diagram
D. IP address for network printer
E. Shutdown delay timing
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Answer: B,E
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QUESTION NO: 239

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Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the
array?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 240
An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC. During the Windows
boot up process the DC bluescreens. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode.
B. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration.
C. Reboot the server again.
D. Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 241
All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT
A. number of users.
B. number of files.
C. memory usage.
D. average disk I/O.
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 242
Which of the following information would be on a system classification list?

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A. Disk drive size

B. IP address
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C. Acceptable outage time

D. Operating system version
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 243
Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server?
A. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change.

B. The change should be approved by management.
C. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected.
D. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 244
An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS
and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed; however, the server only
shows 1GB of memory during POST. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory.

B. The system memory has different manufacture dates.
C. Two of the memory sticks are defective.
D. The server is using memory interleaving
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 245
In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI, a user encrypts several documents on a
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shared file server. That user account is then accidentally deleted. Which of the following must be
configured in order to decrypt those files?
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A. Key recovery administrator
B. Key recovery agent
C. Trusted root certificate store
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D. Root certificate store
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 246

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Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor?
A. PCI
B. Frontside bus
C. Backside bus
D. System I/O bus
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 247
Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list?
A. Verifying the OS manufacturers

B. Locating a hosting facility
C. Consulting with the system manufacturers
D. Interviewing system owners
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 248
Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly?
A. U-size templates
B. Phase changers
C. Baffles
D. Molex connectors
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 249

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Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an
iSCSI connection?
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A. JBOD
B. DAS
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C. NAS
D. SAN
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 250
Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors?
A. RAID
B. Registered memory
C. SDRAM
D. ECC
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 251
A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily, and needs to be
stored for 20 years. Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the
server data?
A. Tape
B. SAN
C. Flash
D. Optical
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 252
Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive?
A. Firmware update
B. Remote management card
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C. Diagnostic LEDs
D. Multimeter
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 253
A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array. The server OS crashed and
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the server will not boot. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline.
Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem?
A. Memory
B. SCSI backplane
C. SCSI drives
D. Motherboard
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 254
When disposing of computer equipment, which of the following can present an environmental
hazard?

A. Bezel
B. SATA cable
C. Cat5 cable
D. CRT monitor
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 255
An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server. The administrator needs to install a
patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. Which of the following is the BEST way
to restart the servers?
A. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time.
B. DC server first, then the Exchange server second.
C. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter.
D. Exchange server first, then the DC server second.
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 256
A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. Immediately after the update,
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the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application. Which of the
following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted.
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B. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files.
C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly.
D. The update has quarantined files that are false positives.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 257
Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array?
A. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive

B. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive
C. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive
D. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 258
Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified?
(Select TWO)
A. Flash
B. DLT4 tapes
C. CD-R
D. SDLT tapes
E. WORM
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 259

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An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID
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array. When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive, there are no
drives listed. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do?
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A. Restart the installation via WDS.

B. Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly.
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C. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers.

D. Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 260
Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware?
A. Online troubleshooting tools

B. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. Vendor website
D. Support forums
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 261

Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1?
A. Higher capacity
B. Higher performance
C. Fault tolerance
D. Multiple failure fault tolerance
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 262
A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive. The cables are
connected, the drive has power, and the drive shows up in Device Manager; however, the My
Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS.
Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive?
A. Reformat the NTFS partition.

B. Recreate the partition that was deleted.
C. Rewrite the MBR.
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D. Run a check disk on the drive
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 263
Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software?

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A. Network share
B. PXE
C. USB
D. Optical media
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 264
A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures. Which
of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO).
A. Break mirror array

B. Replace cache battery

C. Replace hot standby
D. Restore from back up
E. Replace defective hard drives
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 265
Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a
Windows set-up?
A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 266
Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network?
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A. Server-to-server replication
B. Server clustering
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C. Hot site
D. Disk-to-disk replication
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 267
Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy?
A. Local laws and industry regulations

B. Company policies and guidelines
C. Project guidelines given by stakeholders
D. Mail server and backup capacity
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 268
Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE)
A. Better server hardware leverage

B. Increased application security
C. Smaller backup window needed
D. Lower power consumption
E. Smaller datacenter footprint
F. Little to no maintenance needed
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 269
An administrator needs to update the anti-virus, security patches, BIOS, and the web server
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software on a production system. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this?
A. Update anti-virus, security patches, BIOS software, and then the web software.
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B. Update the web software, security patches, anti-virus, and then the BIOS.
C. Update security patches, BIOS, web software, and then the anti-virus.
D. The order does not matter, only one change at a time should be done.
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 270

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Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel
SAN connectivity?
A. HBA
B. USB
C. UAC
D. NIC
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 271
Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple
processors?

A. Symmetric multi-processing
B. Multicore
C. 64-bit processing
D. Hyper-V
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 272
A. Mirroring
B. Striping
C. Striping with parity
D. Striping with mirroring
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 273
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server?
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A. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation.

B. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation.
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C. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation.

D. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation.
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 274
Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant?
A. Hot site
B. Active/passive clustering at the same site
C. Disk-to-disk replication in the same server
D. Warm site
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 275
Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second
device on an IDE cable?
A. ID0
B. ID2
C. Cable select
D. Master
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 276
A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC; however, the
SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic. The size of
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the presented drive is 700GB. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
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A. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose
power.
B. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk.
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C. The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network.
D. The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 277
Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO)
A. Mantraps
B. Fingerprint scanners
C. CCTV systems
D. Retina scanner
E. Proxy card readers
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 278

A new server was installed. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can
successfully access the server. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access
the server, but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet. Which of the following is
the reason that these clients are unable to access the server?
A. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses.

B. Incorrect default gateway on the server.
C. DNS entries were not created.
D. WINS server is not responding
QUESTION NO: 279
Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Also known as external cache, it is included in every CPU.
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B. Also known as internal cache, it is included in every CPU.
C. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM.
D. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching.
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Answer: B,C
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Explanation:
The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. All the commands for the CPU go
through the cache. It stores a backlog of the commands so that, if a wait state is encountered, the
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CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. It improves computer
performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. The Level 1 cache
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is also known as internal cache. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a
microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. This slows down computer operations. When a
computer runs without encountering a wait state, it runs faster. This is known as a zero wait state
operation. Answer option A is incorrect. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the
motherboard, outside the CPU. It is also known as external cache. Answer option D is incorrect.
Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips, known as SRAM, for caching.
QUESTION NO: 280
Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document?
A. Date of server purchase

B. Server response time
C. Disk performance statistics

D. Network bandwidth
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk
performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers
and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when
they add the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's
performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is
operating properly. Answer options A and D are incorrect. The dates of server purchase and
server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline.
QUESTION NO: 281
Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from
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being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Putting a lock on the server room's door

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B. Using a phrase for the server password
C. Using personal information in the server room password
D. Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder
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Answer: C,D
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Explanation:
The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being
compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal
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information in the server room password. The personal information, such as phone number and
date of birth, can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. Answer options B and A are incorrect.
Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good
practices for keeping your server secure.
QUESTION NO: 282
When you start your computer, Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad
sectors. What will be your first step in resolving this issue?
A. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive.

B. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option.
C. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt.
D. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue.
With Thorough option, SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. It also checks the physical
integrity of the disk surface. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector, it tries to fix the sector.
Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG, a Windows-based utility, is used to reorganize files on a
disk to optimize disk performance. Answer options C is incorrect. The FORMAT command is used
to format disks. It will not help in resolving the issue. Answer option D is incorrect. The data cable
is used to transfer data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors
[Q103956]"
QUESTION NO: 283
Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers?
A. NNTP
B. SMTP
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C. IMAP
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D. SNMP
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. Simple
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Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. E-
mailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. SMTP works on the application
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layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission
Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for
SMTP, port number 25. However, e- mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail
servers. Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of
the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track
of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option A is incorrect.
NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol
used to post, distribute, and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP
clients on the Internet. Answer option C is incorrect. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access
Protocol. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server.
Through this protocol, a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for
downloading an e-mail from the shared server. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete
an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol
that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 284
What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup?
A. Daily backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Sequential backup
D. Full backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion
or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup
utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and
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takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup
provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup.
It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore
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data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The
differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full
backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.
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Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 12 - Backup"

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QUESTION NO: 285

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Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire?
A. DIN
B. RS-232
C. IEEE 1394
D. IEEE 1284
Answer: C
Explanation:
IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of
devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage
devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Answer option A is
incorrect. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. Answer
option B is incorrect. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports, also
known as COM ports, serial ports, or RS- 232 ports, and is used to connect RS-232 compatible
serial devices, such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect.
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable
used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. Typically, bi-directional cables have the number
1284 printed on them.
QUESTION NO: 286
Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus?
A. This type of virus hides system files.

B. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives.
C. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection.
D. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. This virus is
very complicated and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file in the disk, it loads virus
into the RAM. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating
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system. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code, this changes
the signature of the virus. Therefore, polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature
based antivirus. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Security Threats"
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QUESTION NO: 287
Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer
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represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. SCSI cable
B. 10Base2 cable
C. Parallel cable
D. Serial cable
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following
cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable,
also known as Thinnet Coax. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters
. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector
(BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. What is a parallel data cable? A
standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time.
Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin, so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector.
The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. The
parallel channel is fast, reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices
to a computer. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics
connector on the other end. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI cable is used to connect mass
storage devices to a computer. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the
second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)
interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk
drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access
shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
QUESTION NO: 288
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. During the boot process, a server
displays a POST error. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem?
B. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor. om

A. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code.
C. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code.
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D. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
In order to identify the problem, Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error
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code. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. The manufacturer
of the server provides the server documentation. Answer option C is incorrect. The system log of
the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The system log is
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used to store events logged by the operating system components. For example, events such as
driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. Answer option A is incorrect. The
security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The
system log is used to store security-related events. Answer option B is incorrect. The helpdesk of
the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error.
QUESTION NO: 289
Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology?
A. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system.

B. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically.
C. It allows to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device, without powering off the
system.

D. It allows to store more than one file using the same name.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The hot swap technology is used to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device,
without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. Using this technology, a
device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains
in operation. The replacement can be due to a device failure, or for storage devices, etc. The hot
swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives. This technology is also available for
Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID).
QUESTION NO: 290
What will be the maximum SCSI bus length, if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra
SCSI interface?
A. 3 meters
B. 1.5 meters
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C. 12 meters
D. 6 meters
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface, the
maximum SCSI bus length will be 1.5 meters . Answer option A is incorrect. If you connect up to
three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface, the maximum SCSI bus length
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will be 3 meters . Answer options D and C are incorrect. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support
these bus lengths. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most
popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is
faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM
drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives
simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
QUESTION NO: 291
Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of
useful life"?
A. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25
percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.

B. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50
C. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10
D. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80
Answer: D
Explanation:
A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into
electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. The IEEE defines "end of
useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its
rated capacity in ampere-hours. For example, A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20
minutes when new, will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its
defined "end of useful life". What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware
and software.
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QUESTION NO: 292
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Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
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A. % Network utilization
B. Pages/sec
C. Total frames received/second
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D. Broadcast frames received/second
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network
utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. The threshold of the
network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. A value of higher than 40
percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic. Total frames received/second: This
counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded. Broadcast frames received/second:
This counter is used to create a baseline. Since each computer processes every broadcast, high
broadcast levels mean lower network performance. Answer option B is incorrect. The Pages/sec is
the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard
disk. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Monitoring Performance"

QUESTION NO: 293
Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true?
A. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB.
B. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM.
C. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without
waiting for memory to be cached.
D. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from
memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU).
Answer: C
Explanation:
Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM. The CPU
can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached.
Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. It is helpful on high-end systems, especially
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servers, that have to process a great deal of information quickly. The Intel Orion chipset is one that
does support memory interleaving. Answer option D is incorrect. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is
a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory
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without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Using DMA, the computer can move
data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU
intervention. The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that
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the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory. Answer option B is
incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the
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RAM. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted, operating systems (such as Windows
95/98, NT, and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual
memory area on the hard disk. Hence, space is created in the RAM for the newer processes.
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Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file.
Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not
sufficient, it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need
to read and write to the hard disk.
QUESTION NO: 294
Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. He wants that whenever he boots his
computer, the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then
switch to IDE master hard disk drive. How will he accomplish this?
A. Disable the hard disk drive.

B. Remove the boot files from C: drive.
C. Change the boot sequence to C:, A:.

D. Change the boot sequence to A:, C:.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To accomplish the task, Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:, C: in the BIOS.
What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and
enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The
BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
(CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.
QUESTION NO: 295
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You are installing Windows 2000 Server
on a new computer. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct
A. RAID-5
B. Dynamic
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C. Spanned
D. Basic
E. Mirrored F. Parity
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Answer: A,C,E
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Explanation:
Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5, spanned, and mirrored volumes. What is RAID-5 volume?
A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three
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or more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk
drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created
from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one
additional disk for the volume, while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as
that of the original data. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes.
What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical
disk. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order
to create a large logical volume. It can be created on dynamic disks only. It supports two to thirty-
two disk drives. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. In
Windows 2000/2003, users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned
volume. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same
data on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. In
case of failure of one disk, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. You can
create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Basic and
dynamic are disk types and not volume types. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Configuring

Dynamic Volumes"
QUESTION NO: 296
Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest?
A. High humidity
B. Low humidity
C. High temperature
D. Low temperature
Answer: B
Explanation:
Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). Dry air is a poor conductor of
electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water
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molecules carry static electric charge away. Clothing, footwear, and flooring material are important
considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD, you should take the
following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting.
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Remove your shoes, if possible, and roll up your shirt's sleeves. If you set the component down,
do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table. What is ESD? ESD
stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If
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you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic
discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another
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entity sensitive to that charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider
wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with
a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip
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is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on.
QUESTION NO: 297
Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. DDR DIMM
B. SIMM
C. SO-DIMM
D. RIMM
Answer: A,D
Explanation:

Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. It was developed by Rambus, Intel, and
Kingston . This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot. Double Data Rate
Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and
184 pins. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR
SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon systems. 184-pin DIMMs
are available in PC2100, PC2700, PC3200, PC3500 and faster. The number of chips on a 184-
pin DIMM may vary, but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. 184-pin
DIMMs are 5.375" long and 1.375" high, and the heights may vary. DIMMs have a small notch on
the bottom of the module. Answer option C is incorrect. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module
(SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SO-DIMM
supports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. It was introduced
for laptops. SO- DIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, but are more
expensive than DIMMs. Answer option B is incorrect. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a
type of memory module that comes in two types, 30-pin and 72-pin. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily
identified by a single notch on its base. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base.
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QUESTION NO: 298
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a Windows NT 4.0
TCP/IP-based network. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. Which of
the following utilities will you use?
A. NBTSTAT
B. NETSTAT
C. TRACERT
D. TELNET

Answer: A
Explanation:
NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. NBTSTAT
is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update
the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs. NBTSTAT helps
you view, remove, and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache. Answer
option B is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of
current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a
computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the
computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the
kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line
connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service.
TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs
remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for
connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP
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port 23 by default. Answer option C is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that
displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain
Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Reference:
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TechNet, Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies"
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QUESTION NO: 299
In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a
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complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VESA
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B. EISA
C. PCI
D. ISA
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard
Architecture (EISA) bus slots. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit
expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's
internal bus. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. What is an EISA bus?
Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a
superset of a 16- bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the
data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. This is accomplished
by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot.
The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device. Therefore, both ISA
and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. Answer options C and A are incorrect. You cannot
insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component
Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance, 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices
that have high bandwidth requirements, such as the display subsystem. What is a VESA bus?
VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to
provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities.
QUESTION NO: 300
Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage. Which of the
following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt?
A. DOWN -f
B. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
C. Shutdown -rst
D. fdisk
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Answer option A is correct. In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt,
you will have to run the DOWN -f command. Answer option B is incorrect. The Group Policy
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Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003. It
provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related
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tasks. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator
to manage group policy settings across multiple sites, domains, or even forests. GPMC is used to
back up, restore, import, and copy group policy objects. It also provides a reporting interface on
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how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no
such command as shutdown -rst. Answer option D is incorrect. The fdisk command is a menu-
based command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. This command can perform the
following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk. Create a partition on a hard disk. Change the
partition type. Display the partition table. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to
the fdisk command. Reference:
"http://www.novell.com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h
enuk mm4.html"
QUESTION NO: 301
Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your
Windows NT computer?

A. IPCONFIG.EXE
B. NETSTAT.EXE
C. Performance Monitor
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic. Because of the nature of the data, it is often useful to
have some of the frames for review. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections, but not data
information. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information, however, it will not
show the contents of any data. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information, but
again, will not show the contents of any data.
QUESTION NO: 302
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Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer
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A. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives.
B. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives.
C. It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes.
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D. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes.
Answer: B,C
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Explanation:
A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three
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or more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk
Answer option A is incorrect. Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. A mirrored volume
(RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses
two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions
must be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and
boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped
volume (RAID-0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5).
QUESTION NO: 303

You work as a Network Administrator. One morning, users complain that they are unable to
connect to the server. You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to
connect to the rest of the workstations on the network. What is the most likely cause? Each correct
answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Users are providing incorrect passwords.

B. A faulty hub.
C. Users are providing incorrect usernames.
D. Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure. Either the network cable is not
attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub, which connects all the workstations
and the server, is faulty. If the server is not physically connected to the network, the workstations
on the network cannot access the server. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of
the problem as all users are having this problem.
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QUESTION NO: 304
You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.
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You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. Your Internet service provider (ISP)
has a UNIX-based server. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX
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server, using a text-based connection?
A. TELNET
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B. IPCONFIG
C. PING
D. TRACERT
E. FTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host
running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer,
offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET
utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server
software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer option C is incorrect. The ping
command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is
achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the
packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to

determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option E is incorrect. File
Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which is used to
transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet.
Answer option B is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP
configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It
refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS)
settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the
status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option D is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-
tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows
the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to
the remote host. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Mail Server"
QUESTION NO: 305
Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails.
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When he examines the problem, he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus. How will he
confirm this?
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A. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk.
B. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software.
C. Check the partition with the startup disk.
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D. Run MAKEDISK.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette.
Boot the computer with the diskette.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
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MAKEDISK.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. The
MAKEDISK.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus. Once the diskette is
created, boot the computer with that diskette. This will run a boot sector virus check. After
completing the check, remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server"
QUESTION NO: 306
Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.

B. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.
C. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.

D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation
regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. The disaster recovery plan
documentation should be stored offsite only. A disaster recovery documentation for a small
organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location,
containing the names, addresses, and phone numbers for crisis management staff, general staff
members, clients, and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media,
copies of insurance contracts, and other critical material necessary for organizational survival.
Answer option C is incorrect. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP)
documents in floppy disks, as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media.
Answer option D is incorrect. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite
only. If the documents are stored on an offsite location, it will be safe in case of any disaster.
QUESTION NO: 307

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Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
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A. Pentium II
B. Pentium III
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C. Pentium pro
D. AMD K6
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Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1, instead of a socket. Slot 1 type CPU connector,
also known as single edge connector (SEC), is similar to an expansion card. Answer option D is
incorrect. AMD K6 processors use Socket 7. Answer option C is incorrect. Pentium Pro processors
use Socket 8.
QUESTION NO: 308
Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller?
A. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache.

B. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings.
C. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller.

D. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. When power to
the disk array is discontinued, the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk
are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID
controller. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in
the cache. Answer option C is incorrect. The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power
backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller. Answer option D is incorrect. The
CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. What is a CMOS battery? A
Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It
provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when
a computer's main power is off. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of
the CMOS battery. Answer option B is incorrect. The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent
loss of the drive array configuration settings.
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QUESTION NO: 309
Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each
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correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Write Copies/sec
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B. Segments Received/sec
C. Segments Retransmitted/sec
D. Segments Sent/sec
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Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments
Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec
counter shows the rate, in incidents per second, at which segments were received, including those
received in error. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent.
Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows
the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were
retransmitted. Answer option A is incorrect. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which
page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from
elsewhere in physical memory. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/es-
es/library/cc778758(WS.10).aspx"

QUESTION NO: 310
Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have
been modified since the most recent backup was performed?
A. Differential backup
B. Daily backup
C. Full backup
D. Incremental backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed.
Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental
backup. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup
methods. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all
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subsequent incremental backups. Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as
they were created. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or
becomes corrupt, the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. Answer option C is
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incorrect. Full backup, also known as normal backup, involves backing up the entire hard disks
and files of a machine. When the full backup type is set up, a user should choose which files,
folders, and hard disks are to be backed up. After a full backup is performed, all archive bits are
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reset to 0. Answer option A is incorrect. Differential backup backs up files that are created or
changed since the last full backup. It requires minimum space to backup data. Differential backup
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requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. It is
faster as compared to full backup. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of backup
as daily backup. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incremental_backup"
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QUESTION NO: 311
Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller?
A. 278-27F
B. 3F0-3F7
C. 1F0-1F8
D. 3F8-3FF
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. The CPU sends instructions to the
hard disk controller on this I/O address. Answer option D is incorrect. COM1 serial port uses the
I/O address range 3F8-3FF. Answer option B is incorrect. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O
address range 3F0-3F7. Answer option A is incorrect. LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 278-
27F . What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.
The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with
any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a
device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a
computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of
communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or
internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly
configured.
QUESTION NO: 312
What is the height of the 8U server rack?
A. 21 inches
B. 31.5 inches
C. 14 inches
D. 26.25 inches
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . Answer option A is incorrect. The 12U server rack
has a height of 21 inches . Answer option D is incorrect. The 15U server rack has a height of
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26.25 inches . Answer option B is incorrect. The 18U server rack has a height of 31.5 inches .
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QUESTION NO: 313
Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS?
A. Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory.
B. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup.
C. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory.
D. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. When you
configure shadow RAM, a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-
only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Access
time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the
125-250 nanosecond range. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary
reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. But,
it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a
machine noticeably. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]"
QUESTION NO: 314
You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer. Where will you look for it?
A. In BIOS setup program

B. On the microprocessor
C. On the computer case
D. On the motherboard
Answer: A
Explanation:
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You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is
a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the
computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as
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Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.
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QUESTION NO: 315

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Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a
A. Fast-Wide SCSI
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B. Fast SCSI
C. Ultra 160 SCSI
D. Ultra 320 SCSI
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer
options A and B are incorrect. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide
SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most
popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is
faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM
drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives
simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCSI"

QUESTION NO: 316
Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm
on the network?
A. LAN Analyzer
B. Reliability Monitor
C. Time Domain Reflectometer
D. DXDIAG
Answer: A
Explanation:
LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on
the network. What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more
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network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Broadcast
storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. The faulty NIC can be
detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. Answer
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option C is incorrect. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling.
TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable.
Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and
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determines the distance of the fault. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Answer
option B is incorrect. The Reliability Monitor, a tool introduced in Windows Vista, is used to detect
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the reasons for computer failure. This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure. The
Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable
period of time. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and
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removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability
Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and
Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. Answer option D is incorrect. DirectX
Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and
fix them. The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings, provides tests for both
DirectDraw and Direct3D, and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. This tab also
displays warning messages if there are any problems.
QUESTION NO: 317
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a storage
area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. The servers on the network must
connect to the SAN. Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN?

A. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
B. Fibre Thicknet Bus
C. SCSI bus
D. Fibre Channel fabric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology. A Fibre Channel fabric
uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs. A Fibre Channel
switch intelligently manages connections between ports, routing frames dynamically. It allows
multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. A switch offers better
system throughput than a hub. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such technology as Fibre
Thicknet Bus. Answer option C is incorrect. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre
Channel technology, the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric. Answer option A is incorrect.
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server.
The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate. PSTN cannot provide
such a high speed connection.
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QUESTION NO: 318
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Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network consists of a
Windows NT 3.5 Server, working as a file server. He decides to remove the Windows NT 3.5
Server files and install Windows NT 4.0 Server. The server contains critical files. Andrew takes full
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backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive. What should be his first step before installing
Windows NT 4.0 Server?
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A. Format the system partition

B. Install the latest network operating system updates
C. Verify backed-up data
D. Recreate the partition
Answer: C
Explanation:
As a precautionary measure, Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored
before installing Windows NT 4.0 Server. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the
backed-up data gets corrupted, he will loose the files. Answer options A and D are incorrect.
Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified. You may
loose files if the backup gets corrupted. Answer option B is incorrect. Andrew cannot install
operating system updates before installing the operating system. FactWhat is full backup? Full
backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log. Taking a full backup daily is
impractical, as it is time consuming. Instead, a well-defined backup strategy should be

implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup.
QUESTION NO: 319
Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7?
A. Pentium Pro
B. Pentium II
C. 486DX
D. Pentium
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7. Answer option A is incorrect. Pentium Pro
processors use Socket 8. Answer option C is incorrect. 486DX processors use Socket 0. Answer
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option B is incorrect. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface, also
known as Slot 1, instead of sockets.
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QUESTION NO: 320
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Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer
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A. It measures the processor utilization on the computer.

B. It captures network traffic.
C. It detects viruses on the computer.
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D. It monitors hard disk utilization.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization.
Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software
components of a server. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple
computers. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers, over time. Analyze the effects of
changes made to a computer. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are
reached. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Save counter and
object settings for repeated use. Create reports for use in analyzing performance, over time. Note:
The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. The
Alert, View, and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages.
Answer options B and D are incorrect. Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and
detect viruses.
QUESTION NO: 321
You are creating a network for Net World Inc. You decide to implement a star network. After you
complete the wire connections, you want to test the wires for attenuation. Which of the following
devices will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Tone generator
B. Media tester
C. Wire crimper
D. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR)
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you will have to use a media tester. What is a media tester? A
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media tester, also called a media certifier, is an electronically programmed device that is used to
perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. It tests for shorts, open circuits, transposed wire
pairs, attenuation, and various types of crosstalk. A media tester compares the results with
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standards programmed into the unit, and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for
each test. Answer option D is incorrect. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables. Optical time
domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device, which is used to locate many
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different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. It
requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. It is an expensive device that
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costs around $30,000. Answer option A is incorrect. A tone generator is an electrical cable testing
device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit, a transposed wire pair, a short cable,
or some other problem. Answer option C is incorrect. Wire crimper is a device that is used to
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attach connectors to the cables.
QUESTION NO: 322
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The company has a Windows NT domain-
based network. You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor. Which of
the following views will you use?
A. View
B. Chart
C. Log
D. Alert
Answer: C

Explanation:
You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor.
What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the
hardware and software components of a server. Performance Monitor is used for the following:
Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers, over
time. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Launch programs and send notifications
when thresholds are reached. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications.
Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Create reports for use in analyzing
performance, over time. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events
historically for later review. The Alert, View, and Chart views are real time views that show the
current data or alert messages. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing
Internet Information Server"
QUESTION NO: 323
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Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk
drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
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A. High Performance File System (HPFS)
B. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
C. Log-structured file system (LFS)
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D. Windows NT file system (NTFS)

E. Novell Storage Services (NSS)
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Answer: B,C
Explanation:
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The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems
that cannot be used to install operating systems. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for
making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. Answer options A and D are incorrect.
The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. What
is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1.2 to allow
greater access to larger hard drives. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3.1, 3.5,
and 3.51. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions.
What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT,
Windows 2000/2003, and Windows XP operating systems. It supports file system recovery, large
storage media, long file names, and other features. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas,
distributed link tracking, compression, and mounted drives. NTFS also offers security features,
such as encryption and file and folder permissions. These features are not available on FAT
volumes. Answer option E is incorrect. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by
Novell's Netware operating system. It has recently ported to Linux.

QUESTION NO: 324
What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM?
A. Unplug other cards from the motherboard.

B. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet.
C. Wear wrist strap.
D. Switch on the computer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
As a precaution, you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while
installing a video-card. Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that
can damage electronic components, such as, chips on the motherboard or adapters. The wrist
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strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. What is ESD?
ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates
ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic
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discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another
entity sensitive to that charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider
wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with
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a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip
is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option B is
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incorrect. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the
computer parts. Answer option D is incorrect. You should never turn the power on while installing
hardware components on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. You are not required to unplug
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other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card. What is video RAM? Video RAM is
a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor
screen. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM). It works as a
buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer.
QUESTION NO: 325
What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 32
D. 8

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. Intel Pentium microprocessors
are also based on a 32-bit data bus. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus.
The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus.
QUESTION NO: 326
As a Network Administrator, you are concerned about fault tolerance. You are using a RAID5
volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. The next day, you find that one of the
drives has failed. What will you do?
A. Replace the failed drive, use Disk Management, select a new area of free space and then
regenerate the volume.
B. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume, replace the drive, and then regenerate the
stripe set.
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C. Replace the drive, recreate the RAID5 volume, and then restore data from the tape backup.
D. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup.
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Answer: A
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Explanation:
When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails, the failed disk becomes an
orphan. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. A new
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area of free space of the same size, or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume, should be
selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. The fault-tolerance driver
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reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks, and then re-creates the data of
the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. To regenerate a
RAID5 volume, the volume must be locked by the operating system. All network connections to
the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. What is the function of the Disk Management
tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. Take the
following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs >
Administrative Tools > Computer Management. In the console tree under Storage, click on Disk
Management, go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. Then create partitions and format new
disks. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks, you may have to
restart your computer. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection
QUESTION NO: 327
Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer
represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

A. Slow workstation systems
B. A down network server.
C. Faulty NIC on a networked computer.
D. Voltage fluctuation
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server, which serves network resources to the
network client computer, can cause a broadcast storm on the network. A broadcast storm is a
situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic.
In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet, you can detect the faulty NIC through the
network monitor software or by the elimination process. In case of a server that is down, another
computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent
requests, thus generating traffic on the network, which may result in a broadcast storm. Slow
workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network.
QUESTION NO: 328

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Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. An SMTP server is installed on
the internal network. Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP
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traffic is coming from?
A. Performance Monitor.
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B. Web Proxy logs.

C. Windows NT system log.
D. Network Monitor.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network, which can be analyzed to determine
the protocol, IP address, port etc. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to
the SMTP server. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses. The Web Proxy
service log contains information about client requests for HTTP, FTP or Gopher objects, whereas
SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service. The Windows NT system log contains
information about various system events, and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic. Reference:
TechNet, Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor"
QUESTION NO: 329

While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine, what will you have to
upgrade?
A. The motherboard
B. The hard disk controller
C. RAM
D. The System's BIOS
Answer: D
Explanation:
A BIOS upgrade is required, if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older
machine, which is not supported by an older BIOS. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System
(BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate
with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known
as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.
QUESTION NO: 330

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Which of the following statements is true about IRQ?
A. IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices.

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B. IRQ is an infrared communication device.

C. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU.
D. IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU.
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Answer: D
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Explanation:
IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. In
general, only one device should be assigned to each IRQ. Reference: TechNet, Contents: Chapter
1 - Administering Windows NT Systems
QUESTION NO: 331
Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem?
A. SMPS
B. UPS
C. Surge protector
D. Switch

Answer: B
Explanation:
To resolve the low voltage problem, you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a
computer. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running
for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also
provides protection against power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging
circuit is affected, while the computer gets normal power. Answer option C is incorrect. A surge
protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power
surges. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one
microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air
conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Answer option D is incorrect. A switch is a
network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. It reads the
destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the
data packet to its destination. This reduces the network traffic. Switches operate at the data-link
layer of the OSI model. Answer option A is incorrect. Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a
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device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of
electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Reference: TechNet, Contents:
"Chapter 4 - Planning a Reliable Configuration"
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QUESTION NO: 332

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Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems?
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A. A plastic CPU cover.

B. A wrist strap.
C. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab.
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D. An antiglare screen.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems, you should wear a wrist strap when you are
working on computer components. A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at
one end and a clip on the other end. The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of
equipment being worked on. Answer option D is incorrect. An antiglare screen on the monitor is
used to protect the eyes from radiation. Answer option C is incorrect. Wearing synthetic clothes
can make the ESD problem worse. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin
when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components. It happens when
your body or clothes come in contact with computer components. Answer option A is incorrect. A
plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem.

QUESTION NO: 333
Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer
A. It requires zero administration.

B. It consumes less power.
C. It takes less space than conventional servers.
D. It improves network performance.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers. Blade
servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use
of physical space. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord
and network cable, blade servers have many components removed to save space, minimize
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power consumption and other considerations, while still having all the functional components to be
considered as a computer. A blade enclosure, which can hold multiple blade servers, provides
services such as power, cooling, networking, various interconnects and management. Though,
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different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. Answer
options A and D are incorrect. A blade server requires administration and does not improve
network performance. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blade_server"
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QUESTION NO: 334
Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)?

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A. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos.
B. AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing.
C. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system.
D. AGP provides improved network performance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It
allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video
performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second. Therefore, answer options C,
D, and B are incorrect. Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller, Contents:
"Motherboard and Buses"

QUESTION NO: 335
Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket?
A. Plenum
B. PVC
C. Cotton ribbon
D. Fiber
Answer: B
Explanation:
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket
for a cable. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily
routed in the exposed areas of an office. However, when it burns, it emits poisonous gases.
Answer option A is incorrect. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false
ceiling and the floor above. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning, fire-resistant casing that emits
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little smoke. Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit.
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QUESTION NO: 336
Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer
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represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Computer hangs
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B. Floppy drive failure

C. Processor damage
D. Hard drive failure
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Answer: A,C
Explanation:
In an event of processor fan failure, the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang
up and processor damage. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Processor fan failure does not
affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 5
Keeping Connected"
QUESTION NO: 337
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a server that has a
dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives. The server
contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network. The server also
runs the DNS service. Users report that when they query the database or update data, it responds

slowly. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Move the DNS service to another server.

B. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array.
C. Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array.
D. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
In order to improve the performance of the server, Mark can take the following steps: 1.Add a hard
disk drive to the RAID-5 array. This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. 2.Move
the DNS service to another server. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence
improve its performance. 3.Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. Paging
files do not need fault-tolerance, and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes
because they write data to multiple locations. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on
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a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. Answer option D is incorrect.
Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server. The read-write
performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored
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volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk
drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both
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the partitions must be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used
for system and boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned
volume, striped volume (RAID-0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5).
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QUESTION NO: 338

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What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array, including a spare
hard disk drive?
A. Four
B. Thirty-three
C. Five
D. Two
Answer: A
Explanation:
A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. Since one hard disk drive is included as a
spare disk, four disks is the right choice. A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume, with data and
parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a portion of a physical disk fails,
you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity.

RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume, thus if the
data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance.
However in case of RAID1 array, mirror can be establish between two disks. You will require five
additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. RAID5 array has a better read
performance, than RAID1 array. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring. Reference: Windows
2000 Help, Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes', 'Using mirrored volumes'
QUESTION NO: 339
Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct
A. Cylinders
B. Heads
C. Sectors
D. Cluster
Answer: A,B,C
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Explanation:
The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders, Head and Sectors. Cylinders and
sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization. Heads are used to read and
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write data on the hard disk.

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QUESTION NO: 340

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Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each
A. Each processor shares the same memory.

B. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP).
C. Each processor has its own memory address space.
D. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. In this architecture,
multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel. The processors share a
common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data. SMP is
most commonly found on the x86-based architecture, which includes Pentium II, Pentium III, AMD
Athlon MP, etc. The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due
to its low costs. SMP is easier to implement, as it has multiple processors and other components
are shared by them such as the memory, I/O subsystem, operating system, etc. On the other
hand, in Asymmetrical Multi- Processing (ASMP), each processor has its own memory address
space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing"
QUESTION NO: 341
What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers?
A. It allows computers to use more physical memory.

B. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB.
C. It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB.
D. It allows computers to access data faster.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than
504MB.
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QUESTION NO: 342
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan
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of the company. During the testing of the recovery plan, he finds that some servers have been
restored with another server's dat a. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan?
A. Implement the cluster server.

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B. Maintain a printed tape backup report.

C. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data.
D. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to improve the disaster recovery plan, Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup
report, so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server. Answer
option D is incorrect. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the
disaster recovery plan. It will increase the administrative burden. Answer option A is incorrect.
Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. What is a cluster? A cluster is a
group of two or more servers working together as a single system. All the computers in a cluster
are grouped under a common name i.e., a virtual server name, which is used to access and
manage the cluster. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. A cluster provides
redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. Answer option C is incorrect.
Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice, as it is possible
that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises.
QUESTION NO: 343
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has offices at different
locations of a city. You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for
interconnecting the offices. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network?
A. 2000 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 1000 meters
Answer: A
Explanation:
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100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiber-
optic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000
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meters for full duplex connections. The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet
specifications are the use of star topology. The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications:
Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000
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meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic

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QUESTION NO: 344

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Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6
server?
A. Restart Server -na

B. DOWN-f
C. Restart Server -ns
D. DOWN-fs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting. Answer option D is
incorrect. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. Answer option C is incorrect. The Restart
Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup.ncf file. Answer option A is
incorrect. The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec.ncf file.

QUESTION NO: 345
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a TCP/IP-based
network. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your
computer. Which of the following will you use?
A. NETSTAT
B. SNMP
C. ARP
D. NBTSTAT
E. IPSTAT
Answer: A
Explanation:
The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP
connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming
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and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.
The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in
the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state
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of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine
the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option C is incorrect. Address Resolution Protocol
(ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the
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resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card
(NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its
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corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and
providing address conversion in both directions. ARP is limited to physical network systems that
support broadcast packets. Answer option B is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol
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(SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP
is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer
option E is incorrect. There is no utility such as IPSTAT.
QUESTION NO: 346
Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003?
A. Automated System Recovery (ASR)

B. NTDSUTIL utility
C. Windows Backup utility
D. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD)
Answer: A

Explanation:
Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003. It is used to perform a
restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. An ASR
restore includes the configuration information for devices. ASR backs up the system data and local
system partition. It does not back up folders and files. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer
option D is incorrect. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system
files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. These files are stored in
compressed format. ERD includes portion of the registry, computer's default profile
(NTUSER.DAT), and computer's configuration files (SETUP.LOG, AUTOEXEC.BAT, and
CONFIG.SYS). ERD can be created through the RDISK.EXE utility. To start RDISK, go to Start
menu > Run, type RDISK, and click OK. ERD is not self bootable. To restore the information from
ERD, boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the
information. Answer option C is incorrect. The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover
the operating system in Windows Server 2003. Answer option B is incorrect. NTDSUTIL.EXE is a
command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. This utility is used to perform the
following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory. Managing and controlling
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operations master roles. Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. Note:The
NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators.
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QUESTION NO: 347
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Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU
and one hard disk. She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%, the current Disk Queue
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Length is 4, the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%, and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1. Based
on this information, which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer
represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
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A. Network adapter
B. Hard disk
C. CPU
D. Memory
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
% Processor Time value of 90, or less, is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU
bottleneck. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is
subjected to excessive amount of input/output, and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely
fashion. Therefore, Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one.
The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content
cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers, and arranged in a RAID
configuration to increase speed. On the other hand, an excessive amount of input/output to the

hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory. To determine if memory is a bottleneck, the
memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the
cache is correctly configured, and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache.
Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is
working properly. Reference: TechNet, Contents:Chapter 8 - Monitoring Performance
QUESTION NO: 348
Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer. When he powers on the computer, a blank screen is
displayed. What is the most likely cause?
A. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive.

B. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive.
C. BIOS configuration error.
D. Incompatible hard disk drive.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk
drive, a blank screen is displayed. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not
inserted properly in the hard disk drive. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer, make sure
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that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends, i.e., the HDD and IDE controller ends.
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable, BIOS
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configuration error, and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem.
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QUESTION NO: 349
Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read
from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults?
A. Pages/sec
B. Pages Outout/sec
C. Pages Writes/sec
D. Pages Input/sec
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve
hard page faults. Answer option B is incorrect. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at
which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. Answer option C is
incorrect. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free
up space in physical memory. Answer option D is incorrect. The Pages Input/sec counter shows
the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults. Reference:
"http://technet.microsoft.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS.10).aspx"
QUESTION NO: 350
You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. Which of the following are the possible
combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave.
B. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as
Slave.
C. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as
Secondary.
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D. Install the drives, one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both
as Master.
Answer: B,D
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Explanation:
While installing two hard disk drives on a computer, any one of the following two combinations can
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be used: 1.Install the drives, one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and
designate both as Master. 2.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as
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Master and the other as Slave. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE
drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The
Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. If
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two drives are attached to one controller, one drive should be set as Master and the other as
Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work.
Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such setting as Secondary.
QUESTION NO: 351
Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. Which of
the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware?
A. An operating system that supports SNMP

B. An operating system that supports SMP
C. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality
D. An operating system that supports SCSI devices

Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to take full benefit of hardware, you have to select an operating system that supports
Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves
a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a
single shared main memory. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP
architecture. In the case of multi-core processors, the SMP architecture applies to the cores,
treating them as separate processors. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no
matter where the data for that task are located in memory. With proper operating system support,
SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently.
Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. An operating system supporting SNMP, Plug and Play,
or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. What is
SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks.
SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration,
statistics collections, performance, and security. What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a
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combination of hardware and software support, which enables a computer to recognize and adapt
to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires
the interaction of the operating system, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), devices, and device
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drivers. When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer, the Plug and Play compliant
operating system automatically detects it, installs the required drivers, and configures the device
appropriately. All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature.
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Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing"
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QUESTION NO: 352

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What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer?
A. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory.
B. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk.
C. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory.
D. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the
extended memory. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM. As ROM is relatively slower
than RAM, the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the
ROM BIOS. Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary reason for disabling
shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. But it should be done
only as the last resort, because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably.
What is conventional memory? Conventional memory, also known as low-DOS or base memory,
is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB. It is used to
load and process data needed by the active programs. Reference: TechNet, Contents: Shadow
RAM Basics [Q78528]
QUESTION NO: 353
Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. ESD
B. Surge
C. Broadcast storm
D. EMI
Answer: D
Explanation:
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If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable, radiation from the power cable,
known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) , may be inducted into the computer network cable
affecting the signals that pass through it. Answer option A is incorrect. ESD stands for Electrostatic
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discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If you walk across a
carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the
electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that
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charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider wearing a wrist strap when
you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at
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one end and a plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground
or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option B is incorrect. Surge is a momentary
voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on
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and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a
surge. Answer option C is incorrect. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network
devices send jabber packets constantly, thereby increasing the traffic. A faulty network interface
card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. A faulty
NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network
interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card.
QUESTION NO: 354
How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller?
A. Nine devices, excluding one host bus adapter card.

B. Six devices, including one host bus adapter card.
C. Eight devices, including one host bus adapter card.

D. Two devices, including one host bus adapter card.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus, including one host
bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers.
QUESTION NO: 355
Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection?
A. DHCP server
B. RAS server
C. DNS server
D. Database server
Answer: B om
Explanation:
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A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. A
RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple
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communication channels together. Because these channels are bidirectional, two models emerge:
multiple entities connecting to a single resource, and a single entity connecting to multiple
resources. Both of these models are widely used. Both physical and virtual resources can be
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provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a
remote virtual operating system. Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical
connections to their customers, for example customers who get Internet through some form of
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modem. Answer option C is incorrect. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name
System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name
mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve
DNS client queries. Answer option A is incorrect. A DHCP server does not provide remote access
through a dial-up connection. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard
used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other
network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A
DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers
only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Note: If the DHCP
server is offline, a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. Hence, without valid
TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server, the user will not be able to communicate with anyone
on the network or access network resources. Answer option D is incorrect. A database server
does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service"

QUESTION NO: 356
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. You are designing a data backup plan for
your company's network. The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy
recovery of dat a. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this?
A. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly.
B. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes.
C. Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite.
D. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays.
Keep Monday's backup offsite.
E. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a
differential backup on each of the following weekdays. Keep Monday's backup offsite.
Answer: C
Explanation: om
The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. Therefore,
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you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Full backup is a
good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental
backup. For safe storage, a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite.
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What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data.
In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or
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damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all
selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore
data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last
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incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for
incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the
hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been
created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last
differential backup tape to restore data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of Full,
Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621]"
QUESTION NO: 357
What does SCSI stand for?
A. Small Component Systems Interface.

B. Small Computer Serial Interface.
C. Small Computer Systems Interface.

D. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today
after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more
devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive, are better suited in a network
environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three
standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 19 - Device
Management"
QUESTION NO: 358
Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server
computer?
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A. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key.
B. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal.
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C. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal.
D. Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
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In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer, you will type the telnet
command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. TELNET is a command-line
connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service.
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TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs
remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for
connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP
port 23 by default. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such command as telcli. Answer
options C and B are incorrect. These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the
computer. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Telnet"
QUESTION NO: 359
Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ?
A. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential.
B. ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation.
C. ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential.

D. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in
contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge.
ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. If you touch any sensitive electronic component,
like an adapter or drive, with your hand, there will be no static difference between them that can
cause ESD.
QUESTION NO: 360
How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged?
A. The computer will take time to reboot.

B. The computer will hang frequently.
C. The computer's processing speed will slow down.
D. The computer will start losing the date and time.
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Answer: D
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Explanation:
When you turn off the computer and turn it on again, you find that the date and time, and few other
settings are lost. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed. What is a
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CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the
motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and
time settings when a computer's main power is off. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer
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indicate failure of the CMOS battery.
QUESTION NO: 361
Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a
A. IPCONFIG
B. NETSTAT
C. PING
D. TRACERT
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
PING and TRACERT are similar in function. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a
TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems.
PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a
host on a TCP/IP-based network. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a
computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages.
Answer option A is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP
configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It
refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS)
settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the
status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option B is incorrect. The netstat command
displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get
information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as
the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all
this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option B is
incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP
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the memory. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Networking - TCP/IP"
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QUESTION NO: 362

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You are upgrading your server. According to its manual, the motherboard supports only same type
of memory module. What does this indicate?
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A. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard.

B. Same type, like DIMM or SIMM, of all memory modules on the motherboard.
C. Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard.
D. Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "Same type, like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the
motherboard." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module, like SIMM or DIMM.
You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. It is
not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM.
QUESTION NO: 363

Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer
A. To keep CPU temperature low.

B. To improve performance of the computer.
C. To improve air circulation in the CPU box.
D. To make CPU faster.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. The fans inside the CPU
box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low.
Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box. Answer options D and B are
incorrect. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. Reference:
TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected"
QUESTION NO: 364

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Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy?
A. Level 5
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B. Level 1
C. Level 0
D. Level 3
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Answer: C
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Explanation:
RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. Data
is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array. Disk striping
offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management
strategies. However, like volume sets, it does not provide fault tolerance. If any partition in the set
fails, all the data is lost. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring
and provides data redundancy. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is
a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two
partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must
be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot
partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped volume
(RAID-0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Answer options A and D are incorrect. RAID
levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-
tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks.
RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a

physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining
data and parity. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the
volume, while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data.
RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks"
QUESTION NO: 365
How many devices does the EIDE system support?
A. Eight
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Answer: C
Explanation: om
The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the
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Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices.
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QUESTION NO: 366

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You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network. After installing the
device driver, you restart the server. You find that the server is unable to boot. Which of the
following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly?
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A. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver.

B. Increase RAM on the server.
C. Run the Scandisk utility on the server.
D. Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to enable the server to boot properly, you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.
After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter, the server is unable to boot. It indicates that
the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server. Therefore, you need to
disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process. Answer option
A is incorrect. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. Answer
option B is incorrect. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. It can only improve the
performance of the server if the server is in use. Answer option C is incorrect. If the server is not
booted, the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a
Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down
properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in
improving the performance of a computer.
QUESTION NO: 367
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. You install a new UPS and connect it to a
server through a serial cable. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The UPS software is not properly configured.

B. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged.
C. UPS is not configured to a power source.
D. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port.
Answer: A
Explanation: om
The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided
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with the UPS is not properly configured. Answer option D is incorrect. UPS and server always use
serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. Answer option B is incorrect.
A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS. Answer
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option C is incorrect. UPS cannot be configured to a power source. What is UPS? Uninterruptible
power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in
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case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides protection against
power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is affected, while the
computer gets normal power.
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QUESTION NO: 368
Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM.

B. SRAM is made of capacitors.
C. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop.
D. SRAM is used for caching.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. It is
significantly faster than DRAM. Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits, it does not have to be
refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit. SRAM memory chips are generally
used for caching. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM. Answer option B is
incorrect. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny
capacitors. DRAM is slower than SRAM, as it needs to be refreshed.
QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT
In the image of the motherboard given below, identify the area to which you connect a hard disk
drive.
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Answer:

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Explanation:
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Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE
controller. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter
using 40 or 80 wire cables. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several
disks, known as platters. These platters are attached to the spindle motor. The read/write heads
are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. The read/write heads are attached to the
head actuator, which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters. What is a
motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the
computer's basic circuitry and components. On the typical motherboard, the circuitry is imprinted
or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. The most
common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT, based on the IBM AT
motherboard. A more recent motherboard specification, ATX, improves on the AT design. In both
the AT and ATX designs, the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows:
The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting
circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below:
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QUESTION NO: 370
Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose two.
A. WINS
B. IIS
C. Browser service
D. DNS

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. DNS server is a computer that runs
the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP
address-to- host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server
is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name
resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the
network. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts.
Answer option C is incorrect. The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based
computers on the network. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of
computers and provide the list to applications when requested. When a user attempts to connect
to a resource in the network, the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available
resources. Answer option B is incorrect. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service
that supports Web site creation, configuration, and management, along with other Internet
functions. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol
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(NNTP), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Reference:
"http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS.10).aspx"
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QUESTION NO: 371
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Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive
on the primary IDE interface. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate, he
purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface. What will be the
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maximum data transfer rate of both drives?
A. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive.
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B. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive.
C. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive.
D. The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate, and the ATA-100 hard
drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. If an ATA-100 hard
disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard, the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due
to the chipset limitation. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such motherboard or hard disk
as the ATA-166. Answer option D is incorrect. The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the
maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive, as the motherboard chipset is not compatible
with the ATA-100 data transfer rate.

QUESTION NO: 372
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based
Windows NT network. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the
network. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance.
A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement. Which of the following RAID levels will you
choose to fulfil the requirement?
A. RAID-1
B. RAID-5
C. RAID-0
D. RAID-4
E. RAID-3
Answer: C
Explanation:
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RAID-0, also known as stripe set, stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Stripe set
does not provide fault tolerance, but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1)
and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two
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hard disk drives. Answer option A is incorrect. RAID-1, also known as mirrored set, is a fault
tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two
partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must
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be of the same size. Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot
partition. Among the three RAID levels, RAID-1 has the poorest performance. Answer options E
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and D are incorrect. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. Answer option B is
incorrect. RAID-5, also known as stripe set with parity, is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data
and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Stripe set with
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parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a
physical disk fails, you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. It has
better performance than a mirror set. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "NT Server and Disk
Subsystem Performance"
QUESTION NO: 373
Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain?
A. I/O address
B. LUN
C. Master/Slave setting
D. SCSI Identification

Answer: D
Explanation:
The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a
SCSI ID different from that of other devices. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are
important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device
gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide
SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into
two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group
have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter
generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C
is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished
by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical
unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a
single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and
the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to
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communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses
to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the
bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable
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aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a
sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must
be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second
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most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface.
SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and
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CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared
drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference:
TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"
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QUESTION NO: 374
Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain?
A. I/O address
B. LUN
C. Master/Slave setting
D. SCSI Identification
Answer: D
Explanation:
The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a
SCSI ID different from that of other devices. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are
important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device
gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide
SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into
two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group
have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter
generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C
is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished
by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical
unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a
single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and
the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to
communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses
to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the
bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable
aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a
sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must
be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second
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drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference:
TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"
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QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP

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You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The
major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and
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drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective
boxes.
Answer:

Explanation:
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The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below:
TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length
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1000BaseSX550 meters
100BaseFX2000 meters
100BaseTX100 meters
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1000BaseCX25 meters
1000BaseT100 meters
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In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

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Answer:
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Explanation:

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Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel,
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Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to
external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be
installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up
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to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB
1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer
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rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet,
Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"
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QUESTION NO: 377
Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer
A. Mouse type
B. RAM size
C. Boot sequence
D. Shadow RAM
E. Hard disk drive parameters
F. Date and time
G. Floppy disk drive parameters
Answer: C,D,E,F,G

Explanation:
The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive
parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer, the
hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration. If the hardware is not configured
according to the BIOS configuration, the BIOS will issue a warning. What is shadow RAM?
Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. When you
configure shadow RAM, a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-
only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Access
time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the
125-250 nanosecond range. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary
reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. But,
it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a
machine noticeably.
QUESTION NO: 378
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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000-
based application server that serves applications to the users. Mark is concerned about the
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performance of the application server. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server. What
will Mark do next after installing the application properly?
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A. Monitor disk utilization.

B. Create a new server baseline.
C. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application.
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D. Print the server hardware configuration.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
After the installation of the application, Mark should create a new server baseline. As he is
concerned about the performance of the application server, the server baseline will be helpful to
analyze the server performance after the installation of the application. What is baseline? Baseline
measures maximum system capacity and performance, used to compare different configurations.
Once a baseline for network usage has been determined, the additional bandwidth available for
the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no need to
take a printout of the hardware configuration, as there is no change in the hardware of the server.
Answer option A is incorrect. The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring
disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new
server baselines. Answer option C is incorrect. The security log does not store log about success
or failure of application installations.

QUESTION NO: 379
Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment?
A. Hardware resource conflict

B. General protection fault
C. A broadcast storm on the network.
D. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow
around the chips and result in short circuit. Answer option B is incorrect. The general protection
fault does not occur due to humidity. Answer option A is incorrect. Hardware resource conflict
occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other
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devices. Answer option C is incorrect. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more
network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Broadcast
storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. The faulty NIC can be
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detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. What is a
network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card
installed in a computer. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network.
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Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network.

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QUESTION NO: 380

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Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a
A. Configure a subnet mask on the computer.

B. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system.
C. Create a backup strategy.
D. Plan the installation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation. Check hardware
compatibility with the operating system. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Creating a backup
strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre- installation plan.

QUESTION NO: 381
Which of the following have many components removed to save space, minimize power
consumption and other considerations, while still having all the functional components to be
considered as a computer?
A. Microcomputers
B. Blade servers
C. Mainframes
D. Minicomputers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize
the use of physical space. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a
power cord and network cable, blade servers have many components removed to save space,
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minimize power consumption and other considerations, while still having all the functional
components to be considered as a computer. A blade enclosure, which can hold multiple blade
servers, provides services such as power, cooling, networking, various interconnects and
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management. Though, different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in
the blade itself. Answer options D, C, and A are incorrect. No components are removed from
these. Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications,
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typically bulk data processing, industry and consumer statistics, ERP, and financial transaction
processing. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the
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computing spectrum, in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the
smallest single-user systems computers). Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blade_server"
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QUESTION NO: 382
Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer
A. CMOSBattery
B. PCI Slot
C. Hard disk drive
D. ROM BIOS
E. Floppy disk drive
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
A modern motherboard has several components built in. Most modern motherboards have the
following major components:
Processor-slot/socket
Chipset
ROM BIOS
SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets
ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots
CPU voltage regulator
Battery
Answer options C and E are incorrect. Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the
motherboard. They are separate units.
QUESTION NO: 383
Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit?
A. 1.75 inches
B. 35 inches
C. 1.85 inches
D. 5.25 inches
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Answer: A
Explanation:
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The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches . U is the standard unit of measure for designating
the vertical usable space, or height of racks. Answer option B is incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a
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height of 35 (1.75 x 20) inches.

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In the image of the motherboard given below, identify the area showing the Extended Industry
Standard Architecture (EISA) slots.

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Answer:
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Explanation:
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You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots. These slots are larger
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than PCI or VESA slots. PCI slots are usually white in color. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path.
EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. EISA
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bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards. What is an ISA
bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface
from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. A later version of ISA bus comes
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with a 16-bit expansion slot. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a
high-performance, 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth
requirements, such as the display subsystem. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus
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standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video

and graphics capabilities. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Appendix C - Hardware Support"
QUESTION NO: 385
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a database server.
Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM. He wants to use a type of
RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10.7 GB/sec. Which of the following
types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task?
A. SRAM
B. DDR SDRAM
C. RDRAM
D. EDO RAM

Answer: C
Explanation:
Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports
bandwidths from 1.6 GB/sec to 10.7 GB/sec. Answer option B is incorrect. With a bus frequency of
200 MHz, DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3.2 GB/sec. Answer option D is
incorrect. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10.7 GB/sec.
Answer option A is incorrect. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's
cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video
card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in
its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive
than DRAM.
QUESTION NO: 386
Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities?
A. SNMP v1
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B. SNMP v3
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C. SNMP v2
D. SNMP v6
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features. What is
SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite,
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which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on
the network and how the object is behaving. Answer options A and C are incorrect. SNMP v1 and
v2 have a number of common features, but SNMP v2 offers enhancements, such as additional
protocol operations. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication
feature. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6.
QUESTION NO: 387
You are installing Windows 2000 Server. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for
fault tolerance. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5
volumes?
A. One
B. Two

C. Three
D. Thirty-two
Answer: C
Explanation:
A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant
volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks. In case of a physical disk
failure, you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity.
Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored
or extended.
QUESTION NO: 388
Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete
A. Do not reuse passwords.

B. Store the password.
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C. Change the password regularly.
D. Discuss the password with anyone.
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Answer: A,C
Explanation:
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The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly. Do not reuse
passwords. While you are changing the password, do not reuse the previous password. Answer
options B and D are incorrect. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good
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password policies.
QUESTION NO: 389
What is the height of the 30U server rack?
A. 14 inches
B. 21 inches
C. 31.5 inches
D. 52.5 inches
Answer: D
Explanation:

The 30U server rack has a height of 52.5 inches . Answer option A is incorrect. The 8U server rack
has a height of 14 inches . Answer option B is incorrect. The 12U server rack has a height of 21
inches . Answer option C is incorrect. The 18U server rack has a height of 31.5 inches .
QUESTION NO: 390
Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors?
A. Slot 2 and Socket 370

B. Slot 1 and Socket 370
C. Slot 2 and Socket 7
D. Slot 1 and Socket A
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. Answer options C and A are incorrect.
Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. Intel's Pentium, Pentium MMX, and AMD's K6, and some
K5 model processors use Socket 7. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and
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Duron processors use Socket
A.
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QUESTION NO: 391
What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete
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solution. Choose two.
A. DRAM is faster than SRAM.

B. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory.
C. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be
refreshed.
D. SRAM is faster than DRAM.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed.
Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need
constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory. DRAM requires more power than that
of SRAM, therefore, SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers. With an access time of 15 to 30
nanoseconds, SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more.

QUESTION NO: 392
Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test?
A. EDO RAM
B. Motherboard
C. Microprocessor
D. ROM BIOS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ROM BIOS, a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard, stores instruction for
Power On Self Test. When you turn on or restart a computer, it begins a Power On Self Test
(POST) routine. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies
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the presence of required hardware components, such as the keyboard. Answer option C is
incorrect. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation. Answer option B
is incorrect. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. It does not store instruction for
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the POST routine. Answer option A is incorrect. EDO RAM, a type of random access memory, is
plugged in on the computer's motherboard. It does not store instruction for the POST operation.
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QUESTION NO: 393

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You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. A server in the network is unable to load the
network operating system. You find that a POST error has occurred. You want to use a POST
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diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error. How will you use it?
A. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. The error codes will display on the
adapter.
B. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. The error codes will print.
C. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the
card manuurer. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk.
D. Connect the card to a serial port. Boot the computer. The error codes will be stored in a
memory buffer created by the card.
Answer: A
Explanation:
POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. Answer options B, C, and D
are incorrect. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. It also does not print
error codes. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known
as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. When a computer is turned on or
restarted, it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. The POST routine determines the
available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components,
such as keyboard.
QUESTION NO: 394
You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system. Which file is required if your system
uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled?
A. SCSIBOOT.SYS
B. SCSIBIOS.SYS
C. NTBOOTDD.SYS
D. SCSI.SYS
Answer: C
Explanation:
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NTBOOTDD.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system, when using SCSI controller with BIOS
disabled.
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QUESTION NO: 395
Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables?
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A. Tone generator
B. Optical time domain reflectometer
C. Media tester
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D. Punch down tool
Answer: B
Explanation:
Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device, which is used to
locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections.
It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. It is an expensive device that
costs around $30,000. Answer options C, D, and A are incorrect. Media tester, punch down tool,
and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables.
QUESTION NO: 396
You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk. But your system does
not support the 4GB hard disk. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS. What will you do to upgrade
the BIOS?
A. Replace the motherboard.

B. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity.
C. Install a new operating system.
D. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard. ROM BIOS
chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version. If your motherboard is using an
Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip, you can upgrade by the Flashing
method. In this method, you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a
special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. After uploading the software and rebooting the
machine, new BIOS will be functional.
QUESTION NO: 397

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000
domain-based network. The network has a Windows 2000 server. The server has eight 40GB hard
disks. Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. Mark wants to
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reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume, and the volume should have the
maximum space for storing data. What will he do to accomplish this?
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A. Configure the disks to a spanned volume.

B. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume.
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C. Configure the disks to an active partition.

D. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To support fault tolerance, Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. First he must
backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume. Then he must create a
RAID5 volume using six disks, and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. A RAID5 volume is
a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical
disks. If a portion of a physical disk fails, it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed
portion from the remaining data and parity. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one
additional disk for the volume, while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as
that of the original data. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume.
Answer option C is incorrect. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to
contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. If no partition is set as Active, a computer

does not boot from the hard disk drive. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Only
the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. Answer option A is incorrect. A
spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. It is used to combine
free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical
volume. It can be created on dynamic disks only. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. A
spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. In Windows 2000/2003,
users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. Reference:
Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes", "Using mirrored volumes"
QUESTION NO: 398
Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave
TCP ports half open?
A. Hacking
B. PING attack
C. SYN attack
D. Spoofing
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. Using this technique, an attacker
sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. For each SYN packet received, the target
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computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP

address. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine, it
attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state. When an attacker
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sends TCP SYNs repeatedly, the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to
handle any more connections, thereby denying service to legitimate users. Answer option B is
incorrect. When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer, it is
known as a PING attack. Answer option D is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a
transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email
address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's
IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet,
chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be
misdirected. Answer option A is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal
access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer
or network. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway"
QUESTION NO: 399

Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a file server
that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. The server has a dual processor
motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. The server is connected to the network through a
10/100 Mbps switch. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection. What
will he do to accomplish this?
A. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming.
B. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server.
C. Add more RAM to the server.
D. Add a processor to the server's motherboard.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and
configure adapter teaming. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic
efficiently between the network adapters. It also improves network uptime by protecting the
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network in the event of a network adapter failure. Answer option D is incorrect. Adding a processor
will improve the performance of data processing on the server. It will not increase the network
connection speed. Answer option C is incorrect. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in
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improving the server's network connection speed. It can only help in improving the server's data
processing performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to
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the server will not affect the server's network connection speed.
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QUESTION NO: 400
Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate?
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A. Ultra 160 SCSI

B. Ultra 900 SCSI
C. SCSI-2
D. Ultra 320 SCSI
E. SCSI-3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec. Answer option B is
incorrect. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI. Answer option A is incorrect. Ultra
160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. Answer option C is incorrect.
SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. Answer option E is incorrect. SCSI-
3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec.

QUESTION NO: 401
Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory
immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use?
A. Committed Bytes
B. Cache Bytes Peak
C. Available Bytes
D. Commit Limit
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory
immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. Answer option D is incorrect.
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The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory, in bytes,
that can be committed without having to extend the paging file. Answer option A is incorrect. The
Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory, in
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bytes. Answer option B is incorrect. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows
the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started.
Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS.10).aspx"
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QUESTION NO: 402
You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc. You upgrade a server's processor. After the
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upgrade, the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking. What is the most
likely cause?
A. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect.

B. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size.
C. The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot.
D. The BIOS is not flashed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the server was working before the upgrade, the most likely cause is that the processor is not
correctly inserted in the slot. Therefore, it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST). Answer
option D is incorrect. There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. Answer option A
is incorrect. Processors do not have jumpers. Answer option B is incorrect. Cache size is not a
requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST). What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST)
is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's
motherboard. When a computer is turned on or restarted, it begins the Power On Self Test (POST)
routine. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the
presence of required hardware components, such as keyboard.
QUESTION NO: 403
Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks?
A. Bytes Total/sec
B. Current Bandwidth
C. Output Queue Length
D. Current Bytes/sec
Answer: B
Explanation:
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The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface
bottlenecks. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has. Answer option C is
incorrect. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be
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transmitted by the network interface. Answer option A is incorrect. It measures the total amount of
data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. Answer option D is incorrect. There is
no such counter as Current Bytes/sec. Reference: "http://www.sql-server-
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performance.com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1.aspx"
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QUESTION NO: 404

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network contains a file
server, which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level. Some weeks ago, the server
was handling the same level of workload without any problem. Which of the following steps can
Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose
three.
A. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet.

B. Examine the server log.
C. Add more RAM.
D. Run the hardware diagnostic utility.
E. Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure,
loose hardware contact, malfunctioning add-on cards, and the failure of cooling devices such as
the fans inside the server cabinet. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps:
Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. Run the hardware
diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. Check the cooling
components such as heat sink, processor fan, and SMPS fan. The administrator has to check that
the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. He also has to check whether the fans
attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly. Answer option C is incorrect.
Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware. Hence, adding more RAM
cannot help to resolve the issue. It can be useful to improve server performance. Answer option E
is incorrect. Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any
accident or disaster. Moreover, corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot.
QUESTION NO: 405
Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector?
A. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable

B. Serial port
C. VGA/SVGA video adapter
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D. 10BaseT Ethernet cable
Answer: D
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Explanation:
A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter
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jack on a computer. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in
size. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors. Answer
option A is incorrect. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male
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connector. Answer option B is incorrect. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector. Answer
option C is incorrect. VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector. Reference:
TechNet, Contents: "Building a Home Network, Part 1"
QUESTION NO: 406
You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. You are having DNS resolution
problem. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem?
A. TRACERT
B. IPCONFIG
C. NSLOOKUP
D. PING

Answer: C
Explanation:
NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems.
It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at
the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution
issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone,
and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol
through the Control Panel. Answer option D is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to
test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series
of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds
with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is
working properly. Answer option B is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display
current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. It is also used to display, register, or flush
Domain Name System (DNS) names. Answer option A is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing
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Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the
Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the
remote host. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools
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[Q217014]"
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QUESTION NO: 407
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based
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network. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday - 9 AM to 5 PM. You are planning a
data backup plan for the company's network. The management does not want the backup plan to
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interfere with the network during business hours. The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. You
configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2.11GB/hour. On which of the following days
can you perform a full backup?
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Friday
D. Tuesday
E. Thursday
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB, and data transfer rate of the
tape drive is 2.11GB/hour. This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full
backup. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday, it will run on the
following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company. What is the
Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event
of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data.
The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for
backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental
backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full
backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup
to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network
drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since
the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to
restore data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential
Backups [Q136621"
QUESTION NO: 408
David configured a system as a print server on the network. When he prints a Word document, the
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page is printed with junk characters. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer
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A. Printer cable is loose
B. Faulty printer cartridge
C. Faulty RAM on print server
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D. Faulty printer driver
Answer: A,D
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Explanation:
The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose
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printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters.
QUESTION NO: 409
You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave, on your system. When you boot the system
with a bootable floppy disk, you access the hard disk as D: drive. When you run the DIR command
on D: drive, you receive an error message. What is the most likely cause?
A. Hard disk drive cable is faulty.

B. Hard disk drive has no partition.
C. Hard disk drive is not formatted.
D. Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS.
E. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted. The
question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. If the hard disk is not partitioned,
you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive. Therefore, this option is incorrect. BIOS configuration
and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because, in that case you cannot access the
hard disk drive as D: drive.
QUESTION NO: 410
Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps?
A. Category 1
B. Category 3
C. Category 4
D. Category 5
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. It consists of four twisted-
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pairs of copper wire. Answer option C is incorrect. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data
transmissions up to 16 Mbps. It consists of four twisted-pairs. Answer option B is incorrect.
Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. It consists of four twisted-
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pairs with three twists per foot. Answer option A is incorrect. Category 1 refers to the traditional
Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables, which can carry voice but not data.
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QUESTION NO: 411
You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. Which utility
will you use?
A. RDISK
B. NTBACKUP
C. BACKUP
D. ERD /NT
Answer: A
Explanation:
Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to
recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. These files are stored in compressed format.

ERD includes portion of the registry, computer's default profile (NTUSER.DAT), and computer's
configuration files (SETUP.LOG, AUTOEXEC.BAT, and CONFIG.SYS). ERD can be created
through the RDISK.EXE utility. To start RDISK, go to Start menu > Run, type RDISK, and click
OK. ERD is not self bootable. To restore the information from ERD, boot with NT Setup diskettes
and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. Reference: TechNet,
Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]"
QUESTION NO: 412
Your company's network has a file server. You have installed a new application on the server. You
have checked and verified that the application is working properly. What should you do next?
A. Install the latest service pack on the server.

B. Run Disk Defragmenter on the server.
C. Create a new server baseline.
D. Add more RAM to the server.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
After installing a new application on the server, you should create a new server baseline. Baseline
is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.
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Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network.
This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the
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baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer options D, B,

and A are incorrect. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server.
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QUESTION NO: 413
Which of the following servers provides network file storage?
A. Proxy server
B. NAS server
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage. Network-attached
storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data
access to heterogeneous clients. A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only
provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. Although it may
technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit, it is not designed to be a general
purpose server. For example, NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display, and are
controlled and configured over the network, often using a browser. Answer option D is incorrect. A
DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network. Answer option A is
incorrect. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an
intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. A client connects to
the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other
resource, available from a different server. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its
filtering rules. If the request is validated by the filter, the proxy provides the resource by connecting
to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client. A proxy server may
optionally alter the client's request or the server's response, and sometimes it may serve the
request without contacting the specified server. Answer option C is incorrect. DNS server is a
computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address
mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A
DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage"
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QUESTION NO: 414
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What is the meaning of parity error?
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A. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk.
B. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory.
C. Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS.
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D. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. Parity is a basic check of
information integrity. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information.
Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit, the "parity bit", is used to store the parity of the
data. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. A parity error can be
caused by different circumstances, but it is almost always a hardware problem. Parity error occurs
due to faulty memory. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of
memory, until the problem disappears. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows
3.x [Q93521]"
QUESTION NO: 415
Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent
and received per second by the network interface adapter?
A. Current Bandwidth
B. Output Queue Length counter
C. Disk Queue Length
D. Bytes Total/sec
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and
received per second by the network interface adapter. Answer option C is incorrect. The Disk
Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object. Answer option A is incorrect. The
Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface
bottlenecks. Answer option B is incorrect. The Output Queue Length counter of the network
interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface.
Reference:
"http://www.enterprisenetworkingplanet.com/netsysm/article.php/10954_3328281_2/Keep- Tabs-
on-Your-Network-Traffic.htm"
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QUESTION NO: 416
In Windows NT/2000, which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring?

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A. Level 1
B. Level 0
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C. Level 3
D. Level 5
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing
fault-tolerant disk systems. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or
disk striping, which is not fault-tolerant. Level 1 or mirroring. Level 5 or disk striping with parity.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration."
QUESTION NO: 417
Your computer is not connected to the UPS. What can happen in an event of power failure?
A. CMOS battery failure.

B. Damage of components.
C. Distorted display.

D. BIOS configuration is reset.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If your computer is not connected to the UPS, power failure may cause damage to peripheral
components. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector. What is UPS?
Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short
period of time in case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides
protection against power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is
affected, while the computer gets normal power. Answer option D is incorrect. In an event of
power failure, BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in
the CMOS chip. Answer option A is incorrect. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure.
Answer option C is incorrect. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure. What is surge?
Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few
milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and
refrigerators can cause a surge. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Glossary"
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QUESTION NO: 418
You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc. The company wants to use Small
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Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network. Which of the following connectors
can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
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A. RJ-45
B. RJ-11
C. LC
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D. MT-RJ
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables. What is an MT-RJ
connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector.
The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver,
so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment. The connector is a 2-fiber connector
and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack.
QUESTION NO: 419
What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5?

A. Three
B. Two
C. Thirty-two
D. Four
E. Five
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID-5, also known as stripe set with parity, is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity
information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Stripe set with parity uses a
minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails,
you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information. It has better performance as
compared to a mirror set. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes"
QUESTION NO: 420

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Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management?
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A. It is used for taking backups.
B. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance.
C. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices.
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D. It is used for auditing the network activities.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device
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maintenance. It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network
equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. To manage
network servers and routers remotely, administrators need network access when problems occur.
However, the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of
management access to those devices. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by
employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel. Answer option
C is incorrect. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet)
to manage devices. Unlike out-of-band connection, in-band connection is available only when the
server is initialized and functioning properly. In-band connection relies on operating-system
network drivers to establish computer connections. The most common in-band
remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter. Users can use remote-access
connections to manage servers. The remote-access connection is made through the in- band port
that resides on the target server. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Out-of-band management
is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management"

QUESTION NO: 421
Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose three.
A. 8088
B. 80386
C. 80486
D. Pentium
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
80386, 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors. 80386 processors were introduced in computer
models such as 386SX, 386DX. 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as
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486SX, 486DX, 486DX2 and 486DX4. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and
Pentium MMX.
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QUESTION NO: 422
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You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network.
Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow
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retrieval?
A. Ping
B. TRACERT
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C. TRACEROUTE
D. NSLOOKUP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is
causing the slow retrieval. TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP
packet takes to reach its destination. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo
packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway
along the route to the remote host. Answer option D is incorrect. NSLOOKUP is a tool for
diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by
sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This
information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether
or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-
related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.
Answer option B is incorrect. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to
a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on
its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or
IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer option A is
incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based
network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On
receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be
used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Traceroute"
QUESTION NO: 423
You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices. How
will you achieve this?
and last external devices. om

A. The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter. Terminate both the last internal
B. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. Terminate both the last internal and
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last external devices.
C. Terminate all external SCSI devices.
D. Terminate only the internal SCSI device.
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Answer: B
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Explanation:
The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. The first and last devices in the SCSI
bus should be terminated. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second
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drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
QUESTION NO: 424
Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)?
A. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers.
B. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations.
C. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. It provides interface for connecting the
computer to Local Area Network (LAN).
D. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. It provides interface for connecting the
computer to auxiliary devices.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer. It provides interface for
connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). NIC is also known as network adapter.
Reference: TechNet, Content: Glossary
QUESTION NO: 425
Which of the following statements about brownout is true?
A. It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line.

B. It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike.
C. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges.
D. It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time, such as for one or two seconds.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical
power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. It indicates there is enough power on
the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current
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electrical demand. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold
or hot spell. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts. A brownout lasts
longer than a power sag and corrupts more data. Answer option C is incorrect. A surge protector is
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a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. Answer
option A is incorrect. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an
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electrical line. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Lightning carries millions
of volts, and if a home or office takes a direct hit, a PC along with other devices are likely to be
heavily damaged. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden
spike in the electrical current near the strike. Answer option B is incorrect. A lightning arrestor is an
in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. It is installed after an
antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver. This device does not provide protection from a
direct lightning strike; rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike. When the
induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna, the lightning arrestor shunts the
excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. The typical lightning arrestor,
also known as surge arrestor, has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. When a lightning
surge, or switching surge, travels down the power system to the arrestor, the current from the
surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)"

QUESTION NO: 426
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You want to increase memory in a
database server on the network, without replacing the motherboard. What will be your first step
before purchasing memory?
A. Verify the availability of memory slot.

B. Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing.
C. Check the memory size on POST.
D. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before
purchasing memory. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard, you will have to
replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server. Answer option C is incorrect. There is
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no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on
the server. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase
memory on the server. Answer option D is incorrect. Although you should check the compatibility
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of the purchased memory with the existing memory, it is the second step. You should purchase
memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. Otherwise,
you will have to change the existing memory.
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QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown
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in the image.
Answer:

Explanation:
The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded
medium performance coaxial signal connector, which is used in TVs and VCRs. The pin of the
connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable. It is an inexpensive connector.
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QUESTION NO: 428

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Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol
(SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 80
B. 162
C. 443
D. 161
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162. What
is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite,
which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on
the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option C is incorrect. By default, Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication. Answer option A is incorrect.

HTTP uses port 80 as the default port.
QUESTION NO: 429
Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port.

B. USB does not support Plug n Play installation.
C. USB supports hot plugging.
D. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based, external bus for a computer that brings the Plug
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and Play capability of hardware devices. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127
peripheral devices, including speakers, CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners, and
cameras. USB supports hot plugging, which means that you can install or remove a USB device
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while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself
accordingly. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and
reconfigure the system. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD, Topic: Appendix C -
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Hardware Support
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QUESTION NO: 430

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network contains a file
server. The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. Both the
drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. On a Monday morning, Mark comes to
his office and starts the server. He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive, even
though the hard disk drive is working properly. What is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. The SCSI card is faulty.

B. The tape drive has no power supply.
C. The RAM on the server is faulty.
D. The SCSI card driver is not installed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate. Answer
option D is incorrect. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly.
This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. Answer option A is incorrect. The
SCSI card is not faulty, as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. Answer
option C is incorrect. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up.
QUESTION NO: 431
What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing?
A. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD).

B. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB.
C. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB.
D. To allow use of zip drives.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard
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disk drives of more than 504MB. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk
drive. Instead of using cylinders, heads, and sectors, it assigns a unique identifier to each sector
on the drive. In order to work, LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk
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drive. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days. Answer options D, A, and
C are incorrect. Since zip drive, DVD, and RAM have their own addressing method, LBA is not
used with them. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined
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[Q122052]"
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QUESTION NO: 432

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Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. The company has a Windows NT
domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers, Server1 and Server2. Monica
wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. She installs a
new device driver for the controller. Now, Server1 is unable to boot properly. Monica has to restore
Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. What should she do to accomplish this?
A. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD. After setup
completes, restart Server1.
B. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration.
C. Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1.
D. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1. Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to
overwrite the new file. Restart Server1.
Answer: B
Explanation:

Whenever a user logs on to a computer, the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry.
One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good
Configuration. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by
installing a new SCSI device driver. Therefore, she should use the Last Known Good
Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. What is Last Known Good Configuration?
The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last
successfully logged on. This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry
key. Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty
drivers. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost, if an
operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option. Answer options C
and A are incorrect. As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good
Configuration, reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. Answer option D is incorrect.
Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here. Reference: TechNet,
Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support", "Knowledge Base", "Windows NT", "Recovering
Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]"
QUESTION NO: 433

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Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB)
devices?
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A. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device.

B. Software drivers are not required for USB devices.
C. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it.
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D. USB devices are non-Plug and Play.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD- ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB
rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer option B is
incorrect. Software drivers are required for USB devices. It is possible, though, that the drivers for
your USB devices are already available on the computer. In this case, you do not need to provide
a device driver separately. Answer option A is incorrect. It is not required to restart the computer to
install USB devices. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows
CE"

QUESTION NO: 434
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Rick, a Sales Manager, reports that his
computer was working properly till last evening. However, when he turned on his computer this
morning, it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely
cause?
A. Floppy drive failure.

B. Media failure on the hard disk drive.
C. The computer is infected with virus.
D. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk
is inserted in drive A:. According to Rick, his computer was working properly till last evening and
he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning. It is
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possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his
work. The next time he turned on the computer, the computer searched for operating system files
on the floppy drive first. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk, it
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showed the Invalid System Disk error message. Answer option C is incorrect. In most cases, virus
attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. What is a virus?
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A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the
permission or knowledge of the owner. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other
computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another
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computer. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed.
Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected, infect those targets,
and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Resident viruses do not search
for hosts when they are started. Instead, a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and
transfers control to the host program. The virus stays active in the background and infects new
hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. A virus can
infect boot sector, networking files, and system files. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for
disinfection. Answer option A is incorrect. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting, the computer
shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. Answer option B is incorrect. Although media
failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur, it is rare.
QUESTION NO: 435
What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card?

A. To configure data transfer speed.
B. To configure transceiver type.
C. To configure MAC address.
D. To configure I/O address.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. Nowadays
most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches. They use software setup programs
instead. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer
circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical connection between a computer
and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network.
What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The
CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any
peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O
address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer.
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Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication
between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is
installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. Answer
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option C is incorrect. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface
card and cannot be changed by users. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC)
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address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC
manuurer. This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network
communication.
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QUESTION NO: 436
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based
network. The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall. A user complains that he is
unable to access the abc.com site. However, he can access all other sites. Which of the following
tools will help you diagnose the problem?
A. IPCONFIG
B. TELNET
C. TRACERT
D. ROUTE
Answer: C
Explanation:
The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It
traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote

host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used
to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer option B is incorrect. TELNET is a
command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet
server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to
run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet
protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It
uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer option A is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility
that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway
etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and
Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt
whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option D is
incorrect. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table. Print, Add, Delete,
and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE
command.
QUESTION NO: 437

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Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit?
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A. 1.75 inches
B. 7 inches
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C. 35 inches
D. 21 inches
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches . Therefore, the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7
(4 x 1.75) inches. Answer option D is incorrect. The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1.75 x 12)
inches. Answer option C is incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1.75 x 20) inches.
Answer option A is incorrect. The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches .
QUESTION NO: 438
Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. 386SX
B. AMD Athlon
C. AMD K6
D. Pentium 4

Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer
option A is incorrect. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width.
QUESTION NO: 439
David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. The company has a Windows NT
domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT
workstations. One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133
MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive. Employees complain about the
poor performance of this server. David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the
following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk
time70% What will he do to enhance server performance?
A. He will add another processor to the server.

B. He will add more memory to the server.
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C. He will use disk striping.
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D. He will add another network card to the server.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory. This indicates a bottleneck in
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memory. Therefore, David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance.
Answer option C is incorrect. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance. Since the problem
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is not due to disk performance, disk striping is not required. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set
(RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Stripe set does not provide fault
tolerance, but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. Stripe
set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Answer option A is
incorrect. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%.
Since there is no bottleneck in the processor, there is no need to add another processor. What is
%Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a
computer. This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy. A bottleneck in the
processor occurs, when the value of this counter exceeds 80%. To overcome this, either the
processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. Moving some applications
to another server can also resolve the issue. Answer option D is incorrect. Since the problem does
not occur due to high network usage, there is no need to add another network card. Reference:
TechNet, Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server"

QUESTION NO: 440
How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system?
A. By setting a jumper on the motherboard

B. By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive
C. By changing the CMOS setting
D. By adding an add-on card
Answer: B
Explanation:
You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. What are
the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master, Slave,
and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering
a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. If two drives are attached to one controller, one drive
should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as
Master, or Slave, none of them will work.
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QUESTION NO: 441
Edward Inc. has recently added John's computer as a part of the network. All the required
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hardware has been installed on John's computer. But some hardware may have been missed
during the installation, due to which John is unable to connect to the network. Which hardware is
missing?
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A. Networking protocol stack

B. Network device driver
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C. Network client software

D. Network interface card
Answer: D
Explanation:
As the question states, John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. But due
some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. So this is the problem of missing
network interface card in the computer. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network
interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical
connection between a computer and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated,
full-time connection to a network.
QUESTION NO: 442

Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc. The company has a Windows NT
domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations.
The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. Tom configures the server
with a 25 GB DAT drive. He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do
so as the DAT drive runs out of space. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom
implement to accomplish this task?
A. He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive, so that he can take a full backup every night using
both drives.
B. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon, and a
differential backup every night.
C. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's
hard disk drive, everyday.
D. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives, so that he can take a full backup every night
using all three drives.
Answer: A
Explanation: om
Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server , he must use at least two 25 GB
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DAT drives. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup.
Therefore, he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Backing
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up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will
increase the administrative burden. Answer option B is incorrect. It is not possible to take a full
backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option D is incorrect.
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Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem, it is unnecessary to purchase
two DAT drives.
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QUESTION NO: 443
Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster?
A. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power, the other shuts down
automatically.
B. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power, the other takes over
the job.
C. If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck, the other node provides resources.
D. It prevents viruses from corrupting user data.
Answer: B
Explanation:

In a two-node cluster, if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power, the
other takes over the job. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working
together as a single system. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name
i.e., a virtual server name, which is used to access and manage the cluster. Each member server
of the cluster is called a node. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or
application failure. Answer option D is incorrect. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from
being corrupted by viruses. Answer option C is incorrect. In case of a bottleneck on a node, the
other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node.
QUESTION NO: 444
Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe?
A. PCI-X
B. CNR
C. DMR
D. AMR om
Answer: A
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Explanation:
PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit
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PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers. It is a double-wide version of PCI,
running at up to four times the clock speed, but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation
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and uses the same protocol. PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express, commonly abbreviated as
PCIe. Visually there is no such similarity. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe. PCI-X has been
replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express. Answer option B is incorrect.
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Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. It plugs into
the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio
devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi-channel audio, phone-line-based networking, and
10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the
physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems.
Answer option D is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an
expansion slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon
personal computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog
functionality, such as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins
each, making a total of 46 pins. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such slot as DMR.
Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PCI-X"
QUESTION NO: 445

Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer
A. Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition

B. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition
C. Sun Solaris 10
D. Mac OS X Panther
E. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation:
The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server
2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect.
The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing.
QUESTION NO: 446

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Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer
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A. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3

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B. Windows 2000 Server

C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition
D. Sun Solaris 9
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Answer: A,D
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Explanation:
Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat
Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect. Windows Server
2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing.
QUESTION NO: 447
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a server that
is used for backup purposes. The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT)
to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system. Due to a substantial loss of data, Mark wants
to restore data from an older DAT tape. What will he need in order to accomplish the task?
A. A DLT tape drive and its driver

B. A DAT to DLT converter and its driver

C. A DAT driver
D. A DAT tape drive and its driver
Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to restore data from an old DAT tape, Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. Using
the DAT tape drive, the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. Digital Audio
Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. A DAT cartridge is a little larger
than a credit card in width and height. It can hold up to 24GB of data. The DAT tape can support
data transfer rates of about 2 MBps. DATs are sequential-access media. Answer option A is
incorrect. There is no need of a DLT tape drive, as it cannot read a DAT tape. Digital Linear Tape
(DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC. It is 0.5 inches wide and the
cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB. A DLT drive is faster than most
other types of tape drives. It has data transfer rates of up to 2.5 MBps. Answer option B is
incorrect. There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. Answer option C is incorrect. Mark
also needs a DAT tape drive. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task.
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QUESTION NO: 448
Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each
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correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Ctrl + Alt + Esc

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B. Ctrl + Alt + Shift

C. Del
D. Shift + Alt +Del
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Answer: A,C
Explanation:
You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of
system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). In CMOS, you can change the configuration of
your computer using a menu driven application. Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based
setup programs to change the CMOS settings. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary
Metal Oxide Semiconductor. It is a chip installed on the motherboard, which stores hardware
configuration of the computer. When the computer is booted, the hardware is checked according
to the CMOS configuration. If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration,
BIOS issues a warning. The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and
memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders, heads, and
sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the
time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). In CMOS, the computer configuration
can be changed using a menu driven application. If a user forgets the password for CMOS

configuration, he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. To remove the password
assigned, he will have to short the CMOS jumper. However, on some new motherboards, the user
can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds, instead of
shorting the CMOS jumper.
QUESTION NO: 449
Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose two.
A. Offline UPS
B. Line conditioner UPS
C. True-online UPS
D. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS
Answer: C,D
Explanation: om
Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby
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while the main power is within an acceptable range. If the main power varies outside the range,
the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and
other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. The time required
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to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6
milliseconds. Today most UPS are of the SPS type. The True-online UPS has continuous load on
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the battery. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a
load and the battery is always being charged. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over
time. The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. Answer options A and B are incorrect.
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Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS.
QUESTION NO: 450
Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing?
A. IEEE 1284
B. IEEE 1394
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer: A
Explanation:
To take advantage of bi-directional printing, you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant
printer cable, a bi-directional printer, and a correctly configured port. Typically, bi-directional cables
have the number 1284 printed on them. Answer option D is incorrect. A DB-9 connector is used by
the serial interface. It is a 9-pin, two rows, male connector, on the back of a PC used for
connecting mouse, modem, and other serial devices to the personal computer. It is also known as
serial port. Answer option C is incorrect. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial
communication ports, also known as COM ports, serial ports, or RS- 232 ports, and is used to
connect RS-232 compatible serial devices, such as modems and pointing devices to a computer.
Answer option B is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a
standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of
devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage
devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire.
QUESTION NO: 451
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI
RAID storage unit with a new Web server. Which of the following practices will keep the system
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working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on.
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B. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside
the cabinet.
C. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside
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the cabinet.
D. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up.
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Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
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The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID
subsystem when the server is turned on. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is
turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to
the server while it is powered up. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up
can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. Keeping the maximum
differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Answer
option B is incorrect. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection
outside the cabinet.
QUESTION NO: 452
How many devices, excluding the SCSI adapter, does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support?
A. 127

B. 15
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter. Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has
a 16-bit bus. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with
device numbers ranging from 0 to 7, including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices. What is
SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use
today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports
more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a
network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three
standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Small Computer System
Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]"
QUESTION NO: 453

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Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU?
A. Processor: %Processor Time

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B. Processor: %Privilege Time

C. System: System Calls/sec
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D. System: Processor Queue Length
Answer: D
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Explanation:
The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU. Answer
option A is incorrect. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much
time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy
servicing requests. Answer option C is incorrect. The System: System Calls/sec counter is a
measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services.
Answer option B is incorrect. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the
processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/cc768048.aspx"
QUESTION NO: 454
Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration. These
partitions use the FAT file system. You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the

dynamic RAID5 volumes. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort?
A. Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes.
B. Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes.
C. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set.
D. Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk.
Answer: D
Explanation:
On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk, the existing partitions on the basic disk become
simple volumes on the dynamic disk. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets), striped volumes
(stripe sets), RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity), or spanned volumes (volume sets) become
dynamic mirrored volumes, dynamic striped volumes, dynamic RAID5 volumes, or dynamic
spanned volumes, respectively. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such option to upgrade
stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such facility to
break stripe set with parity. Answer option C is incorrect. According to the question, you want to
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change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set.
What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended
partitions with logical drives. It can also contain spanned, mirrored, striped, and RAID-5 volumes
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created using Windows NT 4.0 or earlier. Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all
Windows-based operating systems. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that
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is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000. It can only contain volumes created
through Disk Management. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives. It cannot be
accessed by MS-DOS, Windows 95/98, and any version of Windows NT. Reference: TechNet
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Technical Information CD, Windows 2000 Server Manual, Article "Storing data"
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QUESTION NO: 455
Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack.
B. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack.
C. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of
equipment in the server rack.
D. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server
rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. Installing heavy equipment as near as

possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other
equipment on the upper side of the rack. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan
the location of hardware in the server rack. Answer option B is incorrect. Installing heavy
equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the
equipment. Moreover, placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of
the rack.
QUESTION NO: 456
Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency?
A. It is a system of adding redundant data, or parity data, to a message, such that it can be
recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being
used) were introduced, either during the process of transmission, or on storage.
B. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to
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access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module, and the moment the data from the
given array location is available on the module's output pins.
C. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins.
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D. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from
low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components, via the technique of arranging the
devices into arrays for redundancy.
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Answer: B
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Explanation:
Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller
tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module, and
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the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. In
general, the lower the CAS latency, the better. Answer option A is incorrect. An ECC (error-
correcting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data, or
parity data, to a message, such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of
errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced, either during the process of
transmission, or on storage. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission
of the data, a back-channel is not required in forward error correction, and it is therefore suitable
for simplex communication such as broadcasting. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in
lower-layer communication, as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs, DVDs, hard
disks, and RAM. Answer option D is incorrect. RAID is described as a redundant array of
inexpensive disks. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage
reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components, via the technique of
arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. RAID is now used as an umbrella term for
computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk
drives. The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number,

as in RAID 0, RAID 1, etc. Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data
reliability or increased input/output performance. When multiple physical disks are set up to use
RAID technology, they are said to be in a RAID array. This array distributes data across multiple
disks, but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. RAID
can be set up to serve several different purposes. Answer option C is incorrect. Dual In-line
Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. A DIMM
slot is larger than a SIMM slot. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. 184-pin DIMMs
are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon
systems. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100, PC2700, PC3200 and PC3500 and faster. The
number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary, but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a
total of 184. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.375" long and 1.375" high, and the heights may vary. DIMMs
have a small notch on the bottom of the module. Reference:
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CAS_latency"
QUESTION NO: 457
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Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address?
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A. FTP
B. ARP
C. SNMP
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D. SMTP
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol
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suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses
of a network interface card (NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a
MAC address and its corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this
correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. ARP is limited to physical network
systems that support broadcast packets. Answer option C is incorrect. Simple Network
Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to
manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how
the object is behaving. Answer option A is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary
TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network.
Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-
mail messages between servers over the Internet. Reference: MSDN, Contents: "Test IP-address-
to-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP", "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems"

QUESTION NO: 458
How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: A
Explanation:
An IDE channel can support two devices, first as a Master and second as a Slave. You can
configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers. You can connect devices such as hard disk
drive, CD-ROM drive, etc. to an IDE channel. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master,
Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by
jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. If two drives are attached to one channel,
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one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller
are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work. Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. An
IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Performance
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Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4.0"
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QUESTION NO: 459
Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete
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A. CD drive
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B. Tape drive
C. Sound card
D. Hard disk drive
E. Modem
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive, tape drive, and hard disk drive. What
is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in
use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and
supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better
suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI
has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Storage
Management Operations Guide"

QUESTION NO: 460
Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP
echo request and ICMP echo reply?
A. NETSTAT
B. TRACERT
C. PING
D. IPCONFIG
Answer: C
Explanation:
PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly. What is the ping
utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based
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network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On
receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be
used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option A is incorrect.
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The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP
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the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the
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current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a
networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain
Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever
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they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option B is incorrect.
TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the
destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each
gateway along the route to the remote host. References: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - TCP/IP
Troubleshooting"
QUESTION NO: 461
Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below?

A. NETSTAT
B. PING
C. NBTSTAT
D. TRACERT
Answer: D
Explanation:
gateway along the route to the remote host. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum
30) away the target device is.
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TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at. This helps administrators to isolate
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the problem there. Answer option C is incorrect. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the
state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and
determine the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option A is incorrect. The netstat
command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is
used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data,
as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat
command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.
Answer option B is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host
on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified
destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies.
These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - TCP/IP Troubleshooting"

QUESTION NO: 462
Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a
A. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives.

B. It does not provide fault tolerance.
C. It provides fault tolerance.
D. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks.
Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB.
The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. Since, in a striped volume, a large
amount of data is divided into identical portions, it is faster to read or write the data from a striped
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volume than from a spanned volume. Striped volumes are not fault tolerant. RAID-0 volumes are
also referred to as striped volumes. Answer options A and C are incorrect. RAID-5 uses a
minimum of three hard disk drives. It also provides fault tolerance. What is RAID-5 volume? A
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RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or
more physical disks. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk
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QUESTION NO: 463
Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4.0
implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 2
D. RAID 4
E. RAID 5
F. RAID 0
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity), are the two RAID
levels which support fault tolerance. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does
not support fault tolerance.
QUESTION NO: 464
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000
domain-based network. One morning, users report that the network has become quite slow. Files
on the remote computers are taking a long time to open. Mark examines the network and suspects
that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. Which of the
following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card?
A. Ampere meter
B. Time Domain Reflectometer
C. LAN analyzer
D. Voltmeter
Answer: C
Explanation: om
In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network, Mark will have to use a LAN
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analyzer.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a
network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem. This device is also
known as packet sniffer. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to
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troubleshoot the problems. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub. It
reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a human-
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readable format. LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis.
Answer option B is incorrect. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in
cabling. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the
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cable. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it
measures and determines the distance of the fault. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI
model. Answer option A is incorrect. Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of
an electrical current in amperes. Answer option D is incorrect. Voltmeter is an instrument for
measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit.
QUESTION NO: 465
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company's network has a database
server. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk
array. The server's performance is decreasing day by day. The server is also responding slowly to
database queries. You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high.
What will you do to improve the server's performance?

A. Reboot the server.
B. Add one more microprocessor.
C. Add more RAM.
D. Change the network card with a high speed card.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem, as the Pages/sec value is quite high. The
Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. However, in the question, the value is 35. This
suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. Adding more RAM to the server
will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. Answer option D is
incorrect. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the
server's memory. Therefore, there is no need to change the network card. Answer option B is
incorrect. The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard.
Therefore, another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard. Answer option A is
incorrect. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task. The problem is due to
shortage of RAM.
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QUESTION NO: 466
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Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server. An existing equipment rack in
the server room has only 11.5 inches space available. Which of the following is the maximum size
of the server that can be installed into the rack?
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A. 7U
B. 9U
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C. 4U
D. 6U
Answer: D
Explanation:
A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in
a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack. One rack unit is 1.75 inches ( 44.45 mm ) high. A rack unit is also
known as U. Hence, a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1.75"; 2U is 3.5"; 3U is 5.25" and
so on. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310.
According to the scenario, 11.5 inches space is available in existing rack. Hence, the maximum
size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i.e. 6 x1.75 = 10.5). Answer options A and
B are incorrect. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing
rack. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rack_unit"

QUESTION NO: 467
Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide,
offering a variety of products and financial services. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for
networking and NTFS partition on their disks. One of the users complains that his Windows 2000
Server is not starting. You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted
system files is preventing the computer from starting. Which tool will you use to resolve this
problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Network Monitor
B. Safe Mode boot
C. Recovery Console
D. Performance Monitor
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
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Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem
on the operating system files. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a
computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as
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system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the
Administrator to resolve such issues. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000
operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system, Recovery Console is used by the
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Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems
without installing a second copy of the operating system. What is Network Monitor? Network
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Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Network Monitor
can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different
attributes. Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. Monitoring bandwidth based on
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percentage of the network used. Monitoring errors, which can be a possible consequence of an
overloaded network. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical
information about the hardware and software components of a server. Performance Monitor is
used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log data pertaining to objects on
multiple computers, over time. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Launch
programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Export data for analysis in
spreadsheet or database applications. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Create
reports for use in analyzing performance, over time. Note: The Log view of the Performance
Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. The Alert, View, and Chart views are
real time views that show the current data or alert messages. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD
Chapter 17 - File Systems
QUESTION NO: 468

Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a
A. SRAM is used for cache memory.

B. SRAM is faster than DRAM.
C. SRAM is used for main memory.
D. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the
random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does
not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is
being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. What is the function
of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for
computers and workstations. It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new
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electronic charge every few milliseconds. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - Capacity
Planning"
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QUESTION NO: 469
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Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
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A. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room.

B. Install a firewall on the server.
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C. Put a lock on the door of the server room.

D. Lock the server on the server chassis.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the
door of the server room. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Answer
options D and B are incorrect. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the
server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room. What is a
firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from
coming in or going out of a specified network or computer. It is used to separate an internal
network from the Internet. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet, and
provides centralized access control on how users should use the network. A firewall can also
perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. Direct the incoming traffic to more
trustworthy internal computers. Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet. Log

traffic to and from the private network. Hide information, such as computer names, network
topology, network device types, and internal user IDs from external users.
QUESTION NO: 470
In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete
A. 8 = lowest
B. 7 = lowest
C. 1 = highest
D. 7 = highest
E. 8 = highest F:1 = lowest
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
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SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. SCSI IDs
determine device priority on a SCSI bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0
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to 7, while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15. Higher ID numbers have
higher priority. SCSI IDs are split into two groups, with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15.
Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7,
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6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 15, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, 8. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus
can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a
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device gets access to the bus. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the
second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)
interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk
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drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access
shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
QUESTION NO: 471
Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor?
A. Level 3
B. Level 4
C. Level 2
D. Level 1
Answer: D
Explanation:

Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor. Cache memory is used to store
frequently used information, so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay.
Answer option C is incorrect. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache.
Answer options B and A are incorrect. There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and
level 4. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 3 - Capacity Planning"
QUESTION NO: 472
Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer
A. A new application is installed on the server.

B. Hiring more employees
C. Adding more RAM to the server
D. A network device has failed due to power surge.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
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Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more
employees A new application is installed on the server. Baseline is a document that contains
performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a
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device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. This document is very
helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps
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administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer option D is incorrect. The failure
of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline. What is
surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a
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few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and
refrigerators can cause a surge.
QUESTION NO: 473
Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery?
A. Ohm
B. Volt Ampere
C. Hertz
D. Ampere hours
Answer: D
Explanation:

A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into
electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. The ampere hours (AH) is the
unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of
current for one hour, it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. Answer option A is incorrect. Ohm is
the standard unit of electrical resistance. Answer option B is incorrect. Volt Ampere (VA) is a
measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. Answer option C is incorrect.
Hertz is a unit of frequency. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery.
QUESTION NO: 474
Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan?
A. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility.
B. Ensure that the plan works properly
C. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down.
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D. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down.
Answer: A,B
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Explanation:
The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. Ensure
that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. Ensure that the
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plan works properly. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process, policies, and
procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to
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an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. Disaster recovery planning is a subset

of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for
resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking) and other IT
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infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such
as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication and reputation protection, and should refer to the
disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity. Answer options C
and D are incorrect. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster
recovery plan.
QUESTION NO: 475
Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade?
A. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer.

B. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard.
C. When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB.
D. When replacing the monitor.

Answer: C
Explanation:
An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. In this situation, an
upgrade of BIOS is required. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that
manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's
hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary
Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard. Answer options B, A, and D are
incorrect. These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS.
QUESTION NO: 476
Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on
his computer. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed. Andrew does not want
to replace the existing tape drive. He asks the technician about compatibility issues. What will be
the technician's answer?
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A. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed.
B. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended
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speed.
C. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed.
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D. The new configuration will not work.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will
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operate at Ultra speed. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast
SCSI tape drives. Answer options B and A are incorrect. For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2
SCSI speed, it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller. Since
the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device, it will operate only at Ultra speed. What is SCSI?
Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today
after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more
devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network
standards. SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
QUESTION NO: 477
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He runs a performance test on one of the
servers of the network and finds the following statistics. CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk
Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following

objects has a bottleneck?
A. Network subsystem
B. Disk
C. Processor
D. Memory
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the
Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the
memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter
indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to
disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec
counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk
utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a
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bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a
bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a
bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option
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A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C
is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates
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that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

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QUESTION NO: 478
What does zero wait-states indicate?

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A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory.

B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory.
C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor.
D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory.
When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait
state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait
states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache
Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

QUESTION NO: 479
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers
with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the
computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully.
What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose two.
A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them.
B. Re-install the operating system on the computer.
C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port.
D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify
faulty hardware.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
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In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace add-
on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing
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and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the
faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace
them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network
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adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing
operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is
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installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is
some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed.
Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.
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QUESTION NO: 480
Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a
A. Preferred DNS server address

B. Internet connection sharing
C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway
D. Network address translation
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet
mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option
B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection
sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems,
ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to
connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect.
Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or
more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It
allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies
the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the
source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it
translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"
QUESTION NO: 481
What is the full form of ESD?
A. Extended System database

B. Electrostatic Discharge
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C. Electrostatic Disk
D. Enhance System drive
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk
across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs
when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that
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charge.
QUESTION NO: 482
Which type of memory chip has 168 pins?
A. SIMM
B. DIP
C. DMA
D. DIMM
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM)

QUESTION NO: 483 om

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Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer
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A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length.
B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues.
C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables.
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D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping.
Answer: B,C,D
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Explanation:
SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA
cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The
Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass
storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling
advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost,
faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the
older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and
hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance.
Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage
devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and
least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40-
conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable
appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new
cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors
are all ground lines, placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk
between conductors. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. Parallel ATA
(PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serial_ATA"
QUESTION NO: 484
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has Windows
2000 and Unix servers. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote
Windows 2000 server. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000?
A. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories, and click Terminal.

B. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools, and click TELNET.
C. Type TELNET on the command prompt.
D. Type TEL on the Run dialog box.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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In order to run the TELNET client, Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt.
TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host
running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer,
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offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET
utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server
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software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.

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QUESTION NO: 485
Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration. These partitions
use FAT file system. As an Administrator, you want to extend the existing striped volumes since
the amount of existing data is large. But you are unable to do it. What is the most likely cause?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32.

B. Striped, mirrored, and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended.
C. You are not logged on as an Account Operator.
D. The new disk has no file system.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. A volume can be extended only if
it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. Striped, mirrored, and RAID5 volumes
cannot be extended. You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the
Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. What is file system? In an operating system,
file system is the overall structure in which files are named, stored, and organized. FAT, FAT32,
and NTFS are the different types of file systems. What is NTFS? Reference. TechNet, Contents.
"Storing data"
QUESTION NO: 486
Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data
center?
A. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

B. FM-200
C. Halon
D. Water (H2O)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
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Halon, carbon dioxide (CO2), and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data
center. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center.
What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane. It is an effective
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gaseous fire suppression agent. It is used around valuable materials, such as aircraft, mainframe
computers, and telecommunication switching centers, and data centers. Halon 1301 is dangerous
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for environment and health. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to
Halon 1301, and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes. Before
the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known, many industrial chillers used it as
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an efficient refrigerant gas. Currently, use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. What is
FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless, odorless, gaseous halocarbon. It is chemically known as
heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent. It can be used as a
fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment, production equipment, libraries, and
data centers. Answer option D is incorrect. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data
center is harmful for the equipments. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/FM-200"
QUESTION NO: 487
Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a
SCSI controller. Where will you place the terminators?
A. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive.
B. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive.

C. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller.
D. Place one terminator at the end of each drive.
E. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you have two SCSI devices, internal and external, you should place one terminator at the end of
each drive. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. What is SCSI? Small
Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after
the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more
devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network
standards. SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
QUESTION NO: 488

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Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer
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A. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-
analog converter on a video card.
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B. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory.
C. It allows faster access to BIOS information.
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D. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks.
Answer: B,D
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Explanation:
Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance. It works by dividing the
system memory into multiple blocks. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to
more than one block of memory. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory
improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from
memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck.
Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost.
It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of
information in lesser time. Answer option C is incorrect. Shadow RAM allows faster access to
BIOS information. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access
to startup information. When you configure shadow RAM, a copy of Basic Input/Output System
(BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster
access to BIOS information. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60- 100 nanosecond
range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Many BIOSes allow RAM
shadowing to be disabled. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended

memory for use by other programs. But, it should be done only as the last resort because
disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Answer option A is incorrect.
Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the
random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does
not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is
being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM.
QUESTION NO: 489
Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup?
A. AUTOEXEC.BAT
B. ROM BIOS
C. BOOT.INI
D. Hard disk
Answer: B
Explanation:
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When you start a computer, the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer. Basic
Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware, and allows the operating
system to communicate with the various components of the computer. The BIOS software is
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stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard, also known as the Complementary
Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. The first
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instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk, BOOT.INI, or
AUTOEXEC.BAT file. What is BOOT.INI file? BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot
partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI
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contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating
systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system.
Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 5 - Setup Technical Discussion"
QUESTION NO: 490
What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a
server?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1

Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks. It provides fault
tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. The key difference from RAID 1+0
is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. The array continues
to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set, but if the drives fail on both sides
of the mirror, the data on the RAID system is lost. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID-0 and RAID-
1 require a minimum of two disks. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of
Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault- tolerant disk systems by using disk
mirroring. In mirroring, data is kept on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another
volume on a different disk. If a disk fails, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected
disk. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. The
mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. This type of disk system provides best
fault tolerance, but lower writing performance. What is RAID-0? RAID-0, also known as disk
striping, is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each
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disk. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a
single disk, but to a set of disks. It does not provide data redundancy. Data once lost cannot be
recovered. Answer option C is incorrect. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks. What is RAID-
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5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It contains a minimum of three disks. In this disk system,
data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. When a file is written to a RAID-5
volume, the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The final disk contains the
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parity information. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning, in case
a disk in the set fails. Due to data redundancy, RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. Reference.
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"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RAID"
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QUESTION NO: 491
You work as a Network Administrator. Just before noon, a remote access server is disconnected
from the network. You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem. Re-installed the
network interface card driver. Re-installed TCP/IP protocol. Pinging the remote access server
resulted in proper response. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next
step to resolve this problem?
A. Purchase a new server

B. Validate physical link integrity
C. Re-install operating system
D. Check the server's subnet mask
Answer: B
Explanation:

To resolve this problem, validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is
no problem with the operating system. The only problem is that the remote access server is
disconnected from the network. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP
address, and re-installed the network interface card driver. The subnet mask cannot change
automatically, so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. So the broken physical link
or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from
the network.
QUESTION NO: 492
You purchase a new computer. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk, you install the
Windows 95 operating system. Now, when you restart the computer, you receive the following
message. "NO ROM BASIC, SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts. What is the most likely
cause?
A. Windows 95 is not installed properly.

B. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty.
C. The display card is faulty.
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D. The hard disk has no active partition.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
This message "NO ROM BASIC, SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active
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partition. You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard
disk. To select an active partition, choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's
main menu. Answer option B is incorrect. If the computer has faulty RAM, it will hang up the
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computer frequently, and display a blue screen. Answer option C is incorrect. If the display card
has a problem, nothing will appear on the screen. Reference. TechNet, Contents. Err Msg When
Booting System. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365]
Mark the ST connector in the image given below.

Answer:
Explanation:
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The image displays the following connectors. ST. A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic
connector used with multimode fiber. An ST connector has a 2.5mm shaft and bayonet locking
ring, and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber.
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QUESTION NO: 494
Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6.5 server. He wants to shut down the server
immediately without being prompted. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. DOWN -f
B. SHUTDOWN -p
C. RESTART SERVER -ns
D. RESTART SERVER -na
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. Answer option B
is incorrect. There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. Answer option C is incorrect. The
RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup.ncf file.
Answer option D is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server
without using the autoexec.ncf file.
QUESTION NO: 495
Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval?
A. DHCP server
B. Proxy server
C. DNS server
D. Index server
Answer: B
Explanation:
A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval. A proxy server exists between a client's
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Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance
the performance of user requests and filter requests. A proxy server has a database called cache
where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. The next time such pages are
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requested, the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally, thereby greatly reducing the
access time. Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the
request to a real Internet server. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests. This
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may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites. Answer option D is
incorrect. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites.
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Once installed, it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from
any Web browser with the sample query forms. Indexing maps words to Web pages, and to
locations within Web pages. The index process occurs behind the scene, requiring no user input
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and minimizing demand on system resources. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area
Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers. Answer option A is
incorrect. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network.
Answer option C is incorrect. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System
(DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings,
information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client
queries. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proxy_server"
QUESTION NO: 496
Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory?
A. Cache memory
B. Virtual memory

C. RAM
D. ROM
Answer: A
Explanation:
The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. It is also known as level 1 cache.
Cache memory is used to store frequently used information, so that the processor can access this
information without delay. Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. Answer options
C and D are incorrect. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM)
are not used for internal memory. Answer option B is incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary
storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. When the physical memory (RAM)
is exhausted, operating systems (such as Windows 95/98, NT, and 2000) move the data
corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk.
Hence, space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. Virtual memory is simulated RAM
created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Although this extends the computer's
capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient, it slows down the processes
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and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk.
Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 3 - Capacity Planning"
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QUESTION NO: 497

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Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory?

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A. 5xx
B. 6xx
C. 2xx
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D. 3xx
Answer: C
Explanation:
Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. Answer option B is incorrect.
Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive. Answer option A is
incorrect. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video.
Answer option D is incorrect. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to
keyboard. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "IBM PC, XT, AT, and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]"
QUESTION NO: 498
Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service?

A. System log
B. Performance baseline
C. Users list
D. Application backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to
be accessed by the users. It helps administrators measure server performance. Baseline is a
document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.
Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network.
This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the
baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer options D, A,
and C are incorrect. There is no need to create an application backup, a system log, and a users
list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. The system log is used to
store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. For example, events
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such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. The event types logged by
system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system.
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QUESTION NO: 499

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Andrew works as a computer technician. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. He
inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer. He finds
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that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. What can be the likely causes for this? Each
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A. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty.

B. There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive.
C. The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition.
D. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons.
If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty, it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. This will
prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. The floppy disk drive should be
cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. If boot sequence in the BIOS
is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first, the computer will not read the operating
system file through the floppy disk drive. This will prevent the computer from booting through the
floppy disk. Answer option B is incorrect. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot
prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. Answer option C is incorrect. The active

partition has nothing to do with this issue.
QUESTION NO: 500
Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking
computer?
A. Hacking
B. Spoofing
C. PING attack
D. SYN attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source
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by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet
headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used
while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the
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responses to be misdirected. Answer option D is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers
running on TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol- level attack that can render a computer's network
services unavailable. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer option C is incorrect.
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When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer, it is known as a
PING attack. Answer option A is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal
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access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer
or network. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Security Threats"
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QUESTION NO: 501
Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct
A. It provides centralized administration.

B. In this model, all the computers act as both clients and servers.
C. It provides user-level security.
D. It does not support centralized administration.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A peer-to-peer network model, also known as workgroup model, provides a way to connect a
small group of computers, so that users can share printing resources and files. In this model, all
the computers act as both clients and servers. This model does not support centralized
administration or provide user-level security. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup. Answer
options C and A are incorrect. The domain-based network model provides centralized
administration and user-level security.
QUESTION NO: 502
You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You plan a backup policy for the network
dat a. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data. Which of the following can
you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer
A. Full and incremental backup

B. Full and decremental backup
C. Full and differential backup
D. Daily full backup
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
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You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan. The full backup backs
up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. It needs only
one tape to restore data. The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or
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are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all
intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. The differential backup is the
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fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive, as
compared to full backup or incremental backup. The differential backup backs up only those files
that have been created, or have changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full
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backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Answer option B is incorrect.
There is no backup method such as decremental backup. Reference. TechNet, Contents.
Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups [Q136621]
QUESTION NO: 503
Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system. While working on multiple applications, one of the
applications hangs. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager.
Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer
A. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager.

B. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager.
C. Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager.

D. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are. By pressing
CTRL + SHIFT + ESC, and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager.
You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager. The
Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel. Pressing
CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager, and therefore, it is not the correct
answer option.
QUESTION NO: 504
Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each
A. Direct Memory Access (DMA)

B. Programmed Input/Output (PIO)
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C. Extended DMA
D. Ultra DMA
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Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
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The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are. Programmed Input/Output
(PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0,1 and 2 are
supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA, ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards.
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Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist.
QUESTION NO: 505
Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct
A. Disk Manager
B. Performance console
C. Network Optimizer
D. Task Manager
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000. What
is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. It is used for an
immediate overview of system activity and performance. What is Performance console?
Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. It provides detailed
information about system's performance. This information can be used for troubleshooting and
analysis of bottlenecks. Reference. Microsoft TechNet CD, Chapter 27 - Overview of Performance
Monitoring
QUESTION NO: 506
Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI?
A. 80 MBps
B. 5 MBps
C. 160 MBps
D. 4 MBps om
Answer: A
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Explanation:
The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps. Answer option B is incorrect.
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Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps. Answer option C is incorrect.
Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps. Answer option D is incorrect.
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Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps.

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QUESTION NO: 507
Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct
A. Microsoft SQL Server files

B. System state data
C. System boot files
D. Application files
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility.
Following are the files included in the System State data. Boot files, including the system files and
all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only)
SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster
database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration
information Component Services Class registration database
QUESTION NO: 508
James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows NT
based network consisting of four Windows NT servers. One of the servers named Server1 is
configured for a daily full backup at 5.00PM. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for
Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. He also wants to minimize the number
of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. Which of the following backup strategies will he
implement to accomplish this task?
A. He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays.
B. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend.
C. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend.
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D. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data.
In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or
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damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full backup backs up all
selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore
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data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last
incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for
incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the
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hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been
created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last
differential backup tape to restore data. To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up, James
should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). On weekdays, a differential
backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. In case of server failure, James has to
restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. Answer options B and C are
incorrect. A full backup takes maximum time and space. Performing full backup on weekdays will
not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. Answer option D is incorrect. In case of server
failure, James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the
last full backup. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. Reference. TechNet,
Contents. "Windows Product Family", "Windows NT", "Windows NT Server", "Manuals", "Concepts
and Planning Manual" Chapter. "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. "Types of
Backup"

QUESTION NO: 509
What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed?
A. It checks the processor's internal cache.

B. It reads a device driver for the card.
C. It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation.
D. It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then
configures the new device.
Answer: D
Explanation:
At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first
determines the available system resources and then configures the new device. What is Plug and
Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support, which
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enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user
intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system, Basic
Input/Output System (BIOS), devices, and device drivers. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output
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System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to
communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM
chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.
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Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Guided Tour for Administrators"

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QUESTION NO: 510

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You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. Which settings are
important on the IDE drives?
A. Place a terminator on the IDE controller.

B. Configure hardware ID
C. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive.
D. Master and Slave jumper settings
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller, you have to set one drive as the
Master and the other as the Slave. If you have two IDE drives in your system, and both are set as
Master , or both are set as Slave , none of them will work. Each IDE drive must support the
Master, Slave, and Cable Select settings. The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by
jumper, a set of pins on the hard disk drive. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE
controller, you should install it with the Master setting.
QUESTION NO: 511
Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection
that uses the L2TP protocol?
A. IPSec
B. TFTP
C. PPP
D. PPPoE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of
VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN
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connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used
with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). Answer option D is incorrect. Point to Point
Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through
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Ethernet network adapters. It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common
broadband medium, such as a single DSL line or cable modem. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516.
Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly
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used to connect to the Internet. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to
connect to a variety of networks. It can connect to a network running on IPX, TCP/IP, or NetBEUI
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protocol. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. Answer option B is incorrect.
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol, with the functionality of a very basic
form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of
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memory. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage
devices. It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network, such as IP
phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any
other thin client boots from a network host or server. The initial stages of some network based
installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart, Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote
Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation. TFTP
uses UDP port 69 for communication.
QUESTION NO: 512
How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port?
A. 8
B. 127

C. 256
D. 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB
rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference. "Upgrading and
Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents. "Chapter 13 - I/O Interfaces from
Serial and Parallel to IEEE- 1394 and USB", "USB Technical Details"
QUESTION NO: 513 om

Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor?
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A. Socket 8
B. SEC
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C. Slot A
D. Socket 7
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). A single edge connector (SEC), also
known as Slot 1, is similar to an expansion card. Answer option C is incorrect. AMD Athlon
processors use Slot
A. Answer option A is incorrect. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Answer option D is
incorrect. Pentium processors use Socket 7.
QUESTION NO: 514
How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16

D. 128
Answer: B
Explanation:
Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. The Intel 486
series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-
bit data bus. The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus.
QUESTION NO: 515
Which of the following statements about I/O address is true?
A. An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory
location.
B. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.
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C. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU.
D. An I/O address is an event, which requires processor's attention.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory
address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O
address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the
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CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O
addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a
PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O
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address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured.
QUESTION NO: 516
Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity. It provides fault tolerance from two
drive failures. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives. This makes
larger RAID groups more practical, especially for high availability systems. RAID 6 becomes
increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the
failure of a single drive. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is
rebuilt. The larger the drive, the longer the rebuild will take. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the
array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete.
Answer options D and A are incorrect. These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two
failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It contains a minimum of three
disks. In this disk system, data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. When a file
is written to a RAID-5 volume, the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The
final disk contains the parity information. This parity information allows the disks in the array to
keep functioning, in case a disk in the set fails. Due to data redundancy, RAID-5 provides fault
tolerance. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for
standardizing and categorizing fault- tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. In mirroring,
data is kept on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different
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disk. If a disk fails, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. The data writing
operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. The mirror disk has
identical data image of the primary disk. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance, but
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lower writing performance. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance.
What is RAID-0? RAID-0, also known as disk striping, is made up of a disk set in which data is
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divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. It provides best performance because data
read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk, but to a set of disks. It does not
provide data redundancy. Data once lost cannot be recovered. Reference.
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"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RAID"
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QUESTION NO: 517
Which of the following statements is true about a brownout?
A. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges.
B. It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source.
C. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply.
D. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. The overloading of a primary power
source can cause brownouts. Answer option A is incorrect. The surge protector is a device used to
smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are
present in commercial power sources. Answer option B is incorrect. Sag is a brief decrease in

voltage at the power source. Answer option D is incorrect. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS)
continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. What is UPS? Uninterruptible
power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in
case of power failure or low voltage, using battery backup. It also provides protection against
power surges. When power surge occurs, only the UPS charging circuit is affected, while the
computer gets normal power.
QUESTION NO: 518
with a Novell Netware operating system. Users on the network report that the file server responds
very slowly. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue?
A. NSSMU
B. DOWN -f
C. RESTART SERVER -na
D. MONITOR om
Answer: D
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Explanation:
In order to diagnose the issue, Mark can use the MONITOR tool. The MONITOR tool is used to
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view the operational status of the server memory and disks. Using this information, the problem
can be diagnosed. By typing MONITOR at the server console, the administrator can view the
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operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files.
Answer option B is incorrect. The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without
prompting the user. Answer option A is incorrect. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility
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(NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server. NSSMU is the
interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation. Answer
option C is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without
using the autoexec.ncf file.
QUESTION NO: 519
Which of the following is an error detection technique, consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed
on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems?
A. DARPA
B. FTP
C. EDI
D. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC)

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link
level and used for detecting errors. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of
data for transmission, it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. When the
receiving modem gets the data block, it goes through the same calculation. If there is a
transmission error, the second CRC value will not equal the original one, and the receiving modem
transmits a negative acknowledgment. The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. If
these two CRCs match, the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. Answer option
B is incorrect. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. The application protocol offers file service in
the Internet suite of protocols. Answer option C is incorrect. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI), is
computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon
formats and networks. Answer option A is incorrect. DARPA stands for Defense Advanced
Research Projects Agency. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices.
DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA), when ARPANET
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was built. Reference. TechNet, Contents. A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication
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QUESTION NO: 520
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that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. One of the hard disks fails in
the array. What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly?
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A. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive, and then replace the
failed disk from the array.
B. Replace all the disks of the array, recreate a RAID-5 array, and then copy data from the
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backup.
C. Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually, and then add this disk to the RAID5
array.
D. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives, Mark will have to
ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive, and then replace the
failed disk from the array. A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or
manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID
configuration. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. When a disk
fails, the hot spare disk is switched into operation. The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to
repair a RAID redundancy group, thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the
attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk, such as RAID-1, RAID-5,
RAID-10. Answer option B is incorrect. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array, as all
but one are working properly. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. Answer option D is
incorrect. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect.
This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array.
QUESTION NO: 521
Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network?
A. PING
B. Protocol Analyzer
C. TRACERT
D. IPCONFIG
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and
diagnose network related issues such as, slow performance etc. Answer option C is incorrect.
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gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer option A is incorrect. The ping command-line
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utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by
sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the
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destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether
or not the network is working properly. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line
utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default
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gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt
whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Reference.
TechNet, Contents. "SMTP. Err Msg. Read. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset
[Q100706]"
QUESTION NO: 522
Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive, or remove and replace a
failed disk drive, without shutting down the system?
A. Full duplex
B. Hot swap
C. ReadyBoost

D. Plug and play
Answer: B
Explanation:
The hot swap technology is used to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device,
without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. Using this technology, a
device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains
in operation. Answer option D is incorrect. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware
and software support, which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration
changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the
operating system, Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), devices, and device drivers. Answer option
A is incorrect. Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and
receive data simultaneously. Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and
network cards. Answer option C is incorrect. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista, which
helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck.
QUESTION NO: 523

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You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You are developing a backup policy for the
company and want to accomplish the following goals. The number of tapes required to back up
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data should be minimized. The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized.
Which of the following backup policies will you choose?
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A. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday
B. A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily
C. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday
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D. A differential backup every night
Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data, you should perform a full
backup every Friday. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the
number of tapes required to restore data. This is because in the event of data loss, you will have
to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. What is differential backup?
Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. It requires
minimum space to backup data. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the
last differential backup tape to restore data. It is faster as compared to full backup.
QUESTION NO: 524

Which of the following supports soft power on switch?
A. I/O
B. ATX
C. AT
D. DIN
Answer: B
Explanation:
ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch. ATX motherboards have had
several modifications on the electrical side. These changes were made to improve efficiency and
safety. An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector. The 20-pin plug can only plug
in one way, which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake. An ATX motherboard has
a logic switch, which controls the power supply. Answer option C is incorrect. AT motherboards
are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch. Answer options D and A are
incorrect. I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards. I/O stands for Input/Output; DIN is a type of
connector.
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QUESTION NO: 525
Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc. He creates an XML Web service, named
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WebService1, using Visual Studio .NET. WebService1 uses the .NET Framework security class
libraries to implement security. It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server
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database containing user names. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code.
using System.Security.Principal; using System.Threading; Sam wants to ensure that only
validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords
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in TextBox controls, named Text1 and Text2. He wants to implement imperative security check on
WebService1. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the
Subordinate role by default. Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. WindowsIdentity
B. WindowsPrincipal
C. GenericIdentity
D. GenericPrincipal
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal. The GenericIdentity class represents a
generic identity. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with
each other to create an authorization scheme. These two classes can be used to prompt users for

their user names and passwords, to check these values against a database, and to create
principal and identity objects. Answer option B is incorrect. WindowsPrincipal is a class of the
.NET Framework class library, which is used to check the Windows group membership of a
Windows user. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group.
Answer option A is incorrect. The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user. It cannot be
used to check the group membership of a user. What is imperative security check? Imperative
security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being
protected. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. It can be isolated
within an object or method. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of
permissions, required in a given execution context. It is used when security decisions are to be
taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime. What is declarative security check?
Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in
metadata. It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code.
These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request, and can be placed at the
assembly, class, or member level. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke
specified security functionality. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime. It is used
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when the requested action and permission attributes are static. Declarative security check
provides optimized runtime execution of the application, as it checks the declarative information in
the metadata. Reference. Visual Studio .NET Combined Collection, Contents. "WindowsIdentity
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Class", "WindowsPrincipal Class", "GenericIdentity Class", "GenericPrincipal Class"
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QUESTION NO: 526

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You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. The company's offices are in
different buildings within a local premise. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect
the offices. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use?
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A. 200 meters
B. 1000 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 2000 meters
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet. These are the most widely used networks
now-a-days. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable. The
number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using
category 5 UTP cable. The topology used in these networks is star. The maximum cable segment
length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters . The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications.
Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. 5)

QUESTION NO: 527
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company's network has a file server
with the following configuration. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC
Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server. What
will be the first step you will take to improve performance?
A. Add more RAM.

B. Add a tape drive.
C. Add an additional NIC.
D. Add an additional processor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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As the first step, you should add an additional processor on the database server. In a database
server, processors are used extensively for data processing. Therefore, having a single processor
can be a bottleneck. Answer option A is incorrect. The server has 1GB RAM, which is sufficient for
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a database server. Hence, there is no need to add more RAM. Answer option C is incorrect. There
is no need to add an additional NIC on the server, as a database server generates less traffic on
the network as compared to a file server. Answer option B is incorrect. Adding a tape drive will not
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provide better performance. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card
(NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. It provides physical connection
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between a computer and the network. Network interface cards provide a dedicated, full-time
connection to a network.
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QUESTION NO: 528
Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each
A. Install and use a tape backup unit

B. Use data encryption
C. Install UPS systems on all important devices
D. Install a RAID system
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a
server contains a redundant data set. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration
of data if either of the following occur. A disk or its access path fails. A sector on the disk cannot
be read. A tape backup can help by giving back the data, which was backed up on the tape,
earlier. Reference. TechNet, Contents. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration.
QUESTION NO: 529
Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing
backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Sequential
B. Differential
C. Full
D. Incremental
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
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Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup.
Windows maintains a marker, for each file, called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark
the files after backing them up. When a file changes later, Windows marks the file as requiring to
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be backed up again. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up
and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be
used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full
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backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only
one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are
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new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all
intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy
takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only
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those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full
Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up, i.e., it does not set the archive
bit. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no backup method such as sequential backup.
Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups
[Q136621]"
QUESTION NO: 530
Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing
backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Sequential
B. Differential

C. Full
D. Incremental
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup.
Windows maintains a marker, for each file, called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark
the files after backing them up. When a file changes later, Windows marks the file as requiring to
be backed up again. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up
and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be
used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full
backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only
one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are
new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all
intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy
takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only
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those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full
Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up, i.e., it does not set the archive
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bit. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no backup method such as sequential backup.
Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Description of Full, Incremental, and Differential Backups
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[Q136621]"
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QUESTION NO: 531
You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3.51 to Windows NT
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Workstation 4.0. Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor. How will you proceed?
A. You must run CONVERT.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS.

B. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4.0.
C. You must run CONVERT.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS.
D. You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4.0 are. 12MB RAM VGA
level video support Keyboard IDE, EIDE, SCSI, or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CD-
ROM drive, floppy disk drive, or active network connection Reference. TechNet, Contents.
"Hardware requirement" + "Workstation", "Windows NT 4.0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide"

QUESTION NO: 532
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company's network has a file server. The
server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard. After three months, the
performance of the server has deteriorated. The server responds slowly while users try to open
their files. What will you do to improve the server's performance?
A. Increase the paging file size on the file server.

B. Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card.
C. Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server.
D. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to improve the performance of the server, you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter
utility on the file server. The server has become slow after three months of working due to
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fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. Due to fragmentation, file data is written
in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. Over time, however, file data breaks into discontiguous
fragments. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data, it takes a longer time.
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Therefore, running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its
performance. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate
the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. The fragmented files are those files
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that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. The tool arranges such files and stores
them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. The operating system can access these files at a
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faster rate than the fragmented ones. When this utility is run on a computer, it first analyzes the
hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files, contiguous files, unmovable files, and the
total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below.
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As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be
defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed,
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and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the
size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance
of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk
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drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What
is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk
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when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may
be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B
is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months.
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This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The
problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.
QUESTION NO: 533
On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at
startup. In which file will you define this?
A. BOOTSECT.DOS
B. NTBOOTDD.SYS
C. BOOT.INI
D. NTDETECT.COM
Answer: C

Explanation:
You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting
computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced
RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads
for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI
provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect.
BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes.
NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS,
Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system.
Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its
BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000
startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS
file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to
the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and
BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents.
"Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"
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QUESTION NO: 534
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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers
with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover
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server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary
server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition?
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A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected

B. The failover server's IP address
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C. The primary server's IP address

D. The DNS server on the network
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both
servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The
heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the
heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover
button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server
takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first
check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could
be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this
issue.

QUESTION NO: 535
Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer
A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website

B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source
C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source
D. Installing an application from an unreliable source
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen
drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an
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application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the
destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data
files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in
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the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.
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QUESTION NO: 536

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Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct
A. BNC T connector
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B. The BNC terminator

C. RJ-45 connector
D. BNC barrel connector
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable.
The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of
longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

QUESTION NO: 537
Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost
storage media?
A. Failover clustering
B. Datafile striping
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C. Storage area network (SAN)
D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM)
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Answer: D
Explanation:
rtK
Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves
data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed
storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower
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devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data
available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations.
Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy
data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the
slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best
guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on
the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a
technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into
smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A
storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as
disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear
as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a
technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of
applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

QUESTION NO: 538
You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000
computer. Which of the following utilities will you use?
A. REGEDT32.EXE
B. HARDREG.EXE
C. REGEDIT.EXE
D. REGEDITOR.EXE
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should use the REGEDT32.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000
computer. Although both REGEDT32.EXE and REGEDIT.EXE are installed during the setup of
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Windows 2000, the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000. REGEDIT.EXE is not
recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode. Note. Incorrect use
of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer. Therefore, it is recommended that
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you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools. But if the
registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings, it is suggested that you either save
a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the
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configuration data. The Registry Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Registry Editors Installed by
Windows NT 4.0 [Q155267]"
rtK
QUESTION NO: 539

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Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are
waiting for the hard disk to become available?
A. % Free Space
B. Current Disk Queue Length
C. % Disk Time
D. Disk Writes/sec
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O
operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available. Answer option D is incorrect. The
Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were
performed on the disk. Answer option C is incorrect. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk
object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array. Answer option A is incorrect.
The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object. It is a counter of the Logical Disk
object. Reference.
"http.//www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c- 4740-
473b-b335-0d221994f685.mspx?mfr=true"
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Ce

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SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

A. Terminate the back end of the chain.

B. Set the jumper to device ID 0.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 3

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 4

Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process?

A. Load differential tape

A. The memory is not the correct CAS latency.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 5

A. Smaller initial investment

A. Replace memory chips with known good memory chips.

A. Reboot the file server.

A. Implement an application exception.

C. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 7

A. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS).

Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO)

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A. Server build checklist

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 9

A. Battery needs to be replaced

Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X?

A. Sensitivity to background noise

B. Height of the card

A. the SCSI adapter.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 10

A. Verify full system functionality.

Which of the following tools restricts device installation?

A. Default domain policy

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this slot? (Select THREE)

A. Half Height, Universally Keyed PCI card

C. Half Height, x16 PCI Express Card

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 12

A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives

A. Check the backplane cabling.

C. Update the RAID controller firmware.

A. The NIC is not on the HCL.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 13

A. The server's firewall is misconfigured.

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A. Establish a new theory of probable cause.

Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip?

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 15

An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on

A. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server.

A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192.168.100.0/24. A DHCP server is

A. Assign the workstation a static IP address.

D. Add a DHCP server to the 192.168.100.0/24 subnet

Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share

A. File permissions are less granular than share permissions.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 16

SMP is considered to be a form of:

Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization?

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Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO)

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 18

Which of the following BEST describes a DAS?

A. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels.

Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache?