D 3 C 1 Exam Study Guide Student

Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version
4.0)
Chapter 1: Networking in the Enterprise
1. Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27?
a. 0.0.0.32
b. 0.0.0.63
c. 0.0.63.255
d. 0.0.0.31
This item references 8.2.1 ACL Wildcard Mask Purpose and Structure
2. Refer to the exhibit. The

new security policy for
the company allows all IP
traffic from the
Engineering LAN to the
Internet while only web
traffic from the Marketing
LAN is allowed to the
Internet. Which ACL can
be applied in the
outbound direction of
Serial 0/1 on the
Marketing router to implement the new security policy?
a. access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
b. access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any
c. access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
d. access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs
3. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts from 172.19.123.0 are not allowed access to 192.0.2.0 but
should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard
ACL that will apply to traffic outbound on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0
implementing this security?
a. access-list 142 deny ip 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
b. access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 56 permit any
c. access-list 61 deny
172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0
d. access-list 87 deny
192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
This item references 8.3.1
Placing Standard and
Extended ACLs
Page 1 of 42
4.0)
4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of

traffic that is entering the
network from the ISP. The
administrator clears the
counters. After a few
minutes, the administrator
again checks the access-list
table. What can be
concluded from the output
that is shown?
a. A small amount of HTTP traffic is an indication that the web server was not
configured correctly.
b. A larger amount of POP3 traffic, compared with SMTP traffic, indicates that there are
more POP3 e-mail clients than SMTP clients in the enterprise.
c. A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be an
indication of a DoS attack.
d. A larger amount of e-mail traffic, compared with web traffic, is an indication that
attackers mainly targeted the e-mail server.
This item references 8.3.3 Configuring Numbered Standard ACLs
5. Refer to the exhibit. A network

administrator needs to add the
command deny ip 10.0.0.0
0.255.255.255 any log to R3. After
adding the command, the
administrator verifies the change
using the show access-list
command. What sequence number
does the new entry have?
a. 0
b. 10, and all other items are shifted down to the next sequence number
c. 50
d. 60
This item references 8.3.5 Configuring Named ACLs
6. A security administrator wants to secure password exchanges on the vty lines on all
routers in the enterprise. What option should be implemented to ensure that passwords
are not sent in clear text across the public network?
a. Use Telnet with an authentication server to ensure effective authentication.
b. Apply an access list on the router interfaces to allow only authorized computers.
c. Apply an access list on the vty line to allow only authorized computers.
d. Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines.
This item references 8.3.6 Configure Router VTY Access
7. What is the best option an administrator can choose to ensure that ICMP DoS attacks
from the outside are contained as much as possible, without restricting connectivity
tests initiated from the inside out?
Page 2 of 42
4.0)
a. Create an access list that permits only echo reply and destination
unreachable packets from the outside.
b. Create an access list that denies all TCP traffic coming from the outside.
c. Permit TCP traffic from only known external sources.
d. Create an access list with the established keyword at the end of the line.
This item references 8.4.2 Configuring ACLs to Support Established Traffic
8. Traffic from the 64.104.48.0 to 64.104.63.255 range must be denied access to the
network. What wildcard mask would the network administrator configure in the access
list to cover this range?
a. 0.0.15.255
b. 0.0.47.255
c. 0.0.63.255
d. 255.255.240.0
This item references 8.2.2 Analyzing the Effects of the Wildcard Mask
9. A network administrator enters the following commands on router RTB.

RTB(config)# access-list 4 deny 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.15
RTB(config)# access-list 4 permit any
RTB(config)# interface serial 0/0/0
RTB(config-if)# ip access-group 4 in
Which addresses are blocked from entering RTB?
a. 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.31
b. 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31
c. 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.32
d. 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.32
This item references 8.2.2 Analyzing the Effects of the Wildcard Mask
10.Why are inbound ACLs more efficient for the router than outbound ACLs?
a. Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required.
b. Inbound ACL operation requires less network bandwidth than outbound.
c. Inbound ACLs permit or deny packets to LANs, which are typically more efficient than
WANs.
d. Inbound ACLs are applied to Ethernet interfaces, while outbound ACLs are applied to
slower serial interfaces. This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended
ACLs
11.Refer to the exhibit. The

network administrator of a
company needs to configure the
router RTA to allow its business
partner (Partner A) to access the
web server located in the
internal network. The web
server is assigned a private IP
address, and a static NAT is
configured on the router for its
public IP address. Finally, the
administrator adds the ACL.
Page 3 of 42
4.0)
However, Partner A is denied access to the web server. What is the cause of the
problem?
a. Port 80 should be specified in the ACL.
b. The public IP address of the server, 209.165.201.5, should be specified as the
destination.
c. The ACL should be applied on the s0/0 outbound interface.
d. The source address should be specified as 198.133.219.0 255.255.255.0 in
the ACL.
This item references 8.4.3 Effects of NAT and PAT on ACL Placement
12.ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?

a. unstable network
b. warning
c. informational
d. critical situation
This item references 8.5.1 Using Logging to Verify ACL Functionality
13.Refer to the exhibit. Company policy for the network that is shown indicates the
following guidelines:
1) All hosts on the
192.168.3.0/24
network, except host
192.168.3.77, should
be able to reach the
192.168.2.0/24
network.
2) All hosts on the
192.168.3.0/24
network should be
able to reach the
192.168.1.0/24
network.
3) All other traffic
originating from the 192.168.3.0 network should be denied.
Which set of ACL statements meets the stated requirements when they are applied to
the Fa0/0 interface of router R2 in the inbound direction?
a. access-list 101 deny ip any any
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
b. access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
c. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
d. access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
e. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
Page 4 of 42
4.0)
This item references 8.3.1 Placing Standard and Extended ACLs, 8.3.4 Configuring Numbered
Extended ACLs
14.Which ACL statement permits host 10.220.158.10 access to the web server
192.168.3.224?
a. access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.220.158.10 eq 80 host 192.168.3.224
b. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq
80
c. access-list 101 permit host 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq
80
d. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80
This item references 8.4.1 Configuring ACLs for Application and Port Filtering
15.Which two statements are true about standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)
a. Extended ACLs filter only on source addresses and must be placed near the destination
address.
b. Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are
filtered at the destination.
c. Standard ACLs are used when filtering complex requirements, such as specific protocols.
d. Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and are placed near the source address
to reduce traffic across the network.
e. Properly designed ACLs have a negative impact on network availability and performance.
This item references
8.3.1 Placing
Standard and
Extended ACLs
16. Refer to the exhibit.
What happens if the
network administrator
issues the exhibited
commands when an ACL named Managers already exists on the router?
a. The new commands overwrite the current Managers ACL.
b. The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL.
c. The new commands are added to the beginning of the current Managers ACL.
d. An error appears stating that the ACL already exists.
This item references 8.3.5 Configuring Named ACLs
17.What effect does the command reload in 30 have when entered into a router?
a. If a router process freezes, the router reloads automatically.
b. If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where an ACL
is applied, the router reloads in 30 minutes.
c. If a remote connection lasts for longer than 30 minutes, the router forces the
remote user off.
d. A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes.
This item references 8.5.3 ACL Best Practices
18.Refer to the exhibit. Which two host addresses from the 172.16.31.64/27 subnet are
able to telnet into the router to make configuration changes? (Choose two.)
a. 172.16.31.33
b. 172.16.31.64
Page 5 of 42
4.0)
c. 172.16.31.77
d. 172.16.31.92
e. 172.16.31.95
f. 172.16.31.96
This item references 8.3.6 Configure Router VTY Access
19.ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose
two.)
a. specifying source addresses for authentication
b. specifying internal hosts for NAT
c. identifying traffic for QoS
d. reorganizing traffic into VLANs
e. filtering VTP packets
This item references 8.1.2 Access Control Lists
20.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to
configure an access list that will allow the management
host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to be the
only host to remotely access and configure router RTA.
All vty and enable passwords are configured on the
router. Which group of commands will accomplish this
task?
a. Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any
192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
Router(config-if)# int fa0/0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
b. Router(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 10 deny any
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)#access-group 10 in
c. Router(config)# access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25
Router(config-line)# access-class 86 in
d. Router(config)# access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 125 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 125 in
This item references, 8.3.3 Configuring Numbered Standard ACLs, 8.3.4 Configuring Numbered
Extended ACLs,
8.3.6 Configure Router VTY Access
21.What are two possible uses of access control lists in an enterprise network? (Choose
two.)
a. limiting debug outputs
b. reducing the processing load on routers
c. allowing Layer 2 traffic to be filtered by a router
d. controlling virtual terminal access to routers
e. controlling the physical status of router interfaces
This item references 8.1.2 Access Control Lists
Page 6 of 42
4.0)

access list has been
applied inbound to
interface S0/0/0 on R2.
Which two traffic types will
reach the server?(Choose
two.)
a. IP traffic from host
10.1.1.20
b. web traffic from
HostA
c. IP traffic from host
192.168.1.1
d. UDP traffic from network 10.1.2.0
e. HTTP traffic from network 10.1.1.0
This item references 8.4.4 Analyzing Network ACLs and Placement
23.If the established keyword is appended to a line in an extended ACL, what will
determine if packets are sent between the source and destination specified by the line?
a. if authentication is enabled via CHAP
b. if MD5 encryption algorithm is in effect
c. if a TCP three-way handshake was successfully completed
d. if HTML packets are specifically allowed within the ACL
This item references 8.4.2 Configuring ACLs to Support Established Traffic
1. Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP?

a. to establish and terminate data links
b. to provide authentication capabilities to PPP
c. to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link
d. to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link
This item references 7.2.2 HDLC and PPP
2. What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard?
a. 44 kb/s
b. 64 kb/s
c. 1.544 Mb/s
d. 44.736 Mb/s
This item references 7.1.1 WAN Devices and Technology
3. In which two layers of the OSI model are key differences found between a LAN and a
WAN. (Choose two.)
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 6
f. Layer 7
This item references 7.1.2 WAN Standards
Page 7 of 42
4.0)
4. Which statement is true about the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol?
a. It supports authentication.
b. It has a universally compatible frame format.
c. It is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.
d. It does not support multiple
protocols across a single link.
This item references 7.2.2 HDLC
and PPP

administrator has a connectivity problem
between the serial interfaces of Merida
and Vargas. What is the cause of the
problem?
a. Authentication is required on the
serial link.
b. The encapsulation is
misconfigured.
c. The IP addresses are on different
subnets.
d. The serial interface on Vargas is shutdown.
e. The loopback interfaces on both routers are not configured.
This item references 7.2.3 Configuring PPP
6. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the exhibited output?
a. LCP is in the process of negotiating a
link.
b. LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP
authentication to complete.
c. LCP negotiation has completed
successfully, but NCP negotiation is in
progress.
d. LCP and NCP negotiation is complete,
and the data link service is available to
carry packets.
7. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
a. It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
b. It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.
c. It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters.
d. It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
e. It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.
f. It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable
window size.
8. Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?

a. Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand.
b. The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits.
Page 8 of 42
4.0)
c. There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier.
d. The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive
links for a specific Frame Relay connection.
This item references 7.3.2 Frame Relay Functionality
9. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

a. an address identifying a virtual circuit
b. a logical address identifying the DCE device
c. an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network
d. a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame
Relay switch
10.What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses to
network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
a. ARP
b. ICMP
c. Proxy ARP
d. Inverse ARP
e. LMI status messages
11.Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards
to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
a. operates at all layers of the OSI model
b. provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols
c. can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces
d. uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between
devices
e. uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and
compression
f. uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between
devices
12.At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the
user to the service provider?
a. demilitarized zone (DMZ)
b. demarcation point
c. local loop
d. cloud
13.What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion?
a. FECN
b. BECN
c. DE
d. FCS This item references 7.3.2 Frame Relay Functionality
Page 9 of 42
4.0)
14.Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output?
a. R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP.
b. The routers have different CHAP passwords configured.
c. The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during
negotiation.
d. The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.
This item references 7.2.5 Configuring PAP and CHAP
15.Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose

two.)
a. Multiple data streams share one common channel.
b. Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices.
c. Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis.
d. Time slots go unused if a sender has nothing to transmit.
e. Priority can be dedicated to one data source.
This item references 7.1.3 Accessing the WAN
16. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is
heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What
type of WAN serial connection is in use?
a. leased line
b. point-to-point
c. circuit switched
d. packet switched
This item references 7.1.4 Packet and Circuit Switching
17.Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)?
a. serves as data source and/or destination
b. responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements
c. physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
d. equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal
18.Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which option for
WAN connectivity?
a. leased line
b. cell switching
c. packet switching
d. circuit switching
Page 10 of 42
4.0)
19.Which field of a frame uses error detection mechanisms to verify that the frame is not
damaged in transit?
a. FCS
b. MTU
c. flag
d. control
e. protocol
This item references 7.2.1 Ethernet and WAN Encapsulations
20.What occurs in the encapsulation process as a data packet moves from a LAN across a
WAN?
a. The Layer 2 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN
technology.
b. The Layer 3 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN
technology.
c. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation change to a technology that is appropriate for
the WAN.
d. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation remain constant as the data packet travels
throughout the network.
This item references 7.2.1 Ethernet and WAN
Encapsulations
21.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is

configuring R1 to connect to R2, which is a non-
Cisco router. Which encapsulation method will
need to be configured for communication to occur?
a. HDLC
b. HSSI
c. ISDN
d. IPCP
e. PPP
22.A company is implementing dialup services for remote workers to connect to the local
network. The company uses multiple Layer 3 protocols and requires authentication for
security. Which protocol should be used for this remote access?
a. LMI
b. PPP
c. HDLC
d. Frame Relay
23.Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

a. compression
b. authentication
c. dynamic flow control
d. network layer address for IP
e. connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods
Page 11 of 42
4.0)
24.What statement best describes cell switching?
a. It uses a dedicated path between endpoints.
b. It creates a permanent physical link between two points.
c. It uses DLCIs to identify virtual circuits.
d. It creates fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits.
1. What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
a. designated routers
b. a backup designated router
c. neighbor adjacencies
d. an NBMA network topology
e. links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network
This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and Adjacencies
2. If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by each
router in the same OSPF area?
a. Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information.
b. Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position
within the network.
c. The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by
each router in the area as needed.
d. The link-state database in each router only contains information about
adjacent routers and the status of their links.
3. Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF
routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration,
what is most likely the problem?
Page 12 of 42
4.0)
a. RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down.
b. The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB.
c. The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network.
d. The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network
statement.
This item references 6.2.1 Configuring Basic OSPF in a Single Area
4. What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vector
protocols with regard to route calculation?
a. Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add
to them. Link-state protocols independently calculate full routes.
b. Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in
their associated areas, and distance vector protocols do not.
c. When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all
route computations. Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning.
d. Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations
than link-state protocols require.
This item references 6.1.1 Link-State Protocol Operation
5. Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choose
two.)
a. All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when
converged.
b. Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm
(DUAL).
c. Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table.
d. Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs.
e. Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the
SPF algorithm.
This item references 6.1.1 Link-State Protocol Operation; 6.1.2 OSPF Metrics and
Convergence
6. Refer to the exhibit. The network

administrator would like only the
172.16.32.0 network advertised to
Router1. Which OSPF network
command accomplishes this?
a. Router2(config-router)#
network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
b. Router2(config-router)#
network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
c. Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
d. Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
Page 13 of 42
4.0)
7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B,
and C are part of the existing OSPF
network. Router D has been added
to the network. All routers are
running OSPF and have the
indicated priorities applied to the
interface. What is the DR/BDR
status immediately after router D is
added to the existing network?
a. An election is forced and
router D wins the DR election.
b. The DR and BDR do not
change until the next election.
c. An election is forced and
the existing BDR becomes the
DR.
d. The router with the
highest router ID becomes the new BDR.
8. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is

entered into the router. Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in
addition to network 10.16.1.64/27?
a. The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks.
b. The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for
10.16.1.64/27.
c. The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes.
d. The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27
network.
This item references 6.3.4 Using Multiple Protocols in the Enterprise
9. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
a. Elections are always optional.
b. Elections are required in all WAN networks.
c. Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
Page 14 of 42
4.0)
d. Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
e. Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.
10.Refer to the exhibit. Which

router will be elected the DR
and which will become the
BDR?
a. R1 will be DR and R2
will be BDR.
b. R1 will be DR and R3
will be BDR.
c. R2 will be DR and R1
will be BDR.
d. R2 will be DR and R3
will be BDR.
e. R3 will be DR and R2
will be BDR.
f. R3 will be DR and R1
will be BDR.
This item references 6.1.3 OSPF
Neighbors and Adjacencies
11.Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections?

a. A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added.
b. The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR.
c. The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0.
d. The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default
priority values are used.
12.Refer to the exhibit. What is

the purpose of the
configuration commands
added on router B?
a. allows router A to
form an adjacency with
router B
b. provides a stable
OSPF router ID on router
B
c. provides a method
of testing router traffic
d. creates the OSPF
adjacency table on router
B
This item references 6.2.3 Tuning OSPF Parameters
Page 15 of 42
4.0)
13.Refer to the exhibit. When establishing

adjacency relationships, which IP address
would router A use to send hello packets to
router B?
a. 10.11.0.1
b. 10.11.0.2
c. 10.11.0.255
d. 224.0.0.5
e. 255.255.255.255
This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and
Adjacencies
14.Refer to the exhibit. What

statement describes the
DR/BDR relationship of the
HQ router?
a. HQ is the DR.
b. HQ is the BDR.
c. HQ is a DROTHER.
d. HQ is a member of an NBMA
network.
This item references 6.1.3 OSPF Neighbors and
Adjacencies; 6.2.4 Verifying OSPF Operation
15.Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement

configures the home router to allow all the
interfaces to participate in OSPF?
a. network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
b. network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
c. network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
d. network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
e. network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area
0
16.Refer to the exhibit. Which commands

configure router A for OSPF?
a. router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
b. router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3
area 0
c. router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64
255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192
255.255.255.252
d. router ospf 1
Page 16 of 42
4.0)
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
This item references 6.2.2 Configuring OSPF Authentication
17.What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance
vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
a. The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
b. Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the
topological database.
c. Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
d. After the initial LSA flooding, routers require less bandwidth to communicate changes
in a topology.
e. A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.
This item references 6.1.1 Link-State Protocol Operation; 6.1.2 OSPF Metrics and Convergence
18.What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the command
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0?
a. 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
b. 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
c. 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
d. 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
e. 192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
19.Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint
environments? (Choose two.)
a. A DR is not elected.
b. The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link.
c. OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined.
d. The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess.
e. The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.
20.Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined?
Page 17 of 42
4.0)
a. Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.
b. A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.
c. The default-information originate command is applied on R1.
d. The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1
and R2.
e. The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.
This item references 6.3.1 Configuring and Propagating a Default Route
21.Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become
adjacent neighbors. Although it appears that the two systems are communicating,
neither of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What
could
be
responsible for this situation?

a. R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet.
b. The Process IDs on each router do not match.
c. The timer intervals on the routers do not match.
d. The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.
This item references 6.2.4 Verifying OSPF Operation
22.Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?
a. It is the OSPF cost
metric.
b. It is the OSPF
administrative distance.
c. It is the value
assigned by the Dijkstra
algorithm that
designates the distance
in hops to the network.
d. It is the value
assigned to an interface
that is used by the DUAL
algorithm to determine
the metric.
This item references 6.2.3 Tuning OSPF Parameters; 6.2.4 Verifying OSPF Operation
Page 18 of 42
4.0)
23.When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the

hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks?
a. simpler configuration
b. reduction of router processing requirements
c. isolation of network instability
d. less complex network planning
24.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network
has converged. If all router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF
view as lowest cost when
moving frames from Host3 to
Host1?
a. R3 to R4 to R1
b. R3 to R1
c. R3 to R2 to R1
d. R3 to R5 to R2 to R1
This item references 6.1.2 OSPF
Metrics and Convergence
1. Which Layer 4 protocol

does EIGRP use to provide
reliability for the
transmission of routing
information?
a. DUAL
b. IP
c. PDM
d. RTP
e. TCP
f. UDP
This item references 5.3.4 EIGRP Neighbors and Adjacencies
2. What does a router that is running RIP use to determine the best path to take
when forwarding data?
a. the host portion of the network address
b. the speed of network convergence
c. the calculated metric for the destination network
d. the number of broadcasts occurring on an interface
e. the number of errors occurring on an interface
This item references 5.2.2 Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
3. What is the purpose of the network command when RIP is being configured as
the routing protocol?
a. It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router.
b. It restricts networks from being used for static routes.
Page 19 of 42
4.0)
c. It identifies all of the destination networks that the router is allowed to
install in its routing table.
d. It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the
RIP routing updates.
This item references 5.2.3 Configuring RIPv2
4. A network administrator issues the command show ip route and observes this
line of output:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0
What two pieces of information can be obtained from the output? (Choose two.)
a. RIP is the routing protocol that is configured.
b. This is a static route to network 192.168.3.0.
c. The metric for this route is 2.
d. The next periodic update is in 5 seconds.
e. The autonomous system number is 120.
This item references 5.2.5 Verifying RIP
5. How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default?

a. every 30 seconds
b. every 45 seconds
c. every 60 seconds
d. every 90 seconds
6. What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)
a. EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm.
b. EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key.
c. EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key
chain name.
d. EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data
exchanged between routers.
e. EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates
from this router are protected; whereas a neighbor router can be without the
authentication configuration and its updates are unprotected.
This item references 5.4.1 Configuring EIGRP
7. Refer to the exhibit. What three

conclusions can be determined
based on the exhibited commands?
(Choose three.)
a. A link-state routing protocol is used.
b. A distance vector routing protocol is used.
c. Routing information updates are broadcast every 30 seconds.
d. Routing information updates are broadcast every 90 seconds.
e. Hop count is the only metric used for route selection.
Page 20 of 42
4.0)
f. Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are metrics that are used for
route selection.
8. What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?

a. 70
b. 90
c. 100
d. 110
e. 120
f. 255
This item references 5.3.2 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
9. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

a. The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
b. The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the
active state.
c. The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
d. There is no activity on the route to that network.
e. The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
10. What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised?

a. an increase in network load
b. the use of variable length subnet masks
c. the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router
d. a variation in connection speeds on the links to a destination
e. a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual
bandwidth of a link
11. What three statements are true about routers that are configured for EIGRP?
(Choose three.)
a. They can support multiple routed protocols.
b. They can support only link-state protocols.
c. They send their entire topology tables to neighboring routers.
d. They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
e. They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
f. They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
This item references 5.3.2 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
(EIGRP)
Page 21 of 42
4.0)
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing

problem. When the show ip route command is entered on RTR-1, only the serial
link between RTR-2 and RTR-3 has been learned from the RIP routing protocol.
What are two issues? (Choose two.)
a. RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol.
b. RIPv1 does not support subnetting.
c. The Ethernet networks on RTR-2 and RTR-3 were not entered correctly in
the network statements on these routers.
d. RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
e. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.
This item references 5.2.5 Verifying RIP
13. Refer to the exhibit. The network is configured with RIP routing. Which
mechanism prevents R1 from sending an information update about network A
to R3?
a. poisoned reverse
b. split horizon
c. holddown timers
d. TTL
This item references 5.2.4 Problems
with RIP
14. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

a. by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
b. by comparing known routes to information received in updates
c. by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
d. by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
e. by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
15. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

a. when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
b. when a router has more than three active interfaces
c. when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
d. when a router has less than five active interfaces
e. when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
Page 22 of 42
4.0)
This item references 5.4.2 EIGRP Route Summarization
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output from the show
ip protocols command?
a. RIPv2 is configured on this router.
b. Auto summarization has been disabled.
c. The next routing update is due in 17 seconds.
d. 192.168.16.1 is the address configured on the local router.
This item references 1.1.1 Supporting the Business Enterprise; 5.2.5 Verifying RIP
17. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured, and automatic
summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which command applied on
interface S0/0/0 of router A manually summarizes the networks in EIGRP
advertisements to router B?
a. ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
b. ip summary-address eigrp 1
192.168.10.64
255.255.255.192
c. ip summary-address
192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
d. ip summary-address eigrp 1
192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
e. ip area-range eigrp 1
192.168.10.64
255.255.255.224
18. Refer to exhibit. What two features are true

of the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
a. introduces a single point of failure
Page 23 of 42
4.0)
b. is required when no downtime is acceptable
c. provides the maximum redundancy available
d. provides redundancy to critical areas
e. represents an extended star topology
f. is used to meet uptime and reliability requirements while limiting costs
This item references 5.1.2 Enterprise Topologies
19. An enterprise network currently uses a star topology to connect the

headquarters to four branch offices. The network administrator wants to make
one of the branch offices a centralized connection for three new local offices.
What is the resulting topology?
a. full mesh
b. partial mesh
c. extended star
d. topology remains a star
This item references 5.1.2 Enterprise
Topologies
20. Refer to the exhibit. The network

administrator needs to configure a default
route on the border router. Which command
correctly configures a default route that will
require the least amount of router processing
when forwarding packets?
a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.59.5
b. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.59.6
c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s1/2/1
This item references 5.1.5 Default Routes
21. Refer to the

exhibit. What is
represented by
the Null0 route
for the
128.107.0.0
network?
a. a child
route that is
defined
b. a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
c. a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
d. the result of the no auto-summary command on a router
22. Which two features of EIGRP are different from RIPv2? (Choose two.)
a. routing metric
Page 24 of 42
4.0)
b. VLSM support
c. routing updates
d. classless routing
e. MD5 authentication method
This item references 5.3.2 Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
23. What is the maximum distance in hops that a remote router can be and still
be considered reachable by RIP?
a. 14 hops
b. 15 hops
c. 16 hops
d. 17 hops
This item references 5.3.1 Limitations of RIP
24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are configured with EIGRP and with default K
values. What is the routing path for a packet from network A to reach network
B?
a. R1, R2, R5
b. R1, R3, R5
c. R1, R2, R3, R5
d. R1, R2, R4, R5
e. R1, R3, R2, R5
f. R1, R3, R2, R4, R5
This item references5.3.5 EIGRP Metrics and Convergence
1. An employee called the help desk to report a laptop that could not access a web-based
application on the Internet. The help desk technician asked the employee to open a
Windows command prompt and type the ipconfig /all command. Which problem-solving
technique did the technician choose?
a. top-down
b. bottom-up
c. substitution
d. divide-and-conquer
This item references 9.1.4 Troubleshooting Process
Page 25 of 42
4.0)
2. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug ppp negotiation
command, which
statement is true?
a. The line
protocol of the local
router is now up.
b. The
hostname of the
local router is
Goleta.
c. The
command ppp
authentication pap
is configured on both routers.
d. The local router requested to terminate the session.
This item references 9.4.1 Troubleshooting WAN Connectivity

administrator has implemented
subnetting using the network
192.168.25.0 and a /28 mask.
Workstation 1 is not able to ping
with Workstation 2. What is a
possible cause for this lack of
communication?
a. Workstation 1 and
Workstation 2 are on the
same subnet.
b. The serial connections
are using addresses from the
LAN subnets.
c. All hosts in the network must be in the same subnet to communicate.
d. Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the RTA router LAN interface is
on.
This item references 9.1.2 Monitoring and Proactive Maintenance
4. Refer to the
exhibit. A lab
technician connects
two routers
together via a serial
cable using the
default interface
configuration
values. The
interfaces are up; however, the technician is unable to ping between the two devices.
What is the most likely problem?
a. The lab technician used the wrong cable to connect the serial ports.
b. There is an IP mismatch between the serial ports.
c. There is an encapsulation mismatch between the serial ports.
Page 26 of 42
4.0)
d. No clock rate has been set on the DCE interface.
This item references 9.4.1 Troubleshooting WAN Connectivity
5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator

is doing proactive network maintenance.
The administrator pings 192.168.1.100 and
compares the results to the baseline data.
Based on the comparison of the two pings,
what is one possibility?
a. There is an ACL applied, making
the destination host unreachable.
b. There is a malfunctioning NIC on
the destination host.
c. The sending host is unable to
access the network.
d. There are congestion problems on
the network.
This item references 9.1.2 Monitoring and Proactive
Maintenance
6. Refer to the exhibit. Host

192.168.1.14 is unable to download
email from 192.168.2.200. After
reviewing the output of the show
running-config command, what
problem is discovered?
a. Access to the SMTP
server is denied.
b. The destination host
address in an ACL statement is
incorrect.
c.The ACL is applied to the
interface in the wrong direction.
d. The implicit deny any any
is blocking all access to email.
This item references 9.5.2 ACL Configuration and Placement Issues
7. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL is configured to prevent access by network 192.168.1.0 to
network 192.168.2.0, but it is not working
properly. What problem is discovered after
observing the output of the show running-config
command?
a. The protocol type specified in the ACL should
be TCP, not IP.
b. The source and destination addresses are
reversed in the statement.
c. The ACL is applied to the wrong interface,
but the right direction. The ACL is applied
to the wrong interface and the wrong
direction.
Page 27 of 42
4.0)
d. The permit ip any any statement allows network 192.168.1.0 access. This item
references 9.5.2 ACL Configuration
and Placement Issues
8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the

network diagram and the output shown,
which statement is true?
a. The command was entered on
router R1.
b. The command was entered on
router R2.
c. The command was entered on
router R3.
d. The command could have been
entered on either R1 or R2.
This item references 9.3.2 EIGRP Issues
9. Refer to the exhibit. ABC Company is

using the 172.16.0.0/18 network. It is
standard company practice to use the
first 50 addresses for switches and
servers and assign the last usable
address to the router. The remaining addresses are assigned to the hosts. After
assigning the addresses, the network technician tests connectivity from the host above
and is not able to ping the router.
What could be the problem?
a. The router was assigned the broadcast
address.
b. The host is not in the same subnet as the
switch and router.
c. The router interface is in the wrong
subnet.
d. The host was assigned a network address.
This item references9.1.1 Enterprise Network Requirements
Page 28 of 42
4.0)
10.Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, why is VTP information unable to
propagate the network?
a. One of the two client mode switches must be reconfigured to Transparent mode.
b. Each switch must be synchronized to the network time server.
c. The VTP domain names are different.
d. VTP passwords must be set.
e. The configuration revision numbers are all the same.
Troubleshooting VTP
11.Refer to the exhibit. Based on the
output shown, to which IP
network should the workstations
in the Support department
belong?
a. 192.168.1.0
b. 172.16.1.0
c. 172.16.3.0
d. 172.16.5.0
Troubleshooting VLAN
Configuration Issues
12.Refer to the exhibit. Users are

reporting that they cannot access
the Internet. Routers R1 and R2
are configured with RIP version 2
as shown. If R2 receives a packet
with a destination address on the
Internet, how is the packet
routed?
a. The packet is routed to the ISP
router and then to network
10.1.1.0/24.
Page 29 of 42
4.0)
b. The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to the Internet.
c. The packet is routed to
R1 and then forwarded
out Fa0/0 on R1.
d. The packet will not be
routed because R2
does not have a valid
default route.
This item 9.3.4 Route
Redistribution Issues

network administrator is
unable to ping from the
console of router R3 to
host 10.10.4.63. What is
the problem?
a. RIPv1 does not
support VLSM.
b. Router R2 does not
have RIP correctly
configured.
c. Router R3 is missing a
network statement for
network 10.0.0.0.
d. There is an addressing
problem on the link
between routers R2
and R3.
This item references 9.3.1 RIP
Issues
14.What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when
implementing inter-VLAN routing?
a. The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
b. The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
c. The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for
each VLAN subnet.
d. The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
This item references 3.3.3 Identifying VLANs, 9.2.2 Troubleshooting VLAN Configuration
Issues
15. A network at a large building failed, causing a severe disruption in business activities.
The problem was eventually detected and resolved by replacing a piece of failed
network equipment. Investigation led to the conclusion that a network design problem
was the main cause of the disruption. Loss of a single piece of equipment should not
have been able to cause such a large problem. What two terms best describe this type
of design weakness? (Choose two.)
a. bottleneck
b. limited availability
c. limited scalability
d. large failure domain
Page 30 of 42
4.0)
e. single point of failure
f. limited staff capabilities
This item references 9.1.3 Troubleshooting and the Failure Domain
16.Which two statements describe when a network administrator should perform a

network baseline? (Choose two.)
a. It should be done monthly as a minimum standard.
b. It should be performed when all switch Cisco IOS versions are upgraded.
c. It should be done when all network printers are upgraded to a new model.
d. It should be done when the network is performing at normal activity levels.
e. It should be done whenever an SLA has been signed with a new service provider.
17.Refer to the exhibit. A
network administrator is
troubleshooting a problem.
No users are able to
access the 10.10.2.0/24
network, but are able to
access all other networks.
Assuming R3 is configured
correctly and based on the
output shown, what is
most likely the problem?
a. There is congestion on
the 10.10.2.0 network.
b. The EIGRP process
number on R2 is
incorrect.
c. The Fa0/0 interface on
R2 is shut down.
d. The Fa0/0 interface on
R2 has an incorrect IP
address or subnet mask.
This item references 9.3.2 EIGRP
Issues
18.Refer to the exhibit. Both
routers are configured using
RIPv1. Both routers are
sending updates about the
directly connected routes. R1
can successfully ping the
serial interface of R2. The
routing table on R1 does not
contain any dynamically
learned routes from R2, and
the routing table on R2 shows
no dynamically learned
routes from R1. What is the
problem?
a. Subnetting is not
supported by RIPv1.
Page 31 of 42
4.0)
b. One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
c. The serial link between the two routers is unstable.
d. VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
This item references 9.3.1 RIP Issues
19.The enterprise mail server software recently went through a minor update. A network
administrator notices an excessive amount of traffic between a database server and
the newly updated mail server, compared to the baseline data. What is the first action
the administrator should do to investigate the problem?
a. Wait to see if the recent update will stabilize after a while.
b. Redo the baseline data to include the minor upgrade.
c. Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic.
d. Check for viruses and spyware on the database server.
20.Although all networks are reachable, the network administrator notices abnormal
routing behavior after configuring OSPF on each router. According to the partial output
from the debug ip
ospf events
command, which
statement is true
about the contents
of the routing
table in RA?
a. It will
show network
172.16.3.0
learned from
RB.
b. It will
show network
172.16.3.0
learned from
RC.
c. It will
show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.4/30.
d. It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.8/30.
This item references 9.3.3 OSPF Issues
Page 32 of 42
4.0)
21.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting the connectivity

issue between RA and RB. According to the partial configuration, what is the cause of
the problem?
a. password mismatch for PPP authentication
b. username mismatch for PPP authentication
c. encapsulation method mismatch for PPP authentication
d. authentication method mismatch for PPP authentication
This item references 9.4.2 Troubleshooting WAN Authentication
22.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform
inter-VLAN routing. Using the show vlan command, the administrator verifies that port
Fast Ethernet 0/4 is the first available port in the default VLAN on SW2. The
administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work.
What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
a. Port 0/4 is not active.
b. Port 0/4 must be a member of VLAN1.
c. Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
d. Port 0/4 is configured as a trunk port.
Page 33 of 42
4.0)
This item references 9.2.2 Troubleshooting VLAN Configuration Issues
1. What device is responsible for moving packets to destination networks outside the local
network?
a. router
b. switch
c. IPS device
d. IDS device
This item references 2.3.1 Router Hardware
2. Which two items protect a corporate network against malicious attacks at the
enterprise edge ? (Choose two.)
a. point of demarcation
b. IP security (IPSec)
c. Data Service Unit (DSU)
d. intrusion prevention system (IPS)
e. intrusion detection system (IDS)
This item references 1.1.2 Traffic Flow in the Enterprise Network
3. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network

devices from their homes. Which two approaches allow this connectivity without
increasing vulnerability to external attacks? (Choose two.)
a. Configure a special link at the POP to allow external entry from the home
computer.
b. Set up VPN access between the home computer and the network.
c. Install a cable modem in the home to link to the network.
d. Configure ACLs on the edge routers that allow only authorized users to
access management ports on network devices.
e. Configure a server in the DMZ with a special username and password to allow
external access.
This item references 2.2.2 Security Considerations at the Enterprise Edge
4. A DoS attack crippled the daily operations of a large company for 8 hours. Which two
options could be implemented by the network administrator to possibly prevent such
an attack in the future? (Choose two.)
a. install security devices with IDS and IPS at the enterprise edge
b. reset all user passwords every 30 days
c. filter packets based on IP address, traffic pattern, and protocol
d. deny external workers VPN access to internal resources
e. ensure critical devices are physically secure and placed behind the demarc
5. Which two pieces of information are documented in a logical topology map? (Choose
two.)
a. physical cabling
b. service level agreements
c. IP addressing
d. IDF location
e. group usage information
f. facility floor plans
This item references 2.1.1 Enterprise Network Documentation
Page 34 of 42
4.0)
6. Which two situations require a network admin to use out-of-band mgmt to change a
router config? Choose 2
a. Network links to the router are down.
b. No Telnet password has been configured on the router.
c. The administrator can only connect to the router using SSH.
d. The network interfaces of the router are not configured with IP addresses.
e. Company security policy requires that only HTTPS be used to connect to
routers.
7. Which type of network map shows the location of hosts, network devices, and media?
a. physical topology
b. logical topology
c. control plane
d. business continuity
8. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of

company personnel, where can a network administrator look?
a. Business Continuity Plan
b. Business Security Plan
c. Network Maintenance Plan
d. Service Level Agreement
9. An investment company has multiple servers that hold mission critical data. They are
worried that if something happens to these servers, they will lose this valuable
information. Which type of plan is needed for this company to help minimize loss in the
event of a server crash?
a. business security
b. business continuity
c. network maintenance
d. service level agreement
10.A network manager wants to have processes in place to ensure that network upgrades
do not affect business operations. What will the network manager create for this
purpose?
a. business security plan
b. business continuity plan
c. service level agreement
d. network maintenance plan
11.Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan?

(Choose two.)
a. maintenance time periods
b. intrusion monitoring records
c. offsite data storage procedures
d. alternate IT processing locations
e. problem resolution escalation steps
Page 35 of 42
4.0)
12.A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a

catastrophic disaster prevents a company from performing daily business routines.
Which portion of the network documentation is the administrator defining?
a. business security plan
b. business continuity plan
c. network solvency plan
d. service level agreement
e. network maintenance plan
13.Which two router parameters can be set from interface configuration mode? (Choose
two.)
a. IP address
b. Telnet password
c. hostname
d. console password
e. subnet mask
f. enable secret password
This item references 2.3.3 Basic Router Configuration Using CLI
14.What information can an administrator learn using the show version command?
a. Cisco IOS filename
b. configured routing protocol
c. status of each interface
d. IP addresses of all interfaces
This item references 2.3.2 Basic Router CLI Show Commands
15.A network administrator has just inserted a new WIC2T controller into the first available
slot of an 1841 router. The administrator needs to configure the first serial interface of
this new controller. Which interface should be used?
a. s0/0/0
b. s0/0/1
c. s1/1/0
d. s1/0/1
e. s0/1/1
16.What is the maximum recommended cable length for Fast Ethernet over UTP?
a. 50 meters
b. 75 meters
c. 100 meters
d. 150 meters
This item references 2.1.2 Network Operations Center (NOC)
17.What is the demarcation?

a. physical point where the ISP responsibility ends and the customer
responsibility begins
b. physical location where all server farm connections meet before being
distributed into the Core
Page 36 of 42
4.0)
c. point of entry for outside attacks and is often vulnerable
d. point of entry for all Access Layer connections from the Distribution Layer
devices
This item references 2.2.1 Service Delivery at the Point-of-Presence
18.A Cisco router needs to be configured from a remote location by the use of out-of-band
management. Which method should be used?
a. Use Telnet or SSH and connect to an IP address of a FastEthernet port.
b. Use HTTP to connect to an IP address on a FastEthernet port.
c. Use dial up and a modem to connect to the auxiliary port.
d. Use a terminal emulation program and connect to the console port.
19.A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of
commands enable Telnet access to the router?
a. Router(config)# enable password class

Router(config)# line con 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
b. Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork

Router(config)# enable password cisco
c. Router(config)# line aux 0

d. Router(config)# enable password class

This item references 2.3.3 Basic Router Configuration
Using CLI
20.What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

a. between a client and a host
b. between two local networks
c. between a computer and a switch
d. between an ISP and an Enterprise network
This item references 2.2.1 Service Delivery at the Point-of-Presence
21.Which two statements are true about a network operations center (NOC)? (Choose
two.)
a. Most NOCs only have tower servers or desktop servers that provide high-
speed storage capabilities for thousands of clients.
b. A NOC is typically used only to monitor and maintain the most critical
network components.
c. Because access is secured by firewalls, backup systems are not required in a
NOC .
Page 37 of 42
4.0)
d. Routers, high-speed switches, and servers are located within a NOC.
e. High-speed and high-capacity data storage are important aspects of a NOC.
22.Which three items would be found in a NOC? (Choose three.)

a. raised floors
b. all wireless access points
c. network monitoring station
d. departmental printers
e. customer workstations
f. data storage devices
23.What two features are true of an IDF? (Choose two.)

a. referred to as a wiring closet
b. located within the NOC
c. contains access layer devices for user connectivity
d. contains firewalls and content filtering devices
e. alternately called an MDF
This item references 2.1.3 Telecommunication Room Design and Considerations
Highlight correct answer in yellow.
1. Which two statements are reasons why UDP is used for voice and video traffic instead
of TCP? (Choose 2)
a. TCP requires all data packets to be delivered for the data to be usable.
b. The acknowledgment process of TCP introduces delays that break the
streams of data.
c. UDP does not have mechanisms for retransmitting lost packets.
d. UDP tolerates delays and compensates for them.
e. TCP is a connectionless protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
f. UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
This item references 1.2.3 Network Traffic Prioritization
2. Why is TCP the preferred Layer 4 protocol for transmitting data files?
a. TCP is more reliable than UDP because it requires lost packets to be
retransmitted.
b. TCP requires less processing by the source and destination hosts than UDP.
c. UDP introduces delays that degrade the quality of the data applications.
d. TCP ensures fast delivery because it does not require sequencing or
acknowledgements.
3. Which two solutions would an enterprise IT department use to facilitate secure intranet
access for remote workers? (Choose two.)
a. VPN
b. NAT
c. user authentication
d. client firewall software
e. packet sniffing
This item references 1.3.2 Virtual Private Networks
4. What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
Page 38 of 42
4.0)
a. remove the three-layer hierarchical model and use a flat network approach
b. divide the network into functional components while still maintaining the
concept of Core, Distribution, and Access Layers
c. provide services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various
components into a single component located in the access layer
d. reduce overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management
server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer
5. In which functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture should IDS and IPS be
located to detect and prevent malicious activity from outside?
a. enterprise campus
b. WAN and Internet
c. enterprise edge
d. service provider edge
6. What is a benefit of having an extranet?

a. It provides web-like access to company information for employees only.
b. It limits access to corporate information to secure VPN or remote access
connections only.
c. It allows customers and partners to access company information by
connecting to a public web server.
d. It allows suppliers and contractors to access confidential internal information
using controlled external connections.
This item references 1.1.4 Intranets and Extranets
7. What does VoIP provide to telecommuters?
a. high-quality, live-video presentations
b. real-time voice communications over the Internet
c. ability to share desktop applications simultaneously
d. secure, encrypted data transmissions through the Internet
This item references 1.3.1 Teleworking
8. Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for

hosting internal servers?
a. enterprise campus
b. enterprise edge
c. service provider edge
d. building distribution
9. Which task would typically only require services located at the access layer of the
hierarchical design model?
a. connecting to the corporate web server to update sales figures
b. using a VPN from home to send data to the main office servers
c. printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer
d. placing a VoIP call to a business associate in another country
e. responding to an e-mail from a co-worker in another department
This item references 1.2.1 Traffic Flow Patterns
Page 39 of 42
4.0)
10.What are two important characteristics or functions of devices at the Enterprise Edge?
(Choose two.)
a. providing Internet, telephone, and WAN services to the enterprise network
b. providing a connection point for end-user devices to the enterprise network
c. providing high-speed backbone connectivity with redundant connections
d. providing intrusion detection and intrusion prevention to protect the network
against malicious activity
e. providing packet inspection to determine if incoming packets should be
allowed on the enterprise network
11.The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters using the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from and
to the outside world. Where should the administrator deploy a firewall device?
a. server farm
b. enterprise edge
c. enterprise campus
d. service provider edge
12.Which two measures help ensure that a hardware problem does not cause an outage in
an enterprise LAN that supports mission critical services? (Choose two.)
a. providing failover capability
b. installing redundant power supplies
c. purchasing more bandwidth from the ISP
d. enabling half-duplex connectivity to access layer devices
e. installing routers that can handle a greater amount of throughput
This item references 1.1.1 Supporting the Business Enterprise
13.Which statement describes the difference between an enterprise WAN and an

enterprise extranet?
a. An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect local LANs, while an enterprise
extranet is designed to interconnect remote branch offices.
b. An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect branch offices, while an
enterprise extranet is designed to give access to external business partners.
c. An enterprise WAN is designed to provide remote access for its teleworkers,
while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the
enterprise.
d. An enterprise WAN is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the
enterprise, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide remote access to the
enterprise network for teleworkers.
This item references 1.1.3 Enterprise LANs and WAN, 1.1.4 Intranets and Extranets
14.What can be found at the enterprise edge?

a. Internet, VPN, and WAN modules
b. Internet, PSTN, and WAN services
c. server farms and network management
d. campus infrastructure, including access layer devices
Page 40 of 42
4.0)
15.A remote user needs to access a networking device on the internal network of the
company. The transactions between the remote user and the device must be secure.
Which protocol enables this to happen securely?
a. HTTP
b. SSH
c. Telnet
d. FTP
16.A business consultant must use Internet websites to research a report on the e-
business strategies of several firms and then electronically deliver the report to a group
of clients in cities throughout the world. Which two teleworker tools can the consultant
use to accomplish this project? (Choose two.)
a. VoIP
b. VPN
c. HTTP
d. Telnet
e. email
17.How does a VPN work to support remote user productivity?

a. It uses SSL to encrypt remote user logins to the corporate intranet.
b. It uses secure Telnet for remote user connections to internal network devices.
c. It creates a virtual circuit that allows real-time communications between any two
Internet endpoints.
d. It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-
secure networks.
18.What is the main purpose of the Access Layer in a hierarchically designed network?
a. performs routing and packet manipulation
b. supplies redundancy and failover protection
c. provides a high-speed, low-latency backbone
d. serves as a network connection point for end-user devices
19.What type of traffic flow is always considered to be external?
a. file sharing traffic
b. system updates
c. company e-mail
d. Internet bound traffic
e. transaction processing
20.What are two benefits of controlling the flow of traffic in an enterprise network?
(Choose two.)
a. security
b. smaller failure domains
c. more reliable transaction processing
d. bandwidth optimization
e. local control of network services
Page 41 of 42
4.0)
21. What are two important guidelines when using packet sniffers to determine traffic flow
patterns? Choose 2
a. Capture only traffic from a single application at a time.
b. Perform the capture on several different network segments.
c. Create a baseline capture during a low or non-utilization period.
d. Relocate highly active servers before attempting the capture.
e. Capture traffic during peak utilization times.
This item references 1.2.2 Applications and Traffic on an Enterprise Network
22.Which three items can be discovered by using a packet sniffer application? (Choose
three.)
a. network transmission speed
b. source IP address
c. Ethernet frame type
d. duplex operational status
e. near-end crosstalk (NEXT) level
f. TCP sequence number
This item references 1.2.2 Applications and Traffic on an Enterprise Network
23.What are two benefits to an employee of teleworking? (Choose two.)

a. reduced commuting costs
b. reduced network complexity
c. reduced need for support staff
d. reduced need for expensive business attire
e. reduced security risks to the network infrastructure
24.Which protocol and process could be implemented on a network to ensure that a

telecommuter can attend a training presentation via the use of VoIP and still
experience uninterrupted data streams and quality conversations?
a. TCP and QoS
b. UDP and QoS
c. TCP and queuing
d. UDP and VPN
e. TCP and VPN
Page 42 of 42

D 3 C 1 Exam Study Guide Student

Încărcat de

Informații document

Descriere originală:

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

D 3 C 1 Exam Study Guide Student

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Cisco Discovery 3 – Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise (Version

2. Refer to the exhibit. The

4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network

9. A network administrator enters the following commands on router RTB.

11.Refer to the exhibit. The

12.ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?

22.Refer to the exhibit. The

1. Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP?

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network

8. Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?

9. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

15.Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose

21.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is

23.Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network

8. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is

10.Refer to the exhibit. Which

11.Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections?

12.Refer to the exhibit. What is

13.Refer to the exhibit. When establishing

14.Refer to the exhibit. What

15.Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement

16.Refer to the exhibit. Which commands

responsible for this situation?

23.When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the

1. Which Layer 4 protocol

5. How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default?

7. Refer to the exhibit. What three

8. What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?

9. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

10. What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised?

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing

14. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

15. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

18. Refer to exhibit. What two features are true

19. An enterprise network currently uses a star topology to connect the

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network

21. Refer to the

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator

6. Refer to the exhibit. Host

8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the

9. Refer to the exhibit. ABC Company is

12.Refer to the exhibit. Users are

13.Refer to the exhibit. The

16.Which two statements describe when a network administrator should perform a

21.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting the connectivity

3. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network

8. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of

11.Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan?

12.A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a

17.What is the demarcation?

a. Router(config)# enable password class

b. Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork

c. Router(config)# line aux 0

d. Router(config)# enable password class

20.What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

22.Which three items would be found in a NOC? (Choose three.)

23.What two features are true of an IDF? (Choose two.)

4. What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

6. What is a benefit of having an extranet?