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# 1.

## Time Value of Money _________________________________ 3

2. Discounted Cash Flow ________________________________ 35
3. Statistics and Market Returns___________________________ 49
4. Probabilities ________________________________________ 81
5. Key Formulas ______________________________________ 109

Candidate Note: This is a lengthy Study Session that, along with Study Session 3, you should
plan on reviewing more than once, particularly if any or all of the topic areas are new to you. We
suggest reviewing it with a CFA Institute-approved financial calculator so that you can work
through the examples and become familiar with the calculations. Study time spent on this Study
Session could benefit you greatly on exam day.

The numerical examples shown in the Quantitative Methods Study Sessions are displayed with
rounded numbers, but the calculations are done with greater precision. You may find a small
amount of what appears to be rounding error, but this is because numbers in intermediate steps
are displayed with some rounding. However, exact figures are used throughout the calculations,
and the final answers reflect this greater precision.

Note that any necessary key formulas and appendices are located at the end of Study Session 3.

Warning: Copyright violations will be prosecuted.
Any use of these materials without the express written consent of the publisher is a violation of federal and/or international copyright laws.

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Discounted Cash Flow

## 2. Discounted Cash Flow

Learning Objectives
This summary includes a review and an analysis of the principles set forth by CFA Institute.
Upon review of this summary, you should be able to:
Calculate the net present value (NPV) and internal rate of return (IRR) of a
capital investment project ...............................................................................................pg. 36
Discuss the use of the decision rule under the net present value and internal rate
of return methods ............................................................................................................pg. 37
Discuss the problems with the internal rate of return method ......................................pg. 37
Define, calculate, and interpret holding period returns (total return) ..........................pg. 38
Differentiate between money-weighted and time-weighted rates of return ..................pg. 39
Compute and appraise the performance of a portfolio’s money-weighted and
time-weighted rates of return ..........................................................................................pg. 39
Compute the holding period yield, effective annual yield, money market yield,
and bank discount yield for a U.S. Treasury bill ...........................................................pg. 43
Convert among holding period yields, money market yields, and effective annual
yields ................................................................................................................................pg. 45
Compute bond equivalent yield (BEY) ...........................................................................pg. 46

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2010 Allen Resources, Inc.
Study Session 2

## Net Present Value

Learning Objective: Calculate the net present value (NPV) and internal rate of return (IRR) of a
capital investment project.

Net present value is simply the estimated value of a project based on the cash flows it is
expected to produce. If the estimated value is positive, then accepting the project will increase
the value of the firm and, thus, increase shareholders’ wealth. The NPV method relies on
discounted cash flow (DCF) techniques and does not suffer from the shortcomings of the regular
and discounted payback methods. The steps in the NPV method are:
1. Determine each cash inflow and outflow and discount them at the project’s cost of capital
to find the present value (PV) of each.
2. Sum these discounted cash flows to produce the project’s NPV.
3. If the NPV is positive, the project should be accepted. If the NPV is negative, the project
should be rejected.
The equation for the NPV is:

## CF1 CF2 CFn

NPV = CF0 + + +...+
(1 + k ) (1 + k ) (1 + k )
1 2 n

Where CF is the expected net cash flow for period t and k is the cost of capital. (Cash outflows
are treated as negative numbers and inflows are treated as positive numbers.)

Assume that a project’s cash flows consist of an initial investment of \$5,000, and annual cash
inflows of \$1,000, \$2,000, \$3,000, and \$4,000. The NPV is computed as follows:

## 1,000 2,000 3,000 4,000

NPVs = -5,000 + + + + = \$2,164
(1.12 ) (1.12 ) (1.12 ) (1.12 )
1 2 3 4

If a project has a positive NPV, then it should be accepted. An NPV of \$2,164 means that if
project X is undertaken, the firm’s value (and therefore shareholders’ wealth) will increase by
\$2,164 as soon as the project is accepted. If the NPV is negative, then the project should be
rejected.

## Internal Rate of Return

The IRR is the discount rate that equates the PV of the project’s expected cash inflows to the PV
of the project’s costs. It is the rate that forces the NPV to equal zero. In the following equation, if
CF0 … CFn are known, the IRR is the rate that makes the PV of all future cash flows equal CF0,
thus producing an NPV of zero.

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Study Guide for the Level I 2011 CFA Exam - Reading Highlights
Discounted Cash Flow

## CF1 CF2 CFn

NPV = CF0 + + +...+ =0
(1 + IRR ) (1 + IRR ) (1 + IRR )
1 2 n

The IRR can easily be found using any financial calculator. It can also be solved through a trial-
and-error process by entering a discount rate into the formula and seeing if the equation solves to
zero. If it does not, a different rate is entered until the rate forces the equation to equal zero.

The IRR for the project in the previous section is 27.3%. If a project’s IRR is greater than the
firm’s cost of capital, then the project should be accepted. The IRR is the expected average
annual rate of return on the project. If the IRR exceeds the cost of the funds used to finance the
project, a surplus remains after paying for the capital. This surplus accrues to the stockholders,
thereby increasing shareholders’ wealth.

## Using Net Present Value and Internal Rate of Return

Learning Objective: Discuss the use of the decision rule under the net present value and internal
rate of return methods.

The NPV and IRR criteria always lead to the same accept/reject decision if independent projects
are being considered. For mutually exclusive projects, NPV is the correct method. IRR should
not be used as the selection method when choosing between mutually exclusive projects because
IRR and NPV can give conflicting results. One project can have the higher IRR while the other
project has the higher NPV.

Two conditions can cause NPV and IRR to yield conflicting rankings:
1. When the cost of one project is larger than the other.
2. When the timing of cash flows from the two projects differs so that most of the cash
flows from one project come in the early years while most of the cash flows from the
other project come in the later years.
The NPV method is therefore the preferred method for evaluating mutually exclusive projects,
especially for those projects that differ in cost and/or timing.

## Additional Problems with Internal Rate of Return

Learning Objective: Discuss the problems with the internal rate of return method.

If a project has abnormal cash flows, the IRR method may not be usable. Normal cash flows
occur if one or more cash outflows are followed by a series of cash inflows (and therefore there
is only one change in the signs of the cash flows). If a project requires cash outflows after cash
inflows have occurred, then the project has abnormal cash flows. (Abnormal cash flows have
more than one sign change. A negative cash flow in the middle of a project would produce three
sign changes in the cash flow stream. A negative cash flow at the end of a project would produce
two sign changes in the cash flow stream.)

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For example, the following series of cash flows is normal: -\$1,000, \$500, \$600, \$700, and \$800.
There is only one change in sign (from -\$1,000 to \$500). However, the following series of cash
flows is not normal: -\$1,000, \$500, -\$600, \$700, and \$800. There are three changes in sign (from
-\$1,000 to \$500, from \$500 to -\$600, and from -\$600 to \$700).

If the IRR equation is solved for a project with abnormal cash flows, it is possible to obtain more
than one value of IRR, meaning that multiple IRRs occur. (In fact, there will be one IRR per sign
change in the cash flow stream.) In such cases, the IRR method should not be used to evaluate or
rank the project.

The IRR method also assumes that the project’s cash flows are reinvested at the IRR over the
project’s life. When a project has a high IRR, it may not be realistic to assume that the cash
flows from the project can be reinvested at that same high rate of return.

## Holding Period Return

Learning Objective: Define, calculate, and interpret holding period returns (total return).

The period during which an investor owns an investment is called the holding period. The return
for the period during which an investor owns an investment is called the holding period return.

Pt − Pt −1 + Dt
HPR t =
Pt −1

Where:

## Dt = any cash distribution (such as a dividend) at time t

For example, suppose an investor purchases an asset for \$300 and gets back \$330 at the end of
the year. The holding period is one year and the holding period return is (\$330 − \$300)/\$300 =
0.10 or 10%.

The holding period return is also referred to as the total return. This is, as stated above, simply
the price appreciation (Pt − Pt−1) plus income (Dt), divided by the cost of the investment. This is
the total return of the investment. Note that this return is not necessarily annualized, but rather is
the total return of the investment over the holding period. Only under the special case of the
holding period being precisely one year, is the total return equal to the annualized return.

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Study Guide for the Level I 2011 CFA Exam - Reading Highlights
Discounted Cash Flow

## Learning Objective: Differentiate between money-weighted and time-weighted rates of return.

Money-Weighted Return

Money-weighted (MW) return is the internal rate of return on a portfolio, taking account of all
cash flows. It tries to measure return on average investment during the period. The best way to
compute a money-weighted return is to use the internal rate of return (IRR) method.

Time-Weighted Return

Time-weighted (TW) return removes the effects of the timing and amount of cash flows in and
out of the portfolio. It reflects the compound rate of growth of one unit of currency invested over
a stated measurement period.

Learning Objective: Compute and appraise the performance of a portfolio’s money-weighted and
time-weighted rates of return.

Money-weighted return is the internal rate of return (IRR), which is the Rp in the equation:

FV PMTt
PV = +
(1 + R p ) t (1 + R p )t

Where:

## PMTt = cash flow at time t

Example
An investment of \$1,000 pays \$40 at the end of each year for 5 years, plus \$1,100 at the end of
the five years. What is the money-weighted rate of return?

Solution
The money-weighted rate of return will be the rate R that satisfies the equation:

\$1,100 5
\$40
\$1, 000 = + t
(1 + Rp ) t =1 (1 + R p )

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Study Session 2

We can use a financial calculator’s bond function to solve this. Remember to set payments per
year equal to one if necessary (rather than the bond convention of semiannual payments):

[N] = 5
[PV] = -1000
[PMT] = 40
[FV] = 1100
[2nd] [I/Y] = 1 [ENTER]
[CE/C]
[CPT] [I/Y]

## You should get I/Y = 5.78, which means 5.78%.

Money-weighted (MW) return is for the period and can be annualized by compounding. For
example, if we computed the quarterly MW return and we need the annual MW return, we can
compute it as follows:

Where:

## R qt = MW return for quarter t

Time-Weighted Return

Because open-ended mutual fund managers cannot directly control the cash inflows to their
portfolio, there is interest in a return measure that removes the effects of the timing and amount
of cash flows in and out of the portfolio.

Time-weighted return computation divides the measurement period into sub-periods. The first
sub-period starts at the beginning of the measurement period and ends with the date of the first
cash flow. The second sub-period starts the day after the first sub-period and ends on the date of
the second cash flow and so forth. The last sub-period begins the day after the last cash flow and
ends at the end of the measurement period.

TW return requires valuation of the portfolio each time a cash flow occurs. The sub-period return
is equal to the change in portfolio value during the period, divided by the total amount invested
for the period:

## Ending value − Amount invested

Return for period =
Amount invested

All sub-period returns are then compounded to arrive at the return for the measurement period:

## Rtw = (1 + Rs1)(1 + Rs2)(1 + Rs3)…(1 + Rsk) – 1

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Study Guide for the Level I 2011 CFA Exam - Reading Highlights
Discounted Cash Flow

Where:

## Rsk = portfolio return during sub-period k

To obtain the time-weighted average return over a period of years, take the geometric mean of
the total time-weighted return for the study period.

Example
You are Stewart Murtha, an investment manager with Clone ‘Em Equity Partners. Your fund’s
performance is shown below (figures in millions).

Period: 1 2 3 4 5

## Start Value \$1,000 \$1,300 \$1,800 \$2,500 \$2,500

New Investments \$100 \$300 \$250 \$500 (\$1,000)
Amount Invested \$1,100 \$1,600 \$2,050 \$3,000 \$1,500
End Value \$1,300 \$1,800 \$2,500 \$2,500 \$1,800

Assuming new investments are accepted only at the beginning of each period, find the time-
weighted average return for the entire period.

Solution
The return for period 1 is found by:

\$1,300 − \$1,100
Return for period = = 18.18%
\$1,100

Period 1 2 3 4 5

## Rtw = (1.1818)(1.1250)(1.2195)(0.8333)(1.2000) – 1 = 0.6214 = 62.14%

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By adding one to this value, and taking the fifth root of it, we can get the average annual time-
weighted return:

5
1.6214 – 1 = 10.15%

Note: This will differ from the dollar-weighted return. The dollar-weighted return will require
use of a spreadsheet or a financial calculator’s CF and IRR function. (The bond function used
earlier was useful for a simpler example.)

To compute dollar-weighted return, we must compare the net inflow and outflow for each period,
and find the interest rate which equates them over time. The beginning portfolio value should be
considered an investment (outflow), and the ending portfolio value should be considered a return
(inflow). For the example above, our net inflows and outflows for each period will be:

## Time Net Inflow

0 -1,100
1 -300
2 -250
3 -500
4 1,000
5 1,800

Notice the designation of the cash flow timing. The starting value in the first period is denoted as
time t = 0. Also, the net inflow of \$1,000 occurs at the beginning of the 5th year, while the final
portfolio value of \$1,800 is at the end of the 5th year.

## For the Texas Instruments BA II Plus, make the following entries:

[CF] [2nd] [CE/C] this clears all entries in the cash flow sheet
1100 [+/-] [ENTER]
[ ] 300 [+/-] [ENTER]
[ ][ ] 250 [+/-] [ENTER]
[ ][ ] 500 [+/-] [ENTER]
[ ][ ] 1000 [ENTER]
[ ][ ] 1800 [ENTER]
[IRR] [CPT]

## You should get 7.57, which in this context means 7.57%.

Thus, the dollar-weighted return is much lower. The time-weighted return shows that the dollar-
weighted return is negatively affected by the cash flows in and out of the fund.

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Study Guide for the Level I 2011 CFA Exam - Reading Highlights
Discounted Cash Flow

Learning Objective: Compute the holding period yield, effective annual yield, money market
yield, and bank discount yield for a U.S. Treasury bill.

Holding Period Yield (total return for the period, not annualized):

P1 − P0 + D1
HPY =
P0

Where P1 is the maturity value, P0 is the purchase price, and D1 is the dividend at the end of the
holding period.

P1 − P0
HPY =
P0

## Effective Annual Yield (365-day compound-annualized HPY):

365
EAY = (1 + HPY) t
−1

## D 360 360 P 360 × r BD

r MM = × = HPY × = r BD × 1 =
P0 t t P0 360 − t × r BD

## The D in the formula above refers to the T-bill discount, P1 – P0.

Bank Discount Yield (use arithmetic annualization with face value F as denominator):

D 360
r BD = ×
F t

Example

A U.S. Treasury bill, with a face value (or par value) of \$100,000 and 160 days until maturity, is
selling for \$97,000. Calculate its holding period yield, effective annual yield, money market
yield, and bank discount yield.

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Solution
For a T-bill, which pays no explicit dividend D1, HPY is simply:

P1 − P0
HPY =
P0

## 100, 000 − 97, 000

So here, HPY = = 3.0928% .
97, 000

## Effective Annual Yield:

365 365
EAY = (1 + HPY) t
− 1 = (1 + 3.0928%) 160 − 1 = 7.1956%

## D 360 3, 000 360

r MM = × = × = 6.9588%
P0 t 97, 000 160

Bank Discount Yield (use arithmetic annualization with face value F as denominator):

## D 360 \$3, 000 360

r BD = × = × = 6.75%
F t \$100, 000 160

Note: The price of short-term discount instruments such as Treasury bills are quoted using bank
discount yields, so we must convert from bank discount yield to price.

Example
There is a \$100,000 T-bill, with 160 days to maturity, quoted at 93.25. What is the present
purchase price for this T-bill?

Solution
A quote of 93.25 means that the bank discount yield (or discount yield) is 1 – 93.25% = 6.75%.

With the discount yield, we solve for the dollar discount, D, as follows:

t 160
D = r BD × F × = 6.75% × 100, 000 × = 3, 000
360 360

With the dollar discount calculated, the purchase price for the T-bill is its face value minus the
dollar discount, F – D = \$100,000 – \$3,000 = \$97,000.

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Study Guide for the Level I 2011 CFA Exam - Reading Highlights
Discounted Cash Flow

Learning Objective: Convert among holding period yields, money market yields, and effective
annual yields.

To convert among the three versions of short term yields, you need to know that all those yields
come from three pieces of basic information: the present value (PV), the future value or face
value (FV), and the number of days in between.

The Holding Period Yield is the total return for the specific period. It is not annualized:

P1 − P0 + D1
HPY =
P0

The Effective Annual Yield is the holding period return annualized using 365-day compounding:
365
EAY = (1 + HPY) t
−1

The Money Market Yield or CD-Equivalent Yield is the holding period yield annualized using
360-day convention with no compounding:

D 360 360
r MM = × = HPY ×
P0 t t

So the key is to remember that Holding Period Yield is for the holding period only, not
necessarily for the year. Effective Annual Yield is annualized HPY using 365-day compounding.
Money Market (CD) Yield is annualized HPY using 360-day convention with no compounding.

Example
Suppose a savings instrument produces a holding period return of 5% for 180 days. Find the
effective annual yield and the CD-equivalent yield.

Solution
365
EAY = (1 + 0.05)180 − 1 = 10.40%

360
r MM = 0.05 × = 10.00%
180

Example
A 270-day CD produces a CD-equivalent of 7.25%. Find the holding period yield and the
effective annual yield.

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Study Session 2

Solution
360
r MM = 0.0725 = HPY × ; HPY = 5.4375%
270

Therefore:
365
EAY = (1 + 0.054375) 270 − 1 = 7.4202%

Example
An effective annual yield for a 90-day security is 5.50%. Find the holding period yield and the
money market equivalent yield.

Solution
365
0.055 = (1 + HPY) 90 − 1

365
ln(1.055) = × ln (1 + HPY )
90

0.013201833 = ln (1 + HPY )

ln (1 + HPY )
e0.013201833 = e

1.013289362 = 1 + HPY

HPY = 1.3289362%

## The money market equivalent yield can now be found:

360
r MM = 0.013289362 × = 5.3157%
90

## Learning Objective: Compute bond equivalent yield (BEY).

Periodic bond yields for both straight and zero-coupon bonds are conventionally computed based
on semiannual periods, as U.S. bonds typically make two coupon payments per year. For
example, a zero-coupon bond selling at \$553.68 with a maturity of ten years will mature in
twenty 6-month periods. To get the periodic yield for that bond, r, we can solve the equation:

## \$553.68 = \$1,000 × (1 + r )-20

to get r = 3%.

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Study Guide for the Level I 2011 CFA Exam - Reading Highlights
Discounted Cash Flow

This yield r of 3% is, of course, an internal rate of return with semiannual compounding. In bond
market terminology, it is the semiannual yield to maturity. How do we annualize it?

The convention is to double it and call the result the bond’s yield to maturity. In our example, the
semiannual yield to maturity is 3%; the bond’s yield to maturity is 6%. The yield to maturity
calculated in this way, which ignores compounding for the six months, is a bond-equivalent
yield. Annualizing a semiannual yield by doubling it is putting the yield on a bond-equivalent
basis. This yield to maturity (on a bond-equivalent basis) is the actual yield quoted in markets. It
is the one we use in talking to a bond dealer.