Tests MOD3

1
Module III.
Theme: “Metabolism and its investigation methods”
Variant 1.
1. Expenditure of energy of a young man 6. What type of condition a person has if the
increased from 500 kJ to 2000 kJ in 1 hour. Which index of his expenditure of energy is lower than
of the following process may be the reason for it? the level of basal metabolism?
A. Physical activity A. State of rest
B. Increase of environment T B. State of relaxation
C. Mental work C. State of light work
D. Food intake D. State of nervous tension
E. Transition from sleep to wake E. Sleep
2. During physical activity a young man’s O2 7. It measures a person’s expenditure of energy

consumption and CO2 elimination per 1 min is on an empty stomach, in the lying position, in
1000 ml. What substances are oxidized in the cells the state of physical and mental rest, comfort
of his organism? temperature. At what time the person’s
A. Carbohydrates expenditure of energy will be the least?
B. Proteins A. 5-6 p.m
C. Lipids B. 7-8 p.m
D. Carbohydrates and lipids C. 10-12 a.m
E. Carbohydrates and proteins D. 3-4 a.m
E. 2-4 p.m
3. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was
determined that the basic metabolism of an 8. It measures a person’s expenditure of energy
examined person is 40% lower than it should be. on an empty stomach, in the lying position, in
The dysfunction of the activity of what endocrine the state of physical and mental rest, comfort
gland is the reason for such state? temperature. At what time the person’s
A. Pancreas expenditure of energy will be the greatest?
B Thymus A. 5-6 p.m
C. Thyroid gland B. 7-8 p.m
D. Epiphysis C. 10-12 a.m
E. Adrenal glands D. 2-4 p.m
E. 3-4 a.m
4. During a patient’s examination the increase of
basic metabolism level by 50% was determined. 9. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was
The increasing secretion of what hormone did determined that the volume of O2 consumption
cause this change? is 100 ml/min and the volume of CO2
A. Prolactin elimination is 800 ml/min?
B. Insulin A. 1,0
C. Parathormone B. 1,25
D. Somatotropin C. 0,9
E. Thyroxin D. 0,84
E. 0,8
5. A teenager of 14 has got positive nitrogen
balance. Which of the following may be reason for 10. During measuring a patient’s expenditure of
it? energy it was determined that the respiratory
A. Starvation quotient is 1,0. What substances are oxidized in
B. Growth of organism the cells of his organism?
C. Deficient of dietary protein A. Carbohydrates
D. Considerable physical activity B. Proteins
E. Emotional tension C. Lipids
D. Proteins and lipids
E. Carbohydrates and lipids.
Answers: 1- A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-E, 5-B, 6-E, 7-D, 8-A, 9- E, 10 –A.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. During measuring a patient’s expenditure of D. Increased plasma [Ca2+]
energy it was determined that the respiratory E. Decreased plasma [HPO42-]
quotient is 0,7. What substances are oxidized in
the cells of his organism? 6. How will respiratory quotient change after
A. Carbohydrates long-term hyperventilation?
B. Proteins A. It will increase till 3,0
C. Lipids B. It will increase till 2,5
D. Proteins and lipids C. It will increase till 1,5
E. Carbohydrates and lipids D. It will not change
E. It will decrease till 0,5
2. During a 35-year-old woman’s examination the
increase of basic metabolism level was 7. What O2 volume is inhaled by person during
determined. The increasing secretion of what experiment if only carbohydrates are oxidized
hormone caused this change? and this person exhaled 6l of CO2?
A. Triiodothyronine A. 5l
B. Somatotropin B. 6l
C. Insulin C. 8l
D. Cortisol D. 9l
E. Glucagon E. 12l
3. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was 8. What is the average level of daily basic
determined that the basic metabolism of an metabolism in man?
examined 30-year-old man is 30% lower than it A. 3000 kcal
should be. The decreasing secretion of what B. 1000 kcal
hormone caused this change? C. 2500 kcal
A. Triiodothyronine, tetraiodothyronine D. 1700 kcal
B. Tyrocalcitonin, parathormone E. 1400 kcal
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Catecholamine 9. What type of energy in organism doesn’t use
E. Growth hormone-releasing factor, somatostatin. for carrying-out of work?
A. Chemical
4. Hormones that may cause negative nitrogen B. Mechanical
balance include all of the following, EXCEPT: C. Electrical
A. Glucagon D. Heat
B. Thyroid hormone E. All of listing types
C. Cortisol
D. Growth hormone (GH) 10. What is the daily intake of retinol (A) for
E. Parathormone healthy organism?
A. 0,5 mg
5. Active vitamin D3 (calcitriol) and parathyroid B. 1,0 mg
hormone (PTH) have many similar effects. Which C. 1,5 mg
of the following physiologic effects is specific D. 2,0 mg
only for calcitriol? E. 2,5 mg
A. Increased renalphosphate reabsorbtion
B. Increased renal Ca2+ reabsorbtion
C. Increased intestinal Ca2+ absorbtion
Answers: 1- C, 2-A, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-E, 7-B, 8-D, 9-D, 10–C.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. How much entering energy will organism E. Lipids

excrete as a heat after all stages of energy
metabolism? 6. Women have the different level of basic
A. 20% metabolism from men on:
B. 100% A. it’s not different
C. 40% B. it’s less on 10-15%
D. 60% C. it’s more on 10-15 %
E. 80% D. it’s less on 30-40%
E. it’s more on 30-40%
2. Calorific (heat) oxygen equivalent – this is a ...
A. Ratio of the exhalant CO2 to inhalant O2 7. What part of daily entering energy is used by
B. Quantity of excreting energy during 1l O2 organism to work?
inhalation A. 20-30%
C. Ratio of the inhalant O2 to exhalant CO2 B. 30-40%
D. Quantity of excreting energy during 1l O2 C. 10-20%
exhalation D.50-60%
E. Quantity of excreting energy per 1 min during E. 100%
pure O2 respiration
8. Utilization of complex organic compounds to
3. Specific value of basic metabolism in men on simple with energy release is named of …
average is…. A. Assimilation
A. 1 kcal/kg/h B. Energetic balance
B. 2 kcal/kg/h C. Dissimilation
C. 3 kcal/kg/h D. Basic metabolism
D. 10 kcal/kg/h E. Heat loss
E. 5 kcal/kg/h
9. List of conditions of basic metabolism
4. During the experiment a person inhales 0,4 l O2, measuring, EXEPT:
respiratory quotient is 1. How much litres of CO2 A. in the morning
the patient exhales? B. in conditions of temperature comfort
A. 0,6 l C. in state of rest
B. 0,8 l D. on empty stomach
C. 0,4 l E. graduated exercise
D. 1,0l
E. 0,2 l 10. What is the daily intake of pantothenic acid
(B3) for healthy organism?
5. The expenditure of energy of 40-year-old miner A. 6 mg
is more than 5000 kcal per day. What substances B. 12 mg
in his dietary intake are necessary to increase for C. 24 mg
the recovery of such expenditure of energy? D. 46 mg
A. Vitamins E. 62 mg
B. Liquid
C. Proteins
D. Carbohydrates
Answers: 1-B, 2- B, 3- A, 4-C, 5-E, 6-B, 7- C, 8- C, 9-E, 10- B.

Module III.
Variant 4.
1. What is the respiratory quotient? 6. What vitamins are soluble in water?

A. Ratio of the inhalant O2to exhalant CO2 A. Retinol
B. Ratio of the exhalant CO2 to inhalant O2 B. Ergocalciferol
C. Difference between inhalant O2 and exhalant C. Tocopherol
CO2 D. Arachidonic acid
D. Ratio of the inhalant CO2 to exhalant O2 E. Lipoic acid
E. Ratio of the exhalant O2 to inhalant O2
7. What is the daily intake of ascorbic acid (C)
2. What kinds of works are carrying-out in human for healthy organism?
organism? A. 25 mg
A. Chemical, mechanical, atomic, kinetic B. 55 mg
B. Chemical, mechanical, electroosmotic C. 75 mg
C. Chemical, mechanical, thermal, potential D. 95 mg
D. Thermal, electrical, atomic, potential E. 115 mg
E. All answers are correct
8. How much energy will organism receive
3. What is the main principle of the direct after dissociation of 10g NaCl?
calorimetry? A. 50 kcal
A. Direct measuring of excretion body heat B. 100 kcal
B. Calculation of quantity of inhaling O2 C. 0 kcal
C. Measuring of the respiratory quotient D. 25 kcal
D. Isodynamic principle E. 10 kcal
E. Calculation of quantity of exhaling O2
9. What is the daily intake of folic acid (B9) for
4. Expenditure of energy is formed by… healthy organism?
A. Specific dynamic food action + working A. 120 microgram
addition B. 220 microgram
B. Basic metabolism + specific dynamic food C. 320 microgram
action D. 420 microgram
C. Basic metabolism + working addition E. 520 microgram
D. Basic metabolism
E. Specific dynamic food action 10. What is the average level of expenditure of
energy in mental work people?
5. What is the basic metabolism? A. 2500 - 3000 kcal
A. Quantity of energy for life in standard B. 2100 - 2450 kcal
conditions C. 3000 - 4000 kcal
B. All amount of energy for maintenance of life D. 1500 -1700 kcal
C. Maximal amount of energy for life E. 3000 – 4000 kcal
D. Minimal amount of energy for maintenance of
life
E. Quantity of expenditure of energy in state of
rest per 1 hour
Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C, 5- D, 6-E, 7- C, 8-C, 9-C, 10-D.

Module III.
Theme: “Thermoregulation and its investigation methods”
Variant 1
º
1. The air temperature is 38º C, relative humidity A. In condition of big amount of sweat
of the air is 80 %, wind speed – 0 m/sec. In what evaporation
way the maximum amount of heat is emitted on B. In condition of concentrated sweat
these conditions? evaporation
A. Convection C. In condition of very low relative humidity
B. Heat irradiation D. In condition of very high relative humidity
C. Sweat evaporation E. All answers are incorrect
D. Heat conduction
E. Radiation convection 7. People adapted to the action of high external
temperature don’t lose a large amount of
2. The lightly clothed man is standing in a room sodium chloride with sweat. What hormone
where the air temperature is 14º C. Windows and does cause such effect on sudoriferous glands?
doors are closed. In what way the maximum A. Atrial natriuretic factor (atriopeptin)
amount of heat is emitted on these conditions? B. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)
A. Convection C. Cortisol
B. Heat irradiation D. Thyroxin
C. Sweat evaporation E. Aldosteron
D. Heat conduction
8. Andressed person is being taken test of the
E. Radiation convection
heat emission determination at room
3. What mechanism of heat emission is the most temperature. In what way the maximum
effective if a person is on the condition of 80% air amount of heat is emitted under such
humidity and the environment temperature is condition?
35ºC? A. Convection
A. Convection B. Heat irradiation
B. Heat irradiation C. Sweat evaporation
C. Sweat evaporation D. Heat conduction
D. Heat conduction E. Radiation convection
E. Radiation convection 9. A man went out from a conditioned medium
to the street with the air temperature was 40ºC,
4. In cold windy weather people become frozen
relative humidity was 60%. In what way the
quicker than in windless weather. What type of the
maximum amount of heat is emitted under such
heat emission is increased by wind?
condition?
A. Convection
A. Convection
B. Heat irradiation
B. Heat irradiation
C. Sweat evaporation
D. Heat conduction
D. Heat conduction
5. The inhabitants of areas with cold weather have 10. During the thermometry it was determined
an increased content of special hormone in blood, that the temperature of skin open parts is by 1-
which has an adaptive heat regulation meaning. 1,5ºC lower than the temperature of the dress
The increasing secretion of what hormone does covered parts. What type of the heat emission is
cause the development of adaptation? reduced by dress?
A. Thyroxin A. Convection
B. Insulin B. Heat irradiation
C. Glucagon C. Sweat evaporation
D. Somatotropin D. Heat conduction
E. Cortisol E. Radiation convection
6. In what conditions the increasing of sweat Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-A, 6-D, 7- C,
evaporation is not cause the heat emission? 8-B, 9-C, 10-A
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. The air temperature is 36ºC, relative humidity is E. The air heat conduction is increased
80% indoors. In what way the maximum amount
of heat is emitted on these conditions? 6. During an experiments rats were adapted to
A. Convection living on cold conditions at the T= +5ºC. The
B. Heat irradiation increasing secretion of what hormone caused
C. Sweat evaporation the development of adaptation?
D. Heat conduction A. Glucagon
E. Radiation convection B. Insulin
C. Thyroxin
2. The workers of hot workshops of metallurgical D. Somatotropin
enterprises lose a lot of water with sweat. What E. Cortisol
drink is it necessary to take for optimum
compensation of this state? 7. In what daily period a human organism has
A. Salt water got a maximal temperature?
B. Soda water A. 6.00 p.m
C. Milk B. 4.00 p.m
D. Natural juices C. 7 p.m
E. Kvass D. 10 p.m
E. 12 p.m
3. Experimental surgical procedure caused a
violation of the animal ability to maintenance of 8. People suffer from the hot weather more in
the body temperature on constant level under the nylon shirts than in cottons. What is the main
conditions of external low temperature. What is reason of this phenomenon?
the probable reason of this violation? A. The convection is increased
A. The hypophysis is injured B. The heat irradiation is increased
B. The disfunction of anterior hypothalamus C. The convection and sweat evaporation are
nuclei decreased
C. The epiphysis is injured D. Sweat evaporation is increased
D. The disfunction of posterior hypothalamus D. Radiation convection is increased
nuclei
E. The cortex of cerebrum is injured 9. What type of thermal receptors is located in
skin with high density?
4. In what temperature range warm receptors have A. Warm
got a maximum level of the activity? B. Density is equal
A. 20-25 ºC C. Hot
B. 25-30 ºC D. Cold
C. 40-46 ºC E. Cool
D. 30-35 ºC
E. 35-40 ºC 10. Which of the hypothalamic area has the
centre of heat emission?
5. People at the same temperature are colder in A. The anterior and posterior nucleus groups
rainy weather than in dry weather. What is the B. The posterior nucleus group
main reason of this phenomenon? C. The dorsal nucleus group
A. The sweat evaporation is reduced D. The anterior nucleus group
B. The convection is increased E. All answers are correct.
C. The heat irradiation is increased
D. The sweat evaporation is increased
Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C, 5-E, 6-C, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Where is the thermoregulation centre located? 6. What is the thermal (heat) balance?
A. In the medulla oblongata A. The equilibrium between heat conduction and
B. In the midbrain thermogenesis in the body.
C. In the hypothalamus B. All answers are correct
D. In the cerebellum C. The equilibrium between thermogenesis and
E. In the pons varolii heat emission in the body
D. The equilibrium between retractive and
2. What maximal amount of sweat might be unretractive thermogenesis
secreted by human sweat glands per day? E. All answers are incorrect
A. 10 l
B. 5 l 7. What main function of the brown adipose
C. 20 l tissue?
D. 25 l A. It increases the level of thermogenesis
E. 2 l B. It stimulates the synthesis of ATP
C. It stimulates the energy synthesis
3. What part of heat is emitted from the body by D. It stimulates glycogen mobilization
skin? E. All answers are correct
A. 20%
B. 40% 8. What is the basic mechanism of unretractive
C. 80% thermogenesis?
D. 60% A. The increasing of the chemical work of cells
E. 100% B. Stimulation of muscle shivering
C. Stimulation of conjugation between oxidative
4. What part of heat is emitted from the body by phosphorylation and tissue respiration
conduction and convection at comfort D. Stimulation of dissociation between oxidative
temperature and 40% relative humidity? phosphorylation and tissue respiration
A. 70% E. All answers are correct
B. 40%
C. 60% 9. Cold muscle shivering is the special case of
D. 50% A. Physical thermoregulation
E. 25% B. Thermal preference
C. Chemical thermoregulation
5. What type of heat emission mainly functions D. All answers are correct
at 40ºC external temperature and normal relative E. Not of all answers are correct
humidity?
A. Convection 10. What is the main mechanism of body heat
B. Heat irradiation emission in sauna conditions?
C. Sweat evaporation A. Convection
D. Heat conduction B. Heat irradiation
E. Radiation convection C. Sweat evaporation
D. Heat conduction
Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-C, 4-E, 5-C, 6-C, 7-A, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Which hormone does increase thermogenesis A. It’s change of carbohydrates breaking up

and body temperature? speed
A. Aldosterone B. It’s change of lipolysis intensity
B. Insulin C. It’s change of proteolysis intensity
C. Parathormone D. It’s change of thermogenesis intensity
D. Vasopressin E. It’s change of metabolism intensity.
E. Thyroxin
7. What is the health-giving adaptive result of
2. The air temperature is 18º C, relative thermoregulation functional system?
humidity of the air is 100 %, wind speed – 0 A. Muscle shivering
m/sec. Due to what mechanism will there be heat B. Increasing of sweat evaporation
emission under these conditions? C. Constancy of body temperature
A. Convection D. Changing of body temperature
B. Heat irradiation E. Behavioural reaction
D. Heat conduction 8. What processes are main in the mechanism of
E. Radiation convection body heat emission in ordinary conditions?
A. Increasing of muscle tonus and shivering
3. In what daily period human organism has got B. Activation of unretractive thermogenesis
a minimal temperature? C. Convection, irradiation, evaporation,
A. 6.00 p.m conduction
B. 4.00 p.m D. Only convection, irradiation, conduction
C. 7 p.m E. Convection, irradiation, evaporation,
D. 10 p.m thermogenesis
E. 12 p.m
9. In what temperature range cold receptors have
4. Which temperature range is comfort for light got the maximum level of activity?
dressed person at 50% relative humidity of A. 20-25 ºC
environment? B. 25-30 ºC
A. 16 - 18 ºC C. 40-46 ºC
B. 22 - 24 ºC D. 30-35 ºC
C. 26 - 28 ºC E. 35-40 ºC
D. 18 - 20 ºC
E. 20 - 22 ºC 10. What is the main type of body heat emission
in cold water?
5. What is the physical thermoregulation? A. Convection
A. It’s mechanism of perspiration increasing B. Heat irradiation
B. It’s mechanism of heat exchange changing C. Sweat evaporation
C. It’s mechanism of heat emission increasing D. Heat conduction
D. It’s mechanism of metabolism level E. Radiation convection
decreasing
E. It’s mechanism of physical adaptation
6. What is the chemical thermoregulation?
Answers: 1-E, 2-B, 3-B, 4-D, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-C, 9-A, 10-D
Module III.
Theme: “General properties of the digestion system, digestion in the oral cavity”
Variant 1.
1. Animal’s chorda tympani is being taken E. It’ll be a big volume of viscid saliva
irritation during an acute experiment. How will
the parotid salivary gland secretion change? 6. A patient has got a chronic neuritis of the n.
A. Saliva will not be secreted trigeminus. Which of the digestive processes
B. It’ll be a small volume of the liquid saliva might be broken in this case?
C. It’ll be a big volume of the liquid saliva A. Mastication
D. It’ll be a small volume of the viscid saliva B. Salivation
E. It’ll be a big volume of viscid saliva C. Formation of taste feeling
D. Deglutition
2. During tests a student’s mouth got too dry. E. Salivation
The increased realization of what reflexes was
the mechanism caused the development of this 7. A small volume of the viscid saliva is secreted
state? by the person’s salivary glands. Dysfunction of
A. Unconditional sympathetic. what salivary glands is developed in this case?
B. Unconditional parasympathetic A. Parotid glands
C. Conditional parasympathetic B. Small oral glands
D. Conditional sympathetic C. Sublingual (Rivinus') glands
E. Unconditional metasympathetic D. Submandibular glands
E. Proper lingual glands
3. In Ancient India a person suspected of crime
committing was required to swallow a handful of 8. Patient’s tongue tip is being taken
dry rice. Criminals could not swallow the rice anesthetization. What type of taste sensation will
because of decreased salivation. What process is disappear?
the reason for such state? A. sour
A. Inhibition of adrenal sympathetic system B. salty
B. Activation of parasympathetic nucleus of the C. sweet
facial nerve D. bitter
C. Inadequate blood supply of salivary glands E. sour-salty
D. Activation of parasympathetic nucleus of the
glossopharingeal nerve 9. The patient has glossopharingeal nerve (IX)
E. Activation of adrenal sympathetic system dysfunction. What type of taste sensation will
disappear in this case?
4. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be A. sour
found in saliva? B. salty
A. Salivary α-amylase C. sweet
B. Na+ D. bitter
C. Renin E. sour-salty
D. HCO3-
E. Chymotrypsinogen 10. Patient’s tongue root is being taken
anesthetization by procainamide hydrochloride.
5. A peripheral part of animal’s sympathetic What type of taste sensation will disappear?
nerve fiber is being taken irritation. How will the A. sour
sublingual (Rivinus') gland secretion change? B. salty
A. Saliva will not be secreted. C. sweet
B. It’ll be a small volume of the liquid saliva D. bitter
C. It’ll be a big volume of the liquid saliva E. sour-salty
D. It’ll be a small volume of the viscid saliva
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-E, 5-D, 6-A, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. A stroke patient has got a dysphagia. What 6. To what classification type of receptors the
part of the brain is suffered? taste receptors concern?
A. Neoencephalon A. Baroreceptor
B. Cervical part of spinal cord B. Tactile
C. Brainstem C. Irritant
D. Thalamencephalon D. Primary-sensing receptors
E. Mesencephalon E. Secondary-sensing receptors
2. Patient’s saliva pH is 8,0 according test. What 7. The lower oesophageal sphincter…
process will be result of this state? A. Normally prevents reflux of gastric contents
A. Dental tissue hyperplasia into the oesophagus
B. Dental caries B. Relax ahead of a peristaltic wave passing
C. Dental fluorosis down the oesophagus
D. Odontolith C. Is abnormally contracted in achalasia
E. Dental tissue hypoplasia D. all above-listed
E. none
3. Secondary oesophageal peristalsis
A. Is preceded by an oral-pharyngeal phase of 8. The patient has dysfunction of VII cerebral
swallowing nerve pair. What type of taste sensation will
B. involves activation of medullary swallowing disappear in this case?
centers A. sour
C. Is accompanied by lower esophageal B. salty
sphincter relaxation C. sweet
D. Occurs in both the skeletal and smooth D. bitter
muscle portions of the oesophagus E. sour-salty
E. Is abolished by vagotomy
9. Dendrites of ganglion inferius n.
4. In contrast to secondary oesophageal glossopharingeus form synapses with the
peristalsis, primary oesophageal peristalsis is receptors are being on:
characterized by which of the following A. Tongue tip
statements? B. Tongue root
A. It doesn’t involve relaxation of the lower C. Lateral surfaces of tongue
oesophageal sphincter D. Tongue limbs
B. It involves only contraction of oesophageal E. Epiglottis
smooth muscle
C. It’s not influenced by the instric nervous 10. Where the third neurone of the gustatory
system (taste) analyzer pathways is located?
D. It has an oropharingeal phase A. Medulla oblongata
E. It involves only contraction of oesophageal B. Pons varolii
skeletal muscle C. Cerebellum
D. Thalamus
5. During a 45-year-old woman’s examination E. Hypothalamus
the skin hyperpigmentation and BP decreasing
was determined. What changes of taste Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-C, 4-D, 5-A, 6-E, 7-D, 8-
sensitivity will be observed at the patient? A, 9-B, 10-D.
A. Increase of a taste threshold
B. Decrease of a taste threshold
C. Sweet sensation violation
D. Salt sensation violation
E. Bitter sensation violation
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Intensity of the olfactory sensitivity depends 6. What is normal saliva pH?

on what factors? A. 3,7 - 5,7
A. Chemical structure of aromatic substance B. 5,8 - 7,8
B. Concentration of aromatic substance in air C. 7,9 - 9,0
C. Movement rate of aromatic substance through D. 1,8 - 3,3
a nose
D. Physical condition of olfactory receptors 7. Saliva enzymes hydrolyze mainly …
E. All answers are correct A. Proteins
B. Lipids
2. Where the central part of the gustatory C. Vitamins
analyzer is located? D. Carbohydrates
A. Posterior central gyrus E. All answers are correct
B. Superior temporal gyrus,
C. Parahypocampal gyrus 8. What main processes play the leading part in
D. Supramargynal gyrus salivation?
E. Superior frontal gyrus A. Local
B. Humoral
3. In what department of the CNS there is a C. Neural, local, humoral
center of salivation? D. Neural
A. Neoencephalon E. Local and humoral
B. Cervical part of spinal cord
C. Medulla oblongata 9. What is the rate of salivation at the rest and
D. Thalamencephalon after maximal stimulation?
E. Mesencephalon A. 2,0-2,5 and 8-10 ml/min
B. 8-10 and 15-20 ml/min
4. Where swallowing receptors are located? C. 0,2-0,3 and 6-7 ml/min
A. Lateral surfaces of tongue D. 4-5 and 7-10 ml/min
B. Anterior third of tongue E. Rate of salivation doesn’t change
C. Surface of tongue root
D. Middle third of tongue 10. What is the most important irritation for a
E. Epiglottis peristalsis in the esophagus?
A. The food which has got in the esophagus
5. Is absorption process observed in an oral B. Swallowing
cavity? C. Food regurgitation from the stomach
A. Some substances are absorbed only D. Closing the upper oesophageal sphincter
B. The absorption begins only in a stomach E. Opening the lower oesophageal sphincter
C. The absorption begins only in a small
intestine
D. The absorption begins only in a big intestine Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-B, 7-D, 8-
E. No substances are absorpted D, 9-C, 10-B.
Module III.
Variant 4.
E. Sympathetical innervation
1. Why is the final saliva concentration more
hypotonic than the primary one? 6. An ulcer of tunica mucosa of mouth is
A. Na+ reabsorption is decreased in salivary revealed in the child. Which substances
gland epithelium deficiency in a blood and saliva can be the cause
B. K+ secretion is decreased in salivary gland of it?
epithelium A. Ca2+
C. H2O reabsorption is decreased in salivary B. α-amylase
gland epithelium C. Lysozyme
D. CL- secretion is decreased in salivary gland D. Bicarbonates
epithelium E. Phosphates
E. Bicarbonates secretion is decreased in
salivary gland epithelium 7. Acetylcholine (ACh) is required for the
contraction of...
2. At a dog with a salivary gland fistula have A. The lower oesophageal sphincter (LES)
received a saliva portion with high K+ B. The upper oesophageal sphincter (UES)
concentration. What main reason of this C. Both the LES and UES
phenomenon? D. The antrum
A. K+ secretion in glandular acinus E. Neither
B. K+ secretion in glandular ductus
C. Glandular acinus permeability 8. Which of the following secretions is most
D. Glandular ductus permeability depend on vagal stimulation?
E. Ductus water reabsorption A. Saliva
B. Hydrochloric acid (HCL)
3. A dog with a salivary gland fistula is taken C. Pepsin
irritation of cerebral nerve pair IX. As a result D. Pancreatic juice
the saliva is isotonic. What the reason of it? E. Bile
A. The increasing of saliva volume in acinus
B. The increasing of protein secretion 9. The major stimulus for primary peristalsis in
C. The increasing of salt secretion the oesophagus is…
D. The increasing of salivation rate secretion A. presence of food in the oesophagus
E. The increasing of kallikrein secretion B. swallowing
C. regurgitation of food from the stomach
4. At a dog with a salivary gland fistula after D. closing of the upper oesophageal sphincter
introduction of aldosterone have received a (UES)
saliva portion with high concentration of... E. opening of the lower oesophageal sphincter
A. Na+ (LES)
B. Cl-
C. K+ 10. With the violation of cerebral regulation a
D. Bicarbonates patient has got a broken act of swallowing. What
E. H+ part of the brain has suffered?
A. Prosencephalon
5. What factors lead to sensation of thirst during B. Cervical part of the spinal cord
a lecture at the lecturer? C. Brainstem
A. Dehydration D. Diencephalon
B. Hyperosmia E. Mesencephalon
C. Cortisol
D. Parasympathetical innervation Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C, 5-E, 6-C, 7-B, 8-
A, 9-B, 10-C.
Module III.
Theme: “Digestion in the stomach”
Variant 1.
1. 150 ml of meat broth was introduced through

a probe into the gastric cavity of an experimental 6. Basal acid output is increased by?
animal. The content of what matter will increase A. Acidification of the antrum
in its blood quickly? B. Administration of an H2 receptor antagonist
A. Insulin C. Vagotomy
B. Somatostatin D. Alkalinization of the antrum
C. Gastrin E. Acidification of the duodenum
D. Glucagon
E. Neurotensin 7. Which one of the following processes applies
to the proximal stomach?
2. The content of what products is it advisable to A. Accomodation
increase in the food ration of a person with B. Peristalsis
reduced secretory function of the stomach? C. Retropulsion
A. Sweet D. Segmentation
B. Broth E. Trituration
C. Salt
D. Milk 8. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal tract
E. Lard (GI) where secretion of intrinsic factor occurs:
A. Fundus of the stomach
3. Which one of the following statements about B. Antrum of the stomach
gastric emptying is correct? C. Duodenum of the intestine
A. Solids empty more rapidly than liquids D. Ileum of the intestine
B. Vagotomy accelerates the emptying of solids E. Colon
C. Indigestible food empties during the digestive
period 9. Removal of the pyloric sphincter is associated
D. Acidification of the antrum decreases gastric with?
emptying A. A decrease in gastric compliance
E. Vagotomy decreases accommodation of the B. An increase in maximal output of acid,
proximal stomach C. An increase in basal output of acid
D. An increase in the rate of gastric empying of
4. The principal paracrine secretion involved in solids
the inhibitory feedback regulation of gastric acid E. An increase in the serum gastrin level
secretion is…
A. Gastrin 10. In the formation of HCL by the parietal cells,
B. Somatostatin the transport of H+ across the parietal cell is
C. Histasmine coupled with the transport of ….
D. Enterogastrone A. K+
E. Acetylcholine B. CL-
C. HCO3-
5. The rate of gastric emptying increases with an D. H+
increase in? E. Na+
A. Intragastric volume
B. Intraduodenal volume
C. Fat content of duodenum Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-B, 5-A, 6-D, 7-A, 8-
D. Osmolality of duodenum A, 9-D, 10-A.
E. Acidity of duodenum
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. Withdrawal from chronic administration of an D. Somatostatin

antisecretory compound is followed by rebound E. Gastric-inhibiting peptide
gastric acd hypersecretion. Which drug could
account for the observed result? 6. Which of the following will inhibit stomach
A. A H1 receptor antagonist contractions?
B. A proton pump inhibitor A. Acetylcholine (Ach)
C. A cholinergic receptor antagonist B. Motilin
D. An antacid C. Gastrin
E. A CCKB receptor antagonist D. Secretin
E. Histamine
2. The paracrine secretion responsible for
inhibiting gastric acid secretion is…. 7. Gastric acid secretion increases when food
A. Histamine enters the stomach because…
B. Enterogastrone A. Protein digestion products directly stimulate
C. Somatostatin the parietal cells to release hydrochloric acid
D. Pepsin (HCL)
E. Enterooxyntin B. Food raises the pH of the stomach, allowing
more acid to be released
3. A medical student presents to the emergency C. Both
room with a two-day history of severe vomiting D. None are correct
and orthostatic hypotension. What kind of E. Only A
metabolic abnormalities would you expect?
A. Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic 8. Gastric parietal cells secrete…
acidosis A. Gastrin
B. Hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia, and metabolic B. Motilin
alkalosis C. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
C. Normal serum electrolytes and metabolic D. Intrinsic factor
acidosis E. Secretin
D. Normal serum electrolytes and metabolic
alkalosis 9. Choose the stimulus that is most important for
E. Hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic regulation of the gastrin secretion:
alkalosis A. Secretin
B. Histamine
4. Expansion of the antrum causes an increase in C. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
all of the following EXCEPT D. Bombesin
A. Secretion of gastrin E. Motilin
B. Secretion of pancreatic enzymes
C. Secretion of gastric acid (HCL) 10. The major stimulus for gastric acid (HCL)
D. gastric motility secretion during the cephalic phase is …
E. Receptive relaxation A. Histamine
B. Gastrin
5. During a patient’s examination the decrease C. Secretin
of the motor and evacuatory functions of the D. Somatostatin
stomach was determined. The deficit of which of E. Acetylcholine (ACh)
the following substances can it be connected
with?
A. Secretin
B. Gastrin Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-E, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
C. Adenosine D, 9-D, 10-E.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. The major stimulus for receptive relaxation of C. Has no effect on either gastrin-induced or
the stomach is? meal-stimulated secretion of acid
A. Food in the stomach D. Prevents activation of adenyl cyclase by
B. Food in the intestine gastrin
C. Secretin E. Causes an increase in potassium transport by
D. Cholecystokinin (CCK) gastric parietal (oxyntic) cells
E. Motilin
7. Which of the following reflexes is most
2. Gastric acid (HCL) secretion is inhibited dependent on a vagovagal reflex?
by…. A. Chewing
A. Somatostatin B. Swallowing
B. Entero-oxyntin C. Receptive relaxation
C. High pH D. Gastric emptying
D. amino acids E. Intestinal segmentation
E. acetylcholine (ACh)
8. The rate of gastric emptying is controlled
3. Megaloblastic anemia might be expected to primary by reflexes that occur…
occur following removal of… A. During chewing
A. The stomach B. During swalowing
B. The terminal ileum C. When chime enters the stomach
C. Both of them D. When chime enters the intestine
D. None are correct E. During the interdigestive period
E. Only B
9. A 45-year-old woman with severe vomiting
4. Which of the following can occur without caused by pyloric obstruction would be expected
brain stem coordination? to show…
A. Chewing A. Hyperchloremia
B. Swallowing B. An increase in plasma bicarbonate
C. Primary oesophageal peristalsis concentration [HCO3-]
D. Vomiting C. An increase in alveolar ventilation
E. Gastric empying D. Acid urine
E. A decrease in arterial CO2 tension (PaCO2)
5. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal tract
(GI) where secretion of gastrin occurs: 10. Gastric digestion is most important for which
A. Fundus of the stomach of the following substances?
B. Antrum of the stomach A. Fats
C. Duodenum of the intestine B. Carbohydrates
D. Ileum of the intestine C. Proteins
E. Colon D. Vitamins
E. Minerals
6. Pharmacological blockade of histamine H2
receptors in the gastric mucosa…
A. Inhibits both gastrin- and acetylcholine- Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-E, 5-B, 6-A, 7-C, 8-
mediated secretion of acid D, 9-B, 10-C.
B. Inhibits gastrin-induced but not meal-
stimulated secretion of acid
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Cutting the vagus nerve has a major effect on C. Mass action contractions
all of the following EXCEPT… D. The gastrocolic reflex
A. The rate of liquid emptying from the stomach E. The gastoileal reflex
B. Receptive relaxation
C. Migrating motor complex (MMC) 7. Gastric secretion is increased by….
D. Primary oesophageal peristalsis A. Stimulation of the vagus nerves
E. Non of all B. Stimulation of stretch receptors in the wall of
the stomach
2. Expantion of the antrum causes an increase in C. Alcohol
all of the following EXCEPT…. D. All above-listed
A. Secretion of gastrin E. None
B. Secretion of pancreatic enzymes
C. Secretion of gastric acid (HCL) 8. Which of the following would be expected to
D. Gastric motility decrease gastric emptying?
E. Receptive relaxation A. The enterogastric reflex
B. GIP
3. Which of the listed below the stomach C. Both of them
malfunction most likely to cause the anemia D. None are correct
condition? E. Only A
A. Malabsorption of minerals
B. Malabsorption of vitamin B12 9. Choose the stimulus that is most important for
C. Malabsorption of water regulation of the gastric acid (HCL) secretion:
D. Malabsorption of carbohydrates A. Secretin
E. Malabsorption of fats B. Histamine
C. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
4. Gastrin secretion is increased by … D. Bombesin
A. Acid in the lumen of the stomach E. Motilin
B. Distention of the stomach
C. Increased circulation levels of secretin 10. The symptoms of the stomach dumping
D. Increased circulating levels of gastric syndrome (discomfort after meals in patients
inhibitory peptide (GIP) with intestinal shot circuits such as anastamosis
E. Vagotomy of the jejunum to the stomach) are caused in part
by…
5. Gastrin is structurally similar to – A. Hypoglycemia
A. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) B. Hyperglycemia
B. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) C. Increased blood pressure
C. Glucagon D. Increased secretion of glucagon
D. Cholecystokinin (CCK) E. Increased secretion of cholecystokinin (CCK)
E. Secretin
6. Which of the following are important in Answers: 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-B, 5-D, 6-B, 7-D, 8-
mixing the contents of the gastrointestinal tract? C, 9-B, 10-A.
A. Peristalsis in the oesophagus
B. Peristalsis in the stomach, segmentation
contractions
Module III.
Theme: “Digestion in the duodenum. Role of the liver, pancreatic juice and bile in digestion.”
Variant 1.
1. A part of a patient’s pancreas was ablated. E. Neurotensin

What products is it necessary for him to limit in 6. A person has got considerable violation in
his food ration? digestion of proteins, fats and carbohydrates.
A. Fruit Reduced secretion of what digestive juice is the
B. Boiled vegetables result of it?
C. Dairy produce A. Saliva
D. Vegetables rich in proteins (beans, soy) B. Pancreatic
E. Fat meat, beef tea. C. Gastric
D. Bile
2. Lean solution of hydrochloric acid was E. Intestinal
introduced into the duodenum of an animal
through a probe. The content of what hormone 7. The exocrine portion of the pancreas does not
will be increases as a result of it? secrete -
A. Gastrin A. Chymotripsinogen
B. Cholecystokinin pancreozymin B. Proelastase
C. Secretin C. α-limit dextrinase
D. Glucagon D. Pancreatic α-amylase
E. Neurotensin E. Deoxyribonuclease
3. Deficit of what enzyme is the most often the 8. Which of the following are correctly paired?
reason for incomplete digestion of fats in the A. Pancreatic α-amylase : starch
digestive tract and the increase of the neutral fat B. Trypsin : proteins and polypeptides
quantity in experiments? C. Rennin : coagulated milk
A. Pancreatic lipase D. Enteropeptidase : trypsinogen
B. Gastric lipase E. All above-listed
C. Pancreatic amylase
D. Intestinal lipase 9. After secretion of trypsinogen into the
E. Enterokinas duodenum the enzyme is converted into its
active form, trypsin, by…
4. In the process of aging of a human being there A. Enteropeptidase
is a decrease of the synthesis and secretion of the B. Procarboxypeptidase
pancreatic juice, a decrease of trypsin content in C. Pancreatic lipase
it. To the violation of the splitting of what D. Previously secreted trypsin
substances does it lead first of all? E. An alkaline pH
A. Polysaccharides
B. Phospholipids 10. Removal of proximal segments of the small
C. Proteins intestine results in a decrease in….
D. Nucleic acids A. Basal acid output
E. Lipids B. Maximal acid output
C. Gastric emptying of liquids
5. A patient’s duodenum is ablated. The D. Gastric emptying of solids
decrease of the secretion of what hormone will it E. Pancreatic enzyme secretion
cause?
A. Gastrin Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-C, 8-
B. Secretin E, 9-E, 10-C.
C. Histamin
D. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. Which of the following is not produced by a 6. Total pancreatectomy would be expected to

hormone secreted by the mucosa of the cause –
gastrointestinal tract? A. Decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
A. Increased production of pancreatic juice rich B. Little or no change in the plasma glucagons
in enzymes level
B. Contraction of the gallbladder C. A rise in the blood glucose level
C. increased production of watery pancreatic D. Decreased absorption of amino acids
juice rich in bicarbonate E. All above-listed
D. Decreased gastric motility
E. Decreased secretion of glucagon 7. The hormones that normally regulate the
secretion of the exocrine portion of the pancreas
2. After a meal rich in carbohydrate is ingested, include –
insulin secretion is probably stimulated by – A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
A. GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B. Secretin
B. CCK (cholecystokinin) C. Both of them
C. Serotonin D. None are correct
D. VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide) E. Only A
E. Gastrin
8. Nearly all binding of cobalamin (vitamin B12)
3. Which of the following has the highest pH? to intrinsic factor occurs in the…
A. Gastric juice A. Stomach
B. Bile in the gallbladder B. Duodenum
C. Pancreatic juice C. Jejunum
D. Saliva D. Ileum
E. Secretions of the intestinal glands E. Colon
4. Epinephrine inhibits glucose uptake by muscle 9. The major factor that protects the duodenal
and adipose tissue. This inhibitory effect is mucosa from damage by gastric acid is:
attributed to … A. Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
A. Glucagon secretion B. The endogenous mucosal barrier of the
B. Thyroid hormone secretion duodenum
C. Inhibition of insulin secretion C. Duodenal bicarbonate secretion
D. Inhibition of growth hormone (GH) secretion D. Hepatic bicarb0onate secretion
E. Inhibition of cortisol secretion E. Bicarbonate contained in bile
5. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal (GI) 10. The metabolic effects of insulin include …
tract where the absorption of iron occurs: A. Decreased glucose utilization
A. Fundus of the stomach B. Decreased lipolysis
B. Antrum of the stomach C. Increased proteolysis
C. Duodenum of the intestine D. Increased gluconeogenesis
D. Ileum of the intestine E. Increased ketogenesis
E. Colon
Answers: 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-C, 5-C, 6-E, 7-C, 8-

B, 9-A, 10-B.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. A stone in the common bile duct stopped bile E. None are correct
coming into the bowels. Violation of what 7. The output of glucose from the liver is
process is observed there? increased by –
A. Absorption of proteins A. Induction of phosphorylase
B. Digestion of carbohydrates B. Glucagon
C. Absorption of carbohydrates C. Both of them
D. Digestion of fats D. None are correct
E. Digestion of proteins E. Only B
2. Bile contains – 8. Acute obstruction of the common bile duct

A. bile acids produced experimentally will incur which of the
B. Cholesterol following changes in plasma and urinary levels
C. Bilirubin glucuronide of bilirubin?
D. Alkaline phosphatase
E. All above-listed Unconjugated Conjugated Conjugated
bilirubin in bilirubin in bilirubin in
3. After complete hepatectomy, a rise would be plasma plasma urine
expected in the blood level of – A increase no change increase
A. Bilirubin glucuronide B no change increase increase
B. Fibrinogen C decrease decrease decrease
C. Glucose D increase decrease increase
D. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol E decrease no change increase
E. None are correct
9. Contraction of the gallbladder is correctly
4. The lipoprotein that is the major source of the described by which of the following statements?
cholesterol used in cells is – A. It is inhibited by a fat-rich meal
A. VLDL B. It is inhibited by the presence of amino acids
B. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in the duodenum
C. High-density lipoproteins (HDL) C. It is stimulated by atropine
D. Chylomicrons D. It occurs in response to cholecystokinin
E. IDL E. It occurs simultaneously with the contraction
of the Oddi’s sphincter
5. Lipoprotein lipase lowers the plasma
concentration of – 10. Severe inflammation of the ileum may be
A. VLDL accompanied by…
B. Chylomicrons A. Increased vitamin B12 absorption
C. Both of them B. Decreased bile acid pool size
D. None C. Increased colon absorption of water
E. Only A D. Decreased release of secretin
E. Increased absorption of dietary fats
6. Gluconeogenesis in the liver is enhanced by
increased plasma levels of –
A. Alanine Answers: 1-D, 2-E, 3-E, 4-B, 5-C, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
B. Glucagon B, 9-D, 10-B.
C. Cortisol
D. All above-listed
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Which one of the following statements about E. Colon
bile acids is correct? 6. The major factor controlling the secretion of
A. Conjugation with glycine enhances passive bile salts from the liver is the amount of…
absorption of bile acids A. secretin released during a meal
B. Bile acids constitute approximately 80% of B. Fat entering the small intestine
the total solutes in bile C. Bile acids produced by the liver
C. Deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid are D. Bile reabsorbed from the intestine
examples of primary bile acids E. Cholecystokinin (CCK) released during a
D. Bile acid synthesis is catalyzed by the meal
microsomal enzyme 7α-hydroxylase
E. Bile acids are essentially water-insoluble 7. Secondary bile acids are formed….
A. In the liver from cholesterol
2. Which of the following functions would be B. By the conjugation of bile acids with taurine
disrupted by a gallstone blocking the common or glycine
bile duct? C. Both
A. Formation of the micelles involved in fat D. Neither
absorption in the intestine E. All above-listed
B. Emulsification of fats in the intestine
C. Removal of bilirubin from the circulation 8. All of the following stimulate cholecystokinin
D. All above-listed (CCK) secretion EXCEPT?
E. None A. Amino acids
B. Fatty acids
3. Which one of the following statements about C. Hydrochloric acid (HCL)
bile acids is correct? D. Bile acids
A. They are essentially water-insoluble E. Essential acids
B. The majority of bile acids is absorbed by
passive diffusion 9. All of the following effects are caused by
C. Glycine conjugates are more soluble than secretin EXCEPT:
taurine conjugates A. Stimulation of pancreatic bicarbonate(HCO3-)
D. The amount lost in the stool each day secretion
represents the daily loss of cholesterol B. Enhancement of bile acid secretion
E. The bile acid dependent fraction of bile is C. Potentiation of pancreatic enzyme secretion
stimulated by the hormone secretion by cholecystokinin (CCK)
D. Inhibition of gastric muscle contraction
4. Choose the stimulus that is most important for E. Inhibition of gastric secretion
regulation of the gallbladder emptying:
A. Secretin 10. Which of the listed below the digestive
B. Histamine system malfunction most likely to cause the
C. Cholecystokinin (CCK) jaundice condition?
D. Bombesin A. Blockage of the bile duct
E. Motilin B. Malabsorption of vitamin B12
C. Malabsorption of water
5. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal tract D. Malabsorption of carbohydrates
(GI) where the absorption of bile acids occurs: E. Malabsorption of proteins
A. Fundus of the stomach
B. Antrum of the stomach Answers: 1-D, 2-D, 3-D, 4-C, 5-D, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
C. Duodenum of the intestine D, 9-B, 10-A.
D. Ileum of the intestine
Module III.
Theme: “Digestion in the intestine. Physiological mechanisms of starvation and satiety.”
Variant 1.
1. Which one of the following statements about A. Colon
small intestinal motility is correct? B. Jejunum
A. Contractile frequency is constant from C. Duodenum
duodenum to terminal ileum D. Gallbladder
B. Peristalsis is the major contractile pattern E. Stomach
during feeding
C. Migrating motor complexes occur during the 6. The ileum, not the jejunum, normally absorbs..
digestive period A. Bile salts
D. Vagotomy abolishes contractile activity B. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12)
during the digestive period C. Both of them
E. Contractile activity is initiated in response to D. Neither
bowel wall distention E. All above-listed
2. Acidification of the duodenum will… 7. Fats are transported from intestinal cells to
A. Decrease pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate blood plasma primarily in the form of ….
B. Increase secretion of gastric acid A. Micelles
C. Decrease gastric empting B. Chylomicrons
D. Increase contraction of the gallbladder C. Triglycerides
E. Increase contraction of the sphincter Oddi D. Fatty acids
E. Monoglycerids
3. Which one of the following statements about
small intestine crypt cells is correct? 8. Intestinal motility is increased by all of the
A. They evidence well-developed microvilli following EXCEPT…
B. They are responsible for net NaCl and water A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
absorption B. Secretin
C. They contain significant quanities of brush C. Gastrin
border hydrolases D. Insulin
D. They are responsible for net NaCl and water E. Motilin
secretion
E. They demonstrate little or no proliferative 9. Choose the stimulus that is most important for
activity regulation of the intestine emptying during the
interdigestive period:
4. Which one of the following statements is A. Secretin
correct? B. Histamine
A. Pepsin is inactivated at a pH of 3 and below C. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
B. Enterooxyntin is a small intestinal hormone D. Bombesin
inhibitory to gastric acid secretion E. Motilin
C. Gastric acid secretion is greatest during the
cephalic phase of digestion 10. Elimination of the terminal ileum will result
D. Somatostatin increases antral G cell gastrin in malabsorption of …
release A. Vitamin B12 and fats
E. Maximal acid output may be increased in a B. Water
patient with duodenal ulcer disease C. Carbohydrates
D. Proteins
5. A person is found to have increased basal and E. Hydrochloric acid (HCL)
maximal acid outputs, decreased serum calcium
levels, and microcytic anemia. Inflammation in Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C, 6-C, 7-B, 8-
which area of the gastrointestinal tract would B, 9-E, 10-A.
explain these findings?
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. The brush border of intestinal cells contains 6. During the process of Vitamin B12 absorption,
large amounts of - almost all of the ingested vitamin B12…
A. Pepsin A. Binds to intrinsic factor in the stomach
B. Maltase B. Is absorbed in the stomach
C. Secretin C. Binds to protein R and is absorbed in the
D. Salivary α-amylase terminal ileum
E. Carboxypeptidase B D. All above-listed
E. None
2. Which of the following hormones are found
in the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract and in 7. Removal of the entire colon would be
the brain? expected to cause …
A. Cholecystokinin (CCK) A. Jaundice
B. Glucagon B. Severe malnutrition
C. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D. Death
E. All above-listed E. None
3. The greatest amount of a fat absorption occurs 8. Removal of the terminal ileum will result in…
in the… A. A decrease in absorption of amino acids
A. Stomach B. An increase in the water content of the feces
B. Duodenum C. An increase in the concentration of bile acid
C. Ileum in the enterohepatic circulation
D. Colon D. A decrease in the fat content of the feces
E. Rectum E. An increase in the absorption of iron
4. The pathway from the intestinal lumen to the 9. A Na+- depend active transport system is
circulating blood for a short-chain fatty acid (less necessary for the intestinal absorption of all of
than 10 carbon atoms) is… the following EXCEPT :
A. Intestinal mucosal cell→ chylomicrons→ A. Dipeptides
lymphatic duct→ systemic venous blood B. Bile salts
B. Intestinal mucosal cell→hepatic portal vein C. Fructose
blood → systemic venous blood D. Vitamin C
C. Space between mucosal cells→ lymphatic E. Glucose
duct→ systemic venous blood
D. Space between mucosal cells→ chylomicrons 10. If acidosis and hypokalemia result from loss
→ lymphatic duct→ systemic venous blood of fluid from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, the
E. Intestinal mucosal cell→ LDL→ hepatic fluid was most likely drained from the?
portal vein blood → systemic venous blood A. Stomach
B. Intestine
5. The commonly ingested starches include - C. Gallbladder
A. Amylopectin D. Pancreas
B. Glycogen E. Colon
C. Both
D. Neither Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C, 6-C, 7-E, 8-
E. All above-listed B, 9-C, 10-E.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Which of the following process of a hungry

man who sees tasty food will be activated first of
all?
6. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is
A. Secretion of the gastric juice
responsible for the sense of hunger controlling?
B. Secretion of intestinal juice
A. Paraventricular nucleus
C. Colon motority
B. Ventromedial nucleus
D. Contraction of Oddi’s sphincter
C. Arcuate nucleus
E. Small intestine motor activity
D. Lateral nucleus
E. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
2. In an experiment cerebral structures are
electrostimulated. As a result of it polyphagia
7. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is
(excessive yearning food) appeared. What
responsible for the sense of satiety controlling?
department of the brain are electrodes put in?
A. Paraventricular nucleus
A. Adenohypophysis
B. Ventromedial nucleus
B. Ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus
C. Arcuate nucleus
C. Supraoptical nuclei of hypothalamus
D. Lateral nucleus
D. Lateral nuclei of hypothalamus
E. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
E. Red nucleus
8. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei
3. In an experiment cerebral neurons are are responsible for food intake controlling?
electrostimulated. As a result of it hypophagia A. Paraventricular and supraoptical nuclei
(refusal to meal) appeared. What department of B. Ventromedial and lateral nuclei
the cerebrum are electrodes put in? C. Arcuate and dorsomedial nuclei
A. Adenohypophysis D. Subthalamical and periforneatic nuclei
B. Ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus E. Suprachiasmatic and anterial nuclei
C. Supraoptical nuclei of hypothalamus
D. Lateral nuclei of hypothalamus 9. All of the following effects are caused by
E. Red nucleus hypothyroidism EXCEPT:
A. Decreased sympathetic activity
4. Patients may experience nausea and B. Decreased metabolic rate
a sense of early satiety (fullness) C. Stimulated appetite
following…. D. Sleepness
A. Surgical resection of the proximal E. Cold intolerance
small bowel
B. A vagotomy of the distal stomach 10. Which of the listed below effects is not
C. Surgical resection of the proximal typical in hyperthyroidism?
stomach A. Increased appetite
D. Surgical removal of the gastric B. Increased weight of the body
antrum C. Increased thermogenesis
E. A vagotomy of the gastric fundus D. Increased heart rate (HR)
and corpus E. Increased alveolar ventilation
5. Hyperthyroidism is accompanied by…

A. Anorexia Answers: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-D, 7-B, 8-
B. Stimulated appetite B, 9-C, 10-B.
C. Bradycardia
D. Increased weight gain
E. Decreased sweating
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Which of the listed below metabolic reactions 6. Activity of which enzymes does predominate
are energy sources at state of long-term at state of starvation?
starvation? A. Anabolic
A. Gluconeogenesis B. Catabolic
B. Cortisol-dependent catabolism of muscles C. Both of them
C. STH- and catecholamine-induced lipolysis D. Activity doesn’t change
D. All above-listed E. Neither
E. Neither
7. Activity of which enzymes does predominate
2. The positive nitrogen balance may be caused at state of satiety?
by all listed factors, EXCEPT… A. Anabolic
A. Starvation B. Catabolic
B. Intake a lot of amount of proteins C. Both of them
C. Condition of organism growth D. Activity doesn’t change
D. Pregnancy E. Neither
E. Increasing of muscles volume
8. State of starvation is accompanied by
3. Which one doesn’t cause the increase of hyperconcentration of certain hormones,
plasma insulin concentration directly or EXCEPT…
indirectly? A. Cortisol
A. Starvation B. Glucagon
B. Glucocorticoid therapy C. Adrenalin
C. Food intake D. Insulin
D. Physical exercises E. Essential acids
E. Stress
9. Maintenance of condition satiety/starvation is
4. In clinic the degree of satiety/starvation provided for balance between such hormonal
condition is determined by correlation of groups as…
insulin/glucagon concentration in plasma. How A. Insulin and antiinsulin hormones groups
will this correlation change, if a man is in a B. Release and statin factors
satiety condition? C. Thyroid and parathyroid hormones
A. Correlation doesn’t change D. Serotonin and melatonin
B. Correlation will decrease E. Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
C. Correlation will increase
D. Neither 10. Which of the listed below effects are
E. Both of them determined by hyperconcentration of antiinsulin
hormone groups in starvation condition?
5. In clinic the degree of satiety/starvation A. Reduced sensitivity to insulin in muscles and
condition is determined by correlation of lipid tissue
insulin/glucagon concentration in plasma. How B. Decreased glucose utilization
will this correlation change, if a man is in a C. Increased of gluconeogenesis
starvation condition? D. All above-listed
A. Correlation doesn’t change E. Neither
B. Correlation will decrease
C. Correlation will increase
D. Neither Answers: 1-D, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-A, 8-
E. Both of them D, 9-A, 10-D.
Module III.
Theme: “Motor activity of the stomach and intestine. Absorption processes.”
Variant 1.
1. In infants, defecation often follows a meal. B. Chymotrypsin

The cause of colonic contractions in this C. Pancreatic lipase
situation is … D. Pancreatic amylase
A. The gastroileal reflex E. Secretin
B. Increased circulating levels of CCK
C. The gastrocolic reflex 7. At concentration present in the diet, which
D. Increased circulating levels of somatostatin vitamin is absorbed primarily by diffusion?
E. The enterogastric reflex A. Vitamin C
B. Folate
2. Peristaltic waves … C. Vitamin D
A. Can be influenced by the sympathetic nervous D. Niacin
system E. Vitamin B12
B. Can be influenced by the parasympathetic
nervous system 8. The origin of electrical slow wave activity in
C. Can be initiated by stretching a portion of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscle is …
intestinal wall A. The interstitial cells of Cajal
D. All above-listed B. The smooth muscle of the circular muscle
E. Neither layer
C. The smooth muscle of the muscularis mucosa
3. Which one of the following is the putative D. The smooth muscle of the longitudinal muscle
inhibitory neurotransmitter responsible for layer
relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle? E. The myenteric plexus
A. Dopamine
B. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) 9. The migrating motor complex (MMC) in
C. Somatostatin humans …
D. Substance P A. Occurs only in the small intestine
E. Acetylcholine (ACh) B. Requires an intact intrinsic nervous system for
coordinated propagation
4. Which gastrointestinal motor activity is most C. Is the result of food-mediated distension of
affected by vagotomy ? the small intestine
A. Secondary esophageal peristalsis D. Mixes intestinal contents with bile and
B. Distention-induced intestinal segmentation digestive enzymes
C. Orad stomach accomodation E. Is correlated with periodic increases in plasma
D. Caudad stomach peristalsis gastrin levels
E. Migrating motor complex (MMC)
10. The delivery of chime into the proximal
5. The hormone involved in the initiation of the small intestine will …
migrating motor complex (MMC) is … A. Increase gastric acid secretion
A. Gastrin B. Decrease pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
B. Motilin C. Increase gastric emptying of solids
C. Secretin D. Decrease circulating CCK levels
D. Cholecystokinin E. Increase small intestine segmentation
E. Enterogastrone
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-C, 8-
6. Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins requires… A, 9-B, 10-E.
A. Intrinsic factor
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is A. Intrinsic factor

associated with gastrointestinal disturbance B. Ferritin
related to increased motility. The antibiotic C. Bile salts
works by binding to receptors on nerves and D. Vitamin D
smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal E. Trypsin
hormone …
A. Gastrin 7. Choose the substance that is most important
B. Motilin for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…
C. Secretin A. Intrinsic factor
D. Cholecystokinin B. Ferritin
E. Enteroglucagon C. Bile salts
D. Vitamin D
2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for E. Trypsin
the propulsion of chime along the small intestine
is … 8. Which one of the following statements about
A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?
B. Peristaltic waves A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from
C. Myogenic waves chief of the gastric gland
D. Haustrations B. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic
E. Segmentation factor in the stomach
C. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along
3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated the length of the small intestine
solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a D. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with
lot of fluid excrements. Why? pancreatic insufficiency
A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited E. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into
B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is the enterocyte
stimulated
C. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowels 9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids,
D. Because the secretion of hormones of the medium-chain fatty acids…
duodenum is stimulated A. Are also packaged as chylomicrons
E. Because osmolarity decreases B. Can be used as a source of calories in patients
with malabsorptive disease
4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the C. Are less water-soluble
absorption of all of the following EXCEPT… D. Are also returned to the circulation via the
A. Vitamin E lymph
B. Amino acids E. Are more abundant in the diet
C. Glucose
D. Bile salts 10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic
E. Dipeptides diarrhea
A. Is characterized by an increase in stool
5. Choose the substance that is most important osmolarity
for iron absorption from the intestine… B. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion
A. Intrinsic factor C. Is the result of decreased electroneutral
B. Ferritin sodium absorption
C. Bile salts D. Is caused by bacterial toxins
D. Vitamin D E. Occurs only in the colon
E. Trypsin
6. Choose the substance that is most important Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
for Ca++ absorption from the intestine… D, 9-B, 10-A.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest B. Duodenum

degree by – C. Jejunum
A. Injection of insulin D. Ileum
B. Drinking isotonic saline E. Colon
C. Drinking a solution containing fructose
D. Injection of glucagon 7. Which one of the following statements best
E. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
GI tract?
2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of A. Most water and electrolytes come from
water greatest? ingested fluids
A. Esophagus B. The small intestine and colon have similar
B. Stomach absorptive capacities
C. Duodenum C. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the
D. Jejunum stomach
E. Colon D. The majority of absorption occurs in the
jejunum
3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP E. Water absorption is independent of Na+
content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea absorption
because they…
A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine 8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur
B. Increase peristalsis in the colon with excess fluid loss from the…
C. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of A. Stomach
Lieberkiihn B. Ileum
D. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal C. Colon
lumen D. Pancreas
E. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small E. Liver
intestine
9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+
4. The following processes are involved in the from the small intestine is…
absorption of the products of digestion from the A. Na+-H+ exchange
lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood… B. Cotransport with K+
A. Facilitated diffusion C. Electrogenic transport
B. Secondary active transport D. Neutral NaCl absorption
C. Diffusion E. Solvent drag
D. Active transport
E. All of them 10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded
from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal
5. Ca++ absorption is increased by … tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …
A. Oxalates in the diet A. Monoglycerides
B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and B. Diglycerides
hypocalcemia C. Triglycerides
C. Hypokalemia D. Chylomicrons
D. Hypercalcemia E. Free fatty acids
E. Neither
Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … C, 9-D, 10-D.
A. Stomach
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from B. The small and large intestines have similar
which one of the following sources? absorptive capacities
A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3- and C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
H+ D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
B. Diffusion from the blood duodenum
C. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
by bacteria nutrient transport
D. Swallowed atmospheric air
E. Air pockets within foodstuffs 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
almost exclusively from the …
2. Which one of the following statements about A. Stomach
the colon is correct? B. Duodenum
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under C. Jejunum
hormonal (aldosteron) control D. Ileum
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from E. Colon
the colon
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon 8. Which one of the following statements about
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
fatty acids
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
and absorbed in significant quantities include… triglyceride resynthesis
A. Vitamin B6 C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
B. Vitamin K D. They are transported in the lymph
C. Thiamine E. They require emulsification prior to
D. Riboflavin enterocyte uptake
E. Folic acid
9. The transport protein responsible for entry of
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? A. Glut-2
A. Glucose B. Glut-5
B. Galactose C. SGLT 1
C. Fructose D. SGLT 2
D. Sucrose E. SGLT 5
E. Lactose
10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small of …
intestine is closely coupled with… A. Bile salts
A. Na-glucose absorption B. Iron
B. Neutral NaCl absorption C. Cholesterol
C. Na+/H+ exchange D. Alcohol
D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption E. B vitamins
E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption
Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
6. Which one of the following statements best A, 9-C, 10-C.
describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
gastrointestinal tract?
A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
oral intake of fluids
Module III.
Theme: “Excretion system. Mechanisms of urine formation”.
Variant 1.
1. What is the patient’s filtration fraction, if A. Na/H exchange
para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance = 750 B. Na-glucose cotransport
mL/min, urinary flow = 2 mL/min, plasma creatinine C. Na-K pump
concentration = 0.8 mg/dL, plasma glucose D. Facilitated diffusion
concentration = 120 mg/dL, urinary creatinine E. Solvent drag
concentration = 66 mg/dL
A. 0.18 7. The secretion of H+ in the proximal tubule
B. 0.20 is primarily associated with
C. 0.22 A. Excretion of potassium ion
D. 0.24 B. Excretion of hydrogen ion
E. 0.26 C. Reabsorption of calcium ion
D. Reabsorption of bicarbonate ion
2. Approximately how much glucose is reabsorbed by E. Reabsorption of phosphate ion
patient’s kidneys, talked above?
A. 0 mg/min 8. Use the following laboratory data to
B. 120 mg/min calculate the renal blood flow.
C. 165 mg/min Renal artery para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)
D. 200 mg/min concentration = 0.05 mg/mL
E. 320 mg/min Renal vein PAH concentration = 0.005 mg/mL
Urinary PAH concentration = 20 mg/mL
3. The graph below illustrates the relationship between Urinary flow rate = 2 mL/min
plasma glucose concentration and glucose reabsorption Renal plasma flow is approximately:
by the kidney. The GFR is 100 mL/min. The renal A. 500 mL/min
threshold for glucose is B. 600 mL/min
A. 50 mg/dL C. 700 mL/min
B. 100 mg/dL D. 800 mL/min
C. 150 mg/dL E. 900 mL/min
D. 200 mg/dL
E. 500 mg/dL 9. If a substance appears in the renal artery but
not in the renal vein,
A. Its clearance is equal to the glomerular
4. The Tmax for glucose at the graph below is… filtration rate
A. 100 mg/min B. It must be reabsorbed by the kidney
B. 200 mg/min C. Its urinary concentration must be higher
C. 300 mg/min than its plasma concentration
D. 400 mg/min D. Its clearance is equal to the renal plasma
E. 500 mg/min flow
E. It must be filtered by the kidney
5. Use the data below to calculate the net amount of
substance X secreted by the kidney: 10. A freely filterable substance that is neither
Clearance of inulin = 120 mL/min reabsorbed nor secreted has a renal artery
Plasma concentration of X = 10 mg/dL concentration of 12 mg/mL and a renal vein
Urine concentration of X = 10 mg/mL concentration of 9 mg/mL. Calculate the
Urinary flow rate = 1.5 mL/min filtration fraction (GFR/RPF).
A. 1 mg/min A. 0.05
B. 2 mg/min B. 0.15
C. 3 mg/min C. 0.25
D. 4 mg/min D. 0.35
E. 5 mg/min E. 0.45
6. Na+ is reabsorbed from the basolateral surface of the Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-D, 4-C, 5-C, 6-C, 7-D,
renal epithelial cells by 8-E, 9-D, 10-C.
Module III.
Variant 2.

hormone …
D. Vitamin D
stimulated
A. Vitamin E lymph
C. Glucose
E. Trypsin
Module III.
Variant 3.

GI tract?
D. Jejunum stomach
jejunum
because they…
lumen D. Pancreas
intestine
D. Active transport
E. Neither
Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
A. Stomach
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
which one of the following sources? oral intake of fluids
A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3- and B. The small and large intestines have similar
H+ absorptive capacities
B. Diffusion from the blood C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
C. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
by bacteria duodenum
D. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
E. Air pockets within foodstuffs nutrient transport
2. Which one of the following statements about 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
the colon is correct? almost exclusively from the …
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under A. Stomach
hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Duodenum
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from C. Jejunum
the colon D. Ileum
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon E. Colon
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive 8. Which one of the following statements about
medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
and absorbed in significant quantities include… fatty acids
A. Vitamin B6 B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
B. Vitamin K triglyceride resynthesis
C. Thiamine C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
D. Riboflavin D. They are transported in the lymph
E. Folic acid E. They require emulsification prior to
enterocyte uptake
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? 9. The transport protein responsible for entry of
A. Glucose glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
B. Galactose A. Glut-2
C. Fructose B. Glut-5
D. Sucrose C. SGLT 1
E. Lactose D. SGLT 2
E. SGLT 5
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small
intestine is closely coupled with… 10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion
A. Na-glucose absorption of …
B. Neutral NaCl absorption A. Bile salts
C. Na+/H+ exchange B. Iron
D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption C. Cholesterol
E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption D. Alcohol
E. B vitamins
6. Which one of the following statements best
describes water and electrolyte absorption in the Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
gastrointestinal tract? A, 9-C, 10-C.
Module III.
Theme: “Excretion system. Regulation of kidneys functions”.
Variant 1.
1.Net filtration from capillaries will increase following A. Contraction of mesangial cells
A. Increased contraction of the precapillary sphincter B. Blockage of the ureter
B. Decreased arterial pressure C. Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular
C. Increased plasma protein concentration apparatus
D. Decreased capillary permeability D. Dilation of the afferent arterioles
E. Increased postcapillary resistance E. Volume depletion
2.Which one of the following increases during aerobic 7. Glomerular filtration rate would be
exercise? decreased by
A. Heart rate A. Constriction of the efferent arteriole
B. Mean blood pressure B. An increase in afferent arteriolar pressure
C. Plasma filtration out of the capillaries within the C. Compression of the renal capsule
exercising muscles D. A decrease in the concentration of plasma
D. Skin temperature protein
E. All are correct E. An increase in renal blood flow
3. A patient is diagnosed with hypovolumic shock. 8. The consumption of oxygen by the kidney
How is changing the speed of kidneys filtration at this A. Decreases as blood flow increases
case? B. Is regulated by erythropoietin
A. It is increased C. Remains constant as blood flow increases
B. It is decreased D. Directly reflects the level of sodium
C. It isn’t changed transport
D. All are correct E. Is greatest in the medulla
E. None are correct
9. The anion gap will increase with an increase
4. In the presence of ADH, the filtrate will be isotonic in the plasma concentration of
to plasma in the A. Sodium
A. Descending limb of the loop of Henle B. Potassium
B. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle C. Chloride
C. Cortical collecting tubule D. Bicarbonate
D. Medullary collecting tubule E. Lactate
E. Renal pelvis
10. Sodium reabsorption from the distal tubule
5. Renin secretion by the kidney is increased by will be increased if there is an increase in
A. Increasing mean blood pressure A. Plasma potassium concentration
B. Increasing glomerular filtration rate B. Plasma volume
C. Increasing sympathetic nerve activity C. Mean arterial pressure
D. Increasing angiotensin II synthesis D. Urine flow rate
E. Increasing atrial natriuretic hormone secretion E. Plasma osmolality
6. Which of the following is most likely to cause an

increase in the glomerular filtration rate? Answers: 1-E, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
D, 9-E, 10-A.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. 309. Destruction of the supraoptic nuclei of the 6. Choose the substance that is most important
brain will produce which of the following changes for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…
in urinary volume and concentration? (Assume that A. Intrinsic factor
fluid intake equals fluid loss.) B. Ferritin
a. An increased urinary volume and a very dilute C. Bile salts
urine D. Vitamin D
b. An increased urinary volume and concentrated E. Trypsin
urine
c. A normal urinary volume and concentration 7. Choose the substance that is most important
d. Decreased urinary volume and a very dilute urine for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…
e. Decreased urinary volume and a concentrated A. Intrinsic factor
urine B. Ferritin
C. Bile salts
2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for D. Vitamin D
the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is E. Trypsin
…
A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) 8. Which one of the following statements about
B. Peristaltic waves the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?
C. Myogenic waves A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from
D. Haustrations chief of the gastric gland
E. Segmentation B. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic
factor in the stomach
3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution C. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along
of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid the length of the small intestine
excrements. Why? D. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with
A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited pancreatic insufficiency
B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is E. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into
stimulated the enterocyte
C. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowels
D. Because the secretion of hormones of the 9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids,
duodenum is stimulated medium-chain fatty acids…
E. Because osmolarity decreases A. Are also packaged as chylomicrons
B. Can be used as a source of calories in patients
4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the with malabsorptive disease
absorption of all of the following EXCEPT… C. Are less water-soluble
A. Vitamin E D. Are also returned to the circulation via the
B. Amino acids lymph
C. Glucose E. Are more abundant in the diet
D. Bile salts
E. Dipeptides 10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic
diarrhea
5. Choose the substance that is most important for A. Is characterized by an increase in stool
iron absorption from the intestine… osmolarity
A. Intrinsic factor B. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion
B. Ferritin C. Is the result of decreased electroneutral
C. Bile salts sodium absorption
D. Vitamin D D. Is caused by bacterial toxins
E. Trypsin E. Occurs only in the colon
Answers: 1-A, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
D, 9-B, 10-A.
Module III.
Variant 3.

GI tract?
D. Jejunum stomach
jejunum
because they…
lumen D. Pancreas
intestine
D. Active transport
E. Neither
Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
A. Stomach
Module III.
Variant 4.
the colon D. Ileum
enterocyte uptake
E. SGLT 5
E. B vitamins
Module III.
Theme: “Kidneys role in homeostasis regulation.”
Variant 1.
1.What is the patient’s daily net acid excretion, if his Plasma [K+] = 7.0 meq/L
urinary volume = 1.5 L/day, urinary [NH4+] = 20 Arterial [H+] = 80 meq/L
meq/L, urinary [HCO3−] = 4 meq/L, urine pH = 6.5, Plasma [Cl−] = 105 meq/L
urinary titratable acids = 10 meq/L urine, plasma pH = Plasma [glucose] = 600 mg/dL
7.3. The anion gap is…
A. 51 meq/day A. 12 meq/L
B. 39 meq/day B. 22 meq/L
C. 34 meq/day C. 29 meq/L
D. 30 meq/day D. 36 meq/L
E. 26 meq/day E. 42 meq/L
2. How much new bicarbonate is being formed per day 8. The major source of the total daily acid load
in patient, talked in question 1? produced by the body is
A. 51 meq/day A. Anaerobic metabolism
B. 39 meq/day B. Aerobic metabolism
C. 34 meq/day C. Phospholipid catabolism
D. 30 meq/day D. Protein catabolism
E. 26 meq/day E. Triglyceride catabolism
3. Assuming production of a normal fixed acid load, 9.The pH of the tubular fluid in the distal
what is this patient’s acid-base status, talked in question nephron can be lower than that in the proximal
1? tubule because
A. Normal A. A greater sodium gradient can be
B. Respiratory acidosis established across the wall of the distal
C. Metabolic acidosis nephron than across the wall of the proximal
D. Respiratory alkalosis tubule
E. Metabolic alkalosis B. More buffer is present in the tubular fluid of
the distal nephron than in the proximal tubule
5. If 600 mL of water is ingested rapidly, plasma C. More hydrogen ion is secreted into the distal
volume will increase by approximately nephron than into the proximal tubule
A. 400 mL D. The brush border of the distal nephron
B. 200 mL contains more carbonic anhydrase than that of
C. 100 mL the proximal tubule
D. 50 mL E. The tight junctions of the distal nephron are
E. 25 mL less leaky to solute than those of the proximal
tubule
6.The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is
primarily buffered by 10. Which of the following statements about
A. Extracellular bicarbonate renin is true?
B. Red blood cell bicarbonate A. It is secreted by cells of the proximal tubule
C. Red blood cell hemoglobin B. Its secretion leads to loss of sodium and
D. Plasma proteins water from plasma
E. Plasma phosphate C. Its secretion is stimulated by increased mean
renal arterial pressure
7. Use the following clinical laboratory data obtained D. It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
from a patient with diabetes mellitus to calculate the E. It converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
anion gap: Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-D, 6-C, 7-C,
Plasma [Na+] = 140 meq/L 8-B, 9-E, 10-D.
Plasma [HCO3−] = 6 meq/L
Module III.
Variant 2.

hormone …
D. Vitamin D
stimulated
A. Vitamin E lymph
C. Glucose
E. Trypsin
Module III.
Variant 3.

GI tract?
D. Jejunum stomach
jejunum
because they…
lumen D. Pancreas
intestine
D. Active transport
E. Neither
Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
A. Stomach
Module III.
Variant 4.
the colon D. Ileum
enterocyte uptake
E. SGLT 5
E. B vitamins
Module III.
Theme: “General properties of analysers.”
Variant 1.
1. Each of the figures in the diagram below C. Weak muscle fibers are recruited before
illustrates a train of action potentials in response strong muscle fibers
to a sudden limb movement. The sensory neuron D. Poorly perfused muscle fibers are recruited
encoding the velocity of the limb movement is before richly perfused muscle fibers
illustrated by which figure? E. Anaerobic fibers are recruited before aerobic
fibers
7. Which one of the following hypothalamic
nuclei is responsible for the detection of the core
body temperature?
A. The lateral hypothalamus
B. The arcuate nucleus
C. The posterior nucleus
2. Free nerve endings contain receptors that D. The paraventricular nucleus
encode the sensation of E. The anterior hypothalamus
A. Fine touch 8. Which one of the following events
B. Vibration accompanies the rapid voluntary flexion of the
C. Pressure arm?
D. Temperature A. An increase in the activity of the Ia afferent
E. Muscle length fibers from the biceps (the agonist)
3. The middle cerebellar peduncle contains B. A decrease in the activity of the Ib afferent
afferent fibers conveyed in which of the fibers from the biceps (the agonist)
following tracts? C. An increase in the activity of the Ia afferent
A. Dorsal spinocerebellar fibers from the triceps (the antagonist)
B. Ventral spinocerebellar D. A decrease in the activity of the Ib afferent
C. Tectocerebellar fibers from the triceps (the antagonist)
D. Pontocerebellar E. An increase in the activity of the alpha
E. Vestibulocerebellar motoneurons to the triceps (the antagonist)
4. The precentral gyrus and corticospinal tract 9. In which one of the following sensory systems
are essential for does stimulation cause the receptor cell to
A. Vision hyperpolarize?
B. Olfaction A. Vision
C. Auditory identification B. Hearing
D. Kinesthesia C. Taste
E. Voluntary movement D. Touch
E. Smell
5. The most important role of the γ motoneurons
is to 10. During a voluntary movement, the Golgi
A. Stimulate skeletal muscle fibers to contract tendon organ provides the central nervous
B. Maintain Ia afferent activity during system with information about
contraction of muscle A. The length of the muscle being moved
C. Generate activity in Ib afferent fibers B. The velocity of the movement
D. Detect the length of resting skeletal muscle C. The blood flow to the muscle being moved
E. Prevent muscles from producing too much D. The tension developed by the muscle being
force moved
E. The change in joint angle produced by the
6. During a normal voluntary movement movement
A. Large muscle fibers are recruited before small Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-C, 7-E, 8-
muscle fibers
C, 9-A, 10-D.
B. Fast muscle fibers are recruited before slow
muscle fibers
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. Which of the following receptors is responsible generator potential and (2) between stimulus
for measuring the intensity of a steady pressure on intensity and the number of action potentials that
the skin surface? are generated?
A. Pacinian corpuscle A. Direct, inverse
B. Ruffini ending B. Inverse, direct
C. Merkel’ s disk C. Inverse, inverse
D. Meissner’ s corpuscle D. Direct, direct
E. Krause ending E. Direct, unrelated
2. Nicotinic receptors are responsible for 7. Which of the following sensations is generated
A. Producing the skeletal muscle end-plate potential by impulses initiated in naked nerve endings?
B. Decreasing the rate of phase-4 depolarization at A. Pain
the SA node B. Cold
C. Increasing the force of stomach contractions C. Hearing
D. Delaying the emptying of liquids from the D. Muscle tension
stomach E. Temperature of blood in the head
E. Decreasing the excitability of sympathetic
postganglionic neurons 8. Which one of the following aspects of the
external or internal environment are sensed?
3. The NMDA receptor is activated by A. Changes in pressure of external air
A. Glycine B. Blood glucose
B. Acetylcholine C. Linear acceleration
C. Substance P D. Muscle tens ion
D. Histamine E. All are correct
E. Glutamate
9. Which of the following determines the nature
4. The velocity of nerve conduction is increased (as opposed to the intensity) of a sensation?
with a decrease in the A. The type of receptor
A. Diameter of the nerve fiber B. The part of the brain where the specific neural
B. Degree of myelinization pathways from the receptor terminate
C. Space constant of the nerve fiber C. Both of them
D. Capacitance of the nerve fiber membrane D. None
E. Resting membrane potential E. Only A
5. Adaptation to a sensory stimulus produces - 10. A sensation felt in one hand can be produced
A. A diminished sensation when other types of by stimulation of -
sensory stimuli are applied near a given stimulus A. The afferent neurons from the hand as they
B. A more intense sensation when a given stimulus enter the spinal cord
is applied repeatedly B. The motor cortex supplying the hand
C. A sensation localized to the hand when the C. Both of them
nerves of the brachial plexus are stimulated D. None
D. A diminished sensation when a given stimulus is E. Only A
applied steadily for a period of time
E. Failure to perceive the stimulus when one’s
attention is directed to another matter Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-E, 4-D, 5-D, 6-D, 7-A, 8-
E, 9-C, 10-C.
6. What 2 words describe the relationships (1)
between stimulus intensity and amplitude of the
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Impulses in sensory nerves are generated by B. The amplitude of the motor response is increased
receptors located in sense organs. Sometimes the C. The motor response spreads to include other
receptors are confused with sense organs. Which muscles and even other limbs
of the following receptors and sense organs are D. There is increased inhibition of stretch reflexes
correctly paired? E. All above-listed
A. Rods and cones : eye
B. Hair cells : inner ear 6. When a ventral root in the lower thoracic region
C. Stretch receptors : carotid sinus is sectioned, large numbers of the following types of
D. Hair cells : taste buds nerve fibers are interrupted -
E. All are correct A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Motor neurons to skeletal muscle
2. When all sensory inputs that produce a C. Both of them
polysynaptic reflex are dissected out and D. Neither
stimulated one after the other - E. All above-listed
A. The sum of the tensions developed with each
stimulus will be greater than the tension developed 7. Decreased discharge in the Ia afferent fibers from
when all of the inputs are stimulated the annulospiral endings in a muscle spindle will be
simultaneously observed when -
B. Supramaximal stimulation of any one input A. The muscle is passively shortened
does not produce as strong a contraction as that B. the muscle contracts in response to stimulation of
produced by direct stimulation of the muscle motor fibers to the extrafusal muscle fibers
C. Both of them C. The dorsal root of the spinal nerve that supplies
D. Neither the muscle is cut
E. All above-listed D. All above-listed
E. Neither
3. Sensitization of a reflex, in those situations in
which the chemical basis has been studied in 8. Which of the following has the slowest
detail, involves - conduction velocity?
A. Increased sensitivity of the receptors on the A. A α fibers
postsynaptic neuron to the transmitter released B. A β fibers
from the presynaptic neuron C. A γ fibers
B. Increased impulse traffic along the axons of the D. B fibers
presynaptic neurons E. C fibers
C. Increased permeability of the presynaptic
terminals to K+ 9. The distance by which 2 touch stimuli must be
D. Decreased permeability of the presynaptic separated to be perceived as 2 separate stimuli is
terminals to Ca++ greatest on -
E. Discharge of neurons that end on the terminals A. The lips
of the presynaptic neurons B. The palm of the hand
C. The back of the scapula
4. When a dorsal root in the lower thoracic region D. The dorsum of the hand
is sectioned, large numbers of the following types E. The tips of the fingers
of nerve fibers are interrupted -
A. Afferent fibers from cutaneous receptors 10. Which of the following need to be intact for
B. Afferent fibers from the abdominal viscera normal stereognosis?
C. Both of them A. Dorsal columns
D. Neither B. Parietal lobe
E. All above-listed C. Pressure pathways
D. All above-listed
5. Which of the following happen when the E. Neither
strength of the adequate stimulus is increased? Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-E, 4-C, 5-E, 6-C, 7-D, 8-E, 9-
A. The latency is decreased C, 10-D.
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. In which of the following tracts in the spinal 6. Activity of which one of the following sensory
cord do second-order sensory neurons with cell system is associated with increasing the K+ flow
bodies in the dorsal horn ascend to more rostral into the receptor cells?
spinal segments or to the brain? A. Taste
A. Ventral corticospinal tract B. Olfaction
B. Lateral and ventral spinothalamic tracts C. Audition
C. Anteroir vestibulospinal tract D. Touch
D. Reticulospinal tract E. Vision
E. Rubrospinal tract
7. Activity of which one of the following sensory
2. Primary afferent neurons terminate in the system is associated with hyperpolarization of the
following regions - receptor cells?
A. Thalamus A. Taste
B. Superficial layers of the ventral horn B. Olfaction
C. lateral portion of the contrlateral C. Audition
intermedoilateral gray column of the spinal cord D. Touch
D. Inferior olive E. Vision
E. Dorsal roots of spinal cord
8. Secondary afferent neurons terminate mostly in
3. Which one of the following stimuli normally the following regions -
activates a receptor that is located on the free A. Thalamus
nerve ending of a sensory neuron? B. Superficial layers of the ventral horn
A. Taste C. lateral portion of the contrlateral
B. Gravity intermedoilateral gray column of the spinal cord
C. Light D. Inferior olive
D. Sound E. Dorsal roots of spinal cord
E. Smell
9. Third afferent neurons terminate mostly in the
4. Which characteristic of a sensory stimulus is following regions -
encoded better by phasic receptors than by tonic A. Thalamus
receptors? B. Superficial layers of the ventral horn
A. How strong the stimulus is C. lateral portion of the contrlateral
B. The type of energy producing the stimulus intermedoilateral gray column of the spinal cord
C. How rapidly the stimulus is applied D. Sensory areas of precentral gyrus
D. The duration of the stimulus E. Dorsal roots of spinal cord
E. Where the stimulus is located
10. In an expirement on an animal electric
5. Which one of the following sensory systems activivty of spiral ganglion neurons is registered.
uses unmyelinated fibers to convey information It allows to analyze afferent impulsation from
to the central nervous system (CNS)? certain receptors. What receptors are these?
A. Proprioception A. Maculae
B. Vision B. Corti’s organ
C. Vibration C. Cemicircular canals
D. Temperature D. Vestibular
E. Pressure E. Vestibular and Corti’s organ
Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-E, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-E, 8-A,

9-D, 10-B.
Module III.
Theme: “Investigation of the somatic sensor analyzer. Pain and antinociceptive system”
Variant 1.
1. Pacinian corpuscles are - E. Postcentral gyrus

A. A type of temperature receptor 6. To get the imprints of dentitions for the
B. Usually innervated by A δ nerve fibers following prosthetics the solution of gypsum was
C. Rapidly adapting touch-pressure receptors brought into the mouth cavity of a woman of 65.
D. Slowly adapting touch-pressure receptors What receptors of the mucous tunic of the mouth
E. Pain receptors cavity become excited first of all?
A. Chemoreceptors
2. When a normally innervated skeletal muscle B. Thermal cold
is stretched, the initial response is contraction, C. Thermal hermal
but with increasing stretch, the muscle suddenly D. Tactile
relaxes. This relaxation occurs because - E. Taste
A. With strong stretch, γ efferent discharge is
decreased 7. Gustatory sensibility of a person is preserved,
B. with strong stretch, the discharge from the but general sensitiveness of the mouth cavity
annulospiral endings of afferent nerve fibers is structures is lost. The damage of what organ
inhibited does it testify about?
C. With strong stretch, there is decreased activity A. N. vagus
in the afferent nerve fibers from the Golgi tendon B. N. trigeminus
organs C. N. glossopharyngeus
D. With strong stretch, there is increased activity D. N. hypglossus
in the afferent nerve fibers from the Golgi tendon E. N. glossopharyngeus and n. vagus
organs
E. Because of reciprocal innervation, there is 8. A person has got a hemorrhage into the back
increased discharge in the afferent nerve fibers central gyrus. Violation of what sensitivity on
from the antagonists to the stretched muscle the opposite side will it cause?
A. Auditory and visual
3. Impulses generated in touch receptors in the B. Visual
tongue reach the cerebral cortex via the - C. Auditory
A. Thalamus D. Smell and taste
B. Internal capsule E. Skin and proprioceptive
C. Dorsal roots of the first cervical spinal nerves
D. Trochlear nerve 9. Smell and taste are similar in that -
E. Hypoglossal A. The receptors for both are chemoreceptors
B. Both play an important role in determining
4. Impulses generated in the taste buds of the the flavor of foods
tongue reach the cerebral cortex via the - C. Both of them
A. Thalamus D. Neither
B. Internal capsule E. All above-listed
C. Dorsal roots of the first cervical spinal nerves
D. Trochlear nerve 10. In humans, taste buds are found on -
E. Hypoglossal A. The palate
B. The pharyngeal wall
5. After a craniosacral trauma a patient does not C. The epiglottis
recognize object at touching them. What D. the back of the tongue
department of cerebrum has been damaged? E. All above-listed
A. Cerebellum
B. Occipital lobulus Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A, 5-E, 6-D, 7-B, 8-
C. Temporal particle E, 9-C, 10-E.
D. Precentral gyrus .
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. When a skilled movement is initiated, B. Is due to hyperactive stretch reflexes

increased neural activity is first seen in the - C. Both of them
A. spinal motor neurons D. Neither
B. Precentral motor cortex E. All above-listed
C. Basal ganglia
D. Cerebellum 7. The continuous contraction of antigravity
E. Cortical association areas muscles that occurs during standing depends on -
A. Tonically increased discharge in the γ efferent
2. The basal ganglia are primarily concerned neurons to the spindles in these muscles
with - B. Increased discharge in the α efferent neurons
A. Sensory integration to the extrafusal fibers in these muscles
B. Short-term memory C. Increased discharge of neurons in the brain
C. Control of movement stem
D. Neuroendocrine control D. All above-listed
E. Slow-wave sleep E. None
3. The extrapyramidal system is not concerned 8. In humans, most of the axons that form the
with - corticospinal tract –
A. Stetch reflexes A. End on Renshaw cells
B. Righting reflexes B. End on dorsal horn neurons
C. Spasticity C. End on motor neurons is the spinal cord that
D. Sensation from the viscera supply extrafusal fibers in skeletal muscle
E. Functions mediated by the pyramidal system D. End on motor neurons in the spinal cord that
innervate muscle spindles
4. In an athlete catching a ball, neurons in the E. None
following regions would be expected to show
increased activity - 9. Which one of the following receptors is
A. The cerebellar cortex responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle
B. The corticospinal tract stretch?
C. Area 4 of the cerebral cortex A. Nuclear bag intrafusal fibers
D. The ventral horns in the spinal cord B. nucear chain intrafusal fibers
E. All above-listed C. Golgi tendon organs
D. Pacinian corpuscles
5. Interruption of the motor pathways in the E. Ruffini’s corpuscles
internal capsule on one side of the body causes -
A. spastic paralysis on the same side of the body 10. Which of the following functions represents
B. Spastic paralysis on the opposite side of the in the postcentral cortex?
body A. Speech production
C. Loss of touch and pressure sensation on the B. Vision
opposite side of the body C. Motor function
D. Flaccid paralysis on the same side of the body D. Somatic sensation
E. Flaccid paralysis on the opposite side of the E. Hearing
body
6. A positive supporting reaction (magnet Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-
reaction) - … E, 9-A, 10-D.
A. Is a reflex mechanism by which spinal
animals can be induced to stand
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Synaptic transmission between pain fibers from the skin 6. Stimulation of which of the following might be
and spinal cord neurons is mediated by expected to produce itching?
A. Acetylcholine A. Dorsal root C fibers
B. Substance P B. B fibers in peripheral nerves
C. Endorphins C. Dorsal columns of the spinal cord
D. Somatostatin D. Touch receptors
E. Serotonin E. Motor fibers in the ventral roots of the spinal nerves
2. The pain produced by ischemia is poorly localized and 7. Visceral pain -
throbbing while pain from a needle stick is well localized A. Shows relatively rapid adaptation
and sharp. Which of the following comparisons of ischemic B. is mediated by B fibers in the dorsal roots of the
and needle stick pain is correct? spinal nerves
A. Ischemic pain sensory fibers are classified as A delta C. Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to
(A∆) sensory fibers the skin
B. Ischemic pain is produced by overstimulating somatic D. Is similar to “fast pain” produced by noxious
touch receptors stimulation of touch receptors
C. Ischemic pain is transmitted to the brain through the E. Can be produced by marked and prolonged
neospinothalamic tract stimulation of touch receptors
D. Ischemic pain receptors quickly adapt to a painful
stimulus 8. Injecting a local anesthetic into an area to which
E. Ischemic pain sensory fibers terminate within the visceral pain is referred sometimes abolishes the pan.
substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord When this occurs, it indicates that -
A. The sensory neurons involved send one branch to
3. Which one of the following statements about pain the viscus andanother to the area to which the pain is
sensation is correct? referred
A. Painful sensation can be elicited by any sensory neuron if B. The referral is psychosomatic
its firing frequency is high enough C. The individual with the pain has previously had a
B. Painful sensations arising from a particular area of the painful injury in the area to which the pain is referred
skin occur only when pain fibers from that area of the skin D. Impulses in afferents from the viscus somehow
are stimulated facilitate transmission in the sensory pathway from the
C. Cutting the anterolateral tract on both sides of the spinal area to which the pain is referred
cord will permanently eliminate painful sensations arising E. The afferents from the viscus and those from the
from skin regions innervated by sensory neurons located area to which the pain is referred end on the same
below the site of the lesion second-order sensory neurons
D. Pain fibers conduct impulses to the spinal cord and to
9. Pain due to partial obstruction of the ureter may be
skin regions surrounding the site of a painful stimulus
felt in the testicle because -
E. None
A. Nerve fibers from the testicles and nerve fibers from
4. A man falls into a deep sleep with one arm under his the ureter may end on the same neurons in the spinal
head. This arm is paralyzed when he awakens, but it tingles, cord
and pain sensation in it is still intact. The reason for the loss B. Embryologically, the testicles arise from the same
of motor function without loss of pain sensation is that - dermatome as the ureter
A. A fibers are more susceptible to hypoxia than B fibers C. Nerve fibers from the ureter may send collaterals to
B. A fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C neurons innervated by afferent fibers from the testicles
C. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A D. All above-listed
D. Sensory nerves are nearer the bone than motor nerves and E. Neither
hence are less affected by cooling 10. Which of the following may be chemical mediators
E. Sensory nerves are nearer the bone than motor nerves and of pain, i.e., substances that are produced locally and
hence are less affected by pressure act on naked nerve endings to initiate impulses in pain
5. An anterolateral cordotomy is performed that produces fibers?
relief of pain in the right leg. It is effective because it A. Histamine
interrupts the - B. K+
A. Left dorsal column C. Kinins
B. Left ventral spinothalamic tract D. All above-listed
C. Right lateral spinothalamic tract E. Neither
D. Left lateral spinothalamic tract Answers: 1-B,2-E,3-D,4-B,5-D,6-A,7-C,8-D,9-D,10-D
E. Right corticospinal tract
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. During physical activity a person is less sensitive below the midthoracic region. It is probable that she
to pain. Activation of what index is the reason for has a lesion -
this phenomenon? A. Transecting the left half of the spinal cord in the
A. Sympathoadrenal system lumbar region
B. Nociceptive system B. Transecting the left half of the spinal cord in the
C. Function of the thyroid gland upper thoracic region
D. Antinociceptive system C. Transecting sensory and motor pathways on the
E. Function of adrenal glands right side of the pons
D. Transecting the right half of the spinal cord in
2. As a result of a spinal trauma a man of 33 got
the upper thoracic region
violation of pain and temperature sensitivity.
E. Transecting the dorsal half of the spinal cord in
Damage of what pathway does it cause?
the upper thoracic region
A. Spinothalamic
B. Medial spinocortical 7. Which one of the following statements best describes
C. posterior spinocerebellar cold receptors?
D. Lateral spinocortical A. Cold receptors produce a sensation of warmth when
E. Anterior spinocerebellar their firing frequency is very low
B. Sudden decreases in temperature always increase the
3. During an examination a student’s absolute firing frequency is very low
threshold of pain sensitivity is bigger than in the C. Cold receptors are tonic receptors that slowly increase
state of calm. Activating of what system of their firing rate when the temperature is decreased
organism is the reason for this state? D. Cold receptors do not fire at skin temperatures above
A. Antinociceptive body temperature
E. Cold receptors produce a sensation of pain when their
B. Sympathoadrenal
firing frequency is very high
C. Sympathetic part of the nervous system
D. Parasympathetic part of the nervous system 8. Lesions within the basal ganglia produce all of
E. Hypophyseal - adrenal system the following signs EXCEPT …
A. Hypotonia
4. Examination of an 18-year-old patient showed
B. Hemiballism
that he did not feel the temperature irritations in the
C. Tremor
central part of the back surface of the tongue. What
D. Hypokinesia
is the reason for this state?
E. Athetosis
A. Edema of the mucous tunic of the tongue
B. Affection of the glossopharyngeal nerve 9. The reflex responsible for withdrawing a limb is
C. Affection of the tongue nerve characterized by all of the following EXCEPT…
D. Absence of cold and thermal receptors in this A. Local sign
area B. Irradiation
E. Affection of somatosensory cortex C. Unmyelinated afferent fibers
D. Monosynaptic reflex
5. As a result of the affection by a pathological
E. Afterdischarge
process of conduction tracts of the spinal cord the
pain sensitivity of skin and muscles was damaged. 10. Procedures that increase the release of opioid
What pathways were damaged? peptides in the CNS decrease the effect of painful stimuli
A. Lateral sp inocortical because the limbic system contains opioid receptors to
B. Spinothalamic which the peptides can bind.
A. Both the statement and the explanation are true and
C. Medial spinocortical
they are related
D. Anterior spinocerebellar B. Both the statement and the explanation are true but
E. Posterior spinocerebellar they are unrelated
6. After falling down a flight of stairs, a young C. the statement is true but the explanation is false
woman is found to have partial loss of voluntary D. The statement is false but the explanation is true
E. The statement is false but the explanation is true
movement on the right side of her body and loss of
pain and temperature sensation on the left side Answers: 1-D, 2-A, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B, 6-D, 7-B, 8-A, 9-D,
10-B.
Module III.
Theme: “Investigation of the visual analyzer physiological properties.”
Variant 1.
1. When emmetropic persons become A. It produces 20 to 30 waves per second

presbyopic, their B. It disappears when a patient’s eyes open
A. Visual acuity increases C. It is replaced by slower, larger waves during
B. Near point increases REM sleep
C. Far point decreases D. It represents activity that is most pronounced
D. Total refractive power increases in the frontal region of the brain
E. Ability to see distant objects decreases E. It is associated with deep sleep
2. When a person slowly rotates toward the right, 7. When light strikes the eye there is an increase
A. Both the left and right eyes deviate toward the in
left A. The activity of the transducin
B. The stereocilia on the hair cells in the right B. The amount of transmitter released from the
horizontal semicircular canal bend away from photoreceptors
the kinocilium C. The concentration of all-trans retinal within
C. The hair cells in the left horizontal the photoreceptors
semicircular canal become depolarized D. The concentration of calcium within the
D. The visual image on the retina becomes photoreceptors
unfocused E. The activity of guanylyl cyclase
E. The endolymph in the left and right horizontal
semicircular canals moves in opposite directions 8. Activation of transducin by light activates an
enzyme which
3. Which one of the following visual lesions will a. Hydrolyzes cGMP
produce extensive loss of peripheral vision in the b. Increases the dark current
left visual fields of both eyes? c. Activates adenylyl cyclase
A. A lesion of the left lateral geniculate d. Releases calcium from intracellular stores
B. Section of the left optic nerve e. Depolarizes the membrane
C. A lesion of the right visual cortex
D. Removal of the right lens 9. If nystagmus is a prominent symptom of a
E. Section of the left optic tract cerebellar lesion, the lesion is within
A. The dentate nucleus
4. An increase in refractive power is produced by B. The flocculonodular lobe
contraction of the C. The lateral cerebellum
A. Iris D. The cerebrocerebellar cortex
B. Ciliary body E. The superior cerebellar peduncle
C. Suspensory ligaments
D. Extraocular muscles 10. Rods are able to detect light at much lower
E. Pupil intensities than cones for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT …
5. Which one of the reactions in the retinal rods A. The diameter of rods is greater
is caused directly by the absorption of light B. The rods can more easily detect scattered light
energy? within the eye
A. Dissociation of scotopsin and metarhodopsin C. The number of rods innervating a single
B. Decomposition of scotopsin ganglion cell is greater
C. Transformation of 11-cis retinal to all-trans D. The same light stimulus produces a larger
retinal receptor potential in rods
D. Transformation of metarhodopsin to E. The receptor potential adapts more rapidly in
lumirhodopsin rods
E. Transformation of vitamin A to retinene
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-C, 6-B, 7-A, 8-
6. The alpha rhythm appearing on an EEG has A, 9-B, 10-E.
which of the following characteristics?
Module III.
Variant 2.
The image distance of a normal relaxed eye is indicated C. The power of accommodation for near vision is
in the diagram: greater than normal
D. The refractive power of the lens is less than normal
E. The far point is greater than normal
6. Which of the following refractive problems most

closely resembles presbyopia?
A. Hyperopia
B. Myopia
1. The focal length of the diagram eye is C. Astigmatism
A. 14 mm D. Cataract
B. 15 mm E. Diplopia
C. 17 mm
D. 19 mm 7. If the refractive power of the unaccommodated eye of
E. 21 mm an emmetropic woman is 60 diopters (D), the axial
length of her eye is closest to …
2. If an object is placed 25 cm away from the diagram A. 14,5 mm
eye, the image will be focused on the retina if the B. 15,5 mm
refractive power of the eye is increased to C. 16,5 mm
A. 64 diopters D. 17,5 mm
B. 68 diopters E. 18,5 mm
C. 70 diopters
D. 72 diopters 8. Which one of the following statements correctly
E. 75 diopters describes the role played by transducin during the
response of rods and cones to light?
3. Which one of the optic field defects listed in the A. Transducin reduces membrane conductance by
following diagram is produced by a pituitary gland closing Na+ channels
tumor? B. Transducin stimulates synaptic transmitter release by
opening Ca++ channels
C. Transducin initiates the photoreceptor response by
converting 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal
D. Transducin enhances the action of rhodopsin by
converting vitamin A to 11-cis retinal
E. Transducin reduces the concentration of cyclic
guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) by activating a
phosphodiesterase enzyme
9. Which one of the following is more descriptive of rods

than of cones?
4. When light strikes the eye, it decreases all of the A. Not located within the fovea
following EXCEPT the …
B. Provide information about the color of an object
A. Membrane conductance of rods and cones C. Recover their sensitivity more rapidly after exposure
B. Amount of synaptic transmitter released by rods and
to bright light
cones D. Responsible for the high visual acuity of the visual
C. concentration of cyclic guanosine monophosphate
system
(cGMP) in rods and cones E. Organized into on-center, off-surround receptor fields
D. Active transport of Na+ by rods and cones
E. Concentration of all-trans retinal in rods and cones 10. After looking through the window for a while, a
person began to read a book. Due to the change of the
5. Which one of the following statements about the state of a sertain eye structure the refractive power of
optical properties of myoptic eye is correct?
optical mediums increases. What eye structure is it?
A. A converging lens can be used to correct the optical A. lens
defect
B. Cornea
B. The image of a distant objects is formed in front of C. Vitreous body
the retina
D. Pupil
E. Liquid of chambers of the eye
Answers: 1-A, 2-E, 3-B, 4-E, 5-B, 6-A, 7-C, 8-E, 9-A,
10-A.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. What process takes place during shifting B. Is the region of highest visual acuity
one’s look from near to remote things? C. Contains only red and green cones
A. Contraction of the ciliary muscle D. Contains only rods
B. Relaxation of the ciliary muscle E. Is situated over the head of the optic nerve
C. Relaxation of suspensory ligaments
D. Increase of lens cuvature 7. The region of the eye with the greatest
E. increase of refractive power of the eye concentration of rods is the -
A. Ciliary body
2. Which of the visual functions is violated B. Iris
most of all when rods are damaged? C. Optic disk
A. Light adaptation D. Fovea
B. Color vision E. Parafoveal region
C. Binocular vision
D. Central vision 8. Which of the following affect visual acuity?
E. Peripheral vision A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Cataracts
3. If the principal focal distance of a lens is C. Astigmatism
0,75m, its refractive power is - D. Contrast between stimulus and background
A. 0,25 diopter E. All above-listed
B. 0,75 diopter
C. 1,0 diopter 9. Vitamin A is a precursor for the synthesis
D. 1,33 diopter of…
E. 10,3 diopters A. Somatostatin
B. Iodopsin and rhodopsin
4. Visual accommodation involves - C. The pigment of the iris
A. Increased tension on the lens ligaments D. Melatonin
B. A decrease in the curvature of the lens E. Acetylcholine
C. Relaxation of the sphincter muscle of the
iris 10. The innervation of the eye and its muscles
D. Contraction of the ciliary muscle includes
E. Increased intraocular pressure A. Somatic efferent fibers to the medial and
lateral rectus muscles
5. When a visual stimulus falls on a given B. Visceral efferent fibers to the ciliary muscle
point in the retina for a long time - C. Visceral efferent fibers to the iris muscle
A. The image becomes more clearly focused D. Visceral efferent fibers from the superior
B. There is adaptation in the visual cortex cervical ganglia to the blood vessels
C. The discharge rate in the bipolar cells E. All above-listed
increases
D. The pupils constrict
E. The image fades and disappears
Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-D, 5-E, 6-B, 7-E, 8-
6. The fovea of the eye - … E, 9-B, 10-E.
A. Has the lowest light threshold .
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Direct afferent input to the ganglion cells in C. Rods are more concentrated than cones in the
the retina is from - fovea
A. Bipolar and amacrine cells D. All are correct
B. Rods E. None all correct
C. Cones
D. Horizontal cells 7. When light strikes a visual receptor cell (a rod
E. Pigment cells or cone), it causes which of the following
reactions?
2. The brain areas activated by visual stimuli A. An increase in thr intracellular cGMP
include - concentration
A. The visual cortex (area 17) B. A decrease in the conductance and
B. The inferior temporal cortex hyperpolarization of the cell
C. The superior colliculus C. Release of an inhibitory neuotransmitter from
D. The posterioinferior parietal cortex the cell
E. All above-listed D. All are correct
E. None are correct
3. After a brain injury a person lost his sight.
Damage of what areas of cerebral cortex can 8. Which one of the following is characteristic of
cause such a state? myopic eyes?
A. Front A. They are too short for the refractive power of
B. Temporal their lenses
C. Occipital B. They have a focal plane behind the retina
D. Parietal C. They have a far point that is greater than
E. Temporal and parietal normal
D. They require a diverging lens to correct the
4. Which of the following functions represents in optical defects
the occipital cortex? E. They have a greater than normal power of
A. Speech production accommodation
B. Vision
C. Motor function 9. Which one of the following condition causes
D. Somatic sensation hyperopia?
E. Hearing A. A progressive decrease in the power of
accomodation
5. Which one of the following reflex is primary B. An optical defect that requires a diverging
integrated in cerebral cortex? lens to see distant objects clearly
A. Tonic neck reflexes C. A progressive loss of lens transparency
B. Withdrawal reflexes D. An optical defect that requires continuous
C. Emotional responses accommodation to see distant objects clearly
D. Optical righting reflexes E. All are correct
E. None are correct
10. Which one of the following condition causes
6. Compared to cones, rods can detect light at myopia?
lower intensities because A. A progressive decrease in the power of
A. Rods are larger than cones and rods have accomodation
larger receptive fields than cones B. An optical defect that requires a diverging
B. Rods can increase their sensitivity to light lens to see distant objects clearly
more quickly than cones C. A progressive loss of lens transparency
D. An optical defect that requires continuous
accommodation to see distant objects clearly Answers: 1-A, 2-E, 3-C, 4-B, 5-D, 6-A, 7-B, 8-
E. All are correct B, 9-D, 10-B.
Module III.
Theme: “Investigation of the hearing and equilibrium analyzers physiological properties.”
Variant 1.
1. If the threshold for hearing increases 1000 B. Scala media

times, the hearing loss is C. Auditory ossicles
A. 20 decibels D. Oval window
B. 30 decibels E. Basilar membrane
C. 40 decibels
D. 50 decibels 7. Which one of the component of the auditory
E. 60 decibels system performs amplification of sound stimuli?
A. Stria vascularis
2. The primary function of the bones of the B. Scala media
middle ear is to C. Auditory ossicles
A. Amplify the sound stimulus D. Oval window
B. Filter high-frequency sounds from the sound E. Basilar membrane
stimulus
C. Enable the direction of a sound stimulus to be 8. In an experiment on an animal electric
detected activivty of spiral ganglion neurons is registered.
D. Enhance the ability to distinguish different It allows to analyze afferent impulsation from
sound frequencies certain receptors. What receptors are these?
E. Protect the ear from damage A. Maculae
B. Corti’s organ
3. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea C. Cemicircular canals
is caused primarily by the flow of D. Vestibular
A. K+ into the hair cell E. Vestibular and Corti’s organ
B. Na+ into the hair cell
C. Cl- out of the hair cell 9. In an experiment on an animal the middle part
D. Ca2+ into the hair cell of the internal ear helix on the right is ruined.
E. Mg2+ into the hair cell The violation of perception of what sounds will
it result in?
4. A sound stimulus of 20 decibels (dB) is A. High-frequency
A. 10 times threshold B. Low-frequency
B. 20 times threshold C. Medium-frequency
C. 50 times threshold D. High- and low-frequency
D. 100 times threshold E. Violations will not be present
E. 200 times threshold
10. Under the action of an irritant an animal’s
5. If a patient is unable to hear high-frequency neurons activity of the spiral ganglion increased.
sounds, the damage to the basilar membrane is What irritant was it?
closest to the A. Light
A. Oval window B. Sound
B. Helicotrema C. Rotation
C. Stria vascularis D. Touch to the skin
D. Modiolus E. Muscle strain
E. Spiral ganglion
Answers: 1-E, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A, 7-C, 8-
6. Which one of the component of the auditory B, 9-C, 10-B.
system performs production of endolymph?
A. Stria vascularis
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. With the help of a tuning fork the perception 6. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
of sounds of a patient was examined. When the A. Loudness of sound : amplitude of sound wave
tuning fork was placed near the external ear the B. Pitch of sound : frequency of sound wave
patient didn’t hear the sound of the tuning fork C. timbre (quality) of sound : harmonic
by his right ear. When the legs of the tuning fork vibrations
were placed on a mastoid bone the patient heard D. Loudness of sound : frequency of impulses in
a sound. With the affection of what part of the an auditory nerve fiber
auditory sensory system is it connected? E. loudness of sound : point of greatest
A. Cochlear nerve displacement of the basilar membrane
B. Inferior colliculus tecti
C. Internal ear 7. Sound localization -
D. Middle ear A. Depends in part on the difference between the
E. Medial geniculate body quality of a sound coming from in front of an
individual and of a sound coming from behind
2. According to the data of audiometry a patient the individual
has got the imperception of the sounds of B. Depends in part on the more rapid arrival of
medium frequency. The damage of what organ sound at the ea on the side nearest the sound
can be the reason for it? C. Depends in part on neurons that only respond
A. Cochlear nuclei maximally when impulses reaching them from
B. Middle part of helix the 2 ears are separated by a fixed interval
C. Spiral ganglion D. Depends in part on the fact that the sound is
D. Quadrigeminal plate louder on the side nearest the sound
E. Lateral geniculate bodies E. All are correct
3. Sound intensity is measured in - 8. Which of the following are correctly paired?
A. Diopters A. Tympanic membrane : manubrium of malleus
B. Daltons B. Scala tympani : round window
C. Torrs C. Foot plate of stapes : oval window
D. Decibels D. Helicotrema : apex of cochlea
E. Pounds E. All are correct
4. The primary auditory cortex is located in the - 9. Which of the following functions represents in
A. Limbic system the superior temporal cortex?
B. Posterior part of the occipital lobe A. Speech production
C. Posterior part of the parietal lobe B. Vision
D. Postcentral gyrus C. Motor function
E. Superior part of the temporal lobe D. Somatic sensation
5. The basilar membrane of the cochlea - E. Hearing
A. is unaffected by movement of fluid in the
scala vestibuli 10. Auditory hair cells and taste receptor cells
B. Covers the oval window and the round are alike in which of the following ways?
window A. Both release neurotransmitter when
C. Vibrates in a pattern determined by the form stimulated
of the traveling wave in the fluids in the cochlea B. Both can regenerate when damaged
D. Is under tension C. Both respond to a stimulus by opening K+
E. Vibrates when the body is subjected to linear selective channels
acceleration D. Both have very high resting membrane
potentials
E. All are correct Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C, 6-E, 7-E, 8-
E, 9-E, 10-A.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. When a person slowly rotates toward the right, C. Continued movement of cerebrospinal fluid
A. The stereocilia on the hair cells in the right over the parts of the brain stem that contain the
horizontal semicircular canal bend away from the vestibular nuclei
kinocilium D. Continued movement of endolymph in the
B. Both the left and right eyes deviate toward the semicircular canals, with consequent bending of
left the cupula and stimulation of hair cells
C. The hair cells in the left horizontal semicircular E. A disease process affecting the midbrain
canal become depolarized
D. The visual image on the retina becomes 6. In the ear, hair cells -
unfocused A. Are innervated by the olivocochlear bundle
E. The endolymph in the left and right horizontal B. Are found in the maculas of the saccule and
semicircular canals moves in opposite directions utricle
C. Are found in the cristae of the semicircular
2. The otolith organs (utricle and saccule) are canals
responsible for D. All above-listed
A. Producing the vestibular-ocular reflex E. Neither
B. Detecting the position of the head in space
C. Producing rotary nystagmus 7. Which of the following contribute to the sense
D. Detecting angular acceleration of orientation in space?
E. Producing the stretch reflex A. Visual cues
B. Input from touch and pressure receptors on the
3. Which of the following will occur in a girl who feet
suddenly stops spinning after several seconds of C. Input from receptors in joints
spinning to the left? D. All above-listed
A. The hair cells in the right semicircular canal will E. Neither
depolarize
B. Her eyes will move slowly to the right 8. The direction of nystagmus is vertical when a
C. When asked to point to a target, the girl will subject is rotated -
point to the right of the target A. After warm water is put in one ear
D. The cupula in the right semicircular canal will B. With the head tipped backward
move away from the utricle C. With the head tipped forward
E. The objects in the visual field will appear to be D. After cold water is put in both ears
spinning to the right E. None are correct
4. Nistagmus as a sign of motor disease is most 9. Which of the following component of the motor
likely connected with injury of this component of control system is affected if a patient has a
the CNS… nystagmus?
A. Posterior cerebellum A. Motor cortex
B. Vestibular apparatus B. Subthalamic nucleus
C. Cerebral cortex C. Posterior parietal lobe
D. Reticular formation D. Vestibular nucleus
E. Basal ganglia E. Sensory cortex
5. Postrotatory nystagmus is caused by- 10. The bones of the middle ear primarily
A. Continued movement of perilymph over hair responsible for …
cells that have their processes embedded in the A. Amplifying the sound waves reaching the ear
tectorial membrane B. Detecting the presence of a sound stimulus
B. Continued movement of aqueous humor over the C. Locating the source of a sound
ciliary body in the eye D. Discriminating among different frequencies of
sound
E. Adapting to a prolonged monotonous sound Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B, 5-D, 6-D, 7-D, 8-E,
9-D, 10-A.
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. The variation in auditory threshold as a B. The small and large intestines have similar
function of frequency (the minimum audibility absorptive capacities
curve) is related most to the properties of the… C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
A. Outer ear D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
B. Auditory canal duodenum
C. Middle ear E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
D. Tympanic membrane nutrient transport
E. Basilar membrane
7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
2. Which one of the following statements about almost exclusively from the …
the colon is correct? A. Stomach
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under B. Duodenum
hormonal (aldosteron) control C. Jejunum
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from D. Ileum
the colon E. Colon
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon 8. Which one of the following statements about
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria fatty acids
and absorbed in significant quantities include… B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
A. Vitamin B6 triglyceride resynthesis
B. Vitamin K C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
C. Thiamine D. They are transported in the lymph
D. Riboflavin E. They require emulsification prior to
E. Folic acid enterocyte uptake
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed 9. The transport protein responsible for entry of
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
A. Glucose A. Glut-2
B. Galactose B. Glut-5
C. Fructose C. SGLT 1
D. Sucrose D. SGLT 2
E. Lactose E. SGLT 5
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small 10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion
intestine is closely coupled with… of …
A. Na-glucose absorption A. Bile salts
B. Neutral NaCl absorption B. Iron
C. Na+/H+ exchange C. Cholesterol
D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption D. Alcohol
E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption E. B vitamins
6. Which one of the following statements best Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
describes water and electrolyte absorption in the A, 9-C, 10-C.
A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
oral intake of fluids
Module III.
Theme: “Highest nervous activity (HNA). Physiological basis of the behaviour.”
Variant 1.
1. It is necessary for a researcher to develop a E. All above-listed

conditioned reflex of a dog as soon as possible.
On the basis of what unconditioned reflex is it 7. L-Dopa is of benefit in the treatment of
possible to develop a conditioned one? Parkinson’s disease because it increases the
A. Orientative dopamine content of the tubero-infundibular
B. Food dopaminergic neurons.
C. Sexual A. Both the statement and the explanation are
D. Defense true and they are related
E. Myotatic B. Both the statement and the explanation are
true but they are unrelated
2. Rage behaviour can be - C. the statement is true but the explanation is
A. Produced by stimulation of the midbrain false
B. Produced by stimulation of the amygdaloid D. The statement is false but the explanation is
nuclei true
C. Increased by administration of male hormones E. The statement is false but the explanation is
D. Produced by stimulation of the hypothalamus true
E. All above-listed
8. The Klüver-Bucy syndrome is characterized
3. The following would be expected to reduce by decreased emotional expression, loss of fear,
maternal behavior - excessive oral behavior, and increase in sexual
A. Lesions of the cingulated cortex, activity. These characteristics of the Klüver-
hypophysectomy Bucy syndrome are produced by bilateral lesions
B. Lesions of the mediobasal hypothalamus of the
C. Lesions of the amygdaloid nuclei A. Hippocampus
D. Ovariectomy B. Amygdala
E. None are correct C. Ventral hypothalamus
D. Corpus callosum
4. Which of the following are part of the limbic E. Cingulate gyrus
system?
A. The red nuclei 9. A loud sound during a conditional reflex
B. The amygdaloid nuclei and the cingulated activity caused its inhibition. What kind of
cortex inhibition is it?
C. The posterior commisure A. External
D. The superior temporal gyrus B. Differential
E. None are correct C. Being late
D. Beyond maximum
5. The functions of the limbic system include - E. Extinction
A. Olfaction
B. expression of rage and fear 10. During a long drought a river drought a river
C. Regulation of sexual behavior dried up. For some time animals continued to
D. All above-listed come to the place of watering, but then stopped
E. None are correct coming. What kind of inhibition of conditioned
reflexes caused the change in animals’
6. Cholinergic neurons are found in the brain in - behaviour?
A. The basal ganglia A. External
B. The neocortex B. Differential
C. The spinal cord C. Being late
D. The hypothalamus D. Beyond maximum
E. Extinction Answers: 1-D, 2-E, 3-A, 4-B, 5-D, 6-E, 7-B, 8-
B, 9-A, 10-E.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. Women with a congenital adrenocortical enzyme A. Failure to form conditioned reflexes when the
defect that causes large amounts of androgens to be conditioned and unconditioned stimulus are
secreted have somewhat more masculine behaviour separated by more than 2 minutes
than normal women because the androgens act on the B. Disappearance of the conditioned reflex if it
brain during fetal development. is not reinforced from time to time
A. Both the statement and the explanation are true C. Rapid formation of conditioned reflexes
and they are related when the conditioned stimulus is pleasant for
B. Both the statement and the explanation are true the animal
but they are unrelated C. All above-listed
C. the statement is true but the explanation is false D. None are correct
D. The statement is false but the explanation is true
E. The statement is false but the explanation is true 6. Discriminative conditioning can be used to -
A. Obliterate undesirable conditioned reflexes
2. The antipsychotic activity of the major B. Determine thresholds for sensory
tranquilizers parallels their ability to block serotonin discrimination, produce the experimental
receptors because the serotonergic neural systems in neurosis
the brain are concerned among other things with C. Study the mechanism of focused attention
normal mental function. D. Produce relaxation and lowering of blood
A. Both the statement and the explanation are true pressure
and they are related E. None are correct
B. Both the statement and the explanation are true
7. Choose the substance that is most important for
but they are unrelated
cholesterol absorption from the intestine…
C. the statement is true but the explanation is false A. Intrinsic factor
D. The statement is false but the explanation is true B. Ferritin
E. The statement is false but the explanation is true C. Bile salts
D. Vitamin D
3. “Sham rage” is sometimes seen in patients after E. Trypsin
encephalitis or brain surgery because these
conditions can damage pathways from the neocortex 8. Which one of the following statements about the
to the limbic system. process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?
A. Both the statement and the explanation are true A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief
and they are related of the gastric gland
B. Both the statement and the explanation are true B. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor
but they are unrelated in the stomach
C. the statement is true but the explanation is false C. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the
D. The statement is false but the explanation is true length of the small intestine
D. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with
E. The statement is false but the explanation is true
pancreatic insufficiency
4. Which one of the following responses is primary E. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the
integrated in hypothalamus and limbic system? enterocyte
A. Tonic neck reflexes
9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-
B. Withdrawal reflexes chain fatty acids…
C. Emotional responses A. Are also packaged as chylomicrons
D. Optical righting reflexes B. Can be used as a source of calories in patients
E. None are correct with malabsorptive disease
C. Are less water-soluble
5. Which of the following are characteristic of D. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymph
conditioned reflex? E. Are more abundant in the diet
10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrhea D. Is caused by bacterial toxins
A. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarity E. Occurs only in the colon
B. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion Answers: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-C, 6-B, 7-C, 8-
C. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium D, 9-B, 10-A.
absorption
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the …
degree by – A. Stomach
A. Injection of insulin B. Duodenum
B. Drinking isotonic saline C. Jejunum
C. Drinking a solution containing fructose D. Ileum
D. Injection of glucagon E. Colon
E. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase
2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
water greatest? GI tract?
A. Esophagus A. Most water and electrolytes come from
B. Stomach ingested fluids
C. Duodenum B. The small intestine and colon have similar
D. Jejunum absorptive capacities
E. Colon C. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the
stomach
3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP D. The majority of absorption occurs in the
content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea jejunum
because they… E. Water absorption is independent of Na+
A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine absorption
B. Increase peristalsis in the colon
C. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of 8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur
Lieberkiihn with excess fluid loss from the…
D. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal A. Stomach
lumen B. Ileum
E. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small C. Colon
intestine D. Pancreas
E. Liver
4. The following processes are involved in the
absorption of the products of digestion from the 9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+
lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood… from the small intestine is…
A. Facilitated diffusion A. Na+-H+ exchange
B. Secondary active transport B. Cotransport with K+
C. Diffusion C. Electrogenic transport
D. Active transport D. Neutral NaCl absorption
E. All of them E. Solvent drag
5. Ca++ absorption is increased by … 10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded
A. Oxalates in the diet from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal
B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …
hypocalcemia A. Monoglycerides
C. Hypokalemia B. Diglycerides
D. Hypercalcemia C. Triglycerides
E. Neither D. Chylomicrons
E. Free fatty acids
Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
C, 9-D, 10-D.
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. An aphasia is most likely to be associated A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
with a lesion of oral intake of fluids
a. The hippocampus B. The small and large intestines have similar
b. The temporal lobe absorptive capacities
c. The parietal lobe C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
d. The limbic system D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
e. The reticular activating system duodenum
E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
2. Which one of the following statements about nutrient transport
the colon is correct?
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
hormonal (aldosteron) control almost exclusively from the …
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from A. Stomach
the colon B. Duodenum
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon C. Jejunum
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon D. Ileum
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive E. Colon
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria 8. Which one of the following statements about
and absorbed in significant quantities include… medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
A. Vitamin B6 A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
B. Vitamin K fatty acids
C. Thiamine B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
D. Riboflavin triglyceride resynthesis
E. Folic acid C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
D. They are transported in the lymph
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed E. They require emulsification prior to
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? enterocyte uptake
A. Glucose
B. Galactose 9. The transport protein responsible for entry of
C. Fructose glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
D. Sucrose A. Glut-2
E. Lactose B. Glut-5
C. SGLT 1
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small D. SGLT 2
intestine is closely coupled with… E. SGLT 5
A. Na-glucose absorption
B. Neutral NaCl absorption 10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion
C. Na+/H+ exchange of …
D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption A. Bile salts
E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption B. Iron
C. Cholesterol
6. Which one of the following statements best D. Alcohol
describes water and electrolyte absorption in the E. B vitamins
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
A, 9-C, 10-C.
Module III.
Theme: “Types of the human highest nervous activity (HNA).”
Variant 1.
1. During an examination it was determined that 6. Which of the following functions represents in
a patient had a strong balanced inert type of the cortical Broca’s area?
higher nervous activity according to Pavlov. A. Speech production
What temperament according to Hippocrate does B. Vision
this type correspond to? C. Motor function
A. Melancholic D. Somatic sensation
B. Sanguine E. Hearing
C. Choleric
D. Phlegmatic 7. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior end
E. Hysterical of the superior temporal gyrus) in the categorical
hemisphere causes patients to -
2. Physiological research determined: a person A. Speak in a slow, halting voice
has a good ability to adapt quickly to a new B. Be unable to comprehend written words and
situational, good memory, emotional stability, talk rapidly but make a little sense
high capacity for work. What type of C. Have the déjà vu phenomenon
temperament do these signs belong to? D. Lose short-term memory
A. Sanguine E. All above-listed
B. Choleric
C. Melancholic 8. In a right-handed individual, the right cerebral
D. Phlegmatic hemisphere is better than the left at-
E. Phlegmatic with the elements of melancholic A. language functions
B. Recognition of objects, identification of
3. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with musical themes
a lesion of C. understanding printed words
A. The hippocampus D. control of voluntary motor function
B. The temporal lobe E. None are correct
C. The parietal lobe
D. The limbic system 9. Which of the following are incorrectly
E. The reticular activating system paired?
A. Lesion of the inferior parietal lobule of the
4. During an examination of a sick old man a representational hemisphere : unilateral
motor aphasia was detected. Where is the area of inattention and neglect
cerebral affection? B. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus
A. In the precentral gyrus basalis of Meynert and related areas of the
B. In the Herschl’s gyrus forebrain : loss of recent memory
C. In the angular gyrus C. Lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent
D. In the postcentral gyrus memory
E. On the Broca’s center D. Lesion of the angular gyrus in the categorical
hemisphere : nonfluent aphasia
5. During an examination of a sick old man a E. Lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical
sensory aphasia was detected. What area of hemisphere : automatic words
cerebral cortex is damaged?
A. Wernicke’s centre 10. The representational hemisphere is -
B. Postcentral gyrus A. The right cerebral hemisphere in most right-
C. Angular gyrus handed individuals
D. Broca’s centre B. The left cerebral hemisphere in most left-
E. precentral gyrus handled individuals
C. The part of the brain concerned with language E. Morphologically identical to the opposite
functions nonrepresentational hemisphere
D. the site of lesions in most patients with
aphasia Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-
B, 9-D, 10-B.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is D. Vitamin D

associated with gastrointestinal disturbance E. Trypsin
related to increased motility. The antibiotic
works by binding to receptors on nerves and 6. Choose the substance that is most important
smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…
hormone … A. Intrinsic factor
A. Gastrin B. Ferritin
B. Motilin C. Bile salts
C. Secretin D. Vitamin D
D. Cholecystokinin E. Trypsin
E. Enteroglucagon
7. Choose the substance that is most important
2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…
the propulsion of chime along the small intestine A. Intrinsic factor
is … B. Ferritin
A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) C. Bile salts
B. Peristaltic waves D. Vitamin D
C. Myogenic waves E. Trypsin
D. Haustrations
E. Segmentation 8. Which one of the following statements about
the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?
3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from
solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a chief of the gastric gland
lot of fluid excrements. Why? B. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic
A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited factor in the stomach
B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is C. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along
stimulated the length of the small intestine
C. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowels D. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with
D. Because the secretion of hormones of the pancreatic insufficiency
duodenum is stimulated E. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into
E. Because osmolarity decreases the enterocyte
4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the 9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids,
absorption of all of the following EXCEPT… medium-chain fatty acids…
A. Vitamin E A. Are also packaged as chylomicrons
B. Amino acids B. Can be used as a source of calories in patients
C. Glucose with malabsorptive disease
D. Bile salts C. Are less water-soluble
E. Dipeptides D. Are also returned to the circulation via the
lymph
5. Choose the substance that is most important E. Are more abundant in the diet
for iron absorption from the intestine…
A. Intrinsic factor 10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic
B. Ferritin diarrhea
C. Bile salts
A. Is characterized by an increase in stool E. Occurs only in the colon
osmolarity
B. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion
C. Is the result of decreased electroneutral Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
sodium absorption D, 9-B, 10-A.
D. Is caused by bacterial toxins
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest

degree by – 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the …
A. Injection of insulin A. Stomach
B. Drinking isotonic saline B. Duodenum
C. Drinking a solution containing fructose C. Jejunum
D. Injection of glucagon D. Ileum
E. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase E. Colon
2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of 7. Which one of the following statements best
water greatest? describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
A. Esophagus GI tract?
B. Stomach A. Most water and electrolytes come from
C. Duodenum ingested fluids
D. Jejunum B. The small intestine and colon have similar
E. Colon absorptive capacities
C. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the
3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP stomach
content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea D. The majority of absorption occurs in the
because they… jejunum
A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine E. Water absorption is independent of Na+
B. Increase peristalsis in the colon absorption
C. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of
Lieberkiihn 8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur
D. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal with excess fluid loss from the…
lumen A. Stomach
E. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small B. Ileum
intestine C. Colon
D. Pancreas
4. The following processes are involved in the E. Liver
absorption of the products of digestion from the
lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood… 9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+
A. Facilitated diffusion from the small intestine is…
B. Secondary active transport A. Na+-H+ exchange
C. Diffusion B. Cotransport with K+
D. Active transport C. Electrogenic transport
E. All of them D. Neutral NaCl absorption
E. Solvent drag
5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …
A. Oxalates in the diet 10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded
B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal
hypocalcemia tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …
C. Hypokalemia A. Monoglycerides
D. Hypercalcemia B. Diglycerides
E. Neither C. Triglycerides
D. Chylomicrons Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
E. Free fatty acids C, 9-D, 10-D.
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from 6. Which one of the following statements best
which one of the following sources? describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3- and gastrointestinal tract?
H+ A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
B. Diffusion from the blood oral intake of fluids
C. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides B. The small and large intestines have similar
by bacteria absorptive capacities
D. Swallowed atmospheric air C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
E. Air pockets within foodstuffs D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
duodenum
2. Which one of the following statements about E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
the colon is correct? nutrient transport
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under
hormonal (aldosteron) control 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from almost exclusively from the …
the colon A. Stomach
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon B. Duodenum
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon C. Jejunum
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive D. Ileum
E. Colon
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria
and absorbed in significant quantities include… 8. Which one of the following statements about
A. Vitamin B6 medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
B. Vitamin K A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
C. Thiamine fatty acids
D. Riboflavin B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
E. Folic acid triglyceride resynthesis
C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed D. They are transported in the lymph
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? E. They require emulsification prior to
A. Glucose enterocyte uptake
B. Galactose
C. Fructose 9. The transport protein responsible for entry of
D. Sucrose glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
E. Lactose A. Glut-2
B. Glut-5
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small C. SGLT 1
intestine is closely coupled with… D. SGLT 2
A. Na-glucose absorption E. SGLT 5
B. Neutral NaCl absorption
C. Na+/H+ exchange 10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion
D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption of …
E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption A. Bile salts
B. Iron
C. Cholesterol Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
D. Alcohol A, 9-C, 10-C.
E. B vitamins
Module III.
Theme: “Memory mechanisms. Physiological role of peptides in memory regulation”.
Variant 1.
1. A disturbance of the long-term memory mechanisms A. Speech production

is most likely to be associated with a lesion of B. Vision
A. The hippocampus C. Motor function
B. The temporal lobe D. Somatic sensation
C. The parietal lobe E. Hearing
D. The limbic system
E. The reticular activating system 7. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior
end of the superior temporal gyrus) in the
2. Physiological research determined: a person has a categorical hemisphere causes patients to -
good ability to adapt quickly to a new situational, good A. Speak in a slow, halting voice
memory, emotional stability, high capacity for work. B. Be unable to comprehend written words and
What type of temperament do these signs belong to? talk rapidly but make a little sense
A. Sanguine C. Have the déjà vu phenomenon
B. Choleric D. Lose short-term memory
C. Melancholic E. All above-listed
D. Phlegmatic 8. In a right-handed individual, the right
E. Phlegmatic with the elements of melancholic cerebral hemisphere is better than the left at-
3. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with a A. language functions
lesion of B. Recognition of objects, identification of
a. The hippocampus musical themes
b. The temporal lobe C. understanding printed words
c. The parietal lobe D. control of voluntary motor function
d. The limbic system E. None are correct
e. The reticular activating system 9. Which of the following are incorrectly
4. During an examination of a sick old man a motor paired?
aphasia was detected. Where is the area of cerebral A. Lesion of the inferior parietal lobule of the
affection? representational hemisphere : unilateral
A. In the precentral gyrus inattention and neglect
B. In the Herschl’s gyrus B. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus
C. In the angular gyrus basalis of Meynert and related areas of the
D. In the postcentral gyrus forebrain : loss of recent memory
E. On the Broca’s center C. Lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent
memory
5. During an examination of a sick old man a sensory D. Lesion of the angular gyrus in the
aphasia was detected. What area of cerebral cortex is categorical hemisphere : nonfluent aphasia
damaged? E. Lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical
A. Wernicke’s centre hemisphere : automatic words
B. Postcentral gyrus
C. Angular gyrus 10. The representational hemisphere is -
D. Broca’s centre A. The right cerebral hemisphere in most right-
E. precentral gyrus handed individuals
B. The left cerebral hemisphere in most left-
6. Which of the following functions represents in the handled individuals
cortical Broca’s area?
C. The part of the brain concerned with language E. Morphologically identical to the opposite
functions nonrepresentational hemisphere
D. the site of lesions in most patients with aphasia
Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B,
8-B, 9-D, 10-B.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is C. Bile salts
associated with gastrointestinal disturbance D. Vitamin D
related to increased motility. The antibiotic E. Trypsin
works by binding to receptors on nerves and
smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal 6. Choose the substance that is most important
hormone … for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…
A. Gastrin A. Intrinsic factor
B. Motilin B. Ferritin
C. Secretin C. Bile salts
D. Cholecystokinin D. Vitamin D
E. Enteroglucagon E. Trypsin
2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for 7. Choose the substance that is most important
the propulsion of chime along the small intestine for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…
is … A. Intrinsic factor
A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Ferritin
B. Peristaltic waves C. Bile salts
C. Myogenic waves D. Vitamin D
D. Haustrations E. Trypsin
E. Segmentation
8. Which one of the following statements about
3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?
solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from
lot of fluid excrements. Why? chief of the gastric gland
A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic
B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is factor in the stomach
stimulated C. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along
C. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowels the length of the small intestine
D. Because the secretion of hormones of the D. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with
duodenum is stimulated pancreatic insufficiency
E. Because osmolarity decreases E. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into
the enterocyte
4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the
absorption of all of the following EXCEPT… 9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids,
A. Vitamin E medium-chain fatty acids…
B. Amino acids A. Are also packaged as chylomicrons
C. Glucose B. Can be used as a source of calories in patients
D. Bile salts with malabsorptive disease
E. Dipeptides C. Are less water-soluble
D. Are also returned to the circulation via the
5. Choose the substance that is most important lymph
for iron absorption from the intestine… E. Are more abundant in the diet
A. Intrinsic factor
B. Ferritin
10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic D. Is caused by bacterial toxins
diarrhea E. Occurs only in the colon
osmolarity
B. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
C. Is the result of decreased electroneutral D, 9-B, 10-A.
sodium absorption
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest E. Neither

degree by –
A. Injection of insulin 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the …
B. Drinking isotonic saline A. Stomach
C. Drinking a solution containing fructose B. Duodenum
D. Injection of glucagon C. Jejunum
E. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase D. Ileum
E. Colon
2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of
water greatest? 7. Which one of the following statements best
A. Esophagus describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
B. Stomach GI tract?
C. Duodenum A. Most water and electrolytes come from
D. Jejunum ingested fluids
E. Colon B. The small intestine and colon have similar
absorptive capacities
3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP C. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the
content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea stomach
because they… D. The majority of absorption occurs in the
A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine jejunum
B. Increase peristalsis in the colon E. Water absorption is independent of Na+
C. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of absorption
Lieberkiihn
D. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal 8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur
lumen with excess fluid loss from the…
E. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small A. Stomach
intestine B. Ileum
C. Colon
4. The following processes are involved in the D. Pancreas
absorption of the products of digestion from the E. Liver
lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…
A. Facilitated diffusion 9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+
B. Secondary active transport from the small intestine is…
C. Diffusion A. Na+-H+ exchange
D. Active transport B. Cotransport with K+
E. All of them C. Electrogenic transport
D. Neutral NaCl absorption
5. Ca++ absorption is increased by … E. Solvent drag
A. Oxalates in the diet
B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and 10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded
hypocalcemia from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal
C. Hypokalemia tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …
D. Hypercalcemia A. Monoglycerides
B. Diglycerides
C. Triglycerides Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
D. Chylomicrons C, 9-D, 10-D.
E. Free fatty acids
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from

which one of the following sources? 6. Which one of the following statements best
A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3- and describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
H+ gastrointestinal tract?
B. Diffusion from the blood A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
C. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides oral intake of fluids
by bacteria B. The small and large intestines have similar
D. Swallowed atmospheric air absorptive capacities
E. Air pockets within foodstuffs C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
2. Which one of the following statements about duodenum
the colon is correct? E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under nutrient transport
hormonal (aldosteron) control
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
the colon almost exclusively from the …
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon A. Stomach
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon B. Duodenum
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive C. Jejunum
D. Ileum
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria E. Colon
and absorbed in significant quantities include…
A. Vitamin B6 8. Which one of the following statements about
B. Vitamin K medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
C. Thiamine A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
D. Riboflavin fatty acids
E. Folic acid B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
triglyceride resynthesis
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? D. They are transported in the lymph
A. Glucose E. They require emulsification prior to
B. Galactose enterocyte uptake
C. Fructose
D. Sucrose 9. The transport protein responsible for entry of
E. Lactose glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
A. Glut-2
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small B. Glut-5
intestine is closely coupled with… C. SGLT 1
A. Na-glucose absorption D. SGLT 2
B. Neutral NaCl absorption E. SGLT 5
C. Na+/H+ exchange
D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption 10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion
E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption of …
A. Bile salts
B. Iron Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
C. Cholesterol A, 9-C, 10-C.
D. Alcohol
E. B vitamins
Module III.
Theme: “Working activity and it’s regimes. Adaptation to physical activity”.
Variant 1.
1. During an examination it was determined that E. precentral gyrus
a patient had a strong balanced inert type of
higher nervous activity according to Pavlov. 6. Which of the following functions represents in
What temperament according to Hippocrate does the cortical Broca’s area?
this type correspond to? A. Speech production
A. Melancholic B. Vision
B. Sanguine C. Motor function
C. Choleric D. Somatic sensation
D. Phlegmatic E. Hearing
E. Hysterical
7. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior end
2. Physiological research determined: a person of the superior temporal gyrus) in the categorical
has a good ability to adapt quickly to a new hemisphere causes patients to -
situational, good memory, emotional stability, A. Speak in a slow, halting voice
high capacity for work. What type of B. Be unable to comprehend written words and
temperament do these signs belong to? talk rapidly but make a little sense
A. Sanguine C. Have the déjà vu phenomenon
B. Choleric D. Lose short-term memory
C. Melancholic E. All above-listed
D. Phlegmatic
E. Phlegmatic with the elements of melancholic 8. In a right-handed individual, the right cerebral
hemisphere is better than the left at-
3. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with A. language functions
a lesion of B. Recognition of objects, identification of
a. The hippocampus musical themes
b. The temporal lobe C. understanding printed words
c. The parietal lobe D. control of voluntary motor function
d. The limbic system E. None are correct
e. The reticular activating system
9. Which of the following are incorrectly
4. During an examination of a sick old man a paired?
motor aphasia was detected. Where is the area of A. Lesion of the inferior parietal lobule of the
cerebral affection? representational hemisphere : unilateral
A. In the precentral gyrus inattention and neglect
B. In the Herschl’s gyrus B. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus
C. In the angular gyrus basalis of Meynert and related areas of the
D. In the postcentral gyrus forebrain : loss of recent memory
E. On the Broca’s center C. Lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent
memory
5. During an examination of a sick old man a D. Lesion of the angular gyrus in the categorical
sensory aphasia was detected. What area of hemisphere : nonfluent aphasia
cerebral cortex is damaged? E. Lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical
A. Wernicke’s centre hemisphere : automatic words
B. Postcentral gyrus
C. Angular gyrus 10. The representational hemisphere is -
D. Broca’s centre
A. The right cerebral hemisphere in most right- D. the site of lesions in most patients with
handed individuals aphasia
B. The left cerebral hemisphere in most left- E. Morphologically identical to the opposite
handled individuals nonrepresentational hemisphere
C. The part of the brain concerned with language
functions Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-
B, 9-D, 10-B.
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is B. Ferritin

associated with gastrointestinal disturbance C. Bile salts
related to increased motility. The antibiotic D. Vitamin D
works by binding to receptors on nerves and E. Trypsin
smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal
hormone … 6. Choose the substance that is most important
A. Gastrin for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…
B. Motilin A. Intrinsic factor
C. Secretin B. Ferritin
D. Cholecystokinin C. Bile salts
E. Enteroglucagon D. Vitamin D
E. Trypsin
2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for
the propulsion of chime along the small intestine 7. Choose the substance that is most important
is … for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…
A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) A. Intrinsic factor
B. Peristaltic waves B. Ferritin
C. Myogenic waves C. Bile salts
D. Haustrations D. Vitamin D
E. Segmentation E. Trypsin
3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated 8. Which one of the following statements about
solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?
lot of fluid excrements. Why? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from
A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited chief of the gastric gland
B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is B. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic
stimulated factor in the stomach
C. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowels C. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along
D. Because the secretion of hormones of the the length of the small intestine
duodenum is stimulated D. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with
E. Because osmolarity decreases pancreatic insufficiency
E. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into
4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the the enterocyte
absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…
A. Vitamin E 9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids,
B. Amino acids medium-chain fatty acids…
C. Glucose A. Are also packaged as chylomicrons
D. Bile salts B. Can be used as a source of calories in patients
E. Dipeptides with malabsorptive disease
C. Are less water-soluble
5. Choose the substance that is most important D. Are also returned to the circulation via the
for iron absorption from the intestine… lymph
A. Intrinsic factor E. Are more abundant in the diet
D. Is caused by bacterial toxins
10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic E. Occurs only in the colon
diarrhea
osmolarity Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-
B. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion D, 9-B, 10-A.
C. Is the result of decreased electroneutral
sodium absorption
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest D. Hypercalcemia

degree by – E. Neither
A. Injection of insulin
B. Drinking isotonic saline 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the …
C. Drinking a solution containing fructose A. Stomach
D. Injection of glucagon B. Duodenum
E. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase C. Jejunum
D. Ileum
2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of E. Colon
water greatest?
A. Esophagus 7. Which one of the following statements best
B. Stomach describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
C. Duodenum GI tract?
D. Jejunum A. Most water and electrolytes come from
E. Colon ingested fluids
B. The small intestine and colon have similar
3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP absorptive capacities
content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea C. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the
because they… stomach
A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine D. The majority of absorption occurs in the
B. Increase peristalsis in the colon jejunum
C. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of E. Water absorption is independent of Na+
Lieberkiihn absorption
D. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal
lumen 8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur
E. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small with excess fluid loss from the…
intestine A. Stomach
B. Ileum
4. The following processes are involved in the C. Colon
absorption of the products of digestion from the D. Pancreas
lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood… E. Liver
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Secondary active transport 9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+
C. Diffusion from the small intestine is…
D. Active transport A. Na+-H+ exchange
E. All of them B. Cotransport with K+
C. Electrogenic transport
5. Ca++ absorption is increased by … D. Neutral NaCl absorption
A. Oxalates in the diet E. Solvent drag
B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and
hypocalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded D. Chylomicrons
from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal E. Free fatty acids
tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …
A. Monoglycerides Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
B. Diglycerides C, 9-D, 10-D.
C. Triglycerides
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption
which one of the following sources? E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption
A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3- and
H+ 6. Which one of the following statements best
B. Diffusion from the blood describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
C. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides gastrointestinal tract?
by bacteria A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
D. Swallowed atmospheric air oral intake of fluids
E. Air pockets within foodstuffs B. The small and large intestines have similar
2. Which one of the following statements about C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
the colon is correct? D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under duodenum
hormonal (aldosteron) control E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from nutrient transport
the colon
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon almost exclusively from the …
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria C. Jejunum
and absorbed in significant quantities include… D. Ileum
A. Vitamin B6 E. Colon
B. Vitamin K
C. Thiamine 8. Which one of the following statements about
D. Riboflavin medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
E. Folic acid A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
fatty acids
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? triglyceride resynthesis
A. Glucose C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
B. Galactose D. They are transported in the lymph
C. Fructose E. They require emulsification prior to
D. Sucrose enterocyte uptake
E. Lactose
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
intestine is closely coupled with… A. Glut-2
A. Na-glucose absorption B. Glut-5
B. Neutral NaCl absorption C. SGLT 1
C. Na+/H+ exchange D. SGLT 2
E. SGLT 5 D. Alcohol
E. B vitamins
of … Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
A. Bile salts A, 9-C, 10-C.
B. Iron
C. Cholesterol
Module III.
Theme: “Sleeping and it’s biological role”.
Variant 1.
1. True statements about the initial stages of a 5. Hypoventilation normally occurs during
normal sleep period include which of the A. Pregnancy
following? B. Sleep
A. Sleep is initiated by a decrease in the activity C. Exercise
of the ascending reticular activating system D. All are correct
B. The first EEG sign of sleep is an increase in E. None
the amplitude of the EEG waves
C. Both of them 6. Which one of the following is the most likely
D. Neither cause of a high arterial PCO2?
E. All above-listed A. Increased metabolic activity
B. Increased alveolar dead space
2. Which of the following conditions is most C. Depressed medullary respiratory centers
closely related to slow-wave sleep? caused by sleeping or barbiturate drugs
A. Dreaming D. Alveolar capillary block
B. Atonia E. Increased alveolar ventilation
C. Bed wetting
D. High-frequency EEG waves 7. A person with hypothyroidism would exhibit
E. Irregular heart rates A. Tachycardia
B. Increased metabolic rate
3. Correct statements regarding rapid eye C. Heat intolerance
movement (REM) sleep include which of the D. Sleepiness
following? E. Decreased body mass index
A. It is the first state of sleep entered when a
person falls asleep 8. Secretion of growth hormone is stimulated by
B. It is accompanied by loss of skeletal muscle a. Increased plasma glucose levels
tone b. Deep sleep
C. It is characterized by a slow but steady heart c. Free fatty acids
rate d. Somatostatin
D. It occurs more often in adults than in children e. Hyperglycemia
E. It lasts longer than periods of slow-wave sleep
9. The graph below demonstrates diurnal
4. The delta rhythm appearing on an EEG has variation in the plasma level of
which of the following characteristics?
A. It produces 8 to 12 waves per second
B. It disappears when a patient’s eyes open
C. It is replaced by slower, larger waves during
REM sleep
D. It represents activity that is most pronounced
in the frontal region of the brain
E. It is associated with deep sleep A. Thyroxine
B. Insulin
C. Parathyroid hormone B. Hippocampus
D. Cortisol C. Nuclei of cranial nerves
E. Estrogen D. Cortex of large hemispheres
E. Reticular formation
10. A man of 60 slept after brain hemorrhage for
a long time. The damage of what structures Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-
caused such state? B, 9-D, 10-E.
A. Substantia nigra
Module III.
Variant 2.
1. Which of the following is most closely related B. Beta rhythm

to rapid eye movement (REM) sleep? C. Delta rhythm
A. Bed-wetting D. Theta rhythm
B. Sleepwalking E. Sleep spindles
C. High-frequency EEG waves, total inhibition
of α-motoneurons, irregular heart rates and 7. Dreaming sleep -
breathing patterns A. Is associated with large slow waves in the
D. All are correct EEG
E. None are correct B. Is associated with increased muscle tone
C. Does not occur in old age
2. In which of the following do the waves of the D. Is associated with a decrease in blood
EEG have the lowest frequency? pressure
A. Alpha rhythm E. None are correct
B. Beta rhythm
C. Delta rhythm 8. The following would tend to produce slow-
D. Theta rhythm wave sleep -
E. Sleep spindles A. A decrease in the number of impulses
reaching the ascending reticular system
3. What the main frequency of theta-rhythm? B. Injection of tryptophan, an amino acid that
A. 0,5-4 Hz increases the serotonin level in the brain
B. 4-7 Hz C. Stimulation of the basal forebrain in the
C. 8-13 Hz region of the diagonal band
D. 18-30 Hz D. All are correct
E. None are correct E. None are correct
4. What the main frequency of delta-rhythm? 9. Stimulation of the following brain areas can
A. 0,5-4 Hz produce sleep -
B. 4-7 Hz A. The posterior
C. 8-13 Hz B. The medullary reticular formation near the
D. 18-30 Hz nucleus of the tractus solitarius
E. None are correct C. The preoptic area
D. All are correct
5. What the main frequency of alpha-rhythm? E. none are correct
A. 0,5-4 Hz
B. 4-7 Hz 10. In which of the following do the waves of the
C. 8-13 Hz EEG have the highest frequency?
D. 18-30 Hz A. Alpha rhythm
E. None are correct B. Beta rhythm
C. Delta rhythm
6. Which of the following EEG-rhythm is D. Theta rhythm
registered during paradox-phase of a sleep? E. Sleep spindles
A. Alpha rhythm
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A, 5-C, 6-B, 7-E, 8-
D, 9-D, 10-E.
Module III.
Variant 3.
1. The EEG record in figure bellow is D. Active transport

characteristic of - E. All of them
A. Deep sleep
B. A learning response produced by a painful 5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …
stimulus A. Oxalates in the diet
C. REM sleep B. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and
D. A psychomotor seizure hypocalcemia
E. Petit mal epilepsy C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Neither
6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the …

2. The electrical records in figure bellow are A. Stomach
characteristic of - B. Duodenum
A. Deep sleep C. Jejunum
B. Grand mal epilepsy D. Ileum
C. REM sleep E. Colon
D. A psychomotor seizure
E. Petit mal epilepsy 7. Which one of the following statements best
describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
GI tract?
A. Most water and electrolytes come from
ingested fluids
B. The small intestine and colon have similar
3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP absorptive capacities
content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea C. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the
because they… stomach
A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine D. The majority of absorption occurs in the
B. Increase peristalsis in the colon jejunum
C. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of E. Water absorption is independent of Na+
Lieberkiihn absorption
D. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal
lumen 8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur
E. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small with excess fluid loss from the…
intestine A. Stomach
B. Ileum
4. The following processes are involved in the C. Colon
absorption of the products of digestion from the D. Pancreas
lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood… E. Liver
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Secondary active transport 9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+
C. Diffusion from the small intestine is…
A. Na+-H+ exchange A. Monoglycerides
B. Cotransport with K+ B. Diglycerides
C. Electrogenic transport C. Triglycerides
D. Neutral NaCl absorption D. Chylomicrons
E. Solvent drag E. Free fatty acids
Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-
10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded C, 9-D, 10-D.
tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …
Module III.
Variant 4.
1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from D. Electrogenic Na+ absorption
which one of the following sources? E. Na-vitamin B12 absorption
A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3- and
H+ 6. Which one of the following statements best
B. Diffusion from the blood describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
C. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides gastrointestinal tract?
by bacteria A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the
D. Swallowed atmospheric air oral intake of fluids
E. Air pockets within foodstuffs B. The small and large intestines have similar
2. Which one of the following statements about C. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum
the colon is correct? D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the
A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under duodenum
hormonal (aldosteron) control E. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled
B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from nutrient transport
the colon
C. Net absorption of HCO3- occurs in the colon 7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs
D. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon almost exclusively from the …
E. The luminal potential in the colon is positive A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria C. Jejunum
and absorbed in significant quantities include… D. Ileum
A. Vitamin B6 E. Colon
B. Vitamin K
C. Thiamine 8. Which one of the following statements about
D. Riboflavin medium-chain fatty acids is correct?
E. Folic acid A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain
fatty acids
4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed B. Within the enterocyte, they are used for
from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion? triglyceride resynthesis
A. Glucose C. They are packaged into chylomicrons
B. Galactose D. They are transported in the lymph
C. Fructose E. They require emulsification prior to
D. Sucrose enterocyte uptake
E. Lactose
5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called …
intestine is closely coupled with… A. Glut-2
A. Na-glucose absorption B. Glut-5
B. Neutral NaCl absorption C. SGLT 1
C. Na+/H+ exchange D. SGLT 2
E. SGLT 5 D. Alcohol
E. B vitamins
of … Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-
A. Bile salts A, 9-C, 10-C.
B. Iron
C. Cholesterol

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1

2. During physical activity a young man’s O2 7. It measures a person’s expenditure of energy

1. How much entering energy will organism E. Lipids

Answers: 1-B, 2- B, 3- A, 4-C, 5-E, 6-B, 7- C, 8- C, 9-E, 10- B.

1. What is the respiratory quotient? 6. What vitamins are soluble in water?

Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C, 5- D, 6-E, 7- C, 8-C, 9-C, 10-D.

1. Which hormone does increase thermogenesis A. It’s change of carbohydrates breaking up

1. Intensity of the olfactory sensitivity depends 6. What is normal saliva pH?

1. 150 ml of meat broth was introduced through

1. Withdrawal from chronic administration of an D. Somatostatin

1. A part of a patient’s pancreas was ablated. E. Neurotensin

1. Which of the following is not produced by a 6. Total pancreatectomy would be expected to

Answers: 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-C, 5-C, 6-E, 7-C, 8-

2. Bile contains – 8. Acute obstruction of the common bile duct

1. Which of the following process of a hungry

5. Hyperthyroidism is accompanied by…

1. In infants, defecation often follows a meal. B. Chymotrypsin

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is A. Intrinsic factor

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest B. Duodenum

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is A. Intrinsic factor

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest B. Duodenum

6. Which of the following is most likely to cause an

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest B. Duodenum

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is A. Intrinsic factor

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest B. Duodenum

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-E, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-E, 8-A,

1. Pacinian corpuscles are - E. Postcentral gyrus

1. When a skilled movement is initiated, B. Is due to hyperactive stretch reflexes

1. When emmetropic persons become A. It produces 20 to 30 waves per second

6. Which of the following refractive problems most

9. Which one of the following is more descriptive of rods

1. If the threshold for hearing increases 1000 B. Scala media

1. It is necessary for a researcher to develop a E. All above-listed

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is D. Vitamin D

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest

1. A disturbance of the long-term memory mechanisms A. Speech production

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest E. Neither

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is B. Ferritin

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest D. Hypercalcemia

1. Which of the following is most closely related B. Beta rhythm

1. The EEG record in figure bellow is D. Active transport

6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the …

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