Common cause of Neonatal.m.

eningitis is :
(A) Streptococcus MG (B) Streptococcus faecalis
(C) Streptococcus agalactiae (D) Streptococcus equisimilis
The spore of Clostridium tetani is:
(A) Terminal and elliptical (B) Subterminal and elliptical
(C) Subterminal and round (D) Terminal and round
Sereny Test is carried out for identification of :
W ErnC ~ E~C
(C) EIEC (D) EPEC
The example of immediate Hypersensitivity is :
(A) Casoni test (B) Lepromin test
(C). Tuberculin test· (D) F~ei test
J-Chain: is present in :
(A) IgG (B IgA
) IgE
(C) IgD
(D
Staphylococcus is
)
a:
(A) Gram positive cocci in chain
(B) Gram positive cocci in cluster
(C) Gram negative cocci in chain
(D) Gram negative cocci in cluster
Bird flu is caused by an Avian subtype Influenza virus with antigenic structure:
(A) H1N5 (B) H5N1
(C) H1N1 (D) H3N2
Which one of the bacteria is transmitted by sexual route ?
(A) Haemophilus aegyptius
(B) H~emophilus ducreyi
(C) Haemophilus haemolyticus
(D) Haemophilu's parahaemolyticus
Cytotoxic (Type II) hypersensitivity is mediated by :
(A) IgG (B) IgA
(C) IgD (D) IgE
10. Widal test is alan :
(A) Agglutination test (B) CFT
(C) Precipitation test (D) Flocculation. test
11. Cysticercosis is caused by ingestion of :
(A) Cysticercus cellulosae (B) Cysticercus bovis
(C) Egg of Taenia saginata (D) Egg of Taenia solium
12. The infective form of malaria' is :
(B Merozoite
(A) SporQzoite
) Gametocyt
(C) Schizont
(D e
PPC/2009II
)
(2 )
13. Which form will not be present commonly in peripheral blood smear in Malignant
Tertian Malaria ?
(A) Trophozoite (B) Schizont
(C) Male gametocyte (D) Female gametocyte
14. Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis is caused by :
(A) Balamuthia mandrillaris (B) Naegleria fowleri
(C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Entamoeba coli
15. Occult filariasis is caused by :
(A) Adult Wuchereria bancrofti (B) Microfilaria bancrofti
(C) Adult Brugia malayi (D) Microfilaria malayi
16. The segment of RNA genome in influenza virus type C is :
(A) six (B) seven
(C) eight - (D) nine
17. Negri bodies are :
(A) Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic (B) Intracytoplasmic basophilic
(C) Intranuclea,r eosinophilic (D) Intranuclear basophilic
18. True yeast is :
(A) Candida albicans (B) Pityrosporum orbiculare
(C) Cryptococcus neoformans (D) Cladosporium wemickii
19. Concentration of H2S04 in Z-N staining is :
(A) 1% (B) 5%
(C) 10% (D) 20%
20. Which one is not Dermatophytes ?
(A) Trichophyton (B) Microsporum
(C) Epdermophyton (D) Malassezia furfur
21. MMR is a :
(A) Double dose vaccine given by S.C.
route (B) Single dose vaccine given by S.C.
route (C) Double dose vaccine given by
I.M. route (D) Single dose vaccine given by
I.M. route
22. Which is not associated with Rheumatic heart disease?
.,-
(A) Jones cri~ria (B) Dukes criteria
(C) Anitschkow cell (D) Pancarditis
23. All are HIV-associated neoplasm, except:
(A) Kaposi's sarcoma (B) B-cell non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
(C) Primary lymphoma of brain (D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
24. All are inherited syndromes of defective DNA repair, except:
(A) Xeroderma pigmentosa (B) Sturge Weber syndrome
(C) Ataxia telangiectasia (D) Bloom syndrome
25. Benign cystic taratoma may undergo the following malignancy, except:
(A) Adenocarcinoma (B) Squamous cell carcinoma
 (C) Melanoma (D) Thyroid carcinoma
PPC/2009II (3) P.T.O.

26. The following conditions help in development of sickling, except : (A) Higher
MCHC
(B) A decrease in pH of blood
(C) Increased length of time of low oxygen tension
(D) An increase in pH of .blood
27. . The following are hereditary syndromes of G.I. Tract, expect :
(A) Cowden disease (B) Familial adenomatous polyposis
(C) Garden syndrome· (D) Bloom syndrome
28. Prostaglandins. in . acute inflammation will cause all, except :
(A) Vasodilatation (B) Pain
(C) Fever (D) Tissue damage
29. All the following microbiological agents will cause myocarditis, except:
(A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida
(C) N. meningococcus (D) Falciparum malariae
30. In Wegener granulomatosis we find: (A) Crescentic glomerqlonephritis (B)
Minimal change
(C) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
(D) Chronic glomerulonephritis
31. "Schiller-Duval body" seen is : (A) Androblastoma
(B) Choriocarcinnoma
(C) Endodennal sinus' (yolk-sac) Tumor
(D) Dysgerminoma
32. Which of the following cell is a phagocyte ?
(A) Lymphocyte (B) Neutrophil
(C) Eosinophil (D) Basophil
. 33. Commonest cause ofSVC syndrome is:
(A) Extrinsic compression (B) Atherosclerosis
(C) Hamartoma (D) Mediastinal lymphoma
34. Single file appearance of cell is seen in :
(A) Invasive lobular carcinoma (B) Invasive ductal carcinoma
(C) Medullary carcinoma (D) Tubular carcinoma
35. Lacunar cell pre40minantly seen in :
(A) Nodular sclerosis (B) Mixed cellularity
(C) Lymphocyte Predominant (D) Lymphocyte depletion
36. Gandy gamma bodies are seen in:
(A) Congestive splenomegaly (B) Infective endocarditis
 '(C) Rheumatic heart disease (D) Sarcoidosis
37. Onion-skin appearance of bone-tumor in X-ray is seen in :
(A) Chronic osteomyelitis (B) Ewing's sarcoma
(C) ,Osteogenic sarcoma (D) Giant cell tumor of bone
PPC/200~1I (4)

38. Acanthosis Nigricans is associated with all, except :

(A) Gastric carcinoma (B) Lung carcinoma
(C) Uterine carcinoma (D) Thyroid carcinoma
39. All are true about placental site Trophoblastic tumor, except (A) Trophoblast
deeply invades myometrium
(B) They have prominent cytotrophoblastic elements
(C) The trophoblastic cells are immunoreactive for placental lactogen
(D) About 10% have disseminated metastasis '
40. All these are inflammatory blistering disease, except:
(A) Bullous pemphigoid (B) Porphyria
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris (D) Pemphigus erythematosis
41. Facioscapulohumoral mucular dystrophy is a disease of nature:
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked recessive (D) X-linked dominant
42. Clinical criteria producing clue regarding nature of Thyroid nodule include all,
except:
(A) Solitary nodule likely to be neoplastic
(B) Nodule in younger patient likely neoplastic (C)
Nodule in female likely neoplastic
(D) "Hot nodule" in radioactive emaging likely to be benign
43. Patients with sickle cell anemia having pyogenic osteomyelitis, the commonest
pathogen is :
(A) Staphylococcous aureus (B) H. influenza
(C) Pseudomonas (D) Salmonella
44. All these are true about Legionella disease, except : (A) Caused by Legionella
Pneumophila
(B) The pneumonia is multifocal
(C) The inflammation is fibrinopurulent
(D) Proximal bronchi and bronchioles are involved
45. All these are true about metastatic calcification, except : (A) There is
hypercalcaemia
(B) Seen in hyperparathyroidism (C)
Seen in Monckebergs sclerosis
(D) Calcium salt deposit in normal tissue
46. In ealry gastric carcinoma all are true, except (A) Mucosa is involved
(B) Submucosa is involved
(C) Perigastric lymph node may be involved (D)
It is synonymous ,with carcinoma-in-situ
47. Which tetracycline can be used safely in presence of renal impairment?
(A) Oxytetracycline (B) Chlortetracyline
(C) Doxycycline (D) Tetracycline
PPC/2009II
48. Which one is preferred for the treatment of neurocysticercosis ?
(A) Mebendazole (B) Albendazole
(C) Thiabendazole (D) Praziquantel
49. Whieh drug follows both first-order and zero-order kinetics for elimination at diJ ferent
doses?
(A) Phenytoin (B) Theophylline
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D)' Penicillin G.
50. Drug of choice in Paroxysmal Supra Ventricular Tachycardia is :
(A) Quinidine . (B) Verapamil
(C) Amlodipine (D) Adenosine
51. All are immunosuppressive agent, except:
(A) Cyclosporine (B) Levamisole
(C) Corticosteroids (D) Tacrolimus
52. Which one is the wrong statement about Carbamazepine ? (A) It is an lminostilbene·
derivative
(B) Effective in grand mal epilepsy and trigeminal neuralgia (C) Found
to be effective in manic-depressive psychosis
(D) Useful in absence seizure
53. Drug of choice in drug-induced Parkinsonism is :
(A) Selegiline (B) Entacapone
(C) Benztropine mesylate (D) Tacrine
54. One of the following drugs can be administered along with fatty food :
(A) Tetracycline (B) Griseofulvin
(C) Captopril (D) Rifampicin
55. . All are prodrug, except :
(A) Levodopa (B) Omeprazole
(C) Lisinopril (D) Alpha-methyldopa
56. Antiarrhythmic drug useful in ventricular arrhythmia is :
(A) Lignocaine (B) Esmolol
(C) 'Verapamil (D) Digoxin
57. Topically useful carbonic anhydrase inhibitor in glaucoma is :
(A) Dorzolamide (B) Acetazolamide
(C) Brinzolamide (D) Both (A) and (C)
58. Diuretic of choice in cirrhotic oedema is :
(A) Thiazides (B) Spironolactone
(C) Amiloride (D) Urea
59. All are microsomal enzyme inhibitors, except:
(A) Erythromycin (B) Clarithromycin
(B Atenolo
(C) Azithromycin (D) Ciprofloxacin
) l
60. Shortest acting beta-blocker is : (A) Propranolol
(D Esmolo
(C) Nadolol ) l
PPC/20091I (6 )
61. Safe antihypertensive during pregnancy is :
(A) Enalapril (B) Hydrallazine
(C) Methyldopa (D) Both (B) and (C)
62. All of these drugs can cause hypokalaemia, except :
(A) Epinephrine (B) Ramipril
(C) Acetazolamide (D) Amphotericin B
63. Which one is the wrong statement- about mannitol? (A) Increases plasma
osmolality
(B) Increases viscosity of blood
(C) Primary site of action is Loop of Henle (D)
Useful in dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
64. Corticosteroid with maximum mineralocorticoid activity is :
(A) Prednisolone (B) Fludrocortisone
(C) Triamcinolone (D) Hydrocortisone
65. Antihyperglycemic but not hypoglycemic drug used in diabetes mellitus include:
(A) Metformin (B) Acarbose
(C) Tolbutamide (D) Both (A) and (B)
66. Safe antimalarial drug during pregnancy' is :
(A) Primaquine (B) Chloroquine
(C) Artemisinin (D) Mefloquine
67. Diuretic useful in hypercalcaemia is :
(A) Acetazolamide (B) Amiloride
(C) Thiazides (D) Frusemide
68. Interleukins can be produced by : (A) Monocytes only
(B) Lymphocytes only
(C) Both Monocytes and Lymphocytes
(D) Monocytes, Lymphocytes and many others
69. Accumulation of large excess of body water is followed by : (A) Osmolarity of
urine. remains same
(B) Total amount of solute excreted by the kidneys remains same (C)
Urine flow rate remains same
(D) Total amount of urine volume remains same
70. .Which one of the following is not essential for the biosynthesis of thyroid
hormones?
(A) Iodine . (B) Ferritin
(C) Thyroglobulin (D) Thyroid stimulating hormone
71. Patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema because: (A) The plasma
oncotic pressure is high
(B) There is renal compensation
(C) There is an increase cardiac. output
(D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
72. Voltage augmentation in augmented unipolar limb lead is increased by :
(A) 1.5 times (B) 2 times
(C) 2.5 times (D) 3 times
PPC/2009II (7) P.T.o.
73. Which one of the following is not a function of the limbic system ? (A) Central
autonomic functions
(B) Controls primitive. behaviour like sex and
hunger (C) Plays important role in emotion of rage
and fear (D) Control intellectual activities
74. The hypothalamus regulates all the activities, except : (A) Formation of anterior
pituitary hormones
(B) Release of releasing factors
(C) Release of inhibitory factors
(D) Control circadian rhythm
75. Spatial orientation of nerve fibers from the different parts of the body exists in the
dorsal column of medial lemniscal system :
(A) The fibers from the lower ·part of the body lie
laterally . (B) The fibers from the trunk is present
centrally
(C) The fibers from the upper part of the body are pushed centrally
(D) The fibers from the lower part of tbe body lie toward the center of the
cord
76. Angiotensin II stimulates thirst by a direct action on receptors located in :
(A) Posterior pituitary (B) Area prostrema
(C) Supraoptic crest (D) Subfomical organ
77. Vasopressin after being secreted in blood is bound to :
(A) Albumin (B) L1 Globulin
(C) Neurophysin I (D) Neurophysin II
78. Which one of the following is not correct ? Tapping the tendon of a muscle may
elicit?
(A) Contraction of the muscle (B) Relaxation of the muscle
(C) No response (D) Fibrillation of the muscle
79. Wh~t happen to blood pH in haemorrhagic shock ?
(A) Acidosis (B) Alkalosis
(C) No change (D) Either (A) or (B)
80. Increased Gamma efferent discharge is seen in all, except:
(A) Jendrassik's maneuvre (B) Anxiety
(C) Rapid shallow breathing (D) Stimulation of skin
81. Absolute refractory period of heart is the gap of time in which: (A) Heart is in
diastole
(B) Responsive to neural stimuli
(C) No action potential from another part of heart will reexcite the heart
muscle . (D) None of the above
82. The intrafusal fibers of striated skeletal muscles are innervated by one of the
following type of moto :
(A) Alpha (B) Beta
(C) Gamma (D) Delta
83. Loop of Henle handles the following ions, except :
(A) Na+ (B) K+
(C) CI- (D) Urea
PPC/2009n (8)
85.

84. A measure location dividing the distribution in the ratio of 1 : 3 is :

(A) Median (B) First quartile
(C) Third quartile (D) Mode
86. Quantities continuous data can be presented by the following diagrams, except:
(A) Histogram (B) Frequency polygon
(C) Ogive (D) Bar chart
86. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of : (A) Association between two
variables
(B) Correlation between two variables
(C) Strength of association
(D) None of the above
87. To calculate the predictive value of a negatives test, the denominator is composed
of :
(A) True Positives + False Negatives (B)
True Positives + False Positives (C) True
Negatives + False Negatives (D) True
Positives + True Negatives
88. If the annual risk of tuberculosis infection is 1.8%, then the number of new sputum
smear positive cases per 1 lac per year will be :
(A) 50 (B) 75
(C) 90 (D) 95
89. Out of new adult patients attending a PHI, the proportion of chest symptomatics
requiring sputum smear examination for AFB is about:
(B)
(D
)
(A) 2-3% (B) 5%
(C) 1% (D) 10%
90. The following are the different types of cases to be placed under
category II of DOTS regimen, except :
(A) Relapse (B) Defaulter
(C) New (D) Failure
91. The treatment regimen for intensive phase of category III patient under DOTS
strategy :
(A) 2H3RgEg
(C) 2HgRgEgZg
92. The vector mosquito for J.E. is :
(A) Culex vishnui (B) Culex fatigans
(C) Anopheles stephensi (D) Aedes aegypti
93. In consid~Iing Post Exposure Prophylaxis in HIV, the percutaneous exposure in a
person having superficial scratch with a solid needle will be categorized as :
(A) EC1 (B) EC2
(C) EC3 (D) EC4
94. "Working together for health" is the WHO slogan for the year:
 (A) 2005· (B) 2006
(C) 2007 (D) 2008
95. In the categorization of Biomedical waste, needles and scalpels are placed in :
(A) Cat 1 (B) Cat 2
(C) Cat 3 (D) Cat 4
PPC/2009II
96. In the disposal of injection related wastes at the health facility, the wrapper and cap
of AD syringes should be disposed in :
(A) Red Bag '. (B) Yellow Bag
(C) Black Bag (D) Blue Bag
97. In the National Immunization Schedule DT vaccine is administered at the age of:
(A) 9 months (B) 5 years
(C) 16-24 months (D) 3 years
98. Hepatitis B vaccine should be stored at :
(A) -3°C (B) 4°C-8°C
(C) -5°C (D) O°C
99. Most heat sensitive vaccine is :
(A) Reconstituted BCG vaccine (B) Measles
(C) OPV (D) JE vaccine
100. The population of subcentre in a plain area is :
(A) 5000 (B) 2000
(C) 3000 (D) 10000
101. The following are the principles of Primary Health Care, except:
(A) Intersectorial coordination (B) Community participation
(C) Advanced technology (D) Equitable distribution
102. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of iron folic acid pediatric tablets supplied
under RCH programme are :
(A) 20 mg iron and 100 tJ.g folic acid
(B) 40 mg iron and 100 tJ.g folic acid
(C) 40 mg iron and 50 tJ.g folic acid (D)
60 mg iron and 100 tJ.g folic acid
103. NPU value of rice is :
(A) 60 (B) 65
(C) 50 (D) 80
104. The daily protein requirement of an adult person is (gm/kg) :
(A) 1 (B) 1.2
(C) 1.5 (D) 2
105. Bagassosis occurs due to :
(A) Coal dust (B) Silica
(C) Sugarcane (D) Cotton
106. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by :
(A) Rat flea (B) Louse
(C) Hard tick (D) Soft tick
107. The type of vector bome transmission in case of Leishmania Donovani is :
(A) Propagative (B) Cyclopropagative
(C) Cyclodevelopmental (D) Transovarian
108. Coverage Evaluation Survey for immunization is carried out by which sampling
technique:
(A) Simple random
(C) Lot quality (B) Stratified random
PPC/2009II (D Systematic random
)
(10 )
109. In the neural tube nerve cells are present in the:

(A) Outer marginal layer (B) Middle mantle layer

(C) Inner ependymal layer (D) In all the above layers
110. In the suboccipital triangle to expose the third part of the vertebral artery you have
to cut the :

(A) Transverse ligament of the Atlas (B)

Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane (C)
Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane (D)
Atlanto axial membrane

111. Meniscofemoral ligaments are attached to the : (A) Anterior horn of the lateral
meniscus

(B) Anterior horn of the medial meniscus

(C) Posterior horn of the lateral meniscus (D)
Posterior horn of the medial meniscus

112. The following facts are true in case of the vocal cord, except:

(A) The mucous membrane of the vocal cord is firmly attached to the vocal
ligament
(B) There is no submucous tissue over the vocal cord (C)
The vocal cord is pearly white in colour
(D) The vocal cord is lined by ciliated columner epithelium
113. In the respiratory bronchiol the lining epithelium contains the following cell,
except:

(A) Goblet cell (B) Clara cell

(C) Simple cuboidal cell (D) Ciliated cuboidal cell
114. The primitive streak appears in the caudal part of the germ disc at about

(A) 13th day of development (B) 15th day of development

(C) 17th day of development (D) 18th day of development
115. Subsartorial plexus is formed by a twig from the nerves, except: (A) Intermediate
femoral cutaneous nerve

(B) Medial femoral cutaneous nerve

(C) Obturator nerve
(D) Saphenus nerve
116. In mature graffian follicle the antrum folliculi lies in between: (A) The theca
extema and theca intern a
(B) The theca intema and membrane granulose (C)
Within the membrane granulose

(D) Membrana granulose and zona pellucida

PPC/2009II ( 11 ) P.T.O.
117. Geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve contains the neurons of :
(A) General somatic sensation (B) Special somatic sensation
(C) General visceral sensation (D) Special visceral sensation
118. Sphenomandibular ligament is derived from the:
(A) Condensation of the investing layer of the deep cervic,al fascia (B)
Condensation of ~he prevertebral layer of the deep cervical fascia (C)
From the fibrous sheath of the mandibular arch

(D) From the fibrous sheath of the hyoid arch

119. Spinocerebellar tract arises in the posterior horn of the spinatcor,d from the:
(A) Dorsomarginal nucleus (B) Nucleus thoracis
(C) Nucleus proprius (D) Substantia gelatinosa
120. The following facts are true in case ofG and Q bands of the chromosome, except:
(A) G band and Q band region are rich in A-T base pairs
(B) G band and Q band region are rich in G-C base pairs
(C) G band and Q band region correspond with the heterochromatin region (D) In
G band and Q band regions DNA replication takes place slightly later
121. Chiasma formation takes place in the prophase of the 1st meiotic division:
(A) In leptotene stage (B) In zygotene stage
(C) In pachytene stage (D) In diplotene stage
122. Inferior tibiofibular joint is :
(A) Fibrous joint (B) Cartilagihous joint
(C) Plane joint (D) Pivot joint
123. Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies :
(A) Palatopharyngeus muscle (B) Salphingopharyngeus muscle
(C) Cricothyroid muscle (D) Stylopharyngeus muscle'
124. Pterygopalatine fossa contains the following structures, except : (A) Maxillary
artery

(B) Maxillary nerve

(C) Greater superficial petrosal nerve
(D) Pterygopalatine ganglion

PPC/20091I
125. Chloride channels of neurons : (A) are influenced by hormones (B) are influenced
by fluorines (C) are decreased in alcoholism
(D) open during propagation of nerve impulse
126. Glutamine antagonists work as anticancer agents : (A) by inhibiting purine
nucleotide synthesis

(B) by blocking formation of AMP from IMP

(C) by inhibiting amidotransferase that transfers amide of glutamine to an
acceptor molecule
(D) by inhibiting PRPP synthetase
127. Gel filtration chromatography is a method for fractionation of proteins on the
, , "

basis of:
(A) Size
(C) Hydrophobicity (B Charge
128. Phagocytosis involves : ) Isoelectric point
(A) Production of Superoxide (D
(B) Production of Hydrogen Peroxide )
(C) Production of Superoxide and Hydrogen Peroxide
(D) None of the above

129. Which of the following does not increase as part of the acute phase response ?
(A) CRP (B) Alfa 1 antitrypsin
(C) Albumin (D) . Fibrinogen
130. Enzymes that catalyze the equilibrium between Aldoses and Ketoses are known as :
(A) Mutases (B) Isomerases
(C) Aldolases (D) Epimerases
131. The role of Citrate in fatty acid biosynthesis is : (A) to activate fatty acid synthase

(B) to activate acetyl CoA carboxylase

(C) to act as a precursor for addition of carbon atom (D)
to inhibit oxidation of fatty acids

132. Apolipoprotein B48 is :

(A) the main apoprotein of LDL
(B) the n-terminal fragment of apo B 100 (C)
the apoprotein of Lp (a)
(D) the oxidized form of apo B
PPC/2009II
133. Which of the following enzymes in the purine salvage pathway is deficient in
severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome ?

(A) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

(B) Xanthine oxidase
(C) Adenosine deaminase
(D) Aspartate transcarb amoylase
134. Which nucleotide in DNA forms diroers on exposure to ultraviolet light?
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine
(C) Cytosine (0) Thymine
135. Which· form of DNA is most susceptible to oxidative damage in eukaryotic cells ?
(A) Nuclear DNA (B) Mitochondrial DNA
(C) Telomeric DNA (D) Satellite DNA
136. Ubiquitin is a protein required for:
(A) Protein degradation (B) Glycoprotein degradation
(C) Amino acid degradation (D) Protein biosynthesis
137. Which one of the following will yield a net synthesis of glucose?
(A) Acetoacetic acid (B) Acetic acid
(C) Leucine (D) Glutamic acid
138. Which component of the Sarcomere has ATPase activity?
(A) Myosin (B) Actin
(C) Tropomyosin (D) Troponin
139. Which of the following sugars is commonly found at the non-reducing end of oli-
gosaccharides on plasma glycoproteins and mucins ?
(A) Glucose (B) Sialic acid
(C) Mannose (D) N-Acetyl glucosamine
140. Which of the following cross-links are unique'to elastins in extracellular matrix ?

(A) Allysine (C) Desmosine

PPC/20091I
(B) (D) (14 )

Lysinonorleucine Glycyl glycine

141. Death Sentence (Capital Punishment) can only be awarded by : (A) First Class
Judicial Magistrate

. (B) Assistant Sessions Judge

(C) Additional Sessions Judge
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
142. Membrana Pupillaris completely disappeared (atrophied) by : (A) Just after birth

(B) 6 days after birth

(C) After 20 weeks of Intrauterine life
(D) After 28 weeks of Intrauterine life

143. Postmortem of a new born baby is done by opening first:

(A) The skull (B) The chest cavity
(C) The abdominal cavity (D) By modified 'Y' incision
144. Most specific test to detect blood stains is :
(A) Spectroscopic test (B) Benzidine test
(C) Absorption-elution test (D) Teichman's test
145. Sexual perversion does not include:
(A) Indescent Assault (B) Sodomy
(C) Transvestism (D) Sadism
146. Which of the following poisoning resembles Thyrotoxicosis?
(A) Thalium (B) Bi-nitro compounds
(C) Broniide (D) Chloral hydrate
147. Acrodynia is seen in poisoning by :
(A) Lead (B) Zinc
(C) Mercury (D) Arsenic
148. tntra-Violet Fluorescence of limb bones last after:
(A) 200 years (B) 300 years
(C) 100 years (D) 400 years
149. Fingerprints can be determined upto depth of :
(A) 0.4 mm (B) 0.5 mm
(C) 0.6 mm (D) 0.8 mm
150. The following also known as "Micky Finn" :
(A) Ethylene Glycol (B) Methyl Alcohol
(C) Potassium Bromide (D) Chloral Hydrate
?PC/2009II ( 15 )