Comptia 220-701: A+ Essentials

CompTIA 220-701
A+ Essentials
Q&A with explanations
Version 9.1
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Table of Contents:
Topic 1: Hardware (248 Questions) 4
Section 1: Categorize storage devices and backup media (35 Questions) 4
Section 2: Explain motherboard components, types and features (13 Questions) 20
Section 3: Classify power supplies types and characteristics (27 Questions) 26
Section 4: Explain the purpose and characteristics of CPUs and their features (14
Questions) 40
Section 5: Explain cooling methods and devices (8 Questions) 46
Section 6: Compare and contrast memory types, characteristics and their purpose (14
Questions) 50
Section 7: Distinguish between the different display devices and their characteristics (40
Questions) 56
Section 8: Install and configure peripherals and input devices (26 Questions) 77
Section 9: Summarize the function and types of adapter cards (11 Questions) 89
Section 10: Install, configure and optimize laptop components and features (13
Questions) 94
Section 11: Install and configure printers (47 Questions) 101
Topic 2: Troubleshooting, Repair and Maintenance (112 Questions) 123
Section 1: Given a scenario, explain the troubleshooting theory (20 Questions) 123
Section 2: Given a scenario, explain and interpret common hardware and operating
system symptoms and their causes (33 Questions) 133
Section 3: Given a scenario, determine the troubleshooting methods and tools for printers
(17 Questions) 148
Section 4: Given a scenario, explain and interpret common laptop issues and determine
the appropriate basic troubleshooting method (10 Questions) 157
Section 5: Given a scenario, integrate common preventative maintenance techniques (32
Questions) 162
Topic 3: Operating Systems and Software (118 Questions) 178
Section 1: Compare and contrast the different Windows Operating Systems and their
features (45 Questions) 178
Section 2: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper use of user interfaces (25 Questions)199
199
Section 3: Explain the process and steps to install and configure the Windows OS (18
Questions) 212
Section 4: Explain the basics of boot sequences, methods and startup utilities (30
Questions) 220
Topic 4: Networking (94 Questions) 234
Section 1: Summarize the basics of networking fundamentals, including technologies,
devices and protocols (42 Questions) 235
Section 2: Categorize network cables and connectors and their implementations (28
Questions) 254
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Section 3: Compare and contrast the different network types (24 Questions) 267
Topic 5: Security (63 Questions) 277
Section 1: Explain the basic principles of security concepts and technologies (36
Questions) 278
Section 2: Summarize security features (27 Questions) 295
Topic 6: Operational Procedure (61 Questions) 308
Section 1: Outline the purpose of appropriate safety and environmental procedures and
given a scenario apply them (22 Questions) 308
Section 2: Given a scenario, demonstrate the appropriate use of communication skills and
professionalism in the workplace (39 Questions) 319
Total number of questions: 699

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Topic 1: Hardware (248 Questions)
Section 1: Categorize storage devices and backup media (35
Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You want to install a game and store some personal data on your computer. You
want to add and delete the data you store at will and also want to ensure that you do
not lose data when power is removed. Which of the following storage devices would
you use to meet all your requirements?
A. Hard drive
B. RAM
C. Internal cache memory
D. ROM
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hard drive is magnetic data storage medium. The data stored on a hard drive can be
repeatedly written to and erased and the saved data is not lost at sudden power failure.
QUESTION NO: 2
On which of the following physical components does the data on HDD is stored?
A. Read /write head

B. Platter
C. Sector
D. Cluster
Answer: B
Explanation:
A HDD magnetically stores data on discs that are known as platters. The data is read and
written on the disk through read/write heads with the use of a magnetic coating.

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QUESTION NO: 3
A hard disk has several components integrated with it. Which of the following
components are not the major components of a hard disk drive system?
A. Drive interface
B. Controller
C. Hard disk
D. Host adapter
E. Platter
Answer: A
Explanation:
The three major components of a hard disk drive system are hard disk, controller, and a
host adapter. The drive interface is the computer bus that connects the hard disk drive to
the processor and memory. It is a common component of the controller and host adapter
and therefore it is not one of the major components of a hard disk drive system. A HDD
magnetically stores data on discs that are known as platters.
QUESTION NO: 4
You want to install Windows XP on your computer and want to create a largest
NTFS volume size supported by Windows XP. Which is the following is the largest
NTFS volume size supported by Windows XP?
A. 256GB
B. 2TB
C. 128TB
D. 256TB
Answer: B
Explanation:
A fixed number of clusters are supported by each operating system. In theory, the
maximum NTFS volume size is 2^32 clusters but there are other limitations to the
maximum size of a volume. These limitations are partition tables that are limited to 2^32
sectors, sector size which is typically 512 bytes as per hardware and industry standards.
While sector sizes might increase in the future, the current size puts a limit on a single
volume of 2 terabytes (2^32 * 512 bytes, or 241 bytes). Therefore 2 terabytes should be
considered the practical limit for both physical and logical volumes using NTFS.

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QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following storage technologies is flash based, has no moving parts such
as spinning platters and moving heads, has been used in computer RAM for many
years, and is now on its way to replace conventional hard disk drives?
A. Thumb drives
B. Memory cards
C. Solid-state drives
D. Optical drives
Answer: C
Explanation:
A solid state drive is a storage device that uses solid state memory to store data and is
soon going to replace the traditional hard disk drive. The principle behind solid state
drives is that there should be no moving parts: no spinning platters, no moving heads.
Data is split into word length pieces and stored in memory. It is then accessed almost
instantaneously using unique system-wide addresses. This behavior has been used in
computer RAM for many years. Solid state disks use either NAND flash or SDRAM
(non-volatile and volatile storage respectively).
QUESTION NO: 6
What is the formatted capacity of High-density 3½? floppy diskettes?
A. 360KB
B. 720KB
C. 1.44MB
D. 2.88MB
E. 280 KB
Answer: C
Explanation:
High-density 3½? floppy diskettes have a formatted capacity of 1.44MB. The
Double-density 5¼? floppies and double-density floppies on the other hand can be
formatted to a capacity of 360KB and 720KB respectively. The extended-density 3½?
floppy diskettes can be formatted to 2.88MB.

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QUESTION NO: 7
You want to store big video files that are approximately 20GB in size on a single
disk. Which of the following optical disc format allows you to store a data capacity
of 25GB on a single disk?
A. Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R

B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray disc
C. Double-sided, single-layer DVD-R
D. Double-sided, single-layer DVD+R
Answer: B
Explanation:
Blu-ray disc (also known as Blu-ray or BD) is an optical disc storage medium designed
to supersede the standard DVD format. Its main uses are storing high-definition video
Blu-ray discs can store 25GB of data single-sided and single-layer. The dual layer
capacity of Blu-ray disk is 50 GB. No other given options can store roughly more than
17GB of data.
QUESTION NO: 8
You are an IT technician in TestKing Inc. The company wants to configure regular
backups of the data for the company. You realized that a large amounts of data
need to be archived on a regular basis. Which of the following kinds of media would
you use for this purpose?
A. Tape
B. CD
C. DVD
D. External hard drive
E. Floppy diskette
F. Pan drive
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Tape is the best choice when large volumes of data need to be backed up and archived
regularly. Pan drives, DVDs and CDs do not offer the capacity to store data as Tapes
provide. They can store up to 50 GB of data. In addition, they're available in different
technologies (DAT, DLT, LTO, etc), interfaces (IDE and SCSI), and even as external or
internal devices
QUESTION NO: 9
Your laptop has recently been damaged but is hard drive was ok. You wanted to
replace your desktop computer's hard drive with your laptop's hard drive.
However, your hardware vendor told that it is not possible. How do you think your
laptop hard drive is different from desktop hard drive?
A. Laptop hard drives and desktop hard drives use completely different standards to
communicate with the host.
B. Desktop hard drives have spinning platters where as Laptop hard drives have solid
state.
C. Desktop hard drives get power from the drive interface where as Laptop hard drives
require a separate power connection.
D. The common form factor of a laptop hard drive is an inch smaller than that of a
desktop hard drive.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The laptop hard drive is different from desktop hard drive because the most common
form factor of a laptop hard drive is about an inch smaller than that of a desktop hard
drive. Laptop hard drives commonly have a 2½? form factor whereas the desktop hard
drives have a 3½? form factor. Laptop hard drives and desktop hard drives use same
standards such as serial and parallel ATA to communicate with the host. The hard drives
of both laptop and desktop are available in both solid-state and conventional varieties and
both of them do not use separate power connectors.
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following options define the concentric magnetic rings on the surface
of a disk platter on a hard drive?
A. Cluster
B. Sector

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C. Cylinder
D. Track
E. Bits
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Tracks are the concentric magnetic rings on the surface of a disk platter on a hard
drive. They are formed by low-level formatting, which is done in factories these days.
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following options is the difference between a solid-state drive and a
conventional hard disk drive?
A. A solid-state drive has larger storage capacity

B. A solid-state drive does not have any moving parts
C. A solid-state drive uses a different drive interface and cabling
D. A solid-state drive offers a lower storage cost per byte
Answer: B
Explanation:
The difference between a solid-state drive and a conventional hard disk drive is that a
solid-state drive does not have any moving parts.
The solid state drives have somewhat similar storage capacity as the conventional hard
disk drive. They use the same drive interfaces, such as SATA interfaces and are more
expensive than conventional drives per byte of capacity.
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following microfloppy formats would you use, if you want to store
2.88MB of data?
A. Low density
B. Double density
C. High density
D. Extended density
E. None of the other alternatives apply

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Answer: D
Explanation:
You can store 2.88MB of data in Extended-density microfloppy diskettes.
QUESTION NO: 13
What is the data storage capacity of a single layered standard DVD?
A. 2.88MB
B. 2.88GB
C. 4.7GB
D. 25GB
E. 500 MB
Answer: C
Explanation:
The data storage capacity of a single layered standard DVD is 4.7GB of data.
QUESTION NO: 14
In a magnetic disk what term you can use to describe segments of a track?
A. Cluster
B. Valve
C. Sector
D. Allocation unit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sector is a basic unit of data storage in hard disk. Sectors are created at the time of
manufacturing a hard disk. Group of one or more sectors is known as Cluster. Clusters
are formed during high level formatting.

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QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements best describes both high-density 5 1/4-inch and 3
1/2-inch floppy diskettes?
A. The high-density 3 1/2 -inch can store more information than high density 5 1/4-inch
floppy diskette.
B. Both high-density 5 1/4-inch and 3 1/2-inch floppy diskettes have the same number of
sectors per track.
C. The high-density 5 1/4-inch and 3 1/2-inch floppy diskettes have a different number of
tracks per side.
D. The high-density 5 1/4-inch and 3 1/2-inch floppy diskettes have a different number of
bytes per sector.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement "The high-density 3 1/2 -inch can store more information than high density
5 1/4-inch floppy diskette" best describes both high-density 5 1/4-inch and 3 1/2-inch
floppy diskettes.
QUESTION NO: 16
You want to purchase a compact-disc that can be written to multiple times. Which
of the following optical disc would you purchase?
A. CD-ROM
B. CD-R
C. CD-RW
D. CD-DL
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CD -RW or +RW can be written to, formatted, and written to again, multiple times.
QUESTION NO: 17
When ever, you try to use your DVD-ROM drive, it makes a horrible grinding
sound. Which of the following actions should you take to resolve the problem?

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A. Clean the drive.
B. Replace the drive.
C. Try to use a different DVD in the drive.
D. Check the user manual for a solution.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To resolve the problem, you should replace the DVD-ROM drive. The grinding sound
indicates that the drive is malfunctioning. You should clean it only when it is not reading
properly or consistently.
QUESTION NO: 18
You have approximately 2.50 MB of data, which you want to store in microfloppy
diskettes. You want to use the format type that is available in microfloppy diskette
but not in minifloppy diskettes. Which of the following formats can you use?
A. LD
B. DD
C. HD
D. ED
Answer: D
Explanation:
You need to use the ED (Extended-density) microfloppy diskettes that can hold 2.88MB
of data. The ED format is not available in minifloppy diskettes.
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following components within a hard disk drive system contains a
collection of same-numbered tracks on all writable surfaces of all platters?
A. Cluster
B. Logical block
C. Sector
D. Cylinder
E. Hard Disk

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Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cylinder contains a collection of same-numbered tracks on all writable surfaces of
all platters in a hard disk drive system. To count a total number of tracks in such hard
drive system, you can simply multiply the number of cylinders by the number of
read/write heads in the assembly.
QUESTION NO: 20
You want to use the tape-cartridge format for your storage media. Which of the
following can you not use?
A. Quarter-inch cartridge
B. Linear tape-open
C. Nine millimeter
D. Digital linear tape
E. All of the other alternatives apply
Answer: C
Explanation:
You can not use 9 millimeter tapes. All the other formats are tape cartridge formats.
QUESTION NO: 21
Out of the various types of portable media given below, which is the one that can
hold the highest volume of data?
A. DVD-DL
B. CD-RW
C. CD-R
D. DVD-R
Answer: A
Explanation:
DVD-DL implies DVD Dual Layer. It refers to DVDs which can be recorded on two
separate layers and therefore have more storage space than single layer DVDs

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QUESTION NO: 22
You are the newly appointed technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You
receive an instruction to identify the media types that can be considered as a solid
state.
What should you do?
A. You should identify a Tape drive as a solid state.

B. You should identify a Floppy disk as a solid state.
C. You should identify a Flash media as a solid state.
D. You should identify a DVD as a solid state.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
You are employed as a technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. During the course
of the day you receive an instruction from the CIO to configure a tape backup to
run every evening. However, you need to ensure that only the archive files that have
changed since the last tape is run and that the backup bit is cleared for every file.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished running a Copy backup.

B. This can be accomplished running a Full backup.
C. This can be accomplished running a Daily backup.
D. This can be accomplished running an Incremental backup.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24

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consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are in the
process of explaining to the new interns the features of solid state drives.
What should you identify?
A. Solid state drives have more capacity than traditional magnetic drives.
B. Solid state drives have built-in encryption standards.
C. Solid state drives have the lack of drive heads and platters.
D. Solid state drives have higher data integrity.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
You work as a technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network consists of a
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. During the course of the day
you receive an instruction from management to identify the media type that can be
regarded as optical.
What should you do?
A. A Tape can be regarded as optical.

B. A Biometric device can be regarded as optical.
C. A Blu-Ray can be regarded as optical.
D. A Floppy can be regarded as optical.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
You are the senior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network consists
of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are in the process of
explaining to the new interns the media that can be severely affected by magnets.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

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A. A 1.44 MB Floppy Disk should be kept away from all magnetic fields.
B. A Compact Disc should be kept away from all magnetic fields.
C. An IDE Hard Drive should be kept away from all magnetic fields.
D. A Solid State Drive should be kept away from all magnetic fields.
E. A Backup Tape should be kept away from all magnetic fields.
F. A Digital Video Disc should be kept away from all magnetic fields.
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION NO: 27
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are in the process of
explaining the new interns the storage capacity of Blu-Ray disks.
What should you inform them?
A. Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 650MB.

B. Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 9GB.
C. Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 25GB.
D. Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 4.7GB.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
You work as a senior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network
process of informing the new interns which I/O ports will have the slowest transfer
rate.
What should you do?
A. You should tell them that USB 2.0 will have the slowest transfer rate.
B. You should tell them that IEEE 1394 will have the slowest transfer rate.
C. You should tell them that S/PDIF will have the slowest transfer rate.
D. You should tell them that USB 1.1 will have the slowest transfer rate.

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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 29
You are employed as the desktop support technician at TestKing.com. The
TestKing.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named
testking.com. A user calls the helpdesk to identify the maximum speed a standard
CD.ROM use to read.
What should you inform the user?
A. The maximum speed is at which it can read is 24x.

B. The maximum speed is at which it can read is 32x.
C. The maximum speed is at which it can read is 48x.
D. The maximum speed is at which it can read is 52x.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
testking.com. You are in the process of determining the media type in the marketing
department that has the biggest capacity.
A. Your best option would be to identify Blu-Ray.

B. Your best option would be to identify DVD.RW+.
C. Your best option would be to identify Dual-sided DVD.
D. Your best option would be to identify DVD.RW.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31

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testking.com. You receive a call from a user who wants to know the name of the
portable media that has the biggest storage capacity.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that the CD.RW has the biggest storage capacity.
B. You should inform the user that the CD.R has the biggest storage capacity.
C. You should inform the user that the DVD.DL has the biggest storage capacity.
D. You should inform the user that the DVD.R has the biggest storage capacity.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
TestKing.com has employed you as a technician at TestKing.com. The
testking.com. You receive an instruction from management to identify the
technology that is able to support the longest cable length between devices.
What should you do?
A. You should identify USB 1.1/2.0.

B. You should identify IEEE 1394.
C. You should identify Serial.
D. You should identify SATA.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You work as a desktop support technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A new
intern calls the helpdesk to inquire the maximum recommended length of a parallel
ATA cable.

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A. You should inform the intern that 16 inches (40cm) is the maximum length.
B. You should inform the intern that 18 inches (45cm) is the maximum length.
C. You should inform the intern that 22 inches (55cm) is the maximum length.
D. You should inform the intern that 24 inches (60cm) is the maximum length.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
TestKing.com has employed you as a desktop support technician at TestKing.com.
The TestKing.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named
testking.com. You are in the process of informing the users in your department the
interfaces that will permit you the fastest speed.
A. The USB 2.0 interface will permit you a faster speed.

B. The IEEE 1394b interface will permit you a faster speed.
C. The USB 1.1 interface will permit you a faster speed.
D. The IEEE 1394a interface will permit you a faster speed.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com.
TestKing.com has decided to make use of data stripping in order to distribute
information via a number of disks that has no fault tolerance.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of RAID 10.

B. Your best option would be to make use of RAID 5.
C. Your best option would be to make use of RAID 1.
D. Your best option would be to make use of RAID 0.

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Answer: A
Section 2: Explain motherboard components, types and features

(13 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You are an IT technician in your organization. Recently, an employer of the
company, Sam was having a problem in using the DVD drive of his computer. To
help Sam, you decided to find if all the connections to the DVD drive are fine.
Which of the following computer component would you check to find if all the
circuitry necessary for all the components or devices to communicate with one each
other are fine?
A. Motherboard
B. Adapter card
C. Main Memory
D. Expansion bus
E. NIC card
Answer: A
Explanation:
The motherboard is the primary circuit board of a computer and supports the entire
circuitry of a computer. It is also known as the mainboard. All the components of a
computer connect to the motherboard directly or indirectly. It contains CPU, underlying
circuitry, expansion slots, video components, RAM slots, and various other chips.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to use the latest motherboard design style, which is most widely
implemented these days to assemble your computer. Which of the following
motherboard design style would you use?
A. ATX
B. NLX

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C. Baby AT
D. LPX
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ATX motherboard style (and its derivatives) is the most popular design that is used
these days. The ATX design has several significant advantages over the older
motherboard styles and it addresses many of the annoyances that system builders have
had to put up with. For example it has the PS/2 port built into the motherboard and
reduced expansion card interference.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following motherboard socket type would you use on the Pentium 4
chip?
A. Slot 1
B. Socket A
C. Socket 370
D. Socket 478
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Intel Pentium 4 processor is based on the Intel NetBurst micro-architecture. The
Pentium 4 processor is available in the 478-pin package and also in many other socket
types. Nevertheless, no other option listed is used for these processors.
QUESTION NO: 4
Northbridge and Southbridge are the two memory controller hubs (MCH) or core
chips that control the components in a computer. Which of the following
components are not controlled by the Northbridge?
A. PCIe
B. SATA
C. AGP
D. Cache memory

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Answer: B
Explanation:
Separating the chipset into the northbridge and southbridge is common. The northbridge
typically handles communications among the CPU, RAM, BIOS ROM, and PCI Express
(or AGP) video cards. SATA and all other drive interfaces that do not share clock of the
front side bus are not controlled by Northbridge, which that is in control of the local-bus
components. SATA is controlled by the Southbridge
QUESTION NO: 5
You want to use a motherboard design style, which places expansion slots on a
special riser card, provides more component options for upgrading and repair, and
can be used in low-profile PCs. Which of the following motherboard form factor
would meet all your requirements?
A. AT
B. Baby AT
C. ATX
D. NLX
Answer: D
Explanation:
The NLX form factor still uses the Riser card to connect everything together and is used
in low-profile PCs. NLX is the "updated LPX" form factor that offers support for larger
memory modules, tower cases, AGP video, and also supports reduced cable length. In
addition, these motherboards are easier to remove. The NLX form factor, unlike LPX is
an actual standard which means there are more component options for upgrading and
repair.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following Intel processor type was attached to a single edge contact
cartridge (SECC) for insertion into the motherboard, instead of the standard PGA
package?
A. Athlon
B. 486

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C. Pentium
D. Pentium II
E. Pentium III
Answer: D
Explanation:
S.E.C.C. (Single Edge Contact Cartridge) package was used in the Intel Pentium II
processors to connect to the motherboard; the processor is inserted into a slot. Instead of
having pins or using a standard PGA package, it uses goldfinger contacts, which the
processor uses to carry its signals back and forth.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following memory modules will you need for a motherboard that has
an LGA775 socket for an Intel Pentium 4 processor?
A. DIP
B. SIMM
C. RIMM
D. DIMM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pentium 4 / Celeron D processors in LGA775 package processors support DIMM
SDRAM
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following increases performance rating of a computer without any
additional cost?
A. Multitasking
B. Hyperthreading
C. Fast-clocking
D. Overclocking
E. Slow-clocking

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Answer: D
Explanation:
Overclocking is a term used for a process in which computer components such as
processor is set to run at higher clock speed. It is used to increase the performance of a
computer without any additional cost.
QUESTION NO: 9
On your ATX motherboard, you are using accelerated graphics port. Which of the
following types of adapter cards can you use?
A. FireWire adapter card

B. Ethernet adapter card
C. Full-duplex sound card
D. AGP video card
Answer: D
Explanation:
On your ATX motherboard, you are using accelerated graphics Port (AGP), you can only
use AGP video card because it is specifically designed to provide increased performance
for video cards.
QUESTION NO: 10
Out of the various types of bus speeds given below, which ones can be used for a
PCIe card? (Select all that apply).
A. 1x
B. 3x
C. 6x
D. 8x
E. 24x
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
For a PCIe or PCI expansion card, 1x and 8x bus speeds can be used.

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QUESTION NO: 11
receive an instruction from management to ensure that the motherboard does not
make electrical contact with the case.
What should you do?
A. You best option would be to make use of standoffs.

B. You best option would be to make use of screws.
C. You best option would be to make use of riser cards.
D. You best option would be to make use of a daughterboard.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. There are both desktop and
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You receive an instruction from
management to set up a password that will be needed before one can boot into the
OS.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to go to LDAP.

B. Your best option would be to go to BIOS.
C. Your best option would be to go to POST.
D. Your best option would be to go to User Accounts.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13

- 26 -
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. There are both
desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You receive an
instruction from management to inform the new technicians in your department the
slot types that have the maximum peak bandwidth.
What should you do?
A. The PCIe slot has the maximum bandwidth peak.

B. The AGP slot has the maximum bandwidth peak.
C. The PCI-X slot has the maximum bandwidth peak.
D. The ISA slot has the maximum bandwidth peak.
Answer: A
Section 3: Classify power supplies types and characteristics (27

Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following voltage pairings accurately represents the input and output
respectively in power supplies and AC adapters?
A. AC in, AC out
B. DC in, DC out
C. AC in, DC out
D. DC in, AC out
Answer: C
Explanation:
The AC in, DC out voltage pairings accurately represents the input and output
respectively in Power supplies and AC adapters. They use standard wall outlets for an
input of AC voltage and they convert the AC voltage to the DC voltages required by the
devices that use DC Voltage.

- 27 -
QUESTION NO: 2
Select the output voltages supplied by a common PC power supply? (Choose five.)
A. +3.3VDC
B. -3.3VDC
C. +5VDC
D. -5VDC
E. +12VDC
F. -12VDC
G. +110VAC
H. -110VAC
Answer: A, C, D, E, F
Explanation:
A PC's power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, -5VDC, +12VDC, and
-12VDC from a 110VAC input.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements about power supplies is true?
A. In the computers that need to be used in Europe, the voltage selector switch on the
back of the power supply should be switched to the lower setting to avoid damage to the
computer.
B. SATA hard drives and PATA hard drives can use the same type of power connector.
C. P8 and P9 connectors are used to provide power supplies to ATX-based motherboards.
D. PATA hard drives use Molex connectors and floppy drives use Berg connectors.
Answer: D
Explanation:
PATA (Parallel ATA) Hard drives are one of the earliest drive types and they do not
have SATA power sockets. Therefore they use Molex connectors. The 4 pin Berg
connectors provide power supply to floppy drives.
If the computer is going to be used in Europe the voltage selector switch on the back of
the power supply should never be switched to the lower setting rather it must be set at the
higher setting.

- 28 -
SATA hard drives and PATA hard drives do not use the same type of power connector.
The SATA hard drive uses 15 pin SATA Power connector and PATA hard drive uses
Molex connector. Both SATA Power connector and Molex connector cannot be used on
the same drive.
ATX-based motherboards use 20 pin 24-pin single power connectors instead of P8 and
P9 connectors. The P8 and P9 connectors are used by AT-based motherboards.
QUESTION NO: 4
You are replacing the power supply in your PC because there was some problem
with it. You need to choose the power supply carefully so that all connected devices
are supported properly. Which of the following units would tend to vary if the
power supplies change?
A. Wattage
B. Voltage
C. Amperage
D. Resistance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Power supplies are rated in watts. While replacing the power supply in your PC, you
must be careful about the wattage it provides. You need to ensure that all the connected
devices and the devices inside the computer do not require more wattage than the chosen
power supply can offer. The voltage would not change with the power supply because it
unit of measure of how much potential or electromotive force is present. It is standard
among power supplies and has nothing to do with the devices connected to the power
supply. Amperage and resistance are not selling points for power supplies.
QUESTION NO: 5
You want to purchase a laptop. You want to use a battery which is light in weight
but has high energy density and longest life. Which of the following types of battery
chemistries would you use to ensure that you meet all your requirements?
A. NiCd
B. NiMH

- 29 -
C. Alkaline
D. Li-Ion
E. Li-poly
Answer: D
Explanation:
Lithium-ion batteries (Li-ion batteries) are the rechargeable batteries in that use lithium
ions in them. This chemistry has a high energy density and is lightweight. Besides they
only receive charge if the voltage is low. Because of all these features Li-Ion is the
preferred battery chemistry for portable computing devices.
The nickel-based batteries are not a best choice for a portable device because the charger
applies a full charge each time the portable device is connected to fixed power. Due to
this the battery overcharges and elevates temperature that causes permanent capacity
loss.
QUESTION NO: 6
You want to purchase a computer for your personal needs within your decided
budget. You also want to do some development work on the computer. You are
unable to decide that you should purchase a laptop or a desktop computer. You
decided to find out the advantages and disadvantages of using both laptops and
desktop computers. Which of the following is not the advantage of using a laptop?
A. Laptops cannot offer very good portability

B. Laptops cannot offer increased performance
C. Laptops cannot replace desktop computers
D. Laptops do not offer higher-quality construction
Answer: B
Explanation:
Laptops cannot offer increased performance. A high configuration desktop computer can
be purchased in the same price that you would spend to purchase a low configuration
laptop. You always need to compromise in configuration when you purchase a laptop in
your decided budget.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is not a requirement for ACPI to function?

- 30 -
A. The BIOS must support ACPI.
B. You must be running Windows 95 or later.
C. The motherboard must support ACPI.
D. The processor must support ACPI.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You need Windows 98 or later to use ACPI.
Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) is an industry specification for the
efficient handling of power consumption computers. ACPI must be supported by the
computer motherboard, basic input/output system (BIOS), and the operating system.
In addition, the motherboard and processor must support the standard.
QUESTION NO: 8
You are travelling to your client's site in the Airplane. Before reaching there you
want to go through some reports that you wanted to discuss with your client.
However, as soon as you tried to switch on your laptop, you realized that the battery
of your laptop is down. Which of the following laptop tools would allow you to
power your laptop from the airplane?
A. AC adapter
B. DC adapter
C. Battery converter
D. Automotive Wizard
Answer: B
Explanation:
A DC adapter would allow you to power your laptop from the airplane because it can
convert the DC output from an airplane power plug to the DC voltage required by a
laptop.
QUESTION NO: 9
You want to purchase a laptop. Your friend has warned you about the batteries that
should and should not be used in laptops. Which of the following rechargeable
battery types would you not use because of its reduced power backup when used
with laptops?

- 31 -
A. NiCd
B. NiMH
C. Li-poly
D. Li-Ion
E. Alkaline
Answer: A
Explanation:
Nickel cadmium batteries should not be used because of there reduced power backup
when used with laptops. These batteries have a very low energy density compared to the
lithium chemistries and NiMH batteries. They also discharge faster than the lithium
batteries. Alkaline batteries are also less powerful than lithium batteries.
QUESTION NO: 10
In which of the following ACPI system states should your system be to ensure that it
consumes least amount of power?
A. G0
B. S3
C. S1
D. S4
Answer: D
Explanation:
The S4 is a system state in which the system suspends to disk and RAM not powered. It
is also called Hibernation mode, and it consumes very little power in this state.
G0 is the fully powered operational state. S1 and S3 consume less power but it is more
than S4 state.
QUESTION NO: 11
You use Windows XP computer in your office. To download updates on your
computer, you want to enable hibernation and set power schemes on your
computer. You know that the Display Properties dialog box in Windows XP allows
you to set Power Options. Which of the following tabs in Display properties dialog
box in Windows XP has a button that launches Power Options Properties?

- 32 -
A. Settings
B. Desktop
C. Screen Saver
D. Themes
E. Appearance
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Screen Saver tab in Display Properties dialog box in Windows XP has a button that
allows you to open Power Options Properties window.
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following process allows a processor to slow down and conserve
power?
A. Underclocking
B. Cooling
C. Disengaging
D. Throttling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Throttling is a process that allows a processor to slow down and conserve power. It is
most often used in laptops and other mobile devices, where energy comes from a battery
and thus is limited.
QUESTION NO: 13
The AC adapter of your laptop has recently been damaged and you want to replace
it with new AC adapter. Before purchasing an AC adapter, which of the following
things would you consider to obtain the better or the same results?
A. Purchase an AC adapter that has a higher voltage rating than the original
B. Purchase an AC adapter that has a higher wattage rating than the original
C. Purchase a DC adapter that has the same voltage rating than the original

- 33 -
D. Purchase an AC adapter that has a lower voltage and wattage rating than the original
Answer: B
Explanation:
To obtain the better or the same results, you need to purchase an AC adapter that has a
higher wattage rating than the original. The wattage is the amount of electrical power that
is available to a device. It can be compared to a bucket. A bigger bucket can hold more
water than a small bucket. Similarly an adapter with high wattage can supply more
power. Voltage on the other hand is the electrical driving force that drives a conventional
electric current. It can be compared with a pressure. An improper voltage can be
dangerous to a device but because wattage does not force the power on the device it
should not be less than required by a device.
QUESTION NO: 14
Your laptop uses a Li-Ion battery. Every time you charge your laptop, it appears
that that battery is charged completely but soon the battery meter indicates that the
battery is low. In such a situation, which of the following actions should you take to
resolve the battery issue?
A. Replace the battery.

B. Exercise the battery.
C. Calibrate the battery.
D. Discharge the battery by shorting its terminals.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In such a situation, you should calibrate the Li-Ion battery to resolve the battery issue.
The Battery calibration allows you to drain the battery power before recharging it.
Battery exercising is done in nickel based batteries to charge and discharge them initially
so that they may function as expected. The battery terminals should never be short to
discharge a battery and replacement of battery should be done when nothing else can be
done and the battery has reached the end of its life.
QUESTION NO: 15

- 34 -
Which of the following standards would you use to define power management in
laptop computers?
A. PBIOS
B. ACPI
C. LPM
D. IrDA
Answer: B
Explanation:
To define power management in laptop computers, you need to use ACPI standard. It
was introduced in 1996 and is an extension of the system BIOS.
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following devices temporarily provides power through the battery to
the computer in the event of a power outage?
A. Power strip
B. Extension cord
C. UPS
D. Surge protector
Answer: C
Explanation:
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) temporarily provides power through the battery
to the computer in the event of a power outage. None of the other devices contain
batteries.
QUESTION NO: 17
The _______________ and _______________ types of batteries do not cause any
environmental hazard.
A. Alkaline
B. Nickel metal hydride (NiMH)
C. Nickel cadmium (NiCd)

- 35 -
D. Button cell
E. Li-Ion
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The Alkaline and Nickel metal hydride (NiMH) types of batteries do not cause any
environmental hazard.
QUESTION NO: 18
You are the newly appointed desktop support technician at TestKing.com. The
testking.com. A junior technician named Rory Allen wants to know what he should
plug into the UPS located at a user's desk.
What should you tell him? (Choose all that apply.)
You should inform him to plug in the vacuum cleaner.

You should inform him to plug in the monitor.
You should inform him to plug in the AC Adapter of the laptop.
You should inform him to plug in the computer.
You should inform him to plug in the laser printer.
You should inform him to plug in the portable heater.
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION NO: 19
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You receive an instruction
from management to inform users in various departments the utility that should not
be plugged into the UPS as it drains too much power.
A. They should not plug the laptop into the UPS.

B. They should not plug the server into the UPS.
C. They should not plug the laser printer into the UPS.

- 36 -
D. They should not plug the LCD monitor into the UPS.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
testking.com. You are in the process of writing a circular stating the hazards linked
to the improper disposal of a CRT.
What should you do?
A. Disposing a CRT inappropriately is linked to a high vacuum.

B. Disposing a CRT inappropriately is linked to Mercury.
C. Disposing a CRT inappropriately is linked to an Electromagnetic Interference (EMI).
D. Disposing a CRT inappropriately is linked to Lithium.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
testking.com. You are in the process of identifying the purpose of a voltage selector
switch.
A. The switch permits the power supply to function at different voltages.

B. The switch changes the output voltage to meet the needs of the motherboard.
C. The switch changes the voltage coming from the wall.
D. The switch permits alternating currents to be used rather than direct current.
Answer: A

- 37 -
QUESTION NO: 22
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are currently
explaining to the new interns the purpose a power brick or an external power
supply for a laptop computer.
A. It will filters incoming voltage spikes and surges.

B. It will converts AC power to DC power in order for a laptop computer in order to use
it to operate and charge its battery.
C. It allows you to move the laptop without being plugged into an outlet.
D. It will convert DC power to AC power in order to charge the battery and will improve
move ability.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
receive notification from management to purchase uninterruptible power supplies
(UPSs) for all terminals. You thus need to identify the most important factor you
should consider prior to buying the UPS.
What should you do?
A. You need to take into consideration the amount of time necessary for the UPS to run
in a power outage.
B. You need to take into consideration the amount of space available at every terminal to
place the UPS.
C. You need to take into consideration the number and size of all applications running on
every terminal.
D. You need to take into consideration the number and size of all applications running on
every terminal.
E. You need to take into consideration the physical footprint of the UPS.

- 38 -
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are
in the process of replacing the ATX power supply in one of the older systems in your
department. You discover that the motherboards main power connector has fewer
pins than the new power supply cable. You contact the manufacturer and plug in
the cable. You switch on the system and notices that the system is up and running.
Why did the cable work?
A. The cable worked since the older ATX power supplies are no longer available.
B. The cable worked since the newer ATX power supplies are 20/24 pin compatible.
C. The cable worked since the newer ATX power supplies do not make use of pins 21
through 24.
D. The cable worked since the older ATX power supplies have a separate P4 connector.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A
TestKing.com user logs a complaint stating that beeping sounds can be heard
underneath her desk after the cleaning crew has left.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that the default printer is out of paper or offline.
B. You should inform the user that the speaker wires are disconnected while cleaning.
C. You should inform the user that the UPS is disconnected from the wall.
D. You should inform the user that a new security update is currently available for
download.
Answer: C

- 39 -
QUESTION NO: 26
testking.com. A new intern named Kara Lang wants to know what the power source
of a desktop workstation is.
What should you inform her?
A. You should tell her that a Lithium ion cell is the power source for a desktop
workstation.
B. You should tell her that a Linear power supply is the power source for a desktop
workstation.
C. You should tell her that a Switching-mode power supply is the power source for a
desktop workstation.
D. You should tell her that a Nickel cadmium cell is the power source for a desktop
workstation.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive an instruction from the CIO
to rate the desktop power supplies.
What should you do?
A. You can accomplish this using the maximum resistance.

B. You can accomplish this using the maximum output wattage.
C. You can accomplish this using the maximum output consumption.
D. You can accomplish this using the maximum input voltage.
Answer: B

- 40 -
Section 4: Explain the purpose and characteristics of CPUs and
their features (14 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a socket technology designed to ease the insertion of pin
grid array (PGA) chips in modern CPUs?
A. Socket 479
B. ZIF
C. LPGA
D. SPGA
E. Socket 370
Answer: B
Explanation:
(Zero Insertion Force socket) A type of socket designed for easy insertion of pin grid
array (PGA) chips in modern CPUs. The chip is easily dropped into the socket's holes,
and a lever is pulled down to lock it in. All modern systems make use of the
zero-insertion force (ZIF) socket. No other pin-layout format, such as SPGA and Socket
479 addresses issues with inserting chips.
QUESTION NO: 2
You have a big list of many different slots and sockets for CPUs. One of your clients
wants to find out, which motherboard socket type is used with the AMD Athlon XP.
Which of the following socket type would you suggest?
A. Slot 1
B. Socket A
C. Socket 370
D. Socket 478
Answer: B
Explanation:
Socket 462 (or Socket A) is a newer motherboard socket type is used with AMD Athlon,
Athlon XP, and Duron processors. There are many different slots and sockets for CPUs.
The slots correspond with processor types and with processor manufacturers.

- 41 -
QUESTION NO: 3
You are explaining the functioning of CPU to your students. Which of the following
terms have nothing to do with CPU?
A. Hyperthreading
B. I/O port
C. Multicore
D. L1 cache
E. System bus width
Answer: B
Explanation:
The I/O port has nothing to do with CPU, even though the communication between a
CPU and the rest of the system is considered I/O. However, there is no I/O port used for
this purpose. The I/O ports, such as USB and sound ports, are not directly related to the
CPU.
QUESTION NO: 4
You were learning about memory modules used in PCs. The DDR400 chips are
found on ______________memory modules.
A. PC3200
B. PC400
C. PC2-3200
D. PC50
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DDR400 chips are found on PC3200 memory modules because the ratio between the
numerical portion of the names of memory chips and the modules they are mounted on is
8:1
QUESTION NO: 5

- 42 -
Which of the following processors can you use with Socket T, or LGA 775? (Select
all that apply)
A. Core 2 Duo
B. Core 2 Quad
C. Later Pentium 4
D. Athlon 64
E. Pentium II
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Socket T, or LGA 775, you can use with Core 2 Quad and Core 2 Duo processors as well
as the faster and later Pentium 4 CPUs.
The Pentium II was only manufactured for Slot 1 and AMD Athlon 64 chips were made
for sockets ranging from Socket 754 to Socket AM2.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following is an old elementary method of detecting simple, single-bit
errors in a memory system and which is not capable of error correction?
A. ECC
B. Dual-channel memory
C. Rambus
D. Parity checking
E. MNP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Parity checking is an old elementary method of detecting simple, single-bit errors in a
memory system and which is not capable of error correction. The Parity checking checks
if data is transmitted accurately from one point to another. It adds an extra bit to each
data unit that is transmitted so that each byte has either even or odd numbers set. The
validity of the parity bit is checked on the receiving end. If the check shows an error, the
byte is rejected because there is no way to determine the nature of the error.
QUESTION NO: 7

- 43 -
You have been assigned to the TestKing.com help desk to aid all the TestKing.com
users who experience trouble with their workstations. There are both desktop and
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. A TestKing.com user named
Rory Allen wants to know he is able to find the L2 cache.
What should you do?
A. You should inform him that it can be located between the CPU and RAM.
B. You should inform him that it can be located between on the CPU.
C. You should inform him that it can be located between on the front side bus.
D. You should inform him that it can be located between on the southbridge chip.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive an instruction from
management to identify the memory modules that have the highest transfer rate.
What should you do?
A. The PC2700 have the highest transfer rate.

B. The PC2100 have the highest transfer rate.
C. The DDR400 have the highest transfer rate.
D. The DDR333 have the highest transfer rate.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
testking.com. A user logs a call inquiring where the information for faster access on
a CPU is located.
What should you do?

- 44 -
A. You should inform the user the information is stored in the Cache.
B. You should inform the user the information is stored in the Front side bus.
C. You should inform the user the information is stored in the RAM.
D. You should inform the user the information is stored in the Removable storage.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a query from a user to
determine the type of CPU that he should use with a Socket A CPU connector
Motherboard.
What should you do?
A. You should inform him to make use of Xeon.

B. You should inform him to make use of Pentium III.
C. You should inform him to make use of Itanium.
D. You should inform him to make use of Athlon.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. During
the course of the day you receive a call from a user who wants to know the name of
the 32-bit processor that has a capacity of 64-bit.
What should you inform the user.
A. You should tell her that an Intel Core 2 Duo processor has a capacity of 64-bit.
B. You should tell her that an Intel Pentium M processor has a capacity of 64-bit.
C. You should tell her that an Intel Itanium processor has a capacity of 64-bit.
D.

- 45 -
You should tell her that an Intel Pentium 4 Extreme Edition processor has a capacity of
64-bit.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12
installing a new CPU in one of the offices of a new client. The client notices the tube
of paste that came with the CPU and inquires what it is used for.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the client that the paste is used to stop theft.
B. You should inform the client that the paste aids in stopping the CPU from falling out
of the socket.
C. You should inform the client that the paste aids in keeping the CPU cool.
D. You should inform the client that the paste stops high voltage.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You are in the process of
explaining to the new interns what the term quad core implies.
A. Quad core implies that a CPU has four integrated processing units.
B. Quad core implies that a CPU has thrice the cache of a dual core processor.
C. Quad core implies that a CPU needs memory to be installed four units at a time.
D. Quad core implies that a CPU is clocked four times faster than a normal unit.
Answer: A

- 46 -
QUESTION NO: 14
informing the new interns appointed in your department the features of a dual core
CPU.
A. You should tell them that it has double the amount of pins.
B. You should tell them that it has two separate processing units.
C. You should tell them that it has twice the amount of cache.
D. You should tell them that it has two error correcting as well as checking units.
Answer: B
Section 5: Explain cooling methods and devices (8 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following two devices are used inside a PC to cool the components of a
PC?
A. Fans
B. Compressed air
C. Freon
D. Heat sinks
E. PC Card
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The two devices that are used inside a PC to cool the components of a PC are Fans and
Heat sinks.
Compressed air is used to remove dust from the PC, Freon is a coolant used in some air
conditioners but not in PCs, and PC card is an expansion card.

- 47 -
QUESTION NO: 2
You are learning about CPU cooling methods. Which of the following cooling
methods uses a pump? (Select all that apply)
A. Heat pipes
B. Air cooling
C. Peltier cooling
D. Liquid cooling
E. Phase-change cooling
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
The CPU cooling methods that use pump to circulate the cooling medium are liquid
cooling and phase-change cooling methods.
QUESTION NO: 3
You have been informed that it is mandatory to use thermal compound on a CPU.
Which of the following do you think is a reason for that?
A. It is required to create a uniform heat-transfer layer between the CPU and heat sink
B. It is required to bring Peltier effect to cool the CPU to below ambient temperatures
C. It is required to seal the heat sink to the CPU
D. It is required to protect the CPU against condensation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is mandatory to use thermal compound on a CPU because it is required to create a
uniform heat-transfer layer between the CPU and heat sink.
QUESTION NO: 4
After upgrading your personal computer, you had open ports for several unused
expansion card slots because you had certain components removed and new
components installed. Why do you think the covers for these card slots should be
reinstalled?

- 48 -
A. To reduce the RFI inside the case.
B. To ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. To prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. To prevent ESD inside the case.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The chassis of a PC is designed for proper internal airflow across the various
components. However, if your PC's enclosures are open, then the cooling of the PC
changes dramatically. The cooling of some components can be reduced or totally
eliminated and can cause damage.
QUESTION NO: 5
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You need to determine the
reason why your laptop computer experience excessive heat.
What is a likely cause?
A. It can be a result of inadequate OS memory.

B. It can be a result of the excessive internal display brightness being set.
C. It can be a result of the airflow being blocked.
D. It can be a result of bent pins causing the processor to be incorrectly seated.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
process of explaining to a new client the benefits of having an active cooling system.
What should you tell the client? (Choose all that apply.)
A. An active cooling system will increase system security.

- 49 -
B. An active cooling system will increased network speed.
C. An active cooling system will extend the life of your chip.
D. An active cooling system will make use of less memory.
E. An active cooling system will increased your performance.
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO: 7
process of informing the new junior technicians in your department the components
that needs to be in contact with the thermal compound.
What should you inform them? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You should always ensure that the Capacitors are in contact with thermal compound.
B. You should always ensure that the Heatsink are in contact with thermal compound.
C. You should always ensure that the CPU is in contact with thermal compound.
D. You should always ensure that the Fan is in contact with thermal compound.
E. You should always ensure that the Motherboard is in contact with thermal compound.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO: 8
of the day you discover that one of the workstations in your department is
overheating. You check and find nothing obstructing the fans and locate no dust
particles on the components and the heat sinks. You need to determine the reason
for the overheating?
What should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A likely cause could be that the case is too small.

B. A likely cause could be that the processor is too fast.
C. A likely cause could be that not enough fans in the CPU.

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D. A likely cause could be that the one or two fans are not functioning.
E. A likely cause could be that the memory is defective.
Answer: C, D
Section 6: Compare and contrast memory types, characteristics and

their purpose (14 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You want to upgrade the RAM of your recently purchased computer. You
discovered that your computer uses DDR SDRAM. Which memory module type
packaging do you need to purchase for your DDR SDRAM?
A. 168-pin DIMM
B. 72-pin SIMM
C. 184-pin DIMM
D. RIMM
E. E- 200-pin DIMM
Answer: C
Explanation:
DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM and is the newest of the memory
types under development. The DDR SDRAM chips used are of the TSOP package and
are available in two frequencies, 200 MHz and 266 MHz with operational voltage 2.5v.
The SDR SDRAM uses DIMMs with 168 pins. The SIMM is the predecessor to the
DIMM.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to implement DIMM modules on the motherboard of your desktop
computer. Select any three options for the number of pins that that can be found on
DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards?
A. 168

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B. 180
C. 184
D. 200
E. 204
F. 232
G. 240
Answer: A, C, G
Explanation:
DIMMs are available in two types: SDRAM and DDR SDRAM. Standard DIMMS have
168 pins. DDR SDRAM DIMMS have 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 DIMMS are
implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying.
QUESTION NO: 3
What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000?
A. DDR-2000
B. DDR3-2000
C. DDR3-16000
D. PC3-2000
Answer: B
Explanation:
Initially the PC used initials DDR for the chips and a number to represent the level of
DDR to describe the module. The absence of a number indicates memory to be DDR, if
the associated number is greater than 133. This means that PC3-16000 modules are
DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is 1?8 of
the module's numeric code: 2000.
QUESTION NO: 4
You want to purchase a memory-card for your computer. Which of the following
are the valid memory-card formats that can you purchase according to your
requirement?
A. MicroSD
B. MicroCF

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C. SIM
D. MMC
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
The valid memory-card formats that can you purchase according to your requirement are
MicroSD, SIM, and MMC. There is no micro version of CompactFlash modules.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following options in a computer should be increased to allow the
execution of more then one application simultaneously?
A. CPU speed
B. CPU bus width
C. Hard disk space
D. Random Access Memory
Answer: D
Explanation:
To allow the execution of more then one application simultaneously, the Random Access
Memory (RAM) should be increased because applications and their data reside in RAM
during execution. Although increasing RAM does not lead directly to being able to run
more applications simultaneously, it otherwise assists to do the same.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following memory modules need to be installed in pairs?
A. 168-pin DIMMs
B. 240-pin DIMMs
C. RIMMs
D. SODIMMs
Answer: C

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Explanation:
16-bit RIMMs must always be installed in pairs because DRDRAM has a dual-channel
implementation at the minimum.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following types of a memory would you use if you want to use two
separate modules in a single memory?
A. Dual-channel
B. Double-sided
C. Parity-enabled
D. Symmetric
Answer: B
Explanation:
You would use Double-sided memory because it allows access to only half the memory
locations at a time and uses additional pins on the modules to make it behave as two
separate modules. The memory controller switches to either side to access the memory.
QUESTION NO: 8
TestKing.com has employed you as a senior technician at TestKing.com. The
testking.com. You are in the process of determining the memory modules that have
168 pins.
A. The SODIMM has 168 pins.

B. The DIMM has 168 pins.
C. The SIMM has 168 pins.
D. The RIMM has 168 pins.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 9
testking.com. You receive notification from management to inform the interns in
your department what virtual memory is.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that virtual memory is the maximum amount of memory a
particular system can have.
B. You should inform them that virtual memory is the flash memory utilized to hold the
temporary files prior to it being deleted.
C. You should inform them that virtual memory is the information that is written to a disk
that is located in a paging file that is unable to fit into the RAM of the systems.
D. You should inform them that virtual memory is the section of the physical RAM that
is mirrored to the hard drive for redundancy purposes.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You recently
added additional memory to your notebook computer. When you boot up the BIOS
only report the original RAM.
What is the likely cause? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The brand of RAM is not compatible to your notebook computer.

B. The RAM is mismatched.
C. The RAM is defective.
D. The size of the RAM needs to be adjusted in Device Manager.
E. The OS does not recognize the extra RAM.
Answer: B, C

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QUESTION NO: 11
You are employed as the senior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
receive an instruction from the CIO to inform all staff in your department about the
function of ECC in a RAM module.
What should you do?
A. ECC allows you to bypass the IRQ channels in order to work directly with the CPU.
B. ECC allows you to identify any hardware incompatibilities as well as resolving them.
C. ECC allows you to make use of varying levels of voltage for the purpose of saving
power.
D. ECC allows you to identify and fix single bit errors in memory.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
receive a call from a user who wants to know the type of hard drive that has a speed
of PC2700.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that SDRAM has a speed of PC2700.
B. You should inform the user that DDR3 has a speed of PC2700.
C. You should inform the user that DDR2 has a speed of PC2700.
D. You should inform the user that DDR has a speed of PC2700.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13

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network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. There are
both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. A user calls the
helpdesk to inquire which memory types he needs to use in pairs.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user SODIMM should be used in pairs.

B. You should inform the user DDR2 should be used in pairs.
C. You should inform the user RDRAM should be used in pairs.
D. You should inform the user SDRAM should be used in pairs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
installing RAM into a computer named TESTKING-SR01. TESTKING-SR01 is
currently holding two 512MB PC2700 sticks. The CIO wants you to add two
additional sticks of 512MB PC3200. You check and discover that the necessary slots
are available. You need to inform management what the overall speed of the new
ram will be.
A. The overall speed will be 2700.

B. The overall speed will be 3200.
C. The overall speed will be 5300.
D. The overall speed will be 2100.
Answer: A
Section 7: Distinguish between the different display devices and

their characteristics (40 Questions)

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QUESTION NO: 1
You are an IT technician in TestKing Inc. You have been assigned the task of
uploading the video film of the annual meeting function of the company to its
website. To accomplish the task, you need to convert video to a format that can be
uploaded to the Internet. Which of the following tools would you use to accomplish
the given task?
A. A graphic card
B. A video capture card
C. A TV tuner card
D. A MIDI device
Answer: B
Explanation:
To convert video to a format that can be uploaded to the Internet, you need a video
capture card. The video capture card allows you to capture a video and convert it to
desired format that can be uploaded to Internet. A graphic card is attached in every
computer to connect the monitor to the motherboard. The video capture card is an
addition to graphic card. The TV tuner cards can also be used to capture the video but
they use video capture card internally to capture video capture. Any adapter that is
strictly a TV tuner cannot capture video.
QUESTION NO: 2
In which of the following situation would you use a KVM switch?
A. You have five network devices that need to be connected to each other to allow proper
communication between them.
B. You need to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device on or off.
C. You want multiple computers to be connected to a non-network-attached printer.
D. You have five computers but you don't want to buy certain external peripherals
separately for each of them.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You would use KVM switches when you have five computers but you don't want to buy
certain external peripherals separately for each of them. The KVM Keyboard, Video or
Visual Display Unit, Mouse switches allow you to control multiple computers from a
single keyboard, monitor, and mouse.

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QUESTION NO: 3
You want to put your personal computer in a room that has less space to keep the
monitor. The room also has magnetic devices such as speakers placed all over in the
room. Which of the following types of display technology monitor would you use to
save desk space and ensure that there is no interference from the nearby speakers?
A. CRT
B. HDMI
C. LCD
D. Projector
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the above given scenario, you should use LCD monitor because it takes less space on
the desk because is flat in shape. This is because it does not use cathode ray tube that
makes monitors look bulky. Besides, it also does not use electron guns that use magnets
like CRTs do. This feature protects it from the interference with the nearby speaker
magnets. Projector is not a common personal display device. It is mostly used in theatres
or at places that have group environments and HDMI is not a type of display device. It is
a standard for connecting display devices.
QUESTION NO: 4
You are an IT technician in TestKing Inc. The company manufactures display
monitors. You have been assigned the task to explain the difference between two
CRT monitors in terms of its image display. Which of the following term would you
use to explain the diagonal distance between like-colored phosphor dots on a display
screen that makes one monitor's display superior than the other?
A. Resolution
B. Dot pitch
C. Refresh rate
D. The number of dots per inch
Answer: B
Explanation:

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The Dot pitch or the phosphor pitch is a measurement that indicates the diagonal distance
between like-colored phosphor dots on a display screen. Dot phosphors are
hardware-related. A smaller dot pitch indicates smaller distance between the phosphor
dots, which leads to a better image clarity. Resolution is a software concept and the
refresh rate has nothing to do with how close the chemical dots are to one another.
QUESTION NO: 5
You want to set the refresh rate of your monitor. Which of the following statements
is correct regarding a monitor's refresh rate?
A. The refresh rate used by the graphics adapter is also used by the attached monitor.
B. You use MHz to express the refresh rate most often.
C. The controls on the front panel of the monitor allow you to set the refresh rate of a
monitor.
D. The lower the resolution, the maximum is the refresh rate.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The refresh rate is related directly to the resolution of the image. The lower the
resolution, the maximum is the refresh rate. The higher resolution images generally have
lower refresh rates.
Both the monitor and adapter have different refresh rates but they must agree on the
refresh rate you select. If either device does not support a particular refresh rate, such a
rate cannot be used. You use cycles per second Hz to express the refresh rate most often
The refresh arte is selected from the display settings dialog pages, not through the
monitor's built-in menu system.
QUESTION NO: 6
You want to purchase a monitor for your computer. You have to choose between an
LCD and a CRT monitor. You decided to find out the difference between both of
them so that you can take a correct decision. Which of the following statements are
correct about LCD monitors?
A. LCDs do not have a refresh rate but CRTs have.

B. LCDs can display a larger range of resolutions where as CRTs cannot.
C. LCDs are not as clear as CRTs at the same resolution.
D. LCDs require more power than CRTs.

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Answer: C
Explanation:
The statement LCDs are not as clear as CRTs at the same resolution is correct. This is
because the LCDs are normally limited to a fixed, native resolution.
LCDs do have a refresh rate. However, they are not regularly and systematically
refreshed the way CRTs are refreshed. LCDs require less power than CRT monitors and
not more. CRTs provide variability in resolution that LCDs can not provide because they
have a fixed resolution.
QUESTION NO: 7
You have recently installed Windows XP on your personal computer. After the
Windows are installed, you tried to set the resolution of the monitor. However, you
are unable to display a given resolution on a monitor. Which of the following can be
the reason of your problem?
A. The graphics adapter does not have enough memory installed.

B. The video display unit does not have enough memory installed.
C. You are using a CRT with a single fixed resolution.
D. You have the refresh rate set too high.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You are unable to display a given resolution on a monitor because your graphic adapter
does not have enough memory installed. The graphic adapter uses dedicated on-board
memory, which is directly related to the number of pixels and colors that can be
displayed at one time.
Video display unit does not have a memory installed in them. The LCD monitors have a
fixed resolution and not CRTs monitors. If the refresh rate is set too high then the refresh
rate is automatically adjusted down when you select a resolution.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following video technology has a resolution of 1280×1024?
A. SVGA

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B. SXGA
C. HUXGA
D. UXGA
E. QXGA
Answer: B
Explanation:
SXGA has a resolution of 1280 ×1024. SVGA - 800 ×600, HUXGA - 6400 ×4800 and
UXGA has resolution 1600 ×1200
QUESTION NO: 9
What does a Q in display standards video resolution names, such as QSXGA,
QUXGA, and QXGA, refer to?
A. The resolution of both the horizontal and vertical components has been quadrupled.
B. The resolution is cut to one fourth.
C. The faster technology.
D. The resolution of both the horizontal and vertical components has been doubled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Q in display standards video resolution names, such as QSXGA, QUXGA, and
QXGA, refer to quad. Even though the name suggests quad but the horizontal and
vertical components are doubled and not quadrupled because the pixel count for each
axis is only doubled, resulting in four times as many total pixels
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following statements are correct in context with contrast ratio?
A. The contrast ratio is the ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that
a system can display
B. A contrast ratio is used for CRT monitors and not for LCD monitors
C. The contrast ratio is the ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels
D. The contrast ratio hat can be corrected through degaussing

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Answer: A
Explanation:
The contrast ratio is a measure of a display system. It is a ratio of luminance between the
darkest and lightest colors that a system can display. The contrast ratio is used for LCD
monitors. A high contrast ratio is a desired aspect of any display, which means darker
blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known
as contrast, not contrast ratio. The contrast ratio hat cannot be corrected through
degaussing, which is a process of decreasing or eliminating an unwanted magnetic field.
QUESTION NO: 11
You want to send audio and video through the same cable. Which of the following
interfaces would you use to send out audio and video over the same cabling
infrastructure?
A. VGA
B. DVI
C. HDMI
D. Composite
E. DVI-D
Answer: C
Explanation:
The HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) is a compact audio/video interface
that allows the transmission of uncompressed digital data
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following statements are correct in connection with connecting a
DVI-A interface to a DVI-D interface on a peripheral?
A. Connect DVI-A interface with a DVI-D interface using DVI-I cable

B. Connect DVI-A interface with a DVI-D interface using a cable that is terminated on
both ends with a DVI-A connector and DVI-D connector respectively.
C. You should not interconnect DVI-A interface with a DVI-D interfaces.
D. Connect DVI-A interface with a DVI-D interface using a standard DVI cable.

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Answer: C
Explanation:
You should not interconnect DVI-A interface with a DVI-D interfaces because analog
and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect. The DVI-I cables cannot
convert the analog signal to a digital signal.
QUESTION NO: 13
You have recently upgraded your Windows XP computer to Windows Vista. You
now want to set refresh rate to be used between the graphics adapter and monitor in
Windows Vista. Which properties tab Windows Vista Display Settings dialog box
allows you to set the refresh rate?
A. Adapter
B. Monitor
C. Advanced
D. Display Settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Monitor tab in Windows Vista Display Settings dialog box allows you to set the
refresh rate. You need to go to the Advanced Settings button on this tab to set the refresh
rate.
QUESTION NO: 14
You are an employee in TestKing Inc. You have to make a presentation in front of
your team members and immediately after that you need to make yourself available
for a conference call. You are using a video projector for the presentation and you
need to ensure that you switch off the video projector and lock the presentation
room before leaving for the conference call. While switching off the video projector,
which of the following things you should take care of?
A. You should not unplug the projector's power cable

B. You should not unplug the projector's video cable from your laptop
C. You should not turn off the power to the projector
D. You should not turn off your laptop

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Answer: A
Explanation:
While switching off the video projector you should be careful about not unplugging the
projector's power cable because this stops the power to the projector before the projector
can cool the unit. This may damage the projector irreparably or may lead to expensive
repairs on the projector.
QUESTION NO: 15
You have Windows Vista running on your computer. After making a few
configuration changes, when you restarted your computer, you noticed that your
display is appearing in a resolution of 640×480. Which of the following is causing a
resolution to 640×480?
A. The resolution of your monitor is set to SVGA.

B. You have not modified BIOS with the new memory that you have added to your
graphics adapter.
C. The resolution of your monitor is set to XGA.
D. You have booted your computer in the Safe Mode.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When you restarted your computer you noticed that your display is appearing in a
resolution of 640×480 because you might have booted your computer in the Safe Mode.
The Safe Mode disables all nonessential drivers and services due to which the driver for
the graphics adapter is disabled.
QUESTION NO: 16
On your Windows XP computer, you have modified some display settings.
Unfortunately you made wrong modification to the display settings. Which of the
following statements depict the results of improper display settings?
A. The improper display settings can cause computer to reboot spontaneously.

B. The improper display settings can cause the graphics adapter to automatically choose
the highest supported resolution.

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C. The improper display settings may cause the incomplete view of the desktop. You
may need to scroll to see parts of the Desktop.
D. The improper display settings cause the mouse cursor to change or disappear
permanently.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The improper display settings may cause the incomplete view of the desktop. You may
need to scroll to see parts of the Desktop. This is because you might have modified the
screen resolution. However, your monitor might maintain its optimal hardware
resolution, such as an LCD's native resolution, and force you to scroll to see any pixels
created by the chosen software resolution that it cannot fit on the hardware screen at that
particular moment.
QUESTION NO: 17
You are using a LCD monitor and you have recently found out that LCD monitors
use a single, fixed resolution. Which of the following terms can be used to define the
single, fixed resolution of an LCD monitor?
A. Native resolution
B. Default resolution
C. Refresh rate
D. Burned-in resolution
E. Single resolution
Answer: A
Explanation:
The single, fixed resolution of an LCD is called the native resolution.
QUESTION NO: 18
You want to increase the productivity of your computer by configuring
multimonitor settings on your computer. Which of the following statements are
correct in context with multimonitor settings?
A. You can connect multiple monitors to your computer by using two graphics adapter
that supports two video interfaces

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B. The multimonitor settings can merge two different Desktops onto the same monitor.
C. The multimonitor settings can connect two laptops together in such a way that they
can display the same Desktop
D. The multimonitor settings allow you to display different parts of your Desktop on
different monitors.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The multimonitor settings allow you to display different parts of your Desktop on
different monitors. This is because these settings allow you to clone your settings and
extend your desktop onto the second monitor. The two adapters don't have the same
expansion-bus architecture so you can connect multiple monitors to your computer by
using two graphics adapter that supports two video interfaces.
QUESTION NO: 19
You are planning to purchase an LCD monitor for your personal computer. You
have recently heard about the characteristics of LCD monitor that leads to best
performance in LCDs? Which of the following characteristics would you choose to
achieve the best LCD performance?
A. Active matrix
B. Passive matrix
C. Dual matrix
D. Dual scan
E. Active scan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Active Matrix used in LCDs leads to best performance and crisp display in LCDs. This is
because in Active Matrix each pixel has its own transistor transistors that can generate its
own light. This leads to brighter and crisp display and allows the screen to be viewed by
multiple viewers. With Passive matrix you are unable to see the screen unless you are
directly in front of it. Dual scan is merely an enhanced form of passive matrix. Dual
matrix and Active scan are not a type of LCD.
QUESTION NO: 20

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You want to find out the widescreen resolutions of a 16:10 aspect ratio?
A. 1280×1024
B. 1920×1200
C. 800×600
D. 2048×1536
Answer: B
Explanation:
1920×1200 is an example of List of 16:10 Widescreen Resolutions. The list of 16:10
Widescreen Resolutions is:
Resolution - Aspect ratio
1440x900-----16:10
1680x1050-----16:10
1920x1200-----16:10
2560x1600-----16:10
3840x2400-----16:10
7680x4800-----16:10
QUESTION NO: 21
You want to use the degaussing tool to improve the color around the edges for your
CRT Monitor. At which of the following locations can you find the best degaussing
tool for modern CRT monitors?
A. The best degaussing tool can be found at a computer specialty shop

B. The best degaussing tool can be found at a consumer electronics store
C. The best degaussing tool can be found built into the monitor
D. The best degaussing tool is a freeware download
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best degaussing tool can be found built into the monitor. The built in degaussing tool
is designed to work with the monitor, in which it is found. External degaussing tools may
be effective but can be a little hard on the delicate inner workings of the CRT.
QUESTION NO: 22

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What of the following types of signal is used between the adapter and VGA
monitor?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Compressed
D. Composite
Answer: B
Explanation:
The analog signals are used by VGA monitors.
QUESTION NO: 23
On the display of an LCD screen, which of the following measurements can you use
to measure the difference between the darkest color and the lightest color?
A. Native resolution
B. Contrast ratio
C. Luminescence
D. Ambient brightness
E. Ambient Contrast
Answer: B
Explanation:
To measure the difference between the darkest color and the lightest color on the display
of an LCD screen, you need to use the contrast ratio measurement.
The native resolution is the amount of pixels that can be displayed at an LCD screen
without distortion.
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following display types are more susceptible to magnetic interference?
A. Touchscreen overlay panel

B. CRT
C. LCD

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D. LCD projector
Answer: B
Explanation:
The display type that is more susceptible to magnetic interference is the cathode ray tube
(CRT) display. In this type of display technology the screen image is painted by electron
beams generated on the inner surface of the screen. Magnetic field in the CRT monitor
steer the electron beams, as they scan the faceplate. Any electrical equipment that
generates magnetic fields such as speakers can affect the electron beam path and create
magnetic interference.
QUESTION NO: 25
The video resolution can be described as______________.
A. The number of colors that can be display at one time in a pixel

B. The transistor(s) that control each pixel
C. The brightness between pixels
D. The number of pixels displayed in columns and rows measurement
Answer: D
Explanation:
The video resolution can be described as the number of pixels displayed in column and
row measurement.
QUESTION NO: 26
How does a CRT monitor different than an LCD monitor?
A. CRT monitors use less power

B. CRTs weigh less.
C. CRTs can be degaussed.
D. CRTs cannot produce a sharper and higher-quality image.
Answer: C
Explanation:

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The difference between a CRT monitor and an LCD monitor is that CRTs can be
degaussed because they have magnetic properties and LCDs cannot be degaussed.
LCDs use less power and weighs than CRTs less but cannot display an image as sharp
and pure as that a CRT.
QUESTION NO: 27
You want to improve the sharpness of the display unit of your computer. Which of
the actions would you take?
A. You should increase the refresh rate of the monitor

B. You should increase the resolution of the monitor
C. You should reduce the refresh rate of the monitor
D. You should reduce the contrast of the monitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
To improve the sharpness of the display unit of your computer, you should increase the
refresh rate of the monitor, as long as the monitor supports the selected rate.
QUESTION NO: 28
On the LCD monitor of your computer, you want to achieve the optimal image
quality. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. Set the refresh rate to the highest refresh rate supported by the graphics adapter.
B. Set the contrast to the highest setting.
C. Set the resolution to the native resolution.
D. Set the contrast to the lowest setting.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To achieve the optimal image quality on your LCD monitor, you must set the resolution
to the native resolution.
Setting the refresh rate to the highest refresh rate supported by the graphics adapter will
not work because the monitor must support the refresh rate chosen. Contrast should be
adjusted until the image looks best. Setting it to maximum or minimum will not produce
the desired results.

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QUESTION NO: 29
You have recently purchased a CRT monitor for your computer. Whenever, you
start it you always hear a short buzzing sound. However, the monitor works fine.
Which of the following is the reason of buzzing sound in the monitor?
A. The buzzing sound shows a problem with the monitor. It should be serviced or
replaced.
B. The buzzing sound indicates that the monitor is degaussing itself.
C. The buzzing sound indicates that the refresh rate that the graphics adapter is using is
not compatible with the monitor.
D. The buzzing sound occurs because the residual static electricity on the screen gets
discharged.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The buzzing sound indicates that the monitor is degaussing itself. The new CRT monitors
are equipped with a self-degaussing feature that activates whenever the monitor is
powered on. The degaussing is done by CRTs to increase the display quality avoid the
need to perform a manual degaussing.
QUESTION NO: 30
You want to set the refresh rate of your monitor. Which of the following statements
do you think is correct about the refresh rate of a monitor?
A. The refresh rate has nothing to do with the quality of the displayed image.
B. The monitor supports a refresh rate as long as it is supported by the graphics adapter
of the system.
C. You can use Device Manager to adjust the refresh rate.
D. To set a refresh rate it is necessary that both the monitor and graphics adapter support
a given refresh rate.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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The statement "To set a refresh rate it is necessary that both the monitor and graphics
adapter support a given refresh rate" is correct. If the monitor does not support the refresh
rate set by the adapter their will be either no image or a flickering image displayed. If
vice versa happens then the monitor displays an "out of range" error until the rate is
adjusted to a supported one.
The refresh rate is adjusted through Display Properties in Windows XP and Display
Settings in Vista. It is not adjusted through the Device Manager.
QUESTION NO: 31
You want to use analog video technology monitor for your computer. Which of the
following types of monitor technology would you use?
A. Monochrome
B. CGA
C. EGA
D. VGA
Answer: D
Explanation:
To use analog video technology monitor for your computer, you need to use VGA
technology. The other options are older digital technologies.
QUESTION NO: 32
_____________is the standard resolution of VGA technology
A. 320 x 200
B. 640 x 350
C. 640 x 480
D. 800 x 600
Answer: C
Explanation:
640 x 480 is the standard resolution of VGA technology.
CGA's resolution was 320 x 200, EGA's was 640 x 350, and SVGA resolution is 800 x
600.

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QUESTION NO: 33
While reading about the refresh rates, you get to know some facts about interlacing.
Which of the following facts are most accurate about interlacing?
A. The interlacing technique combines two separate screen images at the same time.
B. Video quality is deteriorated in interlaced refresh rates as compared to noninterlaced
refresh rates
C. In interlacing the odd-numbered rows are displayed, but the even-numbered rows are
not displayed.
D. Interlacing is used by all video adapters all the time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most correct statement about Interlacing is that Video quality is deteriorated in
interlaced refresh rates as compared to noninterlaced refresh rates. During Interlacing the
refresh rate is doubled because only half the screen is redrawn at a time.
The usual refresh rate for interlaced operation is 87 Hz, which corresponds to 43.5 Hz of
real refresh given the half-screen interlacing.
Although interlacing produce less flicker than the large amount you would see in
non-interlaced, it still produces flicker compared to even a regular 60 Hz non-interlaced
mode. The user often perceives this as an annoying flicker.
QUESTION NO: 34
You have purchased a KVM switch. Which of the following interfaces would be
available to you on the input side of the KVM switch?
A. PS/2, VGA, USB

B. DB25, DB9, PS/2
C. PS/2, DB9, USB
D. PS/2, DB25, VGA
Answer: A
Explanation:

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The interfaces that are usually available to you on the input side of the KVM switch
include PS/2, VGA, and USB.
QUESTION NO: 35
testking.com. You receive a call from a user named Kara Lang who wishes to know
the device that will allow her to use multiple workstations with a single monitor.
A. You should inform Kara Lang that it can be accomplished via KVM.
B. You should inform Kara Lang that it can be accomplished via a graphics adaptor.
C. You should inform Kara Lang that it can be accomplished via a capture card.
D. You should inform Kara Lang that it can be accomplished via a USB hub.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You receive an instruction to
connect an LCD monitor to a desktop. You need to determine the most appropriate
display connection that will accomplish this.
A. Your best option would be to make use of CGA.

B. Your best option would be to make use of DVI.
C. Your best option would be to make use of S-Video.
D. Your best option would be to make use of USB.
E. Your best option would be to make use of VGA.
Answer: B, E

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QUESTION NO: 37
The TestKing.com help desk requested that you help them address the problems
that the users are reporting to them. A user named Mia Hamm reports that her
desktop is smaller than usual and that a large black border is around the desktop on
the monitor. You need to make sure that the desktop of the user is fixed as soon as
possible.
What should you do?
A. You should inform a technician to make the necessary configuration changes in the
Display Settings in Device Manager.
B. You should inform a technician to change to a lower resolution.
C. You should inform a technician to demagnetize the user and restart the monitor.
D. You should inform a technician to make the necessary configuration changes to the
Display Settings on the monitor.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A user
logs a call stating that the monitor is acting up and the image shakes many times.
You check the asset register and notice that it is the last CRT monitor. The
company is currently replacing all the CRT monitors with LCD monitors.
What should you do?
A. You should ask the user whether someone moved the monitor recently.
B. You should inform the user that you know the cause of the problem and inform her to
degauss the monitor.
C. You should empathize with the user and inform her that an LCD monitor will be sent
to her as soon as possible.
D. You should ask the user to bring her monitor to your department and you will swap it
for an LCD monitor.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 39
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You discover that as soon as
the resolution is increased the amount of available color drops from 32-bit to 16-bit
on an old machine. You need to determine the reason for this occurrence.
A. A possible cause could be that the graphics card jumpers need to be reconfigured.
B. A possible cause could be that there is insufficient free space on the hard drive.
C. A possible cause could be that the monitor needs replacement with a newer model.
D. A possible cause could be that there is too little memory available for the display
adapter.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
connecting a projector to your notebook computer. After the connection you
discover that no screen is displayed. You check and verify that the projector is
switched on.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to enable the projector by going into Device Manager.
B. Your best option would be to make use of the correct function toggle key in order to
switch display mode.
C. Your best option would be to reboot the notebook computer in order for the system to
automatically select the projector to start.
D. Your best option would be to select F1 in order to shift the display to the projector.
Answer: B

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Section 8: Install and configure peripherals and input devices (26
Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You want to update the PC ports of your computers with bidirectional PC parallel
ports as per the standards specified by IEEE 1284. Which of the following standards
are specified by IEEE 1284? (Choose two).
A. RS-232
B. EPP
C. ECP
D. FireWire
E. USB
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The new parallel port standard - IEEE Standard 1284-1994 is based on the original
Centronics Standard Parallel Port (SPP) specification, and includes the Enhanced Parallel
Port (EPP) and Extended Capabilities Port (ECP) for Bidirectional parallel ports can both
transmit and receive data. The standard parallel port only transmits data out of the
computer and cannot receive data. FireWire is specified by IEEE 1394. IEEE 1284 does
not specify serial protocols, such as RS-232 and USB.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to use a simple common plug-in serial connector on the back of your
computer to perform digital video transfers. Which of the following port type
external bus standard would you use that was originally developed by Apple and is
currently the optimal interface for digital video transfers?
A. DVD
B. USB
C. IEEE 1394
D. IEEE 1284
E. IEEE 1290
Answer: C

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Explanation:
IEEE 1394 standard was originally developed by Apple and was used with trademarked
name FireWire. Other companies use other names, such as i.link and Lynx, to describe
their 1394 products. A single 1394 port can be used to connect up 63 external devices
and is ideal for devices that need to transfer high level of data in real-time, such as video
devices. This is because it is not only high speed but also supports isochronous data,
which means delivering data at a guaranteed rate.
QUESTION NO: 3
You generally need to connect various devices such as digital cameras, printers,
personal media players, and flash drives to your personal computer. You need to
use a port type which is expandable using hub. Which of the following peripheral
port type is expandable using a hub, operates at 1.5MBps, and can be used to
connect various devices you want to connect to your computer?
A. DVD 1.0
B. USB 1.1
C. IEEE 1394
D. IEEE 1284
E. IEEE 1290
Answer: B
Explanation:
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a set of interface specifications for high speed wired
communication between electronics systems peripherals and devices with or without
PC/computer. The major goal of USB was to define an external expansion bus to add
peripherals to a PC in easy and simple manner. USB version 1.1 supported two speeds, a
full speed mode of 12Mbits/s and a low speed mode of 1.5Mbits/s. It is now the most
used interface to connect devices like mouse, keyboards, PDAs, game-pads and joysticks,
scanners, digital cameras, printers, personal media players, and flash drives to personal
computers.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following peripheral port type would you use to allow high speeds
transfer of data at over a D-sub interface?
A. DVD

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B. USB 1.1
C. USB 2.0
D. IEEE 1394
E. IEEE 1284
Answer: D
Explanation:
ECP parallel port, which is a part of IEEE 1284 standard, defines the use of a DMA
channel and the buffer to be able to transfer data at high speeds at over a D-sub interface.
QUESTION NO: 5
A friend of yours suggested you to check the hot swappable capability of the
peripheral device that you are going to buy. Which of the following options is the
feature of hot-swappable devices?
A. Hot-swappable devices can be inserted or removed without the need to turn off the
power.
B. The Hot-swappable devices can be removed after stopping the operating system even
with the power applied.
C. Hot-swappable devices are hot to touch and therefore care must be taken while
swapping the devices.
D. The hot-swappable devices device can be swapped immediately after powering down
the system while they are still hot.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The hot swappable devices are the devices that can be attached or detached from a
computer or any other electronic device without rebooting the computer and switching
off the power of the system. However, these devices need to be stopped in the operating
system before being removed. The most commonly used hot swappable devices are USB
devices. These devices have nothing to do with the heat level of the device.
QUESTION NO: 6
You are an IT technician is TestKing Inc. The company wants to implement an
authentication device in the company that can use unique physical traits of the user
to authenticate them and allow entrance in the office?

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A. Barcode reader
B. Biometric device
C. Keyboard
D. Touch screen
E. Touch Pad
Answer: B
Explanation:
Biometric input devices are the most secure methods to authenticate users with their
unique physical traits. This method uses fingerprint or facial scans and iris or voice
recognition to identify users. A biometric scanning device takes a user's biometric data
and converts it into digital information, which can be interpreted and verified by a
computer.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following types of input devices roughly uses the same connector?
(Choose 2)
A. Barcode reader
B. PS/2 keyboard
C. MIDI
D. Touch screen
E. AT keyboard
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
MIDI devices and original AT keyboard use a same kind of a 5-pin DIN connector.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following pointing devices consist of a ball held by a socket containing
sensors to detect a rotation of the ball? The device also has buttons on the top and a
flat, steady surface on the bottom.
A. Mouse
B. Touchpad
C. Trackball
D. Trackpad
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E. Keypad
Answer: C
Explanation:
The trackball is a pointing device that consists of a ball held by a socket containing
sensors to detect a rotation of the ball. The device also has buttons on the top and a flat,
steady surface on the bottom. It is sort of stationary mouse that allows fast scrolling in
any direction. There is no such thing as a trackpad.
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following laptop input device was released with the IBM ThinkPad
series of laptops?
A. Touchpad
B. Optical storage
C. TrackPoint
D. Trackball
Answer: C
Explanation:
The laptop input device released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops is TrackPoint
point stick.
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is the input device used in laptop, is flat in surface, and
allows you to use your finger on it to control the mouse pointer?
A. Touchpad
B. Touchball
C. Touchpoint
D. Touchway
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The input device that is used in laptop, is flat in surface, and that allows you to use your
finger on it to control the mouse pointer is called the touchpad.
QUESTION NO: 11
You want to use a hot-swappable device on your PC. Which of the following devices
can you use?
A. PS/2 keyboard
B. USB mouse
C. DDR3 DIMM module
D. PCIe graphics adapter
E. AT keyboard
Answer: B
Explanation:
You should use USB mouse. The USB-attached devices are the examples of
hot-swappable devices. These devices can be plugged in and removed from the computer
system to which they are attached, while the power is still on.
QUESTION NO: 12
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a query from a user wanting
to know the interface that will only support one device per port.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that Bluetooth only support one device per port.
B. You should inform the user that USB 1.1 only support one device per port.
C. You should inform the user that RS-232 only support one device per port.
D. You should inform the user that SCSI only supports one device per port.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 13
You are in the process of selling a workstation over the Internet. It is important that
the original hard drive information is not supplied to the aspiring buyer.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to reformat the hard drive to a clean state.
B. Your best option would be to erase the hard drive using a disk wiping program.
C. Your best option would be to expose the computer components close to a large
magnet.
D. Your best option would be to run FDISK on the hard drive.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
configuring biometric devices.
What should you not do?
A. A true negative error is very dangerous when configuring biometric devices.

B. A false negative error is very dangerous when configuring biometric devices.
C. A false positive error is very dangerous when configuring biometric devices.
D. A true positive error is very dangerous when configuring biometric devices.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
installing a program that makes use of a security dongle. You discover that the
program will not work. You thus need to determine the reason for this error.

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What should you do?
A. The program will not work since the OS does not support security dongles.
B. The program will not work since you failed to install the hardware dongle.
C. The program will not work since OS does not support the software.
D. The program will not work since the software was installed properly.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
testking.com. A TestKing.com user named Kara Lang contacted the Help desk to
report some problems that prevents her from carrying out her duties. She informs
you that numbers appear on the screen of the laptop when certain keys are pressed.
You need to resolve this issue as quick as possible.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the ToggleKeys option is enabled.

B. You should inform her that the NumLock option is enabled.
C. You should inform her that the FilterKeys option is enabled.
D. You should inform her that the StickyKeys option is enabled.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source. To accomplish this task you
need to determine the appropriate audio/video device that will achieve this.
A. You should make use of a Sound card.

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B. You should make use of a TV tuner card.
C. You should make use of a Graphics card.
D. You should make use of a Video capture card.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source. To accomplish this task you
need to determine the appropriate audio/video device that will achieve this.
A. You should make use of a Sound card.

B. You should make use of a TV tuner card.
C. You should make use of a Graphics card.
D. You should make use of a Video capture card.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a call from a user who wants
to know the I/O devices that can be daisy chained together. The user also informs
you that the device has to be ended at the last device.
What should you do?
A. You should identify a USB I/O device.

B. You should identify a Serial I/O device.
C. You should identify a SCSI I/O device.
D. You should identify a Parallel I/O device.

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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You are employed as a senior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
in the process of informing the new interns what makes use of multiple disks in
order to create one functional drive with parity spanning all the disks.
A. You should inform the interns that RAID 10 will accomplish this.
B. You should inform the interns that RAID 5 will accomplish this.
C. You should inform the interns that RAID 1 will accomplish this.
D. You should inform the interns that RAID 0 will accomplish this.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
calls the helpdesk to determine the device he needs to stop at the last device in order
for the other devices to function.
What should you do?
A. You need to stop the Serial at the last device.

B. You need to stop the SCSI at the last device.
C. You need to stop the Parallel at the last device.
D. You need to stop the IDE at the last device.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21

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explaining to the new interns the maximum transfer speed that can be obtained on a
SATA interface.
A. A SATA interface can achieve a maximum transfer speed of 150Mbps.

B. A SATA interface can achieve a maximum transfer speed of 300Mbps.
C. A SATA interface can achieve a maximum transfer speed of 400Mbps.
D. A SATA interface can achieve a maximum transfer speed of 800Mbps.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
instruction from the CIO to install a shock resistant hard drive on a workstation
named TESTKING-SR01.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to install a SCSI drive with proper terminated ends.
B. Your best option would be to install a PATA hard drive.
C. Your best option would be to install a Solid state hard drive.
D. Your best option would be to install a SATA hard drive with a rubber gasket.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
testking.com. You receive an instruction from management to ensure that the
network is able to support full-duplex communications.

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What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to add a Modem to the network.

B. Your best option would be to add an Ethernet hub to the network.
C. Your best option would be to add a Switch to the network.
D. Your best option would be to add a Firewall to the network.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
you receive an instruction from management to add an additional connector to the
mobile computer of the marketing manager. You thus need to determine the correct
bus slot you need to use in order for the mobile computer to be able to support the
new Network Interface Card.
What should you do?
A. A mobile computer will have the AGP bus slot available.

B. A mobile computer will have the SODIMM bus slot available.
C. A mobile computer will have the PCMCIA bus slot available.
D. A mobile computer will have the SATA bus slot available bus slot available.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
testking.com. You receive an inquiry from a user who wishes to know the amount of
devices he is able to daisy chain to an IEEE 1394 port.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that he is able to daisy chain 7 devices.
B. You should inform the user that he is able to daisy chain 15 devices.

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C. You should inform the user that he is able to daisy chain 63 devices
D. You should inform the user that he is able to daisy chain 127 devices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
IEEE 1394 standard was first developed by Apple. It was used with trademarked name
FireWire. Other companies make use of other named such as i.link and Lynx, to describe
their 1394 products. A single 1394 port can be used to connect up 63 external devices
and is ideal for devices that need to transfer high level of data in real-time, such as video
devices. This is because it is not only high speed but also supports isochronous data,
which means delivering data at a guaranteed rate.
QUESTION NO: 26
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. During the course of the week
you receive an instruction from the CIO to install a RAID array that contains two
hard drives as well as the best performance. You thus need to determine the
appropriate RAID level where you should implement the array.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would e to implement it on RAID 4.

B. Your best option would e to implement it on RAID 1.
C. Your best option would e to implement it on RAID 0.
D. Your best option would e to implement it on RAID 6.
Answer: C
Section 9: Summarize the function and types of adapter cards (11

Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1

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What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics
adapters?
A. AGP
B. PCIe
C. PCI-X
D. PCI
E. PCMCIA
F. ISA
Answer: B
Explanation:
PCI Express (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express), also known as PCIe (or
PCI-E), is an expansion slot that is designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP
standards for video adapters. PCIe is the latest standard for expansion cards that is
available on mainstream personal computers.
QUESTION NO: 2
You are an IT technician in TestKing Inc. You have been asked to add a NIC to a
user's computer. For which of the following categories of adapters would you use
NIC?
A. Multimedia adapters
B. I /O adapters
C. Communications adapters
D. Video adapters
E. Display adapters
Answer: C
Explanation:
NICs or Network interface cards are used in communication ports so that computers can
be connected to other computers/devices. The communications adapter uses NIC.
QUESTION NO: 3

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You are an IT technician in TestKing Inc. You have been asked to install USB ports
to a system. Which of the following category of adapters would you use to install
USB ports to a system?
A. Multimedia adapters
B. I /O adapters
C. Communications adapters
D. Video adapters
Answer: B
Explanation:
The USB ports are the input/output ports. Therefore to install USB ports to a system, you
need an I/O adapter with USB ports on it.
QUESTION NO: 4
You are an IT technician in TestKing Inc. You have been asked to find out the
adapter that has an RJ-11 jack built in computer. Which of the following categories
of adapters has an RJ-11 jack built in?
A. Modem
B. Video
C. Sound
D. NIC
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RJ-11 jack is built into Modems. This jack provides support for the Public Switched
Telephone Network (PSTN) interface.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is the most widely used, fastest, and most modern interface
that is used these days for expansion purpose in laptop computers and desktop
computers both to connect external peripherals, such as printers, digital cameras,
web cams, and scanners.
A. Parallel
B. PS/2

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C. USB
D. ATA
Answer: C
Explanation:
USB interface is most widely used, fastest, and most modern interface that is used these
days for expansion purpose in laptop computers and desktop computers both. It is more
flexible as compared to PS/2 that also allows connection of external peripherals.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which type of PC Card or PCMCIA slot is most versatile and is most often used for
expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, modems, and wireless networking?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Type II cards are most versatile and are most often used for expansion devices like
NICs, sound cards, modems, and wireless networking. They introduced a 32-bit data path
and expanded the PC Card's versatility. The original Type I cards, which incorporated a
16-bit data path, were introduced for memory expansion.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following expansion interfaces allow peripheral devices to be
connected to computer, is capable of operating in both USB and PCIe modes, and
uses serial communications?
A. ExpressCard
B. CardBus
C. Mini PCI
D. FireWire
E. PC Card

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Answer: A
Explanation:
The ExpressCard is an interface that allows peripheral devices to be connected to
computer, is capable of operating in both USB and PCIe modes, and uses serial
communications. It supports both PCI Express and USB connectivity through the
ExpressCard slot besides this card is hot-pluggable. CardBus supports USB 1.1 and PCI
only. Mini PCI is PCI, not PCIe. PC Card is a slot for expansion devices.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following components is the common example of PCMCIA Type III
cards?
A. Motherboards
B. Sound cards
C. Network adapters
D. Hard drives
Answer: D
Explanation:
The common example of PCMCIA Type III cards is hard drives.
Sound cards and network adapters are examples of PCMCIA Type II cards. And
motherboards are not available as PCMCIA cards
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following types of connectors is used by the Mini PCI IIIA standard?
A. 100-pin card edge

B. 100-pin stacking
C. 124-pin card edge
D. 124-pin stacking
E. 125-pin stacking
Answer: C
Explanation:

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The Mini PCI IIIA uses a 124-pin card edge connector.
Mini PCI standards IA, IB, IIA, and IIB use 100-pin stacking connectors.
QUESTION NO: 10
The thickness of PCMCIA Type II cards is________________.
A. 3.3 millimeters
B. 5 millimeters
C. 10.5 millimeters
D. 12.5 millimeters
Answer: B
Explanation:
The thickness of PCMCIA Type II cards is 5 millimeters. For Type I cards it is 3.3
millimeters, and for Type III cards the thickness is 10.5 millimeters.
QUESTION NO: 11
from management to install RAID on a workstation. You thus need to determine the
appropriate adapter cards you need to install.
A. Your best option would be to install USB.

B. Your best option would be to install SCSI.
C. Your best option would be to install SATA.
D. Your best option would be to install IEEE 1394.
Answer: B, C
Section 10: Install, configure and optimize laptop components and

features (13 Questions)

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QUESTION NO: 1
You want to purchase a laptop computer that resembles a paper notebook the most
in its design and function. Which of the following kind of laptops would you
purchase?
A. Luggable
B. Tablet
C. Netbook
D. Notebook
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Tablet PC resembles a paper notebook the most in its design and function. It has a
flip-around screen and can be held like a large notebook. It also allows you to write notes
directly on the screen with a special pen called stylus.
QUESTION NO: 2
You know that PC Cards is a small form-factor adapter for your personal
computer. You want to find out the software on which PC Cards depend in order to
operate? (Choose two.)
A. Cardmember Services
B. Card Services
C. Modem Services
D. Socket Services
E. PC Services
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
PC Cards depend on Socket Services and Card Services to operate. These services are the
key elements of its software architecture. Socket Services is a BIOS level software
interface that provides a way to access the PCMCIA sockets (slots) of a computer and
Socket Services identify the number of sockets in a system and detects the insertion or
removal of a PC Card when the system is powered on. PC Services is nothing.

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QUESTION NO: 3
You have a laptop computer. While you are not travelling, you want to use it as a
desktop computer. You want to use desktop devices, such as full-size keyboard and
monitor on your laptop. Which of the following devices allow you toplug in common
computer peripherals to your portable computer?
A. Docking station
B. Keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch
C. Print server
D. USB hub
E. Expansion card
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Docking station is a platform that allows you to host desktop components
permanently. It provides slots for expansion cards, connectors for peripheral devices, and
bays for storage devices. Once a portable computer is inserted in a docking station it
behaves like a desktop computer.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following input devices in laptop allows you to slide across your finger
to control the cursor?
A. Touchpad
B. Trackball
C. Point stick
D. Mouse
Answer: A
Explanation:
The touchpad is the input device built in laptops that allow you to slide across your finger
to control the mouse pointer by dragging your finger across the surface.
QUESTION NO: 5

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You are looking for a small notebook computer. Which of the following memory
types do you think are used in small notebooks because they have the smallest form
factor?
A. RIMM
B. DIMM
C. MicroDIMM
D. SODIMM
Answer: C
Explanation:
MicroDIMM is the memory type that has the smallest form factor. SODIMM which have
predominately been used in notebooks are now replaced by MicroDIMM. SODIMM and
MicroDIMM the common laptop small-form factor memory standards. From the two,
MicroDIMM is smaller.
QUESTION NO: 6
The display unit of your laptop does not seem to work. To resolve the problem you
toggled the LCD cutoff switch then you tried to attach an external monitor to the
laptop but that too did not help. What should you do now to resolve the problem?
A. Reinstall the video driver.

B. Replace the LCD display unit.
C. Try to use another external monitor.
D. Change the video card.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If display unit of your laptop does not seem to work even after attaching external monitor
to it, it's likely a problem with the video card.
You can't reinstall the video driver because you can't see anything. Replacing the screen
or trying another monitor will not help because you have already tried.
QUESTION NO: 7

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testking.com. The marketing manager is assigned a notebook computer with a
docking station. This notebook computer is wired into a local network. The
marketing manager wants the notebook computer to switch to the wireless
connection automatically as soon as it is removed from the docking station.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished using Wireless Zero Configuration.

B. This can be accomplished using the Roaming profile.
C. This can be accomplished using the Hardware profile.
D. This can be accomplished using the Driver signing.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Kara Lang contacted the Help desk to reporting that the mouse icon is not moving
in the direction when pointed to the screen when she makes use of tablet PC.
What should be done?
A. Your best option would be to calibrate the touch screen.

B. Your best option would be to replace the mouse.
C. Your best option would be to replace the touch screen.
D. Your best option would be to reinstall the mouse drivers.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9

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you receive an instruction from management to remove the USB device on a
notebook computer.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished by switching off the notebook computer.

Thereafter the USB device can be switched off.
B. This can be accomplished by stopping the USB device.
Thereafter the device can be removed from the notebook computer.
C. This can be accomplished by removing the hardware in the Control Panel.
D. This can be accomplished by removing the driver from Device Manager.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You receive an
instruction to upgrade a user's workstation in order to have a faster wireless LAN
connection. At present the user make use of a 54MB wireless LAN connection.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to upgrade to an 802.11g wireless card.

B. Your best option would be to upgrade to an 802.11n wireless card.
C. Your best option would be to upgrade to an 802.11b wireless card.
D. Your best option would be to upgrade to an 802.11a wireless card.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11

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of the day you receive an instruction from the CIO to identify a cost effective way to
meet the security requirements as well as decrease internal password resetting costs
on desktops and mobile computers.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished by implementing a smart card reader.

B. This can be accomplished by implementing a portable face recognition reader.
C. This can be accomplished by implementing hand recognition software.
D. This can be accomplished by implementing a biometric fingerprint reader.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
instruction from management to install a cellular modem card on a mobile
computer. You thus need to identify the appropriate expansion slot in order to
accomplish this task.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of the AGP 4X expansion slot.
B. Your best option would be to make use of the PCIe X16 expansion slot.
C. Your best option would be to make use of the ISA expansion slot.
D. Your best option would be to make use of the PCMCIA expansion slot.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
process of explaining to the newly appointed technicians where they will find
Cardbus interfaces.

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A. It is mainly found on Cell phones.

B. It is mainly found on Notebooks.
C. It is mainly found on PDAs.
D. It is mainly found on Desktop PCs.
Answer: B
Section 11: Install and configure printers (47 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
The laser printer applies a voltage to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in
an EP process. Select the amount of voltage that is applied in this process.
A. +600VDC
B. -600VDC
C. +6000VDC
D. -6000VDC
Answer: A
Explanation:
The image is transferred from the drum to the paper at its line of contact with the use of a
corona roller with +600VDC voltage.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following types of printers are called the page printers? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Daisy wheel
B. Dot matrix
C. Bubble-jet
D. Laser
E. Thermal printers

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Answer: C, D
Explanation:
The bubble-jet and the laser printers are called the page printers because the complete
page is transmitted to a drum before the toner is applied. They print one page at a time.
QUESTION NO: 3
You want to purchase a printer for your computers. Your hardware vendor told
you about the Universal Serial Bus (USB) printer interface. However, one of your
friends, who were already using it, suggested you not to go for USB printer
interface. Which of the following is the downside of using a USB printer interface?
A. The USB printer interface has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection.
B. The USB printer interface has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection.
C. The USB printer interface automatically recognizes new devices.
D. The USB printer interface does not allow easy sharing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Universal Serial Bus (USB) printer interface is designed mainly to be connected to a
single computer, but you mostly need to share it with other computers. The only
downside to this is that it is difficult to share the printer with other computers. The printer
on which computer is attached should be switched on if you want to print from any other
computers as it acts as a print server, and any print job needs to go through this.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of printers would you use to print multipart forms?
A. Bubble-jet printers
B. Laser printers
C. Thermal printers
D. Dot-matrix printers
E. Daisy Wheel printers
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Dot-matrix printers are the only printers that allow you to print multipart forms. It is
the only printer that handles the thickness of these documents and print through all the
layers. It's also ideal for printing large quantities of mailing labels, envelopes, reports, or
packing labels.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following steps in the EP print process uses laser diodes to discharge
an invisible electric image to the selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus
forming an image on the drum?
A. Writing
B. Transferring
C. Developing
D. Cleaning
E. Conditioning
F. Fusing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The writing step in the EP print process uses laser diodes to discharge an invisible
electric image to the selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on
the drum.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following languages are known as page-description languages? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Page Description Language (PDL)

B. PostScript
C. PageScript
D. Printer Control Language (PCL)
Answer: B, D
Explanation:

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The Page Description Language (PDL) is a language that describes the layout and
contents of a printed page. PostScript and PCL are the most commonly used
page-description languages. There is nothing like PDL or PageScript languages.
QUESTION NO: 7
During EP Process what voltage does the corona wire or corona roller use to
transfer the image from the drum to the paper?
A. +600VDC
B. -600VDC
C. 0VDC
D. -100VDC
Answer: A
Explanation:
During EP Process +600VDC of voltage is used by corona wire or corona roller to
transfer the image from the drum to the paper.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following devices contain printhead in a bubble jet printer?
A. Ink cartridge
B. Toner cartridge
C. Daisy wheel
D. Paper tray
Answer: A
Explanation:
A bubble-jet printer is any printer that fires extremely small droplets of ink onto paper to
create an image in the form of letters or graphics. This ink is fired through Ink Cartridge.
Toner cartridge are used in Laser toner cartridges contain dry ink (toner). Laser toners are
much larger and more expensive than inkjet ink and more difficult to recycle.

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A daisy print wheel is a device around which is a set of print characters that make a
typing impression on paper. A Paper tray is a storing tray holding a stack of sheets of
paper for feeding into a printer includes opposite paper guides one of which is adjustable
relative to the other for varying the spacing between the paper guides.
QUESTION NO: 9
What is the correct sequence of steps that are followed in the EP print process used
in laser printing?
A. Developing, writing, transferring, fusing, charging, cleaning

B. Charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
C. Transferring, writing, developing, charging, cleaning, fusing
D. Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing
Answer: D
Explanation:
The EP print process follows the following steps in sequence: cleaning, charging,
writing, developing, transferring, and fusing.
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the number of standard assemblies used by a laser printer that uses the
electrophotographic process?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Nine
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are nine standard assemblies that are used by a laser printer that uses the
electrophotographic process.

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QUESTION NO: 11
You want to understand the working of Laser printer and the components of EP
laser printer toner cartridge. Which of the following is not the component of EP
laser printer toner cartridge?
A. Toner
B. Print drum
C. Laser
D. Cleaning blade
Answer: C
Explanation:
The EP laser printer toner cartridge contains toner, print drum, and cleaning blade. The
Laser is not a part of toner cartridge. Rather it is a part of the printer. The toner cartridge
uses toner to print a page. The cleansing blade is used to clean the used toner off the
drum. The print drum helps in printing by holding the static charge when it is not
exposed to light.
QUESTION NO: 12
You want to understand the working of Laser printer. You know that there are six
stages involved in EP printing process. Which of the following statements explain
the working of the development stage of EP printing?
A. An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles.

B. Heat is applied to the paper to melt the toner.
C. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum.
D. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner particles.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the development stage, an electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner
particles. The developing roller uses a magnet and electrostatic charges to attract toner to
itself and then transfers the toner to the areas, on the drum that are exposed to the laser.
Toner is applied to the drum by the particles being transferred to the areas of positive
charge

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QUESTION NO: 13
You want to purchase a printer. You have come to know about the various
interfaces in which printers are available. Which of the following interfaces can be
used for printers? (Select all that apply.)
A. Parallel
B. Mouse port
C. Serial
D. Network
E. USB
Answer: A, C, D, E
Explanation:
Printers can communicate via parallel, serial, USB, infrared, SCSI, 1394b, wireless, and
network connections.
QUESTION NO: 14
You know that it is easy to compare papers of differing brands using the same basis
sheet size for the same type of paper. However, same basis weight for a sheet of
common copy paper does not ensure the same mass as the same size sheet differ in
paper types. What is size of paper for the basis weight of 500 sheets of bond paper in
pounds?
A. 81?2×11 inch
B. 11×17 inch
C. 17×22 inch
D. 81?2×17 inch
Answer: C
Explanation:
In countries that use United States paper sizes, the basis weight is used measure the
density of paper. The size of paper is 17×22 inch for the basis weight of 500 sheets of
bond paper in pounds.
QUESTION NO: 15

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Which of the following type of printers have wheel that looks like a flower with
petals and where on each petal a letter, a digit, or a symbol is embossed?
A. Bubble-jet printers
B. Daisy-wheel printer
C. Dot-matrix printer
D. Laser printer
E. Thermal printers
Answer: B
Explanation:
A daisy-wheel printer smashes an inked ribbon against paper. It uses a device called a
daisy wheel that contains artificial daisy flower made of plastic or metal. Each of the
petals on the flower contains an embossed character. The hammer bangs on the petal
having a letter against the ribbon to print the letter.
QUESTION NO: 16
In laser printer printing process a voltage is supplied to charge and transfer corona
assemblies. Which of the following parts of a laser printer supplies the voltages to
charge and transfer corona assemblies?
A. High-voltage power supply (HVPS)

B. DC power supply (DCPS)
C. Controller circuitry
D. Transfer corona
E. Corona roller
Answer: A
Explanation:
The High-voltage power supply (HVPS) in laser printers supplies the voltages to charge
and transfer corona assemblies.
QUESTION NO: 17
During the EP process in laser printers, which of the following parts of printer gets
the toner from the drum onto the paper?

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A. Laser-scanning assembly
B. Transfer fusing assembly
C. Transfer corona assembly
D. Paper transport assembly
E. Drum
Answer: C
Explanation:
During the EP process in laser printers the transfer corona assembly gets the toner from
the photosensitive drum onto the paper. Some printers use transfer corona wire and some
other use transfer corona roller for the same purpose.
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following steps use a different method to perform the same step
differently in LED page printers and laser printers in EP process?
A. Writing
B. Charging
C. Fusing
D. Cleaning
E. Developing
F. Transferring
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Writing step is performed differently in LED page printers and laser printers in EP
process. This is because they both use different method to write on drum.
QUESTION NO: 19
In the EP process of laser printer printing, which of the following steps comes
immediately after the writing step?
A. Charging
B. Fusing
C. Transferring

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D. Developing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Developing comes immediately after the writing step. In the Writing step a laser beam
writes to the EP Drum to charge some portions of the drum positively and in Developing
step the toner is applied to the positive charged areas of the drum.
QUESTION NO: 20
During the EP process of printing, which of the following assemblies permanently
presses the toner into the paper?
A. Transfer corona
B. Fuser
C. Printer controller circuitry
D. Paper transport assembly
Answer: B
Explanation:
The fuser assembly permanently presses the toner into the paper by melting the toner
during the process. The transfer corona transfers the toner from the drum to the paper. It
does not press the toner into the paper. The printer controller circuitry converts the PC
signals into various printer assembly signals. The paper transport assembly has nothing to
do with writing on paper it controls the movement of the paper through the printer.
QUESTION NO: 21
During which of the following phases in EP process in laser printer a uniform
charge of 600VDC is applied to the EP drum?
A. Conditioning
B. Charging
C. Developing
D. Transferring
E. Writing

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Answer: B
Explanation:
During the charging phase in EP process in laser printer a uniform charge of 600VDC is
applied to the EP drum. The charging corona applies a uniform 600VDC charge to the
photosensitive drum to make the drum ready for the image to be written to it.
QUESTION NO: 22
During which of the following phases in EP process in laser printer the toner melts
onto the paper?
A. Writing
B. Charging
C. Fusing
D. Transferring
E. Developing
Answer: C
Explanation:
During the fusing phase in the EP process in laser printer the toner melts onto the paper.
The drum is charged according to the print pattern and after that the toner is applied to
the drum, which then melts and fused to the paper by using heat.
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following facts have made the USB connection, a popular choice for
printers as compared to a parallel or a serial connection? (Select all that apply.)
A. A USB connection is capable of recognizing new devices automatically.

B. A USB connection can transfer data at a higher transfer rate.
C. A USB connection can transfer data at a higher transfer rate as compared to a serial
connection.
D. A USB connection allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and
workstations.
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:

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The facts have made the USB connection, a popular choice for printers as compared to a
parallel or a serial connection are the transfer rate and the capability to automatically
recognize new devices.
The printer communicates with the networks, servers, and workstations using the
network printer interface and not the USB connection.
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following printers contains a printhead that trigger a row of pins,
when it moves across the paper to form letters and numbers?
A. Laser printer
B. Daisy-wheel printer
C. Dot-matrix printer
D. Bubble-jet printer
Answer: C
Explanation:
The dot-matrix impact printer contains a printhead that triggers a row of pins, when it
moves across the paper to form letters and numbers.
QUESTION NO: 25
After issuing the print command you had to wait for your print job to be printed. In
which of the following lines the print jobs wait to be printed?
A. Print spooler
B. Print queue
C. Print server
D. Print line
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Print jobs wait in the print queue for their turn, when there are a few jobs to be
printed.

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The print queue is located on the print server and the print spooler formats the print jobs
to get them ready for printing. There is nothing called print line.
QUESTION NO: 26
The network users using the printer reported that they never know where their
print jobs start. Which of the following actions would you take to resolve the
problem?
A. Configure the printer to print a separator page.

B. Configure the server to keep the printed documents.
C. Configure the printer to print directly to the printer.
D. Configure the printer to spool the print documents.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To enable users to find where their print jobs start it is important that you configure the
printer to print a separator page. The separator page will print at the beginning of each
print job and users can differentiate between their print jobs.
QUESTION NO: 27
During the EP process in laser printers, the charged photosensitive drum is
discharged to _______ VDC.
A. +600
B. 0
C. -100
D. -600
E. +100
Answer: C
Explanation:
During the EP process in laser printers, the charged photosensitive drum is discharged to
-100VDC.

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QUESTION NO: 28
You are learning about the ink used in various types of printers. Which of the
following printers use a solid, wax form ink? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bubble-jet
B. Thermal
C. Solid-ink
D. Dye-sublimation
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The printers that use a solid, wax form ink are the Thermal printers and Solid-ink
printers. The Bubble-jet and dye-sublimation printers use liquid ink.
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following interfaces can you use to connect a printer to your
computer? (Select all that apply)
A. USB
B. infrared
C. IDE
D. Shared network access
E. Parallel port
F. All of the other alternatives apply
Answer: A, B, D, E
Explanation:
The interfaces can you use to connect a printer to your computer are USB, infrared,
shared network address, and parallel port. Infrared is a cable-free method of connecting a
printer to the system. A parallel port has traditionally been used for a printer port and
USB is the most popular interface to be used for printers today. Shared network access is
used to share a printer among many networked users.
IDE cannot be used because it is an internal interface used to connect hard drives, CD
devices, and DVD devices.

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QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following best describes the advantage/disadvantage of daisy-wheel
printers?
A. Daisy-wheel printers can print multipart forms

B. Daisy-wheel printers are relatively inexpensive
C. The Print quality of daisy-wheel printers is quite similar to a typewriter.
D. Speed of daisy-wheel printers is too less
Answer: D
Explanation:
The main disadvantage of daisy-wheel printers is that the speed of daisy-wheel printers is
too less when compared to the dot-matrix printer.
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following services formats print jobs before printing them?
A. Print spooler
B. Print queue
C. Print server
D. Print line
Answer: A
Explanation:
The print spooler formats the print jobs to get them ready for the printer.
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following types of connections can you use to connect an inkjet
printer? (Select all that apply.)
A. USB
B. IDE
C. IEEE 1232
D. IEEE 1284

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Answer: A, D
Explanation:
To connect an inkjet printer, you can either use USB connection or IEEE 1284
connection. USB has recently replaced the IEEE 1284 standard, which is used for parallel
print cables and connectors.
QUESTION NO: 33
_________________ is the most basic type of printer.
A. Impact printer
B. Bubble-jet printer
C. Laser printer
D. Thermal printer
E. Daisy Wheel printer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Impact printer is the most basic type of printer. All of the other types of printers were
developed after the impact printer.
QUESTION NO: 34
Which laser printer component converts the signals from the computer into signals
for various assemblies and is responsible for formatting the print job?
A. Corona assembly
B. DC power supply
C. Printer controller assembly
D. Formatter software
E. Fuser
Answer: C
Explanation:
The printer controller assembly converts the signals from the computer into signals for
various assemblies and is responsible for formatting the print job for the type of printer
being used.

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QUESTION NO: 35
A user reported that all other users can print using the network printer except her.
What should you suggest her to try first?
A. Print a test page from her computer.

B. Print a test page from another user's computer
C. Delete and reinstall the printer.
D. Print a test page by using the printer's self-test.
E. Try to print a MS word document.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a printer is not working for a particular user then the first thing that you should try is to
print a test page from the computer which is unable to use the printer. If that does not
work then you may need to delete and reinstall the printer.
Printing a test page using the printer's self-test will not lead you anywhere because it can
only tell that the printer is printing fine, which you already know. You should always use
the test page feature from the printer properties, not from an application, to test printing.
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following printers would you use for printing on multi-part forms?
A. Impact printer
B. Thermal printer
C. Inkjet printer
D. Laser printer
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Impact printer or dot matrix is the only printers that allow you to print multipart
forms because they can handle the thickness of these documents and print through all the
layers.

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QUESTION NO: 37
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. TestKing.com has a printer
named TESTKING-PR01 that has an integrated NIC. TESTKING-PR01 is
connected to a LAN. During the day you receive an instruction to install
TESTKING-PR01 on numerous workstations.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to connect to it via a USB or IEEE 1394 cable.
B. Your best option would be to connect to it through a TCP/IP port.
C. Your best option would be to connect to it through a computer share.
D. Your best option would be to connect to it via an ad.hoc wireless connection.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
testking.com. You are in the process of explaining to the new interns in the
department how an impact printer will operate.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that it operates when heat melts the ink from the printhead
onto the paper.
B. You should inform them that it operates with toner sticks in order to photoconductive
areas on a drum.
C. You should inform them that it operates when small wires strike and ink is transferred
from the ribbon.
D. You should inform them that it operates when heat boils the water-based ink from the
printhead.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39

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testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a query from a user wanting
to which printers make use of a carbon film or an ink ribbon.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that an ink jet printer will utilize it.
B. You should inform the user that an impact printer will utilize it.
C. You should inform the user that a laser printer will utilize it.
D. You should inform the user that a thermal printer will utilize it.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
receive a call from a user who wants to know which printers in her department uses
special paper for printing.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that a Color Laser printer use special paper.
B. You should inform the user that an Inkjet printer use special paper.
C. You should inform the user that a Laser printer use special paper.
D. You should inform the user that a Thermal printer use special paper printer use special
paper.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You completed the installation
of a printer in your department. You want to print a test page to determine whether
the settings are correct.

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What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished by selecting Start.

Then Control Panel should be selected.
Thereafter System should be selected.
B. This can be accomplished by right-clicking My Computer.
Thereafter Manage should be selected.
C. This can be accomplished by right-clicking on the printers' icon.
Thereafter Properties should be selected.
D. This can be accomplished by selecting Start.
Then Control Panel should be selected.
Thereafter the Printer icon should be selected.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 42
testking.com. You are in the process of informing the new interns the type of printer
that makes use of an electrostatic charge in order to create an image of the page
onto a charged photoreceptor.
A. You should tell them that a Thermal printer makes use of an electrostatic charge.
B. You should tell them that a Laser printer makes use of an electrostatic charge.
C. You should tell them that an Impact printer makes use of an electrostatic charge.
D. You should tell them that Ink dispersion printer makes use of an electrostatic charge.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 43

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You are the newly appointed a technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
attempting to print an important document when you notice a balloon in the system
tray indicating that a print job has failed. To ensure productivity you need to
identify the reason for this incident.
A. The error was caused because the printer failed to recognize the font.
B. The error was caused because the paper needs to be refilled.
C. The error was caused because the computer needs to upload the print job.
D. The error was caused because the firmware of the printer needs to be updated.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
process of informing the new staff in the printing department what they will be able
to upgrade on a laser printer.
A. You are able to upgrade the hard drive on a laser printer.

B. You are able to upgrade the fuser assembly on a laser printer.
C. You are able to upgrade the corona wire on a laser printer.
D. You are able to upgrade the RAM on a laser printer.
E. You are able to upgrade the pickup roller assembly on a laser printer.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO: 45
You are the newly appointed senior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. One of
the managers in the marketing department request that you install a printer in the
department that will stamp the ink onto paper.
What should you do?

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A. You should consider installing a Thermal printer.
B. You should consider installing an Impact printer.
C. You should consider installing a Laser printer.
D. You should consider installing an Inkjet printer.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
explaining to the new interns how a thermal transfer printer works.
A. This printer will operate when heat from the printhead boils a water-based ink.
B. This printer will operate when the toner sticks to photoconductive areas on a drum.
C. This printer will operate when small wires impact resulting in ink being squeezed
from the ribbon.
D. This printer will operate when heat from the printhead transfers an image onto the
paper.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
testking.com. A user calls the helpdesk to inquire the type of printer that will shoot
the ink onto the paper.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that a Laser printer shoots ink onto paper.
B. You should inform the user that an Impact printer shoots ink onto paper.
C. You should inform the user that an Inkjet printer shoots ink onto paper.
D. You should inform the user that a Dot Matrix printer shoots ink onto paper.

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Answer: C
Topic 2: Troubleshooting, Repair and Maintenance (112

Questions)
Section 1: Given a scenario, explain the troubleshooting theory (20

Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You have been called by an employee of the company to solve his computer related
problem. What should be your first step in troubleshooting the problem?
A. Document your findings

B. Identify the problem
C. Establish a theory
D. Verify functionality
E. Test the Theory
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step in troubleshooting the problem should be identifying the problem. Once the
problem is identified the theory of probable cause should be established. You should then
test the theory and then you should figure out a plan of action to resolve the problem.
Once all this is done, you need to verify full system functionality and document your
findings.
QUESTION NO: 2
You have scheduled your system to run Normal backups on Sundays and
Incremental backups on weekdays. On Wednesday after running the backup, which
of the following files would you find backed up?

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A. All files that have changed since Sunday
B. All files that have changed since Monday
C. All files that have changed since Tuesday
D. All files on your computer
Answer: C
Explanation:
On Wednesday after running the backup, you will find all files backed up that have
changed since Tuesday. An incremental backup backs up only the files that have changed
since the last backup. Because the last backup here was on Tuesday so the incremental
backup on Wednesday will back up only the files that were modified on Tuesday after
the Tuesday backup.
QUESTION NO: 3
When you make a normal or incremental backup of your files, which of the
following options gets cleared to show that the file was backed up?
A. Backup bit
B. Archive bit
C. System bit
D. Copy bit
Answer: B
Explanation:
When you make a normal or incremental backup of your files, the archive bit gets
cleared, to show that the file was backed up.
QUESTION NO: 4
You have been asked to troubleshoot a problem that network users are facing. You
did some R&D and resolved the problem. Which of the following would be your
final step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Document findings
B. Identifying the problem

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C. Establishing a theory
D. Verifying functionality
Answer: A
Explanation:
The final step in the troubleshooting process is document findings.
The first step is to identify the problem then you need to establish a theory of probable
cause, then test the theory, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, verify full
system functionality, and in the end document your findings.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following file property tracks that the file needs to be backed up or
not?
A. Archive bit
B. Backup bit
C. Computer bit
D. System bit
E. No bit
Answer: A
Explanation:
The archive bit tracks that the file needs to be backed up or not. After the file is backed
up the archived bit is modified. It is modified again when the file is modified to indicate
that the file is not backed up in its current state.
Normal and incremental backups clear the archive bit.
QUESTION NO: 6
After taking a normal backup of your computer last week, you now want to back up
only the files that have changed since then. Which of the following backup options
can you choose? (Select all that apply.)
A. Copy
B. Incremental
C. Differential
D. Daily

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Answer: B, C
Explanation:
To back up only the files that have changed since the last normal backup, you can use
either Incremental or differential backup.
A copy will back up all files and the Daily backup will only back up files that have been
modified that day.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following bits get modified after you take a differential backup of your
files?
A. Backup bit
B. Archive bit
C. System bit
D. Nothing
Answer: D
Explanation:
A differential backup does not modify any bits. The normal and incremental backup
modifies the archive.
QUESTION NO: 8
testking.com. You are in the process of troubleshooting an error when you identify
the likely cause. You need to determine the subsequent step that you should take.
What should you do?
A. Your next step should be to ask the user a few questions to determine whether they
know what is wrong.
B. Your next step should be to create a plan of action in order to implement the solution.
C. Your next step should be to document findings, actions and outcomes.
D. Your next step should be to verify a full system functionality.

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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
testking.com. You just completed the repairing the workstation of one of the users.
You need to identify the steps you have to take before returning the workstation to
the user.
A. You should explain to the user that the workstation will not function as it did before.
B. You should document the system findings, actions as well as the outcomes.
C. You should confirm full system functionality of the workstation as well as put into
practice preventative measures.
D. You should explain the user how you fixed the workstation.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO: 10
brings her computer to the company for repairs. You need to need to identify the
best way to determine the user's problem.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to run the diagnostic software.

Thereafter you need to verify your finding with another technician.
B. Your best option would be to ask the user open-ended questions in order to gather the
symptoms.
C. Your best option would be to obtain the contact details of the user.
Then you can run a diagnostic test.
Thereafter your findings should be verified with the user.
D.

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Your best option would be to ask the user close-ended questions to ensure that the user is
not overwhelmed by all the jargon.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You just completed
resolving an error for a user. You thus need to determine your subsequent step that
you should take.
What should you do?
A. Your next step should be to recreate the problem.

Thereafter you can reapply your solution make sure that it operates properly.
B. Your next step should be to inform the user what you have done in order for the user
to follow the same step if the error reoccurs.
C. Your next step should be to check whether the other parts of the systems are fully
operational.
D. Your next step should be to return the system to the user.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to reports her workstation no longer wants to
turn on after returning from her lunch break.
What is the possible cause of the error?
A. You should inform her to clean the mouse and keyboard.

B. You should inform her that the hard drive is in standby mode.
C. You should inform her that a loose power cord might be the problem.

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D. You should inform her that the operating system needs to be reloaded.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
respond to a users call for assistance. You need to identify the best way to determine
the problem.
What should you so?
A. You should ask one of the coworkers of the user that the user informed them.
B. You should ask the user to give details regarding problem and listen without
interrupting the user.
C. You should ask the user to state the issue and stop the user when you have an idea on
how to fixing the problem
D. You should ask the user to move out of the way in order for you to check for any
problems.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive an instruction to safeguard a
computer against ESD.
A. You should make use of Anti-magnetic screwdrivers.

B. You should make use of an Anti-static mat.
C. You should make use of a Ground.fault isolation outlet.
D. You should make use of an Anti-static wrist strap.
E. You should make use of a UPS.
F. You should make use of a Thermal transfer compound.

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Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO: 15
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A user logs a call complaining
that she is unable to backup her data whereas she previously could. You ask the
user whether any changes were made to the system recently.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to have the backup restored to a new hard drive.
B. Your best option would be to have a checklist of possible issues created.
C. Your best option would be to have the software updated in order to check if it will
rectify the problem.
D. Your best option would be to have the security log checked for error codes.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You just completed
resolving an error for a user. You thus need to determine your subsequent step that
you should take.
What should you do?
A. Your next step should be to recreate the problem.

Thereafter you can reapply your solution make sure that it operates properly.
B. Your next step should be to inform the user what you have done in order for the user
to follow the same step if the error reoccurs.
C. Your next step should be to check whether the other parts of the systems are fully
operational.
D. Your next step should be to return the system to the user.

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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
brings her computer to the company for repairs. You need to need to identify the
best way to determine the user's problem.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to run the diagnostic software.

Thereafter you need to verify your finding with another technician.
B. Your best option would be to ask the user open-ended questions in order to gather the
symptoms.
C. Your best option would be to obtain the contact details of the user.
Then you can run a diagnostic test.
Thereafter your findings should be verified with the user.
D. Your best option would be to ask the user close-ended questions to ensure that the
user is not overwhelmed by all the jargon.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
testking.com. You just completed the repairing the workstation of one of the users.
You need to identify the steps you have to take before returning the workstation to
the user.
A. You should explain to the user that the workstation will not function as it did before.
B. You should document the system findings, actions as well as the outcomes.
C. You should confirm full system functionality of the workstation as well as put into
practice preventative measures.
D. You should explain the user how you fixed the workstation.

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Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO: 19
You work as a technician at TestKing.com. You just completed the replacement of a
clients failed keyboard that was packed of debris. You inform the client that the
area around the computer needs to be kept clean at all times.
What should you do next?
A. You should make a note of the issue as well as your findings, the actions that was
taken and the outcome.
B. You should have a routine follow up with the client to ensure that the computer area is
clean.
C. You should let another technician peruse your findings to ensure that it is correct.
D. You should report your findings to the superiors of the client.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
testking.com. You are in the process of troubleshooting an error when you identify
the likely cause. You need to determine the subsequent step that you should take.
What should you do?
A. Your next step should be to ask the user a few questions to determine whether they
know what is wrong.
B. Your next step should be to create a plan of action in order to implement the solution.
C. Your next step should be to document findings, actions and outcomes.
D. Your next step should be to verify a full system functionality.
Answer: B

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Section 2: Given a scenario, explain and interpret common
hardware and operating system symptoms and their causes (33
Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You want to edit the registry values of your computer hardware. Which of the
following Registry hives would you search to find information about the computer
hardware?
A. HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
C. HKEY_MACHINE
D. HKEY_RESOURCES
E. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
F. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Answer: B
Explanation:
To find information about the computer hardware, you need to search
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE.
HKEY_CURRENT_ MACHINE, HKEY_MACHINE, and HKEY_RESOURCES do not
exist.
QUESTION NO: 2
You opened your computer to add a sound card to it. While adding the sound card
you noticed a discolored area on the motherboard. Which of the following can be
the cause of discolored area on the motherboard?
A. Spilled liquid
B. Manufacturing Fault
C. Power surge
D. Underclocking
E. Illegal Operation

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Answer: C
Explanation:
A discolored area on the motherboard is often formed due to power surges that are caused
due to the overheating of the motherboard.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following cannot be considered as a common problem while
troubleshooting Windows and applications?
A. General protection faults

B. Valid working directory
C. System lockup
D. Illegal operation
E. System does not boot
Answer: B
Explanation:
While troubleshooting Windows and applications, a valid working directory is not a
common problem. The common problem is an invalid working directory.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following is the diagnostic program built into the BIOS of a computer?
A. CMOS
B. BIOS
C. POST
D. DNS
Answer: C
Explanation:
The diagnostic program built into the BIOS of a computer is POST (Power-On
Self-Test).

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QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following error occurs when a program in Windows illegally accesses
the memory of another program?
A. General protection fault

B. Windows protection fault
C. Illegal operation
D. System lock-up
E. System does not start
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a program in Windows illegally accesses the memory of another program then a
general protection fault (GPF) error occurs in Windows. It also occurs when a program
tries to access a memory address which does not exist. This error usually happens due to
the sloppy programming and can be resolved by clearing the memory with a reboot.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following are the good sources of troubleshooting if the video card of
your computer is not working? (Select all that apply.)
A. On another computer that uses the same video card

B. The website of the video card manufacturer
C. The manuals that came with the Video card
D. The Server log for Problem description
E. The Event Log for Problem description
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The places where you can troubleshoot your video card if it is not working are
manufacturer's websites and the manuals that came with the Video card.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following error message occurs when a program does something
wrong and is forced to quit?

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A. General protection fault
B. Windows protection error
C. Illegal operation
D. System lock-up
E. System cannot start
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a program does something wrong and is forced to quit, the illegal operation error
message appears with the details of the errors such as application module that
experienced the problem, the memory location, and the registers of the processor at the
time of the error.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following is the name of the troubleshooting utility that comes with
Windows XP and Windows 2000 to troubleshoot error conditions?
A. Windows Debugger
B. Problem Reports And Solutions
C. Windows Solutions
D. Dr. Watson
Answer: D
Explanation:
The name of the troubleshooting utility that comes with Windows XP and Windows 2000
to troubleshoot error conditions is Dr. Watson. Windows Vista has replaced Dr. Watson
with Problem Reports and Solutions.
QUESTION NO: 9
One morning when you came to your office and switched on your computer, you
heard a long beep sound followed by three short beeps and you computer did not
boot and nothing showed up on the monitor. Which of the following can be the
cause of the problem?
A. The video card is damaged.

B. The motherboard is faulty.

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C. The BIOS of the system is not functioning.
D. The information to find out the problem is insufficient therefore you need to look up
the beep code to determine the problem.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The description of the problem is insufficient and you need to look up the beep code to
determine the problem. This is because different BIOS manufacturers use different beep
codes and you need to look into it to find the problem.
The problem can be either video card or the motherboard but you can find the problem
only after going through the beep codes. The BIOS cannot be the problem because you
heard the beep which indicates that the POST routine ran up.
QUESTION NO: 10
You have recently installed a custom application on your computer. However after
installing the application it is constantly crashing. You tried to reboot the computer
but that too did not help. Which of the following options can fix the problem?
A. Reinstall the Operating System.

B. Reinstall the application.
C. Troubleshoot the application using the System Debugger.
D. Restore a previous version of the application from a backup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The easiest way to fix the constantly failing application is to install the application again.
It may happen that the application is not installed properly due to which it is failing again
and again.
Reinstalling Windows will not help and there is no System Debugger tool that can help
you to debug the application. Restoring from a backup will only restore the previous
version of the application if it is installed properly and it does not contain any missing or
corrupted files.
QUESTION NO: 11

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One of your colleagues complained that she hears a constant rhythmic ticking sound
when she turns her computer on and the computer does not boot up properly.
Which of the following components would you suggest her that might be causing the
problem?
A. The motherboard
B. The fan
C. The hard drive
D. The video card
E. The DVD drive
Answer: C
Explanation:
The problem can be with the hard drive. Although the components that have moving
parts usually make noise, rhythmic ticking sound can only be generated by the hard
drive.
QUESTION NO: 12
One of your computers that you have not been using for quite sometime has
suddenly started giving random reboots and phantom problems after you have
started to use it after three months. Which of the following actions should you take
to correct the problem?
A. Send the computer to the service center.

B. Replace the old motherboard with a new one.
C. Boot clean the computer.
D. Replace the power supply.
E. Clean the computer from inside after opening it and then reseat all cards and chips on
the motherboard.
Answer: E
Explanation:
A computer gives such problems when it is not clean from inside. The dust particles on
the internal components carry an electrical charge and cause such problems. To correct
the problem you must clean the computer from inside after opening it and then reseat all
cards and chips on the motherboard.

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QUESTION NO: 13
Your CRT monitor is not working properly. To troubleshoot the monitor for its
focus problem, you decided to check the high voltage at the anode of the CRT and
properly discharge voltage from the unplugged computer monitor. Which of the
following tools can you use for this purpose?
A. Antistatic wrist strap

B. Screwdriver
C. High-voltage probe
D. Power cord
E. Antistatic Bag
Answer: C
Explanation:
To check the high voltage at the anode of the CRT and properly discharge voltage from
the unplugged computer monitor, you need to use a high-voltage probe. It is designed to
test high voltage circuit such as the picture tube of a Monitor and Television and
discharge voltage from it.
QUESTION NO: 14
You are stuck, while troubleshooting and are unable to solve the problem. Which of
the following sources of information can provide the best help? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Information on Manufacturer's websites

B. Information in Installation manuals
C. Information in Training materials
D. Windows Help that appears on pressing the F8 key
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
If you are stuck you can find troubleshooting information on manufacturer's websites,
installation manuals, and training materials.
Windows Help can provide solutions, but that is accessed by pressing F1 and not F8.
QUESTION NO: 15

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The phenomenon of gradually loosing of a chip from its socket as a result of
expansion and contraction due to system heat up and cool down is called
_________________.
A. Chip wiggle
B. Chip flop
C. Chip creep
D. Unseating
Answer: C
Explanation:
The phenomenon of gradually loosing of a chip from its socket as a result of expansion
and contraction due to system heat up and cool down is called Chip creep. This was a
problem in early PCs. To fix chip creep, users of older systems would often have to
remove the case cover and push the loose chip back into the CPU socket
QUESTION NO: 16
Whenever you switch on your computer, you hear a single beep sound. You doubt
that something is wrong with computer hardware and the computer might crash.
Which of the following can be the problem with the computer?
A. There is no problem. The beep sound is normal.

B. There is a problem of memory conflict.
C. Some problem is detected by the system BIOS.
D. The video card is failing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A single beep sound is normal when the computer starts, so there is no problem. This is
an indication by the BIOSs that everything checked is okay.
However, if there is more than one beep then you need to check the beep code to find the
problem.
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following software applications allows the communication between the
operating system and a hardware device?

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A. API
B. Device driver
C. Hook
D. Device enabler
E. Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
Device drivers allow the operating system to talk to a hardware device.
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following statements are correct about the use of magnetic-tipped
screwdrivers inside computers?
A. Avoid the use of magnetic-tipped screwdrivers inside computers.

B. You may use magnetic-tipped screwdrivers inside computers, but you should keep
them away from the processor.
C. You may use magnetic-tipped screwdrivers inside computers, but you should keep
them away from the RAM.
D. You may use magnetic-tipped screwdrivers inside computers only if they're of the
powered variety.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement "Avoid the use of magnetic-tipped screwdrivers inside computers" is
correct because magnetic tools can damage data on disks that use a magnetic storage
scheme.
QUESTION NO: 19
After installing a network card into your Windows Vista computer and checking all
the network connections, you found the network card not working properly. Which
of the following troubleshooting step would you take to correct the problem?
A. Run Windows Update on the computer.

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B. Uninstall and Reinstall Windows Vista.
C. Remove Windows Vista and Install Windows XP.
D. Update the device driver of the network card.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To troubleshoot this problem, you should update the device driver. Updating the device
driver may help when an installed device isn't working properly.
QUESTION NO: 20
While working on your computer, a strong odor started coming from the computer.
What should you do?
A. Open the case of the computer and see if something has burned.
B. Touch the case of the computer to see if it's hot to the touch.
C. Turn the computer off.
D. Smell the back of the monitor to ensure that monitor has not burned.
Answer: C
Explanation:
While working on your computer, if a strong odor starts coming from the computer then
you should turn off the computer to give it a chance to cool down. You can then later
inspect for the damage.
QUESTION NO: 21
You have recently replaced the SATA hard drive of you computer with a new SATA
hard drive. However, after the replacement you noticed that the drive is hot to the
touch and is giving off a burning odor. Which of the following actions should you
take?
A. You should install a larger fan near the hard drive to cool it.
B. You should clean the drive with compressed air and continue to use it.
C. You should remove and replace the drive again.
D. You should apply more thermal compound and reseat the drive.

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Answer: C
Explanation:
The above scenario indicates that the hard drive being replaced is corrupt and damaged.
Therefore, the drive must be removed and replaced again.
QUESTION NO: 22
You want to purchase the hot pluggable hardware for your computer. Which of the
following hardware would you purchase? (Select all that apply).
A. eSATA
B. Express Card/54
C. PS/2 peripherals
D. MIDI devices
E. NIC
F. USB
Answer: A, B, F
Explanation:
The hot pluggable hardware that you can purchase for computer is eSATA, Express
Card/54, and USB. External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment or eSATA is an
external interface for SATA hard drive, Express Card/54, and USB is designed to allow
users to install and remove modules at any time, without having to switch off their
systems.
QUESTION NO: 23
You are employed as the technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network
instruction from the CIO to store information regarding the accounts on one of the
workstations. You thus need to determine the registry keys that will store this
information.
What should you do?
A. All account information will be stored in HKEY_USERS.

B. All account information will be stored in HKEY_ CURRENT_USER.
C. All account information will be stored in HKEY_LOCAL MACHINE.
D. All account information will be stored in HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG.

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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
testking.com. A junior technicians installed new hardware using the hardware CD.
A TestKing.com user named Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to report some
problems that prevents her from carrying out her duties. She states that the system
crashed and that there was a loss of performance.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to disable the new hardware in Device Manager.
B. Your best option would be to download and install the updated drivers for the device.
C. Your best option would be to installing the device to a different port.
D. Your best option would be to contact the vendor for an RMA.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
booting up your computer when it displays MISSING NTLDR.
What should you do?
A. Your first step should be to remove all incompatible hardware.

B. Your first step should be to disable plug and play in the BIOS.
C. Your first step should be to install Windows Updates.
D. Your first step should be to clear any removable disks from all drives then the
computer should be restarted.
Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 26
in the process of troubleshooting a problem. You want to limit the number of
programs on startup.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of Task scheduler.

B. Your best option would be to make use of Event Viewer.
C. Your best option would be to make use of Device Manager.
D. Your best option would be to make use of Configuration Utility.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
the day a junior technician approaches you to identify what can be described as
"identifying the underlying reason for the problem that occurred with the intention
of stopping similar problems from occurring in the future"
What should you inform the junior technician?
A. The statement describes problem analysis.

B. The statement describes issue prevention.
C. The statement describes root cause analysis.
D. The statement describes efficiency tracking.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28

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Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to reports that their department is missing
Windows desktop icons and that the My Documents folder is empty.
What could be a possible cause for the error?
A. The error occurred since a user saved the files to another location.
B. The error occurred because the local user profile is corrupt.
C. The error occurred since a user unintentionally deleted the files.
D. The error occurred because a user selected an alternate hardware profile.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
Amy Walsh logs a complaint stating that her workstation does not completely boot
and continues to reboot.
A. You need to ask Amy Walsh is new software updates was executed.
B. You need to ask Amy Walsh to check whether the power cable on the monitor loose.
C. You need to ask Amy Walsh whether the monitor was replaced.
D. You need to ask Amy Walsh to check whether the power button is stuck.
E. You need to ask Amy Walsh whether new hardware was recently installed.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO: 30

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testking.com. During the course of the day a TestKing.com user named Amy Walsh
contacted the Help desk to request that the device drivers for the modem on a
Microsoft Windows XP system be updated. A technician is dispatched with the
appropriate updated drivers but is unable to install the drivers.
Why?
A. A possible reason could be that the modem is not recognized in Device Manager.
B. A possible reason could be that the high encryption package is not installed.
C. A possible reason could be that the account does not have the necessary permission to
install drivers.
D. A possible reason could be that the modem is not operating properly.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
testking.com. Whilst upgrading the wireless network router you discover that a user
is running a program that is not successfully connected to the network. You check
and confirm that the user have internet connectivity. Management wants you to
resolve this problem with the program.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to have the program run as a local administrator.
B. Your best option would be to have an exception added to the firewall for the program.
C. Your best option would be to check for any updates to the program.
D. Your best option would be to check the Hardware Compatibility List in order to
determine whether the program is incompatible with the OS.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 32

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single Active Directory domain named testking.com. During routine monitoring you
discover that a fan on a power supply of one of the workstations is working.
What should you do?
A. You should consider having the voltage powering of the fan verified.
B. You should consider having the entire power supply replaced.
C. You should consider having the fan replaced.
D. You should consider using the power supply until it fails.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
testking.com. A user logs a call stating that she hears a clock ticking sound that is
coming from her system. You need to determine the reason for the sound being
emitted.
A. The sound indicates a system clock feature.

B. The sound indicates a failed fan.
C. The sound indicates a failing hard drive.
D. The sound indicates an under powered fan.
Answer: C
Section 3: Given a scenario, determine the troubleshooting

methods and tools for printers (17 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1

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Some of your team members complained that they are unable to print their
documents. To troubleshoot the problem, you checked the printer's connections.
The connections were fine and the printer was online. Then you opened the print
queue and discovered some 50 print jobs. Which of the following tasks should you
perform to fix the problem?
A. Use Printer Troubleshooting utility to diagnose the problem

B. Stop and start the print spooler service again.
C. Delete and install the printer again.
D. Delete and reinstall the Windows.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To resolve the problem, you must stop and restart the print spooler service. Sometimes
the print jobs get stuck in the printer queue and restarting the printer spooler can clear the
spooler.
There is no Printer Troubleshooting utility and deleting and reinstalling the printer or the
Windows is not required.
QUESTION NO: 2
The project manager of your team wants you to configure the printer in such a way
that his print jobs are always first in the print queue. Which of the following options
would you choose to accomplish this?
A. You cannot make such a configuration.

B. Set the priority of the project manager's print jobs to 1 in the printer's properties and
everyone else's priority to 99 in the printer's properties
C. Set the priority of the project manager's print jobs to 99 and everyone else's priority to
1 in the printer's properties.
D. By deleting printers and reinstalling the printers on user's computers and make sure
you install the printer of the project manager first.
Answer: C
Explanation:
You set the priority of print jobs for users by giving a higher priority number to the user
who needs jobs to be printed on priority and low priority number of other users. A higher
priority number means high priority.

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QUESTION NO: 3
You want to speed up the printing for your users. Which of the following options
would you set to accomplish this?
A. Print Spooled Documents First

B. Keep Printed Documents
C. Separator Page
D. Print Directly to the Printer
Answer: A
Explanation:
To speed up the printing for your users, you need to set the Print Spooled Documents
First. This setting will allow the smaller jobs to print while the big job is spooling. The
big job won't print until it has spooled. Once the big job is spooled, it will not take much
time to complete the print job. Keeping printed documents does not affect printing speed.
Separator pages slow down printing because it will print a cover sheet for each print job.
QUESTION NO: 4
As a computer technician of your company, an employee has approached you with a
problem of poor quality printouts from his laser printer. To resolve the problem
you discussed the problem with the employee in detail and reviewed some printouts.
Which of the following actions should you take next to troubleshoot the problem?
A. You should clean the toner cartridge.

B. You should replace the paper being used.
C. You should replace the fuser.
D. You should print a test page.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The next action that you should take in this scenario is to print a Test Page to check that
the printer can print the text and the graphics correctly. The test page also displays extra
information about the printer such as the driver software version which can be used to
troubleshoot problems.

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QUESTION NO: 5
The users of the shared network printer reported that they are unable to print their
print jobs. To resolve the problem you checked the printer and found it online and
printing the configuration page. Which of the following can be cause of the
problem? (Select all that apply).
A. The improper functioning of QoS for printing over the LAN.

B. The cartridge of the printer needs replacement.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The IP address of the printer has changed.
E. New driver for the printer is released and need to be installed.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
The possible cause of the problem in this case is that either a job in error status is at the
top of the print queue or the IP address of the printer has changed. Sometimes, certain
print codes in the file that is printing can confuse the print job and the job gets stuck in
the print queue. The printer would not start printing again till that print job is removed
from the queue. Sometime if the IP address of the printer is changed you cannot print. To
find this problem you can ping the printer from your computer.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following options would you choose to find the port that your printer is
currently using?
A. Check the print queue from the system tray

B. Open the Properties window of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Open the Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Check the Properties of the port that the printer is using from the Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
To find the port that your printer is currently using, you need to open the properties of the
printer from the Printer's Control Panel

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QUESTION NO: 7
In order to print over a network, which of the below mentioned ports are valid?
(Select all that apply)
A. USB 001
B. \\computername\sharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
\\computername\sharename is a net command that manages network print jobs and
IP_ip_address is a static IP address that is configured on a network printer so that it can
be seen on the network by a computer. This address can be verified from printer's
configuration.
QUESTION NO: 8
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a complaint from a user
stating that he is not able to print to their local printer.
What should you do?
A. You should ask him if they removed and replaced the printer drivers before.
B. You should ask him if you can redirect his workstation to a network printer until a
technician is able to resolve the error.
C. You should inform him that you will log the complaint and a technician will be sent as
soon as one is available.
D. You should instruct him to select Start and type CMD in the run line.
Thereafter he should type print TESTKING-PR01 in the box as soon as the black
window opens.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 9
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You discover that one of the
laser jet printer in your department is jammed. To ensure productivity you need to
make sure that the printer is operational as soon as possible. To accomplish this
task you need to be aware of the safety procedures of TestKing.com prior to
repairing the printer.
What should you take cognizance of?
A. You should be aware that the print fuser will be hot.

B. You should be aware that the ink carriage might move.
C. You should be aware that the laser will be hot.
D. You should be aware that the print spooler is able to catch loose clothing.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
you receive an instruction from management to identify the components that are
included in a laser printer maintenance kit.
A. The fuser is included in the maintenance kit.

B. The duplexer is included in the maintenance kit.
C. The transfer roller is included in the maintenance kit.
D. The toner is included in the maintenance kit.
E. The paper pickup rollers are included in the maintenance kit.
F. The image drum is included in the maintenance kit.
Answer: A, C, E

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QUESTION NO: 11
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You are responsible for
managing a workstation named TESTKING-WS01 that is configured Windows XP.
You decide to delete a print job that is in the queue.
What should you do?
A. The best way to delete a print job is to follow the subsequent steps:
Start > Settings > Printers and Faxes > Highlight the printer in question via a single click
> Hit the Delete key and click OK
B. The best way to delete a print job is to follow the subsequent steps:
Start > Settings > Printers and Faxes > Highlight the print job(s) in question > Hit the
control key once To initialize the operation > Hit the Delete key and click OK
C. The best way to delete a print job is to follow the subsequent steps:
Start > Settings > Printers and Faxes > Open the printer queue box > Highlight the print
job(s) in Question > Hit the Delete key and click OK
D. The best way to delete a print job is to follow the subsequent steps:
Start > Settings > Printers and Faxes > Highlight the print job(s) in question > Hit the
Delete key and click OK
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You need to determine
whether a printer named TESTKING-PR01 is on the company network.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of ipconfig.

B. Your best option would be to make use of ping.
C. Your best option would be to make use of telnet.
D. Your best option would be to make use of msconfig.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 13
testking.com. A user calls the helpdesk inquiring the purpose of the Advanced Tab
under the Printer Properties.
What should you inform the user? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Advanced Tab is used to delete ports.

B. The Advanced Tab is used to indicate a separator page.
C. The Advanced Tab is used to pause printing
D. The Advanced Tab is used to spool print jobs as well as to start the print jobs
immediately.
E. The Advanced Tab is used to set the printing defaults.
F. The Advanced Tab is used to print a test page.
Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION NO: 14
testking.com. There are both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at
TestKing.com.
You receive a complaint from a user named Mia Hamm stating that she is unable to
print to their color network printer named TESTKING-PR01. Prior to going on
vacation she was able to print on TESTKING-PR01 however, after returning to
work she is only able to print to the black and white printer named
TESTKING-PR02. She also informs you that her colleagues are able to print to
TESTKING-PR01. You thus need to identify the reason the user is experiencing this
problem.
A. The problem is occurred as the permissions of Mia Hamm have changed and only
administrators are allowed to make use of TESTKING-PR01.

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B. The problem is occurred since the address of the printer has changed and she has to
remap their printer.
C. The problem is occurred as the DHCP service has to be restarted on her workstation.
D. The problem is occurred as the print spooler service has to be restarted on the client
computer.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
from the CIO to ensure that two new users are able to print to a USB printer that is
locally connected. You need to identify the fastest way to accomplish this task.
What should you do?
A. You should consider having a local print queue setup.

B. You should consider sharing out the printer from the attached computer.
C. You should consider acquiring an external Ethernet print card.
D. You should consider relocating the computer.
Thereafter you need to attach it to the printer.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
TestKing.com. A user named Rory Allen logs a complaint that their network printer
named TESTKING-PR01 is continuously printing and had tried to power cycle
TESTKING-PR01.
What should you do?
A. You should inform Rory Allen to access the print queue pause the printing jobs.
B. You should inform Rory Allen to buy a new USB cable.

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C. You should inform Rory Allen to restart the spooler service.
D. You should inform Rory Allen to reboot the computer.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
TestKing.com. You are in the process of installing a printer in your department.
What is the last step you should execute?
A. You should reboot the computer.

B. You should execute a self-test page.
C. You should cycle the power of the printer.
D. You should print a test page.
Answer: D
Section 4: Given a scenario, explain and interpret common laptop

issues and determine the appropriate basic troubleshooting method
(10 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
When you switched on your laptop this morning, you discovered that the display of
the laptop is not working. Which of the following options would you choose to
troubleshoot the video on your laptop? (Select all that apply)
A. Toggle the video output function key.

B. Try to plug in an external monitor to the laptop.
C. Try to detach the display unit of the monitor and then attach it again.
D. Switch off the laptop and then switch it on again.

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Answer: A, B
Explanation:
If the display of the laptop is not working, then you can try to toggle the video output
function key and plug in an external monitor to the laptop.
Detaching and attaching the display unit is not recommended and switching the system
off and on will not be of any help.
QUESTION NO: 2
When you switched on your laptop this morning the display on the laptop appears
warped and fuzzy. To troubleshoot the problem you plugged in an external monitor
and found the image appearing on it fine. Which of the following can be the cause of
the problem?
A. The video card

B. The LCD display
C. The motherboard
D. The video driver
Answer: B
Explanation:
The display on the laptop appears warped and fuzzy due to some problem with the with
the LCD display
The video card, motherboard or the video driver cannot be the cause of the problem
because the image appeared fine with another monitor.
QUESTION NO: 3
You charged the battery of your laptop last night but when you switched on your
laptop in the morning it did not switch on. Which of the following actions would you
perform first to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Switch on the laptop using the AC adapter.

B. Replace the battery of the laptop and then switch it on.
C. Toggle the battery power switch on the laptop, and then try to power it on.
D. Send the laptop to the service center.

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Answer: A
Explanation:
To troubleshoot the problem, you should first switch on the laptop using the AC adapter
because the battery could have failed. Replacing the battery would be costly. There is no
battery power switch on laptops and there is no need to send the laptop to the service
center before troubleshooting the problem first.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following global states would you computer be in if it is fully
operational?
A. G0
B. G1
C. G2
D. G3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The fully operational global state of a computer is G0. G1 refers to sleep mode, G2 is soft
off, and G3 is mechanical off.
QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following states would you send your Windows XP laptop, if you
click Start > Turn off Computer > Turn Off?
A. G0
B. G1
C. G2
D. G3
Answer: C
Explanation:
If you click Start > Turn off Computer > Turn Off, you would send your laptop to G2
state, which is a soft off and which happens when the operating system powers down a
computer.

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The fully operational global state of a computer is G0. G1 refers to sleep mode, and G3 is
mechanical off.
QUESTION NO: 6
You had to suddenly leave your laptop to go somewhere. When you came back your
computer required to provide the password again. On logging you saw the
programs opened still running. In which of the following states is your laptop?
A. Hibernate
B. Lock
C. Sleep
D. Shut Down
Answer: B
Explanation:
Your laptop is in the Lock state. This state leaves programs running, but locks the
computer and requires the user's password to be entered again before allowing you to
continue with the same session.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following options keeps your laptop in low-power state and allows you
to quickly resume the memory session that is stored in memory?
A. Hibernate
B. Sleep
C. Shut down
D. Lock
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sleep option keeps your laptop in low-power state and allows you to quickly resume
the memory session that is stored in memory.
QUESTION NO: 8

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single Active Directory domain named testking.com. During the course of the day a
user informs you that her notebook keypad is not functioning.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to update the keyboard drivers.

B. Your best option would be to attach an external keyboard.
C. Your best option would be to press ctrl + alt + delete on the keyboard.
D. Your best option would be to re-install the OS.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are
troubleshooting a computer that shuts down after long periods of operation.
What should you first do?
A. You should check if the vents have any blockages.

B. You should check the CPU seating.
C. You should check the Hyperthreading settings.
D. You should check the Ribbon cable seating.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
TestKing.com has employed you as a technician at TestKing.com. You discover that
your laptop is booting put is not showing the laptop display. You then decide to plug
in an external monitor and the screen shows the display. You retry it on the laptop
but experience the same result.
What should you do?
A. Your first step should be to replace the video card inside the laptop.

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B. Your first step should be to ensure that the laptop display is enabled.
C. Your first step should be to replace the LCD inverter.
D. Your first step should be to ensure that the most recent video drivers are installed on
the OS.
Answer: B
Section 5: Given a scenario, integrate common preventative

maintenance techniques (32 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
On your Windows computer, which of the following utilities allows you to take a
back up the files on the hard disks?
A. Disk Management
B. Backup
C. My Computer
D. Data Sources
E. Windows doesn't come with a backup program.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To take a back up the files on the hard disks, you need to use the Backup utility. This
utility is available in all the versions of Windows, but has a different functionality in each
version.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to rearrange the files on your physical hard disk in such a manner that
they occupy contiguous chunks of space. Which of the following utilities will allow
you to do that?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. Windows Explorer
C. Scandisk
D. Windows Backup

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Answer: A
Explanation:
To rearrange the files on your hard disk in such a manner that they occupy contiguous
chunks of space, you need to use Disk Defragmenter.
Windows Explorer allows you to cut, copy, and paste files but does not allow you to
manage the location of the files on the physical hard disk. Scandisk checks the hard disk
for errors and Windows Backup backs up the files.
QUESTION NO: 3
You opened your computer system to upgrade it. However, you found a lot of dust
on the motherboard and electronic connectors on expansion cards. Which of the
following cleaning agent would you use to clean the motherboard and electronic
connectors on expansion cards?
A. Demineralized water
B. Soap and water
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Acetone
E. Alcohol
Answer: C
Explanation:
To clean the motherboard and electronic connectors on expansion cards, you need to use
denatured isopropyl alcohol. It removes oxidation from the connectors and pin contacts
of PCBs. The demineralized water will corrode the connectors, Acetone is too powerful
for circuit boards, and normal alcohol will not be able to clean properly because it is not
a cleaning agent.
QUESTION NO: 4
You want to back up all the selected files and then clear the archive bit. Which of
the following types of backup would allow you to do that?
A. Complete
B. Normal
C. Incremental

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D. Copy
Answer: B
Explanation:
To back up all the selected files and then clear the archive bit, you need to select the
normal backup type. The normal backup clears the archive bit after backing up to let the
system know that the file was backed up.
Although Incremental backup clears the archive bit, it only backs up files the files that
have changed since the last backup. Copy backs up all files but does not clear the archive
bit. There is no such option as Complete backup.
QUESTION NO: 5
For past few days you have been noticing that your hard drive is running slowly. To
troubleshoot the problem, you decided to check how fragmented your hard drive is.
Which of the following tools allow you to do that?
A. Disk Analyzer
B. Disk Cleanup
C. Disk Defragmenter
D. Chkdsk
E. Disk Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
To check how fragmented your hard drive is, you need to use Disk Defragmenter tool.
This tool also allows you to defragment your hard drive after analyzing it.
Disk Cleanup tool allows you to clean your disk by deleting unnecessary files, chkdsk
tool is used to find the bad sectors on the had disk, and Disk Management allows you to
manage disk by allowing you to create and delete partitions besides allowing you to label
them, format them, and mark them.
QUESTION NO: 6
To add another LAN card to your system, you opened your computer and
discovered an excessive amount of dust inside your computer. Which of the
following options would you choose to remove the dust?

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A. Computer vacuum
B. Regular vacuum cleaner.
C. Blowing with mouth.
D. Nothing, dust does not harm computers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To remove the dust, you should use a computer vacuum that sucks up dust without
harming the computer.
A regular vacuum cleaner should not be used because it generates electrostatic discharge
(ESD). Blowing only a compressed air is recommended if necessary otherwise it should
be avoided. Dust must be removed because it can harm the computer components.
QUESTION NO: 7
You are working on a critical project on your Windows XP computer. You want to
take a copy of all the work done in a day so that it is not lost. Which of the following
tools should you use?
A. Backup
B. System Restore
C. Restore Point
D. Emergency Repair Disk
Answer: A
Explanation:
To take a copy of all the work done in a day so that it is not lost, you must use the
Backup utility.
The System Restore and Emergency repair disk will only restore your computer to some
pervious date and you will loose all your latest data. Restore point is only the date that is
used by System Restore to restore back your system.
QUESTION NO: 8

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Yesterday you took a normal backup of your data on your Windows XP computer.
Today after finishing all your work, you want to again take a backup so that the
work you have done today is also backed up. Which of the following types of
backups are the most appropriate types of backup for you? (Select all that apply)
A. Incremental
B. Normal
C. Copy
D. Daily
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The most appropriate types of backups for you in this situation would be both Daily and
Incremental backups. Because the Normal backup is already taken on Sunday, you have a
copy of complete backup. Now you only need to backup files that have changed.
Incremental backup will back up all files that have changed since your last backup. Daily
will back up all files that have changed during that day.
You should not use Copy backup because it does not mark the archive attribute. As a
result, you will not know that you have already backed up certain files in your next
backup. Taking Normal backup again would not be recommended again because it is a
complete backup and takes too much space and time.
QUESTION NO: 9
You are facing a lack of space on your computer. Which of the following utilities
would allow you to delete temporary Internet files and other unneeded files from
your disk?
A. Disk Analyzer
B. Disk Cleanup
D. Chkdsk
E. Disk Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
To delete temporary Internet files and other unneeded files from your disk, you should
use Disk Cleanup utility.

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Disk Defragmenter can defragment the drive, which will increase the performance of the
drive but will not delete unwanted files. There is no Disk Analyzer tool and Chkdsk can
only check bad sectors and other problems on the disk. Disk Management allows you to
manage disk by allowing you to create and delete partitions besides allowing you to label
them, format them, and mark them.
QUESTION NO: 10
Due to sudden electricity failure, you computer was shut down abruptly. You now
doubt physical errors on disk. Which of the following utilities would allow you to
scan the hard drive of your computer for physical errors?
A. Disk Analyzer
B. Disk Cleanup
D. Chkdsk
E. Disk Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
To scan the hard drive of your computer for physical errors, you need to use Chkdsk. The
chkdsk starts automatically when computer shuts down abruptly.
Disk Cleanup is used to remove temporary Internet files and other unneeded files from
your disk. Disk Defragmenter can defragment the drive, which will increase the
performance of the drive but will not delete unwanted files. There is no Disk Analyzer
tool Disk Management allows you to manage disk by allowing you to create and delete
partitions besides allowing you to label them, format them, and mark them.
QUESTION NO: 11
You have scheduled the backup of the My Documents folder as a normal backup at
the beginning of every month and incremental backups every Friday evening. On
Wednesday, you wanted to back up a subfolder under My Documents folder
without affecting the scheduled backup routine. Which option should you choose?
A. Normal
B. Incremental
C. Daily

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D. Copy
E. Deferential
Answer: D
Explanation:
To back up a subfolder under My Documents folder without affecting the scheduled
backup routine, you should use the copy backup because it does not clear the archive bit.
This will keep your backup routine untouched.
A normal backup, and incremental backup will clear the archive bit after back up. A daily
backup and Deferential backup will only back up files you modified that day and you
may not be able to take the backup of the entire subfolder.
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following types of backups clear the archive bit after backing up the
selected files and folders? (Select all that apply.)
A. Normal
B. Copy
C. Incremental
D. Differential
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
The types of backups that clear the archive bit after backing up the selected files and
folders are Normal and incremental backups. Copy and differential backups do not clear
the archive bit.
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following options would you choose to clean the display unit of your
laptop?
A. A dry cloth
B. A Wet Cloth
C. A Glass cleaner
D. An Abrasive cleaning powder

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E. A LCD cleaner
Answer: E
Explanation:
To clean the display unit of your laptop, you must use a LCD cleaner. This is because the
LCD video display of Laptop can scratch easily and to clean it, you should use the
cleaner that is specially designed for LCD screens.
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following types of backup allows you to take a complete back up all the
files you want, without clearing the archive bit?
A. Normal
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Copy
Answer: D
Explanation:
A copy will back up allows you to take a complete back up of all the files you want
without clearing the archive bit.
The differential backup does not clear the archive bit but backups only the files that have
changed since the last backup.
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following devices protect your computer from damage if there is a
sudden power surge? (Select all that apply.)
A. UPS
B. Surge protector
C. Power strip
D. Extension cord
Answer: A, B

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Explanation:
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) and the surge protector both protects your
computer from damage if there is a sudden power surge. This is because they contain
fuses that blow in the event of a power surge. This prevents damage to computer
components.
Power strips cannot be used because they do not have a fuse. Extension cords cannot help
in diffusing a power spike.
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following agents can you use to clean the outside of a computer case?
A. Demineralized water
B. Soap and water
C. Denatured alcohol
D. Acetone
Answer: B
Explanation:
The outside of a computer case should be cleaned with mild soap and water on a damp
cloth. Rest of the other options should not be used.
QUESTION NO: 17
On your Windows Vista computer, you want to keep a copy of the data of only the
My Documents folder. Which of the following tools should you use?
A. File Copy
B. My Documents Archive
C. Backup
D. System Restore
Answer: C
Explanation:
To keep a copy of the data of only the My Documents folder, you should use the Backup
tool because it allows you to backup only the desired files and folders.

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The System Restore tool cannot be used because it is used to create restore points that
creates the copy of the entire system. There are no File Copy and My Documents
Archive tools.
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following cleaning methods would you use to clean the electrical
contacts on your video card?
A. Cloth and water

B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. A pencil eraser
D. Your fingers
E. Soap and water
Answer: B
Explanation:
To clean the electrical contacts on your video card, you should use denatured isopropyl
alcohol and a cotton swab.
Soap and Water should never be used on electrical components, a pencil eraser can leave
traces of acids behind, and your fingers can damage the contacts.
QUESTION NO: 19
While installing OS on the new computer of the customer, you noticed a second
partition on the primary hard drive. When you tried to access the partition, you
found that the partition is neither assigned a drive letter nor it is accessible from
Windows. Which of the following statements best explains the second partition?
A. The second partition is created by the drive manufacturer to reserve the space for
firmware.
B. The second partition is the space set aside by Windows to be used for virtual memory
swap.
C. The second partition is created by a potentially dangerous virus that has been
downloaded onto the system.
D. The second partition is the recovery partition put by the manufacturer.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The second partition is the recovery partition put by the manufacturer and how it is
achieved is proprietary. Although the creation is based on slipstreaming technology the
exact way each manufacturer achieves it is totally different and unique.
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following is needed to perform an ASR restore in Windows XP?
A. Operating system CD
B. Recovery console
C. Vendor recovery CD
D. ERD disk
Answer: A
Explanation:
To perform an ASR restore in Windows XP, you need Operating system CD and the
recovery floppy disk that you have created. To perform Automated System restore you
need to boot the computer with the OS CD and then as soon as you see the message:
"Press F2 to run Automated System Recovery (ASR) ..." at the bottom of the screen,
press F2. The recovery process will start.
QUESTION NO: 21
testking.com. During routine monitoring you discover that the laptop is not cooling
properly. You check and discover excessive dust in the vents.
What should you do?
A. Your best options would be to install ceiling fans in the room.

B. Your best options would be to clean the vents every so often by using a small vacuum
cleaner.
C. Your best options would be to make use of a moist rag to clean the vents monthly.
D. Your best options would be to spray the vents directly with compressed air.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 22
You work as a technician at TestKing.com. You just completed the replacement of a
clients failed keyboard that was packed of debris. You inform the client that the
area around the computer needs to be kept clean at all times.
What should you do next?
E. You should make a note of the issue as well as your findings, the actions that was
taken and the outcome.
F. You should have a routine follow up with the client to ensure that the computer area is
clean.
G. You should let another technician peruse your findings to ensure that it is correct.
H. You should report your findings to the superiors of the client.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
to clean the inside of a desktop computer with a can of compressed air. To
accomplish this task you need to determine the appropriate techniques that need to
be followed.
What should you do?
A. Your first step should be to unplug the power cable.

Then the cover should be removed.
Thereafter the can should be held upright in order for you to spray.
B. Your first step should be to unplug the power cable.
Then the cover and the components can be removed.
Thereafter you should hold the can upside down and spray.
C. Your first step should be to leave the unit powered up in order to detect if errors occur
whilst cleaning.
D. Your first step should be to unplug the power cable.

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Then you need to remove all components inside the casing.
Thereafter the components should be sprayed individually.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
shipping a notebook computer to another branch office. You need to ensure that the
computer is not damaged during transit.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to remove the PC card adapters.

B. Your best option would be to remove the LCD.
C. Your best option would be to remove the DVD.ROM drive.
D. Your best option would be to remove the Backlight.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
testking.com. During routine monitoring you detect that a CRT monitor displays
patches of distortion whilst being used. You receive an instruction from the CIO to
resolve this problem as soon as possible.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to power cycle the computer.

B. Your best option would be to degauss the monitor.
C. Your best option would be to replace the display adaptor.
D. Your best option would be to reload the driver for the monitor.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 26
the course of the day a user contacts the Help desk to report that her workstation is
extremely slow. She rebooted the workstation numerous times but the same
problem still persists. She also informs you that the hard drive light stays on. You
need to improve the performance of the hard drive.
A. You should consider using the defragment utility to enhance the performance.
B. You should consider emptying the recycle bin and deleting old e-mail messages to
enhance the performance.
C. You should consider using the checkdisk utility to enhance the performance.
D. You should consider using the drive compression utility to enhance the performance.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO: 27
testking.com. You need to write a report to management identifying the best
manner in which to eliminate the theft of monitors and laptops.
A. You should inform management that Pad locks will accomplish the task.
B. You should inform management that Logical Token will accomplish the task.
C. You should inform management that Cable locks will accomplish the task.
D. You should inform management that RSA keys will accomplish the task.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 28
process of informing all TestKing.com users how they are able to increase the life
span of their computer hardware.
A. This can be accomplished by cleaning out the dust with compressed air on a routine
basis.
B. This can be accomplished by defragmenting the hard drive on a routine basis.
C. This can be accomplished by degaussing the display as well as the drives on a routine
basis.
D. This can be accomplished by cleaning out the dirt with a damp rag on a routine basis.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You are in the process of fixing a
workstation when you discover a wire with insulation damage. You notice that the
damage was caused by friction against the cooling fan.
What should you do?

While working inside of a desktop computer, a technician finds a wire with insulation
damage from rubbing up against a cooling fan. Which of the following should be used to
repair the wire?
A. You should consider repairing the wire with duct tape.

B. You should consider repairing the wire with electrical tape.
C. You should consider repairing the wire with masking tape.
D. You should consider repairing the wire with wire nut.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 30
receive an instruction from management to upgrade the hardware on a computer
named TESTKING-SR01. You thus need to determine your first step that you
should execute prior to upgrading the hardware.
What should you do?
A. You should consider cleaning the computer components with an approved cleaning
solution.
B. You should check the HCL.
C. You should consider archiving the old drivers.
D. You should consider execute a disk defrag.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Your best option would be to check the Hardware Compatibility List.
QUESTION NO: 31
testking.com. You receive an instruction to install a touch screen monitor. You need
ensure that the display operates optimally after the installation.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished by setting the monitor resolution to the highest it can
display.
B. This can be accomplished by degaussing the monitor.
C. This can be accomplished by calibrating the monitor.
D. This can be accomplished by setting the refresh rate to the lowest the monitor can
display.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 32
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A user reports a
malfunction of the system. You inquire if any modifications were recently done on
the system. You then decide to execute a full diagnostic of the system.
What should your first step be?
A. Your first step should be to boot into Safe Mode.

B. Your first step should be to run a backup routine.
C. Your first step should be to run a power supply test.
D. Your first step should be to apply the most recent service pack.
Answer: B
Topic 3: Operating Systems and Software (118 Questions)
Section 1: Compare and contrast the different Windows Operating

Systems and their features (45 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following options specify the maximum length of a filename in
Windows 2000?
A. 8 characters plus a 3-character extension

B. 12 characters
C. 64 characters
D. 255 characters
E. Unlimited
Answer: D
Explanation:
The maximum length of a filename in Windows 2000 is 255 characters. The maximum
length of a filename in DOS was 8 characters plus a 3-character file extension.

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QUESTION NO: 2
The graphical interface used by Windows Vista is __________________.
A. Start
B. Aero
C. KDE
D. GNOME
Answer: B
Explanation:
The graphical interface used by Windows Vista is Aero.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following options would allow you to shut down a Windows 2000
computer?
A. Execute the Shut Down command at a command prompt.

B. Switch off and unplug the computer.
C. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del.
D. Click Start->Shut Down and then select Shut Down option from the Shut Down
Windows dialog box that appears.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To shut down a Windows 2000 computer, you need to click Start->Shut Down and then
select Shut Down option from the Shut Down Windows dialog box that appears.
QUESTION NO: 4
At which of the following location in a Windows XP computer, the system clock is
located on the Windows Desktop?
A. The Taskbar
B. The Start menu
C. The My Computer icon

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D. The systray
E. The status bar
Answer: D
Explanation:
The system clock is located on the systray on your your Windows XP Desktop. The
systray appears at the bottom right corner of the desktop.
QUESTION NO: 5
On your Windows 2000 computer, you want to edit the system Registry. Which of
the following commands allows you to do that? (Select all that apply.)
A. regedt
B. regedit
C. regedt32
D. regedit32
E. Edit
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The two commands that you can use to edit the system registry in a Windows 2000 (or
Windows XP/Vista) computer are regedit or regedt32 (no i ).
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following tool allows you to check that your current hardware can run
Windows Vista or not?
A. User State Migration Tool

B. Windows Vista Upgrade Advisor
C. Windows Upgrade Tool
D. Windows Vista Appraisal Instrument
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Windows Vista Upgrade Advisor tool allows you to check that your current hardware can
run Windows Vista or not. The tool can be easily downloaded and run and is the easiest
way to find out whether the current hardware is compatible with Windows Vista or not
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following file in Windows Vista does the same function as ntldr file
does in Windows XP and 2000 computers?
A. ntldr
B. config.sys
C. bootmgr
D. pagefile.sys
E. Autoexec.bat
Answer: C
Explanation:
The bootmgr file in Windows Vista does the same function as ntldr file does in Windows
XP and 2000 computers. It starts the bootstrap process in Windows Vista operating
system.
QUESTION NO: 8
On your Windows Vista computer, which of the following services allows you to
improve the desktop search?
A. Directory
B. Catalog
C. Bing
D. Index
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Index Service allows you to improve the desktop search in Windows Vista, XP, and
2000.
QUESTION NO: 9

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Which of the following tools would you use on your Windows 2000 computer to
create restore points?
A. Backup
B. System Restore
C. Emergency Repair tool
D. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
Explanation:
The restore points are only created in Windows Vista and Windows XP computers using
System Restore tool. In Windows 2000 restore points cannot be created. You can only
use backup feature to create backups of your hard drive.
QUESTION NO: 10
For the new sound card that you have just installed into your Windows XP
computer, you want to obtain the latest device driver. Which of the following
locations is best to be visited to obtain the newest driver?
A. Download the driver from the manufacturer's website.

B. Download the driver from the Microsoft's website.
C. Configure Automatic Updates on your computer so that drivers are downloaded
automatically.
D. No need to download. Windows Plug and Play will automatically detect the hardware
and install the latest driver.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To obtain the latest device driver, for your sound card you must always download the
driver from the manufacturer's website.
QUESTION NO: 11
You can create restore points in Windows 2000 by using_______________.
A. Backup
B. System Restore

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C. Restore Point
D. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can create restore points in Windows 2000 by using none of the other alternatives
apply given options. This is because Windows 2000 does not use restore points.
QUESTION NO: 12
Before modifying the boot file on your dual boot system that dual boots between
Windows 2000 and Windows Vista, you want to take a back up of all the Registry
files in your Windows 2000 operating system. Which of the following methods can
you use?
A. Use ASR (Automated System Recovery).

B. Create an ERD (emergency repair disk).
C. Use the regbackup command.
D. Use the backreg command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To take a back up of all the Registry files in your Windows 2000 operating system, you
will have to create an emergency repair disk (ERD) through the Windows Backup
program.
Windows XP and Vista supports Automated System Recovery (ASR but Windows 2000
does not. There are no commands called regbackup and backreg.
QUESTION NO: 13
You want to load the operating system that has built in remote assistance feature on
your computer. Which of the following operating systems can you use?
A. Linux
B. Windows 98
C. Windows 2000
D. Windows XP

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F. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can use the Windows XP operating system because it has a built-in Remote
Assistance application.
QUESTION NO: 14
While installing Windows XP from CD, you came across the product key screen.
You can:
A. Leave the product key field blank and continue with the installation.
B. Not leave the product key blank and must provide it to proceed with the installation.
C. Click on the Retrieve Product Key button to get a new product key from Microsoft.
D. Enter any product key temporarily, and then continue with the installation and then
provide the activation key later.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Windows XP installation requires the product key to complete the installation. There is
no such thing as a Retrieve Product Key button.
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following tools in Windows Vista allows you to check the hard drive
for errors on the computer?
A. Disk Analyzer
B. Disk Cleanup
D. Error Checking
Answer: D
Explanation:

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The Error Checking tool in Windows Vista allows you to check the hard drive for errors
on the computer. The Chkdsk is called Error Checking in Windows Vista.
There is no Disk Analyzer tool. Disk Cleanup deletes unneeded files, and Disk
Defragmenter can defragment files on a hard drive.
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following terms is used to define the capability of an application to
send multiple requests to a processor at one time?
A. Multitasking
B. Multithreading
C. Multioperational
D. Multicore
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ability of a single application to send multiple requests to the processor at one time is
called multithreading.
QUESTION NO: 17
In which of the following types of file systems would you format your hard drive if
you want to have a double boot on your computer with Windows 98 and Windows
Vista and you also want to read all files on the computer from either operating
system?
A. FAT32
B. NTFS
C. CDFS
D. NFS
Answer: A
Explanation:
To have a double boot on your computer with Windows 98 and Windows Vista and to
read all files on the computer from either operating system, you can use only the FAT32
file system. The NTFS file system is not readable by Windows 98.

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QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following options would you choose if you do not want to see the
Taskbar appearing on the screen all the time?
A. Preview
B. Hide
C. Lock
D. Auto-hide
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you do not want to see the Taskbar appearing on the screen all the time, you need to
use the Auto-hide option.
The Lock option will lock the taskbar to one location and the other choices are not valid
options.
QUESTION NO: 19
A user reported that while trying to work on MS Excel on her Windows XP
computer, the MS Excel crashed. What troubleshooting solution would you tell the
user to use first?
A. Reinstall Windows XP.

B. Reinstall MS Excel.
C. Troubleshoot MS Excel Using Dr. Watson
D. Reboot the computer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the above given scenario, the user must reboot her computer because reboot solves
most of the software problems. If the problem does not get solved then the user needs to
reinstall MS Excel.
QUESTION NO: 20

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Which of the following features is not available in Windows XP Home version but
available in Windows XP Professional version?
A. Simple File Sharing

B. Basic Disk Partitions
C. Remote Desktop
D. Joining a domain
Answer: D
Explanation:
The feature that is not available in Windows XP Home version but available in Windows
XP Professional version is joining a domain.
QUESTION NO: 21
The maximum FAT32 volume size recognized by Windows 2000 and XP
is_____________
A. Up to 16GB
B. Up to 32GB
C. Up to 1024GB
D. Up to 2048GB
Answer: D
Explanation:
The maximum FAT32 volume size recognized by Windows 2000 and XP is 2TB or Up
to 2048GB. Although Windows XP lets you format only up to 32GB but can read larger
volumes.
QUESTION NO: 22
The advantage of upgrading your 32 bit Windows to a 64-bit version of Windows is:
A. The 64-bit version of Windows supports greater number of dynamic disks or disks
larger than 1 TB.
B. The 64-bit version of Windows supports multiple applications running in 16-bit
compatibility.
C.

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The 64-bit version of Windows supports more than 4GB of RAM and in some cases
supports up to 128GB of RAM.
D. The 64-bit version of Windows supports a new anti-virus protection scheme called
Data Execution Prevention.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The advantage of upgrading your 32 bit Windows to a 64-bit version of Windows is that
They supports more than 4GB of RAM and in some cases supports up to 128GB of
RAM.
QUESTION NO: 23
of the day you receive an instruction from management to configure Windows XP
and Windows 2000 for a dual-boot environment. To accomplish this task you need
to determine the appropriate file system that should be used to format the drive.
What should you do?
A. You should consider making use of UFS.

B. You should consider making use of NTFS.
C. You should consider making use of NFS.
D. You should consider making use of FAT.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
you receive an instruction from management to identify the RAM limitations
pertaining to a Vista 32-bit operating system.

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A. A Vista 32-bit operating system has a 128GB RAM limitatation.
B. A Vista 32-bit operating system has a 8GB RAM limitatation.
C. A Vista 32-bit operating system has a 4GB RAM limitatation.
D. A Vista 32-bit operating system has a 2GB RAM limitatation.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
the course of the day an intern wants to know which Windows OS system have a
different user folder path.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the intern that Windows XP Media Center Edition has a different
user folder path.
B. You should inform the intern that Windows XP Home has a different user folder path.
C. You should inform the intern that Windows Vista Ultimate has a different user folder
path.
D. You should inform the intern that Windows 2000 Professional has a different user
folder path.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
receive an instruction from management to identify the advantages a 64-bit
processor will have over a 32-bit processor.
A. It will supply you with the use of more powerful video graphics accelerators.
B. It will supply you with access to bigger hard drive partitions.

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C. It will supply you with addressing of memory beyond 4GB.
D. It will supply you with the use of PCIe X16 expansion slots.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
You are employed as the technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network
of the day you receive an instruction from the CIO to configure a workstation for a
user that is disabled. The user is only able to press one key at a time.
What should you do?
A. Your best options would be to enable Encryption Keys.

B. Your best options would be to enable FilterKeys.
C. Your best options would be to enable Sticky Keys.
D. Your best options would be to enable ToggleKeys.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
testking.com. You receive an instruction from management to identify the device
that can be used as a boot device in order to install a new installation of Windows
Vista when it is connected locally.
A. You are able to make use of the USB drive.

B. You are able to make use of the CD.ROM.
C. You are able to make use of the Serial Cable.
D. You are able to make use of the Floppy drive.
E. You are able to make use of the DVD.ROM.

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Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO: 29
you receive an instruction from the CIO to change the current FAT file system into
an NTFS file system without any loss of data.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished using the diskpart utility.

B. This can be accomplished using the format utility.
C. This can be accomplished using the fdisk utility.
D. This can be accomplished using the convert utility.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
of the day you receive an instruction from the CIO ensure that a workstation is able
to record audio using a microphone that is attached to a workstation configured to
run Microsoft Windows XP. To accomplish this you thus need to adjust the input
levels.
Where can you locate the input levels?
A. This can be accomplished going to:

Start>Settings>Control Panel>System>Hardware
B. This can be accomplished going to:
Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Audio
C. This can be accomplished going to:
Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Sounds
D. This can be accomplished going to:
Start>Settings>Control Panel>Speech

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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
of the day you receive an instruction from management to increase the size of the
paging file on a workstation that is configured to run Microsoft Windows XP. You
need to determine where this setting can be located in order to accomplish this task.
What should you do?
A. The setting can be located by selecting:

System Properties>Advanced>Environment Variables
B. The setting can be located by selecting:
System Properties>General
C. The setting can be located by selecting:
System Properties>Advanced>Performance Settings>Advanced
D. The setting can be located by selecting:
System Properties>Advanced>Startup and Recovery Settings
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. At
present TestKing.com makes use of regedit. One of the senior managers wants to
know how the registry can backup prior to any modifications being made.
What should you do?
A. You should inform senior management that it can be accomplished by importing the
registry file.
B. You should inform senior management that it can be accomplished by saving the
registry file.
C.

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You should inform senior management that it can be accomplished by exporting the
registry file.
D. You should inform senior management that it can be accomplished by backing up the
registry file.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
instruction to inform users where a programs executable file can be typed in and
launched from.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that it can be accomplished from the Administrator tools in
the control panel.
B. You should inform them that it can be accomplished from the system configuration
utility.
C. You should inform them that it can be accomplished from the start command window.
D. You should inform them that it can be accomplished from the MMC snap-in.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
testking.com. All computers are configured to run in a Windows 2000 environment.
You receive an urgent request from management to forward them the computer
name of one of the users.
What should you do?
A. This can be achieved by following the subsequent steps:

Control Panel > System Applet > Properties > Computer Name Tab
B. This can be achieved by following the subsequent steps:

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Control Panel > System Applet > Properties > Advanced Tab
C. This can be achieved by following the subsequent steps:
Right click on My Computer > Properties > Computer Name Tab
D. This can be achieved by following the subsequent steps:
Right click on My Computer > Properties > Network Identification Tab
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
process of explaining to the new interns what the Windows Experience Index is used
for.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that it is used to determine the performance value of the
system components.
B. You should inform them that it is used to determine the speed as well as the available
bandwidth of Internet connections.
C. You should inform them that it is used to determine the hard disk storage space that is
left.
D. You should inform them that it is used to determine the reliability as well as the speed
of search indexing.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 36
testking.com. Users in the marketing department logs a complaint stating that
screen appears informing them that the site is blocked by a filter as soon as they
attempt to pull down video clips from a website. TestKing.com has recently
introduced a new web filtering application that only permits a 120 minute quota on
streaming media. A message also appears permitting the user to click to proceed.

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A. You should inform them to read the screen and follow the instructions.
B. You should inform them that videos makes use of huge amount of bandwidth and
management decided to limit all users as to what can be downloaded and watched.
Then inform the user to speak to their superior.
C. You should inform them that bandwidth usage has become a problem in the
organization.
Inform them that a new application was implemented to assist in managing and
improving the network.
Then inform them to select proceed on the message and the video will appear.
D. You should ask them the name of the website they want to download the videos from
as well as whether it is work related.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
testking.com. You receive an instruction from the CIO to make sure that all
malware and viruses are removed during the disinfection process. You thus need to
determine the appropriate Windows features you need to disable to accomplish this.
What should you do?
A. Your best choice would be to disable System Restore.

B. Your best choice would be to disable Security Center.
C. Your best choice would be to disable Machine Debug Manager.
D. Your best choice would be to disable Hardware Profile.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 38

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receive an instruction from management to identify the command that will
reconnect a network drive as F: automatically after rebooting in Windows XP.
A. This can be accomplished running the net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName

/persistent:NO command.
B. This can be accomplished running the net use \\ComputerName\ShareName
/persistent:YES :F command.
C. This can be accomplished running the net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName
/persistent:YES command.
D. This can be accomplished running the net use \\ComputerName\ShareName
/persistent:NO :F command.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
management to convert a number of mobile computers from the French language to
the English languages.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to use the subsequent path:

Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Regional Options> Customize
B. Your best option would be to use the subsequent path:
Control Panel> Accessibility Options> General
C. Your best option would be to use the subsequent path:
Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Languages> Details
D. Your best option would be to use the subsequent path:
Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Regional Options
Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 40
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You just completed the
installation of a free antivirus solution. You detect that Windows report that system
is currently not protected by any antivirus software.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to have the antivirus logging disabled in the Event Viewer.
B. Your best option would be to have the Antivirus definitions updated.
C. Your best option would be to have the antivirus protection notification disabled within
the Security Center.
D. Your best option would be to have the Microsoft Malicious Software removal tool
installed.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
testking.com. You are in the process of explaining to the interns in your department
the purpose of a System Restore.
A. It permits the OS to be rolled back to a previous point in time.

B. It permits the OS to allocate dates in order for files to be backed up.
C. It permits you to roll back all information to a previous point in time.
D. It permits the OS to be backed up with protection against any viruses.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 42

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testking.com. You are in the process of explaining to the interns in your department
what will happen when Windows XP is started in Safe Mode.
A. It will result in Windows XP starting basic networking in order to permit driver

updates from the Internet.
B. It will result in Windows stop the successful boot and logon from updating Last
Known Good Configuration.
C. It will result in Windows XP using the least amount of driver sets and services to start
the GUI.
D. It will result in Windows not being able to save any changes to the files whilst in Safe
Mode.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO: 43
testking.com. A user calls in to inquire about a bluescreen message that appears on
her monitor.
What should you tell her?
A. You should inform her that the message helps you to determine problems that are
based on the error code.
B. You should inform her that it is another name for a stop error.
C. You should inform her that it shows missing data and the OS needs to be updated in
order to retrieve it.
D. You should inform her that it is quite complex to determine what is wrong without
accessing the Microsoft Knowledge Base and search the specific code.
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 44
testking.com. A TestKing.com employee named Rory Allen is assigned a computer
named TESTKING-WS01 that is configured to run Windows XP. You receive a call
from Rory Allen who wants to change a local computer password on a
TESTKING-WS01.
A. This can be accomplished using the Security Center applet.

B. This can be accomplished using the User Accounts applet.
C. This can be accomplished using the Administrative Tools applet.
D. This can be accomplished using the Accessibility Options applet.
E. This can be accomplished using the System applet.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO: 45
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You receive an inquiry from a
user who wants to know which operating system (OS) makes use of Windows Aero.
A. Windows Aero is a characteristic of WindowsVista Basic.

B. Windows Aero is a characteristic of Windows XPMedia Center.
C. Windows Aero is a characteristic of WindowsVista Ultimate.
D. Windows Aero is a characteristic of Windows XP Home.
Answer: C
Section 2: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper use of user

interfaces (25 Questions)

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following options define a Desktop?
A. The desktop is a surface of the desk where a computer is placed

B. The desktop is a tracking tool that keeps a track of all the data on disk
C. The desktop is a computer component that stores the entire memory of the computer.
D. The desktop is a virtual desk on a computer that contains a number of programs and
utilities that you can run
Answer: D
Explanation:
The desktop is a virtual desk on a computer that contains a number of programs and
utilities that you can run. The Desktop appears in all Windows based operating systems.
It appears as soon as the Windows loads. It contains the Start menu, the Taskbar, and a
number of other icons.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following dialog boxes allow you to change the screensaver on your
computer?
A. Display Properties
B. Taskbar and start Menu Properties
C. Menu Bar Properties
D. Add Remove Programs
E. System Properties
Answer: A
Explanation:
To change the screensaver on your computer, you need to use the Display Properties
dialog box. You can go to the Display Properties dialog box by clicking Start->Settings
Control Panel->Display. Alternatively, you can click anywhere on the desktop and
choose Properties from the menu that appears.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following methods would you use to increase the size of the Taskbar?

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A. Right-click on the taskbar and drag it.
B. Double-clicking the Taskbar and drag it
C. Point the mouse to the top of the Taskbar and when the pointer turns into a
double-headed arrow, drag the task bar.
D. Select the Taskbar and then double-click in the center
Answer: C
Explanation:
To increase the size of the Taskbar, you need to point the mouse to the top of the Taskbar
and when the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, drag the task bar. Remember that
to increase the size of the Taskbar in Windows XP, you need to first unlock it.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following tasks can you perform using the Windows Explorer? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Internet browsing
B. Cut, copy, paste on files
C. File attributes setting
D. Backup and Restore
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
In Windows Explorer You can perform cut, copy, and paste on files and file attributes
setting. Internet browsing can be done in Internet Explorer and Backup and Restore is
done through Control Panel.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following tasks would you perform to start a program, which is neither
available in Programs menu nor on Desktop?
A. Click Start-> Shut Down

B. Click Start-> Run and then type cmd in the Run dialog box
C. Click Start-> Run and then type the name of the program

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D. Click Start-> Run and then type cmd and the name of the program
Answer: C
Explanation:
To start a program, which is neither available in Programs menu nor on Desktop, you
need to click Start-> Run and then type the name of the program. If you are not sure
about the full name of the program then you can browse the program and then click OK
to run the program.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following tasks would you choose to handle a nonresponsive program
that appears to have locked up?
A. Troubleshoot the program by opening Control Panel-> System tool and then choosing
Performance tab to see what process is causing the problem.
B. Add more memory to the program
C. Reboot the computer.
D. End the program by first clicking Ctrl+Alt+Del and then selecting the program from
the Task Manager and then clicking End Task button.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To handle a nonresponsive program that appears to have locked up, you need to end the
program through Task Manager. You need to end the program by clicking Ctrl+Alt+Del
and then selecting the program from the Task Manager and clicking End Task button
QUESTION NO: 7
You have mistakenly deleted an important file while deleting other unnecessary files
from your computer. Which of the following components in Windows operating
system allows you to recover back a deleted file?
A. My Computer
B. Recycle Bin
C. Control Panel
D. Settings panel
E. Event Viewer

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Answer: B
Explanation:
To restore back a deleted file in Windows operating system, you need to use Recycle bin.
All deleted files are placed in the Recycle Bin and the Recycle bin keeps the files till it is
emptied.
QUESTION NO: 8
You want to test the DirectX functionality. Which of the following tools would you
use for the same?
A. Msinfo32
B. Ping
C. Telnet
D. DxDiag
Answer: D
Explanation:
To test the DirectX functionality, you need to use the DxDiag utility (DirectX
Diagnostics).
QUESTION NO: 9
You have brought a new web camera and want to install it into your Windows 2000
computer. However, the Plug and Play does not start. Which of the following
methods would you use now to correctly add the new hardware to the system?
(Select all that apply.)
A. From the command prompt run the software that has came with the web camera.
B. Click Start->Settings->Control Panel and use Add Hardware tool to install the web
camera.
C. You cannot install Web camera because Plug and Play is the only way to install
hardware in Windows 2000.
D. Click on the My Computer icon on the Desktop and then double-click the Control
Panel icon to start the Add Hardware Wizard to install the web camera.

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Answer: B, D
Explanation:
To correctly add the new hardware to the system when Plug and Play does not work, you
can use the Add Hardware Wizard that can be started by clicking
Start->Settings->Control Panel and going to Add Hardware tool or by click on the My
Computer icon on the Desktop and then double-clicking the Control Panel icon to start
the Add Hardware Wizard.
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following utilities allow you to install a new hardware on your
Windows Vista computer? (Select all that apply)
A. Update
B. System
C. Add /Remove Hardware
D. Add Hardware
E. Plug and Play
Answer: D
Explanation:
To install a new hardware on your computer system, you can use Plug and Play that
appears automatically when you plug a new hardware to your system. Sometimes the
Plug and play does not start automatically for a device; in that case you need to use Add
Hardware applet in the Control Panel in Windows Vista. In some earlier versions of
Windows, this same functionality was provided by the Add/Remove Hardware Wizard.
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following files is the virtual memory swap file in Windows Vista?
A. SWAPFILE.SYS
B. PAGEFILE.SYS
C. SWAPPINGFILE.SYS
D. PAGINGFILE.SYS
E. SWAP.SYS

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Answer: B
Explanation:
The virtual memory swap file in Windows Vista is PAGEFILE.SYS.
QUESTION NO: 12
On your Windows 2000 computer having 256MB of RAM, which of the following
can be the minimum recommended size of the swap file?
A. 128MB
B. 256MB
C. 384MB
D. 512MB
E. 1 GB
Answer: C
Explanation:
On your Windows 2000 computer having 256MB of RAM, the minimum recommended
size of the swap file is 384MB. This is because the minimum recommended swap-file
size under Windows 2000 is 1.5 times the amount of physical RAM, which is: 1.5 ×
256MB = 384MB.
QUESTION NO: 13
You are working in MS Word on your computer. Besides some other applications
are also running simultaneously. Suddenly you realized that you cannot proceed
further with your work till you install the new custom application on your computer
that was sent by your client. Which of the following tasks is important before
installing the new application on a computer?
A. You must format the hard drive.

B. You must reinstall Windows.
C. You must close all the applications running on the system.
D. You must open the Install Shield for installation.
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Before installing the new application on a computer it is recommended to close all open
applications first. This prevents the new application to fail if the new application is using
the same file as the opened applications are using.
Formatting the hard drive and reinstalling Windows are not required because the OS is
running fine and Install Shield wizard appears automatically by installation programs if
required, you don't need to open it manually.
QUESTION NO: 14
The right-click menu for an object in Windows that shows a menu of possible
options/actions is called the ___________ menu.
A. Context
B. Conditional
C. Incidental
D. Circumstantial
E. Main
F. Sub
Answer: A
Explanation:
The right-click menu for an object in Windows that shows a menu of possible
options/actions is called the context menu.
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following options would you use to view hidden files in a system?
A. Msconfig
B. Msinfo32
C. Windows Explorer
D. NoHide
E. Task Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
To view hidden files in a system, you need to use the Windows Explorer utility.

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QUESTION NO: 16
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com.
ATestKing.com user named Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to report that she
is experiencing a degraded system performance when she runs a new application on
her workstation. Her workstation is configured to run Windows XP. You need to
identify the interfaces that should be used in order to manage the current
application processes on the workstation of Amy Walsh.
A. Your best option would be to use Task Manager.

B. Your best option would be to use REGEDIT.
C. Your best option would be to use Computer Management.
D. Your best option would be to use Event Viewer.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
testking.com. You are in the process of explaining to the interns how they will be
able to navigate to the Computer Management MMC Plug-in.
A. This can be accomplished by clicking Start and typing in Run.

Thereafter inmsconfig should be typed.
B. This can be accomplished by double clicking the Computer Management icon under
Administrative Tools.
C. This can be accomplished by right clicking My Computer and selecting Manage.
D. This can be accomplished by right clicking the Start Menu and selecting Properties.
Answer: B, C

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QUESTION NO: 18
testking.com. You are in the process of informing the new interns on which
interfaces they will be able to see status light indicators.
A. You should inform that that it can be seen on PS/2 interfaces.

B. You should inform that that it can be seen on NIC interfaces.
C. You should inform that that it can be seen on Parallel interfaces.
D. You should inform that that it can be seen on IEEE 1394 interfaces.
E. You should inform that that it can be seen on Serial interfaces.
F. You should inform that that it can be seen on Modem interfaces.
Answer: B, F
QUESTION NO: 19
testking.com. You are in the process of describing to new interns what Wake on
LAN will do to a workstation if is enabled.
What should you do?
A. It will gather all packets sent to any device on the LAN.

B. It will resume from a low power state as soon as it receives a network packet telling it
to do so.
C. It will send broadcast packets over the LAN to all workstations at the same time.
D. It will send packets to other network devices on the LAN instructing them to enter a
low power state.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20

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instruction from the CIO to view the local drives on a computer named
TESTKING-SR01. You thus need to identify the appropriate place where you will
be able to view the drives.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to use the Control Panel.

B. Your best option would be to use the Task Bar.
C. Your best option would be to use the My Network Places.
D. Your best option would be to use the My Computer.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A TestKing.com
user named Kara Lang contacts you to inquire the purpose of the edit command
line utility.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the utility will open a text based word processor.
B. You should inform her that the utility can be used to change the desktop preferences.
C. You should inform her that the utility will makes modifications to the registry.
D. You should inform her that the utility will make modifications to the boot sequence
order.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 22

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both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. A user logs a
complaint that the Windows XP system fails to boot after she ran a registry cleaning
program.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user to connect the drive as a slave to another workstation in
her department.
Thereafter she should make use of REGEDIT to rectify the issue.
B. You should inform the user to run a System Restore in order to load into an earlier
working condition.
C. You should inform the user to make use of the boot disk in order to run SCANREG
/RESTORE.
D. You should inform the user to boot using Last Known Good Configuration.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 23
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You need to
determine what programs are currently running on a system. You thus need to
identify the correct way to go to the Services MMC Plug-in.
A. You should use the path way:

Click Start>Run and then type in services.msc.
B. You should use the path way:
Right click on the My Computer and select Properties.
C. You should use the path way:
Click Start>Run and then type in regedt32.
D. You should use the path way:
Open Control Panel, open Administrative Tools, and double click on the Services icon.
Answer: A, D

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QUESTION NO: 24
both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You receive an
instruction from the CIO to upgrade the drivers for a network interface card.
What should you do?

Which of the following paths can be used to upgrade the drivers for a network interface
card (NIC)?
A. This can be accomplished using the path below:

Control Panel > Network Connections > Tools > Drivers
B. This can be accomplished using the path below:
Device Manager > Network adapters > Properties > Driver tab
C. This can be accomplished using the path below:
My Network Places > Tools > Drivers > Update Driver
D. This can be accomplished using the path below:
My Computer > Properties > Hardware tab > Windows Update
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. All
servers on the TestKing.com network are configured to run Windows Vista. You
receive an instruction from management to configure multiple monitor displays.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished using the path:

Control Panel>Services
B. This can be accomplished using the path:
Display Settings>Resolution
C. This can be accomplished using the path:
Control Panel>Configuring Desktop

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D. This can be accomplished using the path:
Display Settings>Advanced Settings
Answer: D
Section 3: Explain the process and steps to install and configure

the Windows OS (18 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You want to perform a network installation of Windows 2000 Professional by
creating an image of an existing computer. Which of the following utilizes can you
use to accomplish the desired task?
A. Ghost
B. Sysprep
C. Sysimage
D. RIS
E. WDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
To perform a network installation of Windows 2000 Professional by creating an image of
an existing computer, you need to use the Sysprep utility, which comes with Windows
2000 Professional. Ghost is a third-party utility, RIS only comes with Windows Server
operating systems, and WDS is available in Windows Server 2003.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following tools would you use to configure the Virtual memory?
A. Taskbar
B. System
C. Memory Manager
D. Virtual Configuration
E. Services

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Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual memory can be configured through the settings that are accessed through System
tool in the control panel.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of resources can you configure using Device Manager?
A. Hardware
B. Files and folders
C. Applications
D. Memory
E. Applications
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Device Manager allows you to configure all hardware resources that are available to
Windows.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following partitions is used by an operating system to perform the
bootstrap process?
A. Primary partition
B. Extended partition
C. Active partition
D. Logical partition
Answer: C
Explanation:
To perform the bootstrap process, the Active partition is used. The Active partition must
be a primary partition. A computer can have four primary partitions per hard drive and
therefore all primary partitions cannot be Active.

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QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is the redesigned version of RIS?
A. STIR
B. UAC
C. WDS
D. SIR
E. MMC
Answer: C
Explanation:
RIS or Remote Installation Services were available in Windows before the advent of
Windows Deployment Service (WDS), which is a replacement of RIS and offers the
same functionality as RIS.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following steps would be your first step to install Windows Vista on a
newly purchased computer that has no previously installed operating system?
A. Formatting
B. Partitioning
C. Redirecting
D. Installing the OS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step to install Windows Vista on a newly purchased computer that has no
previously installed operating system would be Partitioning. On the new disk drives you
need to first create partitions and then format those partitions to install an operating
system.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements are true about formatting a hard drive? (Select
all that apply.)

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A. Formatting marks the bad sectors if the hard disk has any.
B. Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles.
C. Formatting split the tracks into the sectors, which are actually the pieces of 512 bytes.
D. Formatting creates a File Allocation Table so that the drive becomes capable of
storing and locating data.
E. Formatting erases all the data.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Explanation:
Formatting arranges the disk in order to prepare the drive so that it is able to manage data
on a storage device. It performs all the listed tasks.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following processes need to be followed after installing a newer version
of Windows to curb software piracy?
A. Certification
B. Confirmation
C. Activation
D. Substantiation
E. Regeneration
Answer: C
Explanation:
After installing a newer version of Windows, you need to follow a process of Activation
to curb software piracy.
QUESTION NO: 9
On your Windows XP computer, you want to find, download, and install Windows
service packs automatically. Which of the following utilities would allow you to do
that?
A. Update Manager
B. Service Pack Manager

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C. Download Manager
D. Windows Update
E. Download Update Manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
Windows Update finds, downloads, and installs Windows service packs automatically.
None of the other options are real utilities.
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is the Ethernet computer networking standard that allows a
"sleeping" computer to turn on by a network message?
A. Sleep timer
B. WEP
C. Wake on LAN
D. WPA
E. WAKE
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Ethernet computer networking standard that allows a "sleeping" computer to turn on
by a network message is Wake on LAN. The message is usually sent to the sleeping
computer by another computer by executing a simple program on the local area network.
QUESTION NO: 11
You want to configure updates for Windows and Microsoft Office on your
computer. Which of the following updates should you use?
A. Windows Updates
B. Microsoft Updates
C. System Updates
D. Automatic Updates

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Answer: B
Explanation:
To configure automatic updates for Windows and Microsoft Office on your computer,
you need to use Windows Update, which extends it service to download updates for other
Microsoft applications also.
The Windows update downloads patches only for Windows operating system and
Automatic Updates allows you to set your PC to automatically download and install
updates using either service. There is no update called System Update
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following steps would you take to set up a new operating system on
your computer using the CD-ROM?
A. Format a partition, install device drivers, and install the operating system.
B. Create a partition, format the partition, and install the operating system.
C. Install the operating system, create a partition, and install device drivers.
D. Install the operating system, install device drivers, and create a partition.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To set up a new operating system on your computer using the CD-ROM, you need to first
create a partition and then format the partition to prepare it to be used by the OS and then
install the operating system. The device driver installation is the part of the OS
installation.
QUESTION NO: 13
in the process of explaining to the new interns in the department where they can
look to gather data pertaining to errors an concerns on a Microsoft Windows XP
workstation.
What should you do?
A. This can be accomplished by right-clicking My Computer and selecting Help and

Support.
B. This can be accomplished by clicking Start and selecting Programs.

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Then Accessories should be selected.
Thereafter System Tools should be selected.
Lastly Help and Support should be selected.
C. This can be accomplished by right-clicking the Taskbar and selecting Help and
Support.
D. This can be accomplished by clicking Start and selecting Help and Support.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are
responsible for a workstation that is configured to run Microsoft Windows XP. You
receive an instruction from management to prevent a program from loading at
startup.
A. This can be accomplished using MSCONFIG.

B. This can be accomplished using Performance Monitor.
C. This can be accomplished using Net stop.
D. This can be accomplished using Event Viewer.
E. This can be accomplished using Registry.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO: 15
management to uninstall Windows XP Service Pack 2.
What should you do?
A. You should consider running the SPUNINST.EXE command line.

B. You should consider running the PROGMAN.EXE command line.

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C. You should consider running the CONVERT.EXE command line.
D. You should consider running the TASKMAN.EXE command line.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
testking.com. You receive a call from a user who inquires about the valid
installation methods for Windows XP.
What should you inform the user? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The user should use the Windows CD installation.

B. The user should use the XCOPY all files from another computer.
C. The user should use the factory recovery partition.
D. The user should use the buy a fully configured hard drive.
E. The user should use the installation from Microsoft.com.
F. The user should use the network installation.
Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION NO: 17
both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You are in the
process of installing new computers into your department. You receive an
instruction from management to ensure that all information is deleted from the
computers before it is recycled.
What should you do?
A. You should consider running a big magnet over the top of the hard drive a number of
times.
B. You should consider removing the hard drive and destroying it.
C.

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You should consider reformatting the hard drive to a clean state using the format
command.
D. You should consider removing the memory and destroying it.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
you receive an instruction from the CIO to execute a Windows installation on a
workstation that has its hard drives connected to a new SATA card.
What should you do?
A. To ensure a successful installation you should consider using the Windows XP

Professional for SATA card support feature.
B. To ensure a successful installation you should consider creating a utilities partition on
the hard disk before installing the operating system.
C. To ensure a successful installation you should consider press F6 when prompted to
load the additional drivers.
D. To ensure a successful installation you should consider disabling the system BIOS in
order for the SATA card to take boot precedence.
Answer: C
Section 4: Explain the basics of boot sequences, methods and

startup utilities (30 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following files is the bootstrap loader of Windows XP?
A. NTLDR
B. BOOT.INI

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C. BOOTSTRAP.EXE
D. NTBOOTDD.SYS
E. NTOSKRNL.EXE
Answer: A
Explanation:
The bootstrap loader of Windows XP is NTLDR file. It first allows full memory
addressing and then starts the file system. Next it reads boot.ini and put up the boot
menu.
NTBOOTDD.SYS is used only when you are using a SCSI boot device. There is no file
called BOOTSTRAP.EXE.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following files is responsible for starting the boot-up process in
Windows XP?
A. NTOSKRNL.EXE
B. CONFIG.SYS
C. AUTOEXEC.BAT
D. NTLDR
E. NTBOOTDD.SYS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The file that is responsible for starting the boot-up process in Windows XP and Windows
Vista is NTLDR. Although, NTOSKRNL.EXE and NTBOOTDD.SYS are also the part
of the boot process but the first file that is responsible for starting the boot process is
NTLDR. The AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS are not boot process files.
QUESTION NO: 3
When you boot Windows in Safe Mode, Windows_________________
A. Does not load AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS files.

B. Does not scan drives during the boot process.
C. Loads only basic files and drivers.

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D. Does not load Registry.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you boot Windows in Safe Mode, Windows loads only basic files and drivers so
that you can find out the configuration errors easily.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following options would you choose to fix a corrupted
NTOSKRNL.EXE file?
A. You will reinstall Windows.

B. You will replace the existing NTOSKRNL.EXE file with a new one.
C. You will point to the backup of the NTOSKRNL.EXE file in the BOOT.INI file.
D. You will first boot the system using the startup disk and then replace the
NTOSKRNL.EXE file from the setup disks or CD.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To fix a corrupted NTOSKRNL.EXE file quickly, you need to first boot the system using
the startup disk and then replace the NTOSKRNL.EXE file from the setup disks or CD.
Reinstalling windows will be a long process to correct the problem.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following types of Windows Vista installation option would you choose
if you want to be personally present at the time of the installation and choose all
options as they appear?
A. Attended
B. Existing
C. Bootstrap
D. Denote
E. Unattended
Answer: A

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Explanation:
If you want to be personally present at the time of the installation and choose all options
as they appear, you need to choose the Attended installation of Windows Vista.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following options would you choose to access the advanced startup
options in Windows Vista and Windows XP?
A. Press spacebar when the Windows logo displays for the first time
B. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del When the Windows logo displays for the first time
C. Press Esc during the first phase of the boot process
D. Press F8 during the first phase of the boot process
E. There are no advanced startup options in Windows Vista and Windows XP.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To access the advanced startup options in Windows Vista and Windows XP you need to
press F8 during the first phase of the boot process.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following advanced startup options would you choose in Windows
2000 to get back to your previously functioning environment after an incorrect
driver installation?
A. Command Prompt Only

B. Safe Mode
C. Step-By-Step Configuration
D. Debugging Mode
E. Last Known Good Configuration
Answer: E
Explanation:

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In Windows 2000 to get back to your previously functioning environment after an
incorrect driver installation, you would choose the Last Known Good Configuration
advanced startup option. This option saves the last functional state of the system when
the system booted perfectly and allows you to restore back the system to the previous
state when some problem occurs and system is unable to boot normally.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following files is the translator between the hardware and the
operating system?
A. NTDETECT.COM
B. NTOSKRNL.EXE
C. NTBOOTDD.SYS
D. HAL.DLL
E. NTLDR
F. AUTOEXEC.BAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
The HAL.DLL or the Hardware Abstraction Layer is responsible for the communication
between the hardware and the operating system.
QUESTION NO: 9
You have a bootable USB device that contains the operating system that you want to
load on your computer system. Which of the following options would you use to set
the boot order so that you will be able to boot from the USB drive first and hard
drive only if there is no bootable USB device attached?
A. NTLDR
B. \WiNDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt
C. BOOT.INI
D. AUTOEXEC.BAT
Answer: E
Explanation:

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To set the boot order so that you will be able to boot from the USB drive first and hard
drive only if there is no bootable USB device attached, you need to modify the BIOS
Settings, which is not given in any of the options.
QUESTION NO: 10
You want to create Restore Points in your Windows XP computer, so that you can
restore your computer to an earlier stage in case of a failure. Which of the following
tools allow you to create restore points in Windows XP?
A. Backup
B. System Restore
C. Restore Point
D. Emergency Repair
Answer: B
Explanation:
To create restore points, you need to use the System Restore tool. Although, the System
Restore tool automatically creates restore points, it also allows you to create restore
points in case you want to.
Backup creates backups of your hard drive. There are no Restore Point or Emergency
Repair tools.
QUESTION NO: 11
After upgrading your computer to Windows 2000, you were not able to print with
your old printer, which was working fine before the upgrade. Which of the
following actions should you take to correct the problem?
A. Purchase a new printer because the old printer is not compatible with Windows 2000.
B. Install the latest printer driver because the printer driver is out-of-date.
C. The printer driver has been corrupted after the upgrade so, uninstall, and then reinstall
the printer using the original driver.
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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The most probable cause of the printer not working is the outdated driver. You should
always ensure that you have the latest drivers installed for any hardware you use because
most problems originate due to wrong drivers. Uninstalling and reinstalling the same
driver is of no use because the original driver is outdated.
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following features of Windows Vista keep a copy of your system
configuration and allow you to roll back to the saved configuration, in case of
configuration error?
A. Restore point
B. Repair point
C. Rollback point
D. Registry point
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Restore Point feature of Windows Vista keeps a copy of your system configuration
and allows you to roll back to the saved configuration, in case of configuration error.
QUESTION NO: 13
You want to create a recovery disk in Windows XP. Which of the following options
would allow you to do that?
A. Automated System Recovery (ASR)

B. RDISK.EXE
C. Enhanced Startup Disk (ESD)
D. Emergency Recovery System (ERS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
To create a recovery disk in Windows XP, you need to use Automated System Recovery
(ASR).

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QUESTION NO: 14
On your dual boot computer system, you want to modify the boot options. Which of
the following files would you modify?
A. ntldr
B. boot.ini
C. ntdetect.com
D. ntbootdd.sys
E. Autoexec.bat
Answer: B
Explanation:
To modify the boot options, you need to use the boot.ini file.
The ntldr file is the first file that loads the bootstrap process. The ntdetect.com file
detects hardware at the time of booting the system and ntbootdd.sys is only called at the
bootstrap process, if you're using a SCSI boot device.
QUESTION NO: 15
What is the name of the virtual memory file in Windows 2000?
A. vmm.sys
B. swapfile.sys
C. pagefile.sys
D. w2kvm.sys
Answer: C
Explanation:
The name of the virtual memory file in Windows 2000 is the pagefile.sys.
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following files would you edit to configure dual-boot computers (?
A. ntldr
B. boot.ini
C. ntdetect.com
D. ntbootdd.sys

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Answer: B
Explanation:
To configure dual-boot computers, you need to edit the boot.ini that is loaded by the ntldr
file that loads the bootstrap process in a system. The boot.ini file is an editable text file
with one or more lines that reference partitions to boot to.
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following Windows XP files is responsible to detect the system
hardware every time you boot your Windows XP computer?
A. ntldr
B. boot.ini
C. ntdetect.com
D. ntbootdd.sys
E. autodetect.com
Answer: C
Explanation:
The ntdetect.com file is responsible to detect the system hardware every time you boot
your Windows XP computer.
The ntldr file is the first file that starts the operating system, boot.ini is loaded as soon as
the ntldr starts the boot process. It contains boot options. The ntbootdd.sys file is called
only if you're using a SCSI boot device. There is no file called autodetect.com.
QUESTION NO: 18
After installing a new video card on your Windows XP computer, you saw the video
appearing garbled and unreadable after you reboot your computer. Which of the
following advanced startup option would allow you to enable a working
environment?
A. Command Prompt Only

B. Safe Mode
C. VGA Mode
D. Debugging Mode

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E. Last Known Good Configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
The VGA mode would allow you to enable a working environment in Windows XP when
you know it is a video problem.
Safe Mode is usually a good choice to detect the problem when you need to load fewer
drivers but in this case you know the problem. The Last Known Good Configuration
option cannot revert back the drivers because the video card is new.
QUESTION NO: 19
The Windows Vista stores operating system boot information in ___________ file.
A. boot.ini
B. BCD
C. MBR
D. GRUB
E. NTLDR
Answer: B
Explanation:
Windows Vista stores operating system boot information in BCD file or Boot
Configuration Data file.
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following tasks would you perform on your newly installed Windows
XP computer to create restore points?
A. To create restore points, you don't have to do anything because Windows XP creates
restore points automatically.
B. To create restore points, you need to first open System Restore applet and then, select
Properties menu item from the Tools menu, and then you need to select the Create
Restore Points Automatically radio button.
C. To create restore points, you need to first open Windows Explorer and then, select
Properties menu item from the Tools menu, and then you need to select the Create
Restore Points Automatically radio button.

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D. You cannot create restore points in Windows XP. The restore points can only be
created in Windows 2000.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To create restore points, you don't have to do anything because Windows XP creates
restore points automatically. However, Windows XP gives you facility to create restore
points if you want. For that you need to use the System Restore utility.
QUESTION NO: 21
While booting your computer, you received an unexpected boot error message that
says OS not found. Which of the following should you check to correct the problem?
A. Check the computer's BIOS settings

B. Check if Plug and Play is enabled on the computer
C. Check if the computer is in Safe Mode
D. Check if the BIOS is current
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the above given situation, you should verify the computer's BIOS settings to make sure
that BIOS lists and recognizes the hard disk. Such error message occurs when the basic
input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk.
QUESTION NO: 22
To install Windows XP on a computer that uses a SATA hard drive which of the
following actions you may have to take to start the installation?
A. Press the F8 Key

B. Press the F3 Key
C. Press the F2 Key
D. Press the F6 Key
Answer: D

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Explanation:
To install Windows XP on a computer that uses a SATA hard drive, you may need to
Press the F6 Key because a new SATA hard drive needs SATA drivers disc during the
Windows Setup process. During the installation, a blue screen with a message at the
bottom appears and prompts you to press F6 if you need to install a third party SCSI or
RAID driver. Pressing F6 will ensure that you don't miss the SATA driver prompt screen
when it has finished loading all the drivers.
QUESTION NO: 23
While booting your computer, you received an unexpected boot error message that
says OS not found. Which of the following should you check to correct the problem?
A. Check the computer's BIOS settings

B. Check if Plug and Play is enabled on the computer
C. Check if the computer is in Safe Mode
D. Check if the BIOS is current
E. The boot order in the BIOS
Answer: E
Explanation:
First check the boot order.
QUESTION NO: 24
testking.com. A TestKing.com user named Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to
determine where she can locate the Administrative Tools folder after Windows XP
was installed on the workstation.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that it can be located in My Computer.

B. You should inform her that it can be located in the Start Menu.
C. You should inform her that it can be located in the Control Panel.
D. You should inform her that it can be located in the Program Files.

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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
testking.com. During routine maintenance you discover that a number of expansion
card slots have open ports. You then inform management that the covers for the
slots need to be reinstalled.
What should your motivation be?
A. You should inform management that it will aid in limiting the electrostatic discharge
(ESD) inside the case.
B. You should inform management that it will aid in limiting the radio frequency
interference (RFI) inside the case.
C. You should inform management that it will aid the boot order in the BIOS
D. You should inform management that it will aid in stopping any buildup of moisture in
the case.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com.
A TestKing.com user named Kara Lang installed a new graphics driver on her
system. Upon restarting the computer she discovers that the display no longer
appears. You need to rectify this error as soon as possible
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to use safe mode.

B. Your best option would be to boot with repair disk.
C. Your best option would be to boot to the recovery console.
D. Your best option would be to use safe mode with command prompt.

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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
testking.com. You receive an instruction to remove programs in Windows XP from
startup.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would to make use of ASR.

B. Your best option would to make use of Task Manager.
C. Your best option would to make use of Computer Management.
D. Your best option would to make use of MSCONFIG.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
informing a client which devices can be classified as a valid boot device.
A. You should identify the RAM.

B. You should identify the Hard disk.
C. You should identify the Tape drive.
D. You should identify the DVD.ROM.
E. You should identify the NIC.
F. You should identify the Sound card.
Answer: B, D, E

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QUESTION NO: 29
desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. During the course of
the day you discover that a system crashed due to an external hard drive
installation. You need to determine the most appropriate startup selection.
A. Your best option would be to start the system in the Active Directory Restore Mode.
B. Your best option would be to start the system in the Debugging Mode.
C. Your best option would be to start the system in Last Known Good Configuration.
D. Your best option would be to start the system in Safe Mode with Command Prompt.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
booting up your computer when it displays MISSING NTLDR.
What should you do?
A. Your first step should be to remove all incompatible hardware.

B. Your first step should be to disable plug and play in the BIOS.
C. Your first step should be to install Windows Updates.
D. Your first step should be to clear any removable disks from all drives then the
computer should be restarted.
Answer: D
Topic 4: Networking (94 Questions)

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Section 1: Summarize the basics of networking fundamentals,
including technologies, devices and protocols (42 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You want to plug a keyboard into a PS/2 port of your computer. Which of the
following style is the PS/2 port?
A. RJ-11
B. DE9
C. DIN 5
D. Mini-DIN 6
Answer: D
Explanation:
A PS/2 port is also referred to as a mini-DIN 6 connector.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to use high speed USB on your computer. At what speed maximum does
your USB 2.0 runs if you upgrade your USB 1.1 to USB 2.0?
A. 1.5 mbps
B. 12 mbps
C. 60 mbps
D. 480 mbps
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hi-Speed USB runs at speeds up to 480Mbps, compared to the 12Mbps full-speed and
1.5Mbps low-speed options available with USB 1.1 (now known simply as USB) The
USB 2.0 spec provides for a maximum speed of 480 megabits per second (Mbps- not
megabytes per second, or MBps).
QUESTION NO: 2

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You have set up a network of 50 computers in your office using the TCP/IP
protocol. You want all the client computers to obtain the IP configuration
automatically. Which of the following server types would you use for this purpose?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. Domain controller
D. IP configuration server
E. Member Server
Answer: B
Explanation:
To allow all the client computers to obtain IP addresses automatically, you need a
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. The DHCP server provides IP
configuration information to hosts computers when they join the network. A Domain
Name System (DNS) server is used to resolves hostnames, a domain controller is used to
provide login authentication, and there is no server called IP configuration server.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following OSI layer is responsible for providing error free, reliable,
and end to end communication and sending an "all clear" signal after making sure
that the data segments are error free?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Transport layer
D. Network layer
E. Data Link Layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
OSI layer that is responsible for providing error free, reliable, end to end communication,
and sending an "all clear" signal after making sure that the data segments are error free is
the Transport layer.
QUESTION NO: 4

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The port 80 is associated with _____________ TCP/IP protocol?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. POP3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The port 80 is associated with HTTP TCP/IP protocol.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following protocol used on Ethernet networks is able to sense the cable
for network traffic and ensures that only one network node is transmitting on the
network wire at any one time and in case of collision it is able to detect the error?
A. Token passing
B. CSMA /CD
C. CSMA /CA
D. Demand priority
E. ISO/OSI
Answer: B
Explanation:
The protocol used on Ethernet networks that is able to sense the cable for network traffic
and ensures that only one network node is transmitting on the network wire at any one
time and in case of collision it is able to detect the error is CSMA /CD (Carrier Sense
Multiple Access with Collision Detection). If a collision is detected, then both nodes
pause to detect and then retransmit the data.
CSMA /CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance) is a transmission
technology that attempts to avoid collisions rather than detect them as in CSMA/CD.
QUESTION NO: 6

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Which of the following options is a standard model for networking protocols that
describe how network protocols should function?
A. OSI
B. ISO
C. CSMA /CA
D. CSMA /CD
E. SSID
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is a standard model for networking
protocols that describe how network protocols should function.
This model is designed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). SSID
is the public name of a wireless network and CSMA /CA (Carrier Sense Multiple
Access/Collision Avoidance) is a transmission technology that attempts to avoid
collisions rather than detect them as in CSMA/CD.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is the central device in a physical star topology, to which all
the machine are connected to?
A. NIC
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Hub
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hub is the central device in a physical star topology, to which all the machine are
connected to. The star topology allows each machine on the network to have a point to
point connection to the central hub. All of the traffic which transverses the network
passes through the central hub that acts as a signal booster or repeater to allow the signal
to travel greater distances.

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QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following network devices use tables to store network addresses and
then use those tables to determine the best destination to transfer packets across
multiple networks?
A. Routers
B. Bridges
C. Hubs
D. Switches
E. NIC
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Routers are the network devices that use routing tables to store network addresses
and then use those tables to determine the best destination path to transfer packets across
multiple networks.
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following network designs do not have a central server to provide
resources and in which users access resources from other workstations?
A. Client-server
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Bus
E. Peer-to-peer
Answer: D
Explanation:
A peer-to-peer network design has no a central server to provide resources and therefore
users access all of the resources from various workstations on which they reside.
QUESTION NO: 10
You are using the star topology in your small office network. Which of the following
statements are not correct about the star topology? (Select all that apply.)

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A. A single failure in cable can affect all the computers on the network.
B. All computers connect to one main centrally located computer.
C. It allows peer to peer coordination.
D. It uses a dual-ring configuration.
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
In the Star Topology there is a central connection point called the hub which is a
computer hub or sometimes just a switch. All the computers in the network are
communicating with one main centrally located computer and therefore there is no peer
to peer coordination. The star network design is used with today's UTP based networks.
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following standards would you use if you want to use a standard that
can support communication up to 54Mbps?
A. 802.11x
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. Bluetooth
Answer: C
Explanation:
You need to use 802.11g standard if you want to use a standard that can support
communication up to 54Mbps.
802.11x refers to the family of 802.11 standards, 802.11b supports communication only
up to 11Mbps, and Bluetooth supports communication up to 3Mbps.
QUESTION NO: 12
The port 23 is used by _____________ TCP/IP protocol.
A. HTTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet

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D. POP3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The port 23 is used by Telnet TCP/IP protocol.
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following network protocol layers is responsible for specifying how the
data is transmitted over a physical medium?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Physical layer
E. Communication layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Physical layer is responsible for specifying how the data is transmitted over a
physical medium.
QUESTION NO: 14
You want the client computers on your TCP/IP protocol based internal network to
be able search the other computers and communicate with them by using
hostnames. Which of the following types of server would you configure on your
network to accomplish this task?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. Hostname server
D. Domain controller
E. DSN
Answer: A
Explanation:

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To allow the client computers on your TCP/IP protocol based internal network to be able
search the other computers and communicate with them by using hostnames, you need to
implement the Domain Name System (DNS) server, which resolves hostnames to IP
addresses.
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration
information to client computers. A domain controller may provide login authentication
and there is no hostname server and DSN server.
QUESTION NO: 15
The network addressing within TCP/IP protocol is done by _____________.
A. IPX
B. UDP
C. IP
D. TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network addressing within TCP/IP protocol is done by IP (Internet Protocol.
IPX protocol is not part of the TCP/IP suite. UDP protocol provides connectionless
delivery, and TCP protocol provides connection-oriented delivery.
QUESTION NO: 16
To create a physical network in your company, you want to use the network
topology that uses the least amount of cabling. Which of the following network
topologies would you use?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Hybrid
E. Ring
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should use Bus topology because that requires the least amount of cabling.

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QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following network designs is your network following if one of the
computers out of six networked computes is sharing a printer, and rest of the five
computers are sharing files?
A. Gateway centric
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Server centric
D. Nonrouted
E. Client-Server
Answer: B
Explanation:
If one of the computers out of six networked computes is sharing a printer, and rest of the
five computers are sharing files then your network is following a peer-to-peer network
design. In this design the computers act as both service providers and service requestors.
This design is best suited for small networks.
QUESTION NO: 18
______________ communications are limited to a distance of about one meter and
uses point-to-point communication.
A. Bluetooth
B. Wireless Ethernet
C. Cellular
D. Infrared
E. Telephone
Answer: D
Explanation:
Infrared communications are limited to a distance of about one meter and uses
point-to-point communication.
Bluetooth can work up to 100 meters, Wireless Ethernet network signals can travel for
several hundred meters, and cellular and telephonic communications can span up to
several kilometers.

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QUESTION NO: 19
On a piconet network how many devices can you use?
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Unlimited
Answer: C
Explanation:
On a piconet network or a Bluetooth network you can use up to eight devices. On the
same network, one device can communicate with seven other devices.
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following methods would you use to configure a wireless router to limit
the access of computers to some devices?
A. MAC filtering
B. IP filtering
C. DNS filtering
D. Use an SSID
Answer: A
Explanation:
To configure a wireless router to limit the access of computers that have access to the
wireless router to some devices you need to use MAC filtering. This method allows
access to only computers that have specific MAC addresses.
There is no IP filtering or DNS filtering. The use of an SSID cannot limit access even
though it is used by all the routers.
QUESTION NO: 21
The port 110 is used by _____________ TCP/IP protocol.

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A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. SMTP
D. POP3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The port 110 is used by POP3 TCP/IP protocol.
HTTP uses port 80, HTTPS uses 443
QUESTION NO: 22
In which of the following network topologies, all cables are connected to a hub but
clients need token to access the network?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Bus
E. Line
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the physical ring topology, the network is cabled as a star and users need token to
access the network.
QUESTION NO: 23
The ____________ is the Layer 2 network device of the OSI model that segments a
network for organizational works.
A. Gateway
B. Router
C. Hub
D. Bridge
E. Switch

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Answer: D
Explanation:
The Bridge is the network device that works at the Layer 2 of the OSI model and
segments a network for organizational works. Bridges increase organization,
performance, and security of a network by keeping the traffic on one side from crossing
to the other. They are the only Layer 2 devices among the options.
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following actions should be your first action if the built-in network
card on your laptop is not working? (Select all that apply)
A. Check for the connectivity lights.

B. Make sure the network card did not get turned off accidentally.
C. Plug the network card into a cable and then check its working.
D. Check her TCP/IP settings to find out that the laptop is getting the IP address from the
DHCP server.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The first two actions that you may take after finding that the built-in network card on
your laptop is not working is to check if there are any lights, and the next is to ensure that
the card didn't get turned off accidently. Those are the easy ones. If the card appears to be
on, then you can try to plug it in and see if it works, if the user has a cable.
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following default subnet mask would you assign to a network device
that was just installed in a class B network?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: C
Explanation:

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The default subnet mask that you should assign to a network device that was just
installed in a class B network is 255.255.0.0.
QUESTION NO: 26
You want to find out the connectivity between two host computers. Which of the
following commands can you use? (Select all that apply).
A. chkntfs
B. nslookup
C. tracert
D. ipconfig
E. ping
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
To find out the connectivity between two host computers, you can use the tracert (trace
route) utility or ping utility. The tracert utility allows you to find out the path taken by
your computer to reach another host and Ping is used to check if host is reachable,
Ipconfig is used to find the IP configuration information of a computer, and nslookup
allows you to verify entries on a DNS server. Ipconfig is used to find the IP configuration
information of a computer. Chkntfs checks the NTFS file system
QUESTION NO: 27
The main function of a DNS server is to______________
A. Secure network traffic through shared key encryption.

B. Provide resolution of host names to IP addresses.
C. Provide security for a network through the use of ACLs.
D. Dynamically assign IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of DNS is the mapping of IP addresses to human readable names. The
DNS server strictly functions as an ip address lookup for a given domain name.

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QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following steps would you use to check the IP address and default
Gateway configured on a user's computer, who had complained about not being
able to access Internet?
A. Click Start, open the Run dialog box and type ipconfig. Click OK.
B. Click Start, open the Run dialog box and type cmd. Click OK>type ipconfig
/flushdns>press enter.
C. Click Start, open the Run dialog box and type cmd. Click OK>type ipconfig
/release>press enter.
D. Click Start, open the Run dialog box and type cmd. Click OK>type ipconfig /all>press
enter
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Ipconfig command is used to find the IP configuration information of a computer.
The Syntax IPCONFIG /all displays full configuration information. You can type the
Ipconfig command by clicking Start->Run and then typing cmd to open the command
prompt to type the ipconfig command.
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The HTTP protocol uses port 80.
QUESTION NO: 30

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testking.com. You are in the process of explaining to the new interns in the
department the components that are part of the TCP/IP network configuration.
A. You should identify DNS as it forms part of the TCP/IP network configuration.
B. You should identify AppleTalk as it forms part of the TCP/IP network configuration.
C. You should identify IPX/SPX as it forms part of the TCP/IP network configuration.
D. You should identify NetBEUI as it forms part of the TCP/IP network configuration.
E. You should identify DHCP as it forms part of the TCP/IP network configuration.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO: 31
the course of the day you receive an instruction to identify the Internet Connectivity
method that utilizes PPPoE.
What should you do?
A. PPPoE is used by the Satellite.

B. PPPoE is used by DSL.
C. PPPoE is used by Dial-up.
D. PPPoE is used by the Cable.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
testking.com. You receive an instruction to control the access to a network. You
need to accomplish this based on the address that is hard coded into the NIC.

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What should you do?
A. You should consider using Channel 11.

B. You should consider using SSID.
C. You should consider using 802.11n.
D. You should consider using MAC filtering.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 33
You are the newly appointed senior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
receive an instruction from TestKing.com to identify the services that use TCP port
21 by default.
A. The SMTP service makes use of TCP port 21 by default.

B. The TELNET service makes use of TCP port 21 by default.
C. The HTTPS service makes use of TCP port 21 by default.
D. The FTP service makes use of TCP port 21 by default.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
Kara Lang contacted the Help desk to identify how she can locate the IP address of
one of the workstations.
A. You should inform her that she should open a command window and run ipconfig
from the command line.
B.

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You should inform her to open a command window and run net /? from the command
line.
C. You should inform her to open Network Connections from the control panel.
Then she should right click the Local Area Connection and select Status.
Thereafter she should select the Support tab.
D. You should inform her to run the System Configuration Utility from the run line.
Thereafter she should click the Services tab.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO: 35
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a call from a user who wants
to know the printing protocols that can be utilized in a network for printing.
A. You should advise the user to make use of RAW.

B. You should advise the user to make use of FTP.
C. You should advise the user to make use of HTTP.
D. You should advise the user to make use of LPR.
E. You should advise the user to make use of USB.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO: 36
determine which port she should use when she adds a printer in Microsoft Windows
XP.
What should you do?

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A. You should inform her to make use of a USB port.
B. You should inform her to make use of a Parallel port.
C. You should inform her to make use of a Standard TCP/IP port.
D. You should inform her to make use of a Serial port.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
testking.com. You receive numerous calls from users stating that they are unable to
make a connection to their home wireless network from their notebook computers.
Previously they were able to make a connection to their home wireless network.
They also inform you that they are not able to see the network anymore.
What should you do?
A. The error occurred as a recent upgrade changed the wireless specification from
802.11a to 802.11n.
B. The error occurred since the wireless network is not properly configured.
C. The error occurred since MAC filtering is stopping the computer from connecting to
the network.
D. The error occurred since the wireless network card is disabled by the hardware switch.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
instruction from management to determine the IP address that is not routable on
the Internet.
A. You should identify 192.168.1.16

B. You should identify 8.1.1.23

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C. You should identify 176.15.1.7
D. You should identify 206.1.9.3
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
the course of the morning you receive a call from a user wanting to know which
addresses will be allocated by APIPA.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that the 10.0.0.25 address will be allocated.
B. You should inform the user that the 169.254.0.15 address will be allocated.
C. You should inform the user that the 172.16.1.15 address will be allocated.
D. You should inform the user that the 192.168.0.15 address will be allocated.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
you receive a memo from management inquiring about the highest transfer rate
between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC.
What should you inform management?
A. You should inform management that 1GB/s is the highest transfer rate.
B. You should inform management that 100MB/s is the highest transfer rate.
C. You should inform management that 1000MB/s is the highest transfer rate.
D. You should inform management that 10000MB/s is the highest transfer rate
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 41
from management to add 802.11g network connectivity to a portable computer. You
need to determine the best way to accomplish this task.
What should you do?
A. You should consider having a Bluetooth USB adapter installed.

B. You should consider having the firmware updated in the LAN adapter.
C. You should consider having a wireless PCMCIA card installed.
D. You should consider having the infrared ports in the BIOS activated.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 42
receive an instruction to identify the loopback address on a workstation with an IP
address of 192.168.100.12, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway of
192.168.10.1.
A. You should identify 127.0.0.1 as the loopback address.

B. You should identify 192.168.100.0 as the loopback address.
C. You should identify 192.168.10.1 as the loopback address.
D. You should identify 255.255.255.0 as the loopback address.
Answer: A
Section 2: Categorize network cables and connectors and their

implementations (28 Questions)

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following cabling technology is not affected by electromagnetic or
radio-frequency interference?
A. Twisted-pair cabling
B. CSMA /CD
C. Broadband coaxial cabling
D. Fiber-optic cabling
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Fiber-optic cabling is not affected by electromagnetic or radio-frequency
interference
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following IEEE 802 standard is able to transmit data at 10Mbps and
specifies the use of a bus topology and coaxial baseband cable?
A. 802.1
B. 802.2
C. 802.3
D. 802.4
E. 802.5
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IEEE 802.3 standard can transmit data up to 10Mbps and specifies the use of a bus
topology and coaxial baseband cable.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following network cables can be used over longest possible distances?
A. Unshielded twisted pair

B. Coaxial
C. Fiber optic
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D. Shielded twisted pair
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fiber optic network cables can be used over longest possible distances because of their
Low loss and high bandwidth properties. They can span distances of several kilometers,
because it has much lower crosstalk and interference in comparison to copper cables.
QUESTION NO: 4
You want to use the fire retardant network cable in the drop ceiling in your office.
Which of the following types of cable should you use?
A. Plenum
B. PVC
C. Coaxial
D. Fiber optic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Plenum-grade cable is specially used in fire retardant areas such as in a drop ceiling.
Plenum is the coating on the cable and not the media within the cable.
QUESTION NO: 5
You want to use category 5 cable on your network. Which of the following network
standards can you not use?
A. 10Base-T
B. 10Base5
C. 100Base-T4
D. 100Base-TX
Answer: B
Explanation:
You cannot use 10Base5 standard with category 5 cable on your network because it uses
thick coax cable, which is obsolete.

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QUESTION NO: 6
You want to use the interface in your computer that offers a highest data rate.
Which of the following interfaces should you use?
A. USB 1.1
B. IEEE 1284
C. FireWire
D. SPP
Answer: C
Explanation:
To use the highest data rate, you should use FireWire. It is available in 400 and 800Mbps
versions.
USB is next interface that offers highest data transfer in this list.
QUESTION NO: 7
You want to use the 802.11x standard that is backward compatible with both
802.11a and 802.11b. Which of the following standard can you use?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11i
D. 802.11C
Answer: B
Explanation:
You would use the 802.11n standard because it utilizes both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz
spectrums, and is backward compatible with both 802.11a (5GHz) and 802.11b
(2.4GHz).
QUESTION NO: 8

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What does the IEEE 802.3 standard also called?
A. Logic link control

B. Token passing
C. CSMA/CD LAN
D. Token Ring LAN
E. It is not a valid standard
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IEEE 802.3 standard is also called CSMA/CD standard. It is the standard access
method for Ethernet networks.
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following ports would a laptop computer have if it has 25 or 9 pin
connector with male pins on the back of it?
A. Parallel port
B. Serial port
C. IEEE port
D. USB port
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a laptop computer has 25 or 9 pin connector with male pins on the back of it then it
indicates that the laptop contains a Serial port. They are used for the RS-232 (serial) ports
QUESTION NO: 10
You are using twisted pair cable. Which of the following connector types can you
use?
A. T-Connector
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. LC

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Answer: C
Explanation:
With twisted pair cable you can use RJ-45 connector. The UTP (unshilded twisted pair)
cable often is installed using a Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector. The RJ-45 is an
eight-wire connector used commonly to connect computers onto a local-area network
(LAN), especially Ethernets
QUESTION NO: 11
instruction from the CIO to inform the new interns which network port is related to
unencrypted web traffic.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that port 53 is related to unencrypted web traffic.
B. You should inform them that port 80 is related to unencrypted web traffic.
C. You should inform them that port 110 is related to unencrypted web traffic.
D. You should inform them that port 443 is related to unencrypted web traffic.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
management to determine the maximum cable length that should be utilized in
order to connect USB devices.
A. The maximum length is 15 meters (49 feet).

B. The maximum length is 10 meters (33 feet).
C. The maximum length is 7 meters (23 feet).

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D. The maximum length is 5 meters (16 feet).
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You are employed as the junior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
receive an instruction from management to determine common from of a serial
port.
A. The common form of a serial port is RJ-45.

B. The common form of a serial port is a 15-pin D.shell.
C. The common form of a serial port is a 9-pin D.shell.
D. The common form of a serial port is a 6-pin Mini-DIN.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. During the course of the day a
user wants to know the connector type that should be used on fiber cables.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that the ST connector type is used.
B. You should inform the user that the RJ-45 connector type is used.
C. You should inform the user that the RJ-11 connector type is used.
D. You should inform the user that the BNC connector type is used.
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 15
of the day you receive an instruction from management to inform the interns
regarding the advantages of using a STP cable.
What should you do?
A. The STP cable increases the transfer rate.

B. The STP cable decreases ESD.
C. The STP cable decreases EMI.
D. The STP cable increases RFI.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
testking.com. During the course of the day a user calls the helpdesk to enquire the
function of the S-video mini-DIN connector on notebook computers.
A. The S-video mini-DIN connector permits digital video and audio to various devices.
B. The S-video mini-DIN connector permits analog video output to various devices.
C. The S-video mini-DIN connector permits digital video to various devices.
D. The S-video mini-DIN connector permits a LCD projectors output to display on the
screen of notebook computers.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17

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testking.com. You receive a call from a junior technician who wants to know the
media type he should use that will transmit data using pulses of light.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the technician to make use of a Cable.

B. You should inform the technician to make use of a DSL.
C. You should inform the technician to make use of a Fiber.
D. You should inform the technician to make use of a Satellite.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
testking.com. During the course of the day a user inquires about the maximum
length of a CAT5e cable.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that it is 1076 feet (328 meters).
B. You should inform the user that it is 492 feet (150 meters).
C. You should inform the user that it is 328 feet (100 meters).
D. You should inform the user that it is 100 feet (30 meters).
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
the course of the day you receive an instruction to from management to identify the
connection type that can be transmitted over RG-6 media.

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A. You should inform management that a Cable connection will accomplish it.
B. You should inform management that a Dial-up connection will accomplish it.
C. You should inform management that a DSL connection will accomplish it.
D. You should inform management that a Satellite connection will accomplish it.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
the course of the day you receive an instruction from management to determine the
wireless type that have the maximum throughput and coverage by default.
A. By default 802.11a will have the maximum throughput and coverage.

B. By default 801.11b will have the maximum throughput and coverage.
C. By default 802.11g will have the maximum throughput and coverage.
D. By default 802.11n will have the maximum throughput and coverage.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
instruction from the CIO to setup cabling in a 10BaseT network. You thus need to
determine the appropriate cabling that you should use.
A. You should consider using UTP.

B. You should consider using Coaxial.
C. You should consider using Fiber.
D. You should consider using ThinNet.

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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 22
testking.com. You receive an instruction to install an external hard drive as well as a
controller card on one of the workstations. The hard drive as well as the card makes
use of the IEEE1394b standard. You thus need to identify the appropriate cable
type that you should use.
A. Your best choice would be to make use of a 6-pin male to 4-pin female cable.
B. Your best choice would be to make use of a 9-pin male to male cable.
C. Your best choice would be to make use of a 6-pin male to male cable.
D. Your best choice would be to make use of a 4-pin male to male cable.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
in the process of informing the new interns which cable types makes use of a BNC?
What should you do?
A. A BNC makes use of a UTP cable.

B. A BNC makes use of a Fiber cable.
C. A BNC makes use of a Coaxial cable.
D. A BNC makes use of a CAT6 cable.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 24
testking.com. A junior technician calls the helpdesk to inquire which network cables
make use of analog signals.
What should you do?
A. You should tell him that wireless network connections uses analog signals.
B. You should tell him that satellite network connections uses analog signals.
C. You should tell him that cable network connections uses analog signals.
D. You should tell him that dial-up network connections use analog signals.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
testking.com. You receive a call from a user who wants to determine which copper
cabling he should use if the data rate speed is not an issue. However, the segment
length has to be 1640 feet (500 meters) long.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user to make use of a RG-58ThinNet copper cable.
B. You should inform the user to make use of a CAT6 copper cable.
C. You should inform the user to make use of a CAT5e copper cable.
D. You should inform the user to make use of a RG-8ThickNet copper cable.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26

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testking.com. You receive a call from a user who inquires about the connection type
that has the highest latency.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that a Cable will have the highest latency.
B. You should inform the user that a Fiber cable will have the highest latency.
C. You should inform the user that a Satellite will have the highest latency.
D. You should inform the user that a DSL will have the highest latency.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
from the CIO to plug a connector into a 56K dial-up modem.
What should you do?
A. You should consider use a ST.

B. You should consider use a RJ-11 connector.
C. You should consider use a BNC connector.
D. You should consider use a RJ-45 connector.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
You are the newly appointed a technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
receive an instruction from management to identify the types of cable that will be
least affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI).

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A. You should inform management that a UTP cable would be least affected by EMI.
B. You should inform management that a Plenum cable would be least affected by EMI.
C. You should inform management that a Fiber cable would be least affected by EMI.
D. You should inform management that a Coaxial cable would be least affected by EMI.
Answer: C
Section 3: Compare and contrast the different network types (24

Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
To which of the following classes does IP address 181.224.16.1 belongs to?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. This is not a valid IP address
Answer: B
Explanation:
IP address 181.224.16.1 belongs to Class B because the Class B network has network
addresses between 128 and 191 in the first octet and 181 lies between 128 and 191. Class
A has addresses between 1 and 126 in the first octet and class C between 192 and 223.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to use the wireless IEEE standards for your laptop that can operate in the
2.4GHz radio frequency range and are directly compatible with each other. Which
of the following wireless standards would you choose? (Select all that apply.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11g

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Answer: B, D
Explanation:
The wireless IEEE standards for your laptop that can operate in the 2.4GHz radio
frequency range and are directly compatible with each other are 802.11b and 802.11g.
802.11a operates in the 5GHz range and 802.11d is not a commonly implemented
standard.
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements define SSID?
A. SSID is a secure communication channel between a web server and browser

B. SSID is a secure communication channel between a server and remote host
C. SSID is a unique identifier that acts as password to help secure a wireless connection
D. SSID is a type of password used to secure an Ethernet 802.3 connection
Answer: C
Explanation:
SSID or service set identifier is a 32-character unique identifier that acts as password and
is attached to the header of packets that is sent over a wireless local area network
(WLAN). All wireless devices on a WLAN must employ the same SSID in order to
communicate with each other. It is actually the network name. All wireless devices on a
WLAN must employ the same SSID in order to communicate with each other.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following wireless communication standards can be referred to as a
personal, short distance area wireless network for interconnecting devices that are
centered round an individual person's workspace?
A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. Cellular
D. Ethernet
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs). They are
personal, short distance area wireless network for interconnecting devices that are
centered round an individual person's workspace.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following options are the standards for cellular communications
network? (Select all that apply)
A. GSM
B. SIG
C. CDMA
D. CCFL
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and Code Division Multiple
Access (CDMA) are cellular communication standards.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following types of network show all computers on the local network
even though they are physically located somewhere else?
A. VPN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. MAN
E. Domain
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) shows all computers on the local network even if they
are physically located at a remote location.
QUESTION NO: 7

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Which of the following 802.11i network standard that you would use to ensure the
most secure wireless encryption?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. SAFER+
Answer: C
Explanation:
WPA2 is the more secure 802.11i network standard that ensures the most secure wireless
encryption. WEP was the original encryption standard developed for WiFi networks, but
that could be easily hacked. WPA was an upgrade, but WPA2 was the most secure
standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth communications.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following technologies can be used with the different kinds of
computer peripheral devices such as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets?
A. Bluetooth
B. Ethernet
C. Cellular
D. Infrared
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use can Bluetooth with the different kinds of computer peripheral devices such
as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets. It can be used to make a Wireless Personal
Area Network (WPAN).
QUESTION NO: 9
You are using an infrared device for communication on your small network. Which
of the following encryption method can you use to secure transmissions on the
network?

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A. SAFER+
B. Shared-key encryption
C. Public-key encryption
D. Digital Signatures
Answer: E
Explanation:
On your small network that uses Infrared devices, you cannot use any encryption method
because infrared devices do not encrypt data transmissions. This is because they are
limited to about one meter and require the devices to be pointed directly at the other
devices intended to receive the messages.
QUESTION NO: 10
You want to implement broadband Internet access on your computer. Which of the
following types of services can you use? (Select all that apply.)
A. Dial-up
B. DSL
C. Cable
D. Fiber-optic
E. Satellite Service
Answer: B, C, D, E
Explanation:
To implement broadband Internet access on your computer, you can use DSL, cable,
fiber-optic, and satellite services.
Dial-up does not provide broadband access.
QUESTION NO: 11
The IP address 222.18.171.1 belongs to _____________.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

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E. This is not a valid IP address.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IP address 222.18.171.1 belongs to Class C because the first octet of Class C lies
between 192 and 223.
Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128 and191, and
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following wireless communication methods of networking would you
use if you want to achieve a high-bandwidth wireless network communications?
A. Bluetooth
B. Ethernet
C. Cellular
D. Infrared
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet is the wireless communication methods of networking that you can use if you
want to achieve a high-bandwidth wireless network communications.
QUESTION NO: 13
The main function of SAFER+ is:
A. to protect a computer from attacks

B. to encrypt the Bluetooth communications
C. to protect the system BIOS by setting a password
D. to produce an audit log of failed system services
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of SAFER+ (Secure and Fast Encryption Routine) is to encrypt the
Bluetooth communications.

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QUESTION NO: 14
With dial-up Internet access, you can get the maximum speed of __________.
A. 28.8Kbps
B. 56Kbps
C. 128Kbps
D. 1Mbps
E. 1Gbps
Answer: B
Explanation:
With dial-up Internet access, you can get the maximum speed of 56Kbps.
QUESTION NO: 15
management to identify the wireless technologies has a maximum range of 30 feet (9
meters).
What should you do?
A. You should inform management that 802.11a has a maximum range of 30 feet (9
meters).
B. You should inform management that Infrared has a maximum range of 30 feet (9
meters).
C. You should inform management that Bluetooth 2.0 has a maximum range of 30 feet (9
meters).
D. You should inform management that 802.11b has a maximum range of 30 feet (9
meters).
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 16
instruction from the CIO to identify the Class C addresses.
What should you do?
A. You should identify 192.168.1.1 as a Class C address.

B. You should identify 125.32.3.132 as a Class C address.
C. You should identify 65.102.1.120 as a Class C address.
D. You should identify 134.28.1.120 as a Class C address.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
You are the newly appointed junior technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. Your
superior is currently explaining to a group of junior technicians what access points
are. Your superior asks you to identify a wireless network whilst viewing the
available access points.
What should you do?
A. You should inform him that the default gateway is a wireless network.
B. You should inform him that the Hostname is a wireless network.
C. You should inform him that the ISP is a wireless network.
D. You should inform him that the SSID is a wireless network.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
from management to ensure that a secure connection is established between two
points

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What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of HTTP.

B. Your best option would be to make use of WAN.
C. Your best option would be to make use of VPN.
D. Your best option would be to make use of FTP.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
TestKing.com user named Amy Walsh wants to know which address is a Class A
address.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that 129.207.21.65 is a Class A address.

B. You should inform her that 190.120.87.165 is a Class A address.
C. You should inform her that 198.45.32.109 is a Class A address.
D. You should inform her that 107.167.34.120 is a Class A address.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You are assigned
the task of identifying the objects that may cause wireless network interference in
your department.
A. The AM/FM radio is a source of wireless network interference.

B. The cordless telephone is a source of wireless network interference.
C. The large screen television is a source of wireless network interference.
D. The Bluetooth headset is a source of wireless network interference.

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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a call from a user inquiring
about the correct class he should use for the 192.168.30.3 IP address.
A. You should inform him to make use of a Class B address.

B. You should inform him to make use of a Class A address.
C. You should inform him to make use of a Class D address.
D. You should inform him to make use of a Class C address.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
of the day you receive a list of IP addresses from management with the instruction
to identify the Class A addresses.
What should you do?
A. You should identify the 172.16.10.10 IP address.

B. You should identify the 10.10.0.11 IP address.
C. You should identify the 224.224.0.1 IP address.
D. You should identify the 192.168.100.1 IP address.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23

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TestKing.com. You are in the process of informing the new interns what a virtual
private network is.
What should you do?
A. It is a testing protocol used to verify the strength of a security infrastructure by using

mock intrusion attacks.
B. It is a networking protocol that is used for the propagation of virus data in order to
make sure that the anti-virus is current.
C. It is a secured line of communication between two points via a public network.
D. It is a private network between two computers using wireless cards without a wireless
access point between them.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
process of informing a client the connection type that is expensive to implement in a
small office home office (SOHO) environment.
What should you inform the client?
A. You should advise the client not to implement a Satellite connection.

B. You should advise the client not to implement a Broadband connection.
C. You should advise the client not to implement a Fiber connection.
D. You should advise the client not to implement a DSL connection.
Answer: C
Topic 5: Security (63 Questions)

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Section 1: Explain the basic principles of security concepts and
technologies (36 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following identity technology uses a retinal pattern or fingerprint to
authenticate a person?
A. Biometrics
B. Surveillance
C. Smart card
D. CHAP authenticator
E. I-Card
Answer: A
Explanation:
Biometrics is an identity technology that uses physical characteristics of a person to
establish identity and authenticate a person.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following kinds of attack take advantage of human shortcomings so
that they can be manipulated to perform actions or divulge confidential information
to hackers?
A. Social engineering
B. IDS system
C. Perimeter security
D. Biometrics
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A
Explanation:
Social engineering is a kind of attack that takes advantage of human shortcomings so that
they can be manipulated to perform actions or divulge confidential information to
hackers. Social engineering is based on specific attributes of human decision-making that
are exploited in various combinations to create attack techniques.

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QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following Access control models impose read only access restriction on
a subject on information available in security levels higher than its current
clearance level and also prevents a subject from writing information to levels lower
than its current level?
A. Bell-La Padula model

B. Biba Integrity model
C. Clark-Wilson Integrity model
D. Noninterference model
E. Graham Denning Model
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Bell-La Padula model is based on control of information flow. In this model, the
entities in an information system are divided into subjects and objects so that the
confidentiality of information can be protected. This is done by preventing users from
reading above their security level and preventing them from writing below their security
level.
QUESTION NO: 4
To prevent unauthorized access to a laptop, which of the following biometric reader
has been used in laptop these days?
A. Voice recognition
B. Retinal scanner
C. Fingerprint scanner
D. Face recognition
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Fingerprint scanner has been used in laptop these days to prevent unauthorized
access to laptops.

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QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following network authentication protocol uses KDC for
authentication?
A. CHAP
B. Kerberos
C. C.MS-CHAP
D. Biometrics
E. Smart cards
Answer: B
Explanation:
Kerberos is the network authentication protocol that uses a key distribution center (KDC)
to authenticate users, programs, and systems. The credentials provided by KDC can be
used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and applications.
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following authentication protocols authenticate a user by using a
three-way handshake?
A. Kerberos
B. PAP
C. DAC
D. CHAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) authenticates a user by using a
three-way handshake algorithm. First the server sends a challenge to the originating
client. Then the challenge is sent back to the server by the client with the other half of the
challenge handshake, and finally the server performs the same hashing function to
compare the encryption results. If the challenge is successful, the client is authenticated.
QUESTION NO: 7

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You want to implement strong authentication for users in your organization because
your organization deals with sensitive information of people that can be easily
misused. Which of the following authentication processes allows you to implement
more than one authentication process for a logon?
A. Multifactor
B. Biometrics
C. Smart card
D. Kerberos
E. I-Card
Answer: A
Explanation:
The multifactor-authentication is a strong authentication process that uses two or more
processes to authenticate a user. A two-factor method might use ATM Card and PIN to
authenticate a user on an ATM machine.
QUESTION NO: 8
To increase secure communication in the Internet Environment that you have
created for your users, you want to avoid the services/protocols that can create
potential security problem in an Internet environment. Which of the following
services/protocols should you not use?
A. E-mail
B. Telnet
C. WWW
D. ICMP
E. FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
You should not use Telnet because it sends user credentials to the Telnet server in plain
text that can create potential security problem in an Internet environment.
QUESTION NO: 9

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Which of the following services most often use Biometrics such as retinal scan and
fingerprinting?
A. Auditing
B. Authentication
C. Access control
D. Data confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Authentication service most often uses Biometrics such as retinal scan and
fingerprinting to authenticate a person. The retinal scan is a very secure form of
authentication which is used in high-security companies and government agencies.
QUESTION NO: 10
You have been noticing that the employees of the company come late to the office
and often put proxy attendance by asking another person to sign in their place. To
stop all this you wanted to use an authentication technology that uses fingerprint
scans or retinal scans to authenticate a person. Which of the following technologies
would you use for authentication?
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Mutual authentication
D. Tokens
Answer: B
Explanation:
You should use Biometric technology that uses fingerprint scans or retinal scans to
authenticate a person because it relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify
his/her identity.
QUESTION NO: 11

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You want to ensure that the authentication for the users who visit your website is
session based and the users' credentials should be valid only for that session. Which
of the following authentication methods would you use to meet your objective?
A. Tokens
B. Certificate
C. Smart card
D. Kerberos
E. Mini card
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Tokens authentication the users' credentials are valid only for the current session. The
token is created after a user is authenticated successfully. The token remains valid till the
session is on and is destroyed as soon as the session is over.
QUESTION NO: 12
You are a network administrator of TestKing Inc. A help desk employee of your
company informed you that last night they received an urgent call from the CEO of
the company that he has lost his login ID and Password and want their help to get
them back. You understood it was a hacking attack. What type of attack is this?
A. Spoofing
B. Replay attack
C. Social engineering
D. Trojan horse
E. Denial of Service
Answer: C
Explanation:
This type of attack is called Social engineering. In this kind of attack the attacker takes
advantage of human shortcomings so that they can be manipulated to perform actions or
divulge confidential information to hackers. Social engineering is based on specific
attributes of human decision-making that are exploited in various combinations to create
attack techniques.

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QUESTION NO: 13
If you implement an eye scan authentication to allow network users to access the
network workstations. Which type of security technology are you using?
A. Biometrics
B. Surveillance
C. Smart card
D. CHAP authenticator
E. I-Card
Answer: A
Explanation:
If you implement eye scan authentication to allow network users to access the network
workstations, you are using Biometrics technology. This technology uses personal
characteristics to establish user identity.
QUESTION NO: 14
A worm can be described as ________________?
A. A self-contained program that can reproduce itself to harm the target computer.
B. A program that can guise as another program to enter a system or network.
C. A program that require a host application to run.
D. A virus application that attacks all system .EXE files.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A worm can be described as a self-contained program that can reproduce itself to harm
the target computer. A worm is different from a virus because it can reproduce itself, is
self-contained, and it doesn't need a host application to be transported.
QUESTION NO: 15
Some of the users on your internal network reported that they were tricked to
divulge the passwords of their computer. Which type of attack is this?
A. Social engineering
B. IDS system

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C. Perimeter security
D. Biometrics
E. Virus
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is called the Social engineering attack where the attackers use the inherent trust in
the human species to gain access to their work environment.
QUESTION NO: 16
Retinal and fingerprint scans are a form of ____________?
A. Auditing
B. Authentication
C. Access control
D. Biometric profiling
Answer: B
Explanation:
Retinal and fingerprint scans are a form of Authentication. This is because authentication
requests the user to provide a proof of their identity and retinal and fingerprint scans are
very secure form of proof of identity.
QUESTION NO: 17
A network user complained that a person sitting next to him saw him type his
password and now he feels that his password has been stolen. What type of attack is
this?
A. DoS
B. Peeking
C. Social engineering
D. Smurf
E. DDoS

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Answer: C
Explanation:
This type of attack is called Social engineering. In this attack an intruder attempts to
familiarize with the victim to steal passwords or other information and send them over
the internet to other attackers for misuse. It is an attack that attempts to takes advantage
of human behavior.
QUESTION NO: 18
Authentication systems or methods are based on which of the following factors?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Something you know, such as a password or PIN

B. Something you have, such as a smart card or an identification device
C. Something physically unique to you, such as your fingerprints or retinal pattern
D. Something you configure with a security protocol
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Authentication proves that a user or system is actually who they say they are. This is one
of the most critical parts of a security system. It is part a of a process that is also referred
to as Identification and Authentication (I&A).
QUESTION NO: 19
________________authentication method uses a Key Distribution Center?
A. Kerberos
B. CHAP
C. CHAPv2
D. Kerberos/SSL
E. NTLM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Kerberos authentication uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC). The KDC authenticates a
user/program/system and issues a ticket that is then used to authenticate other users or
programs.

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QUESTION NO: 20
What would be the function of the thumbprint scanner that has been configured to
control the access provided by the company's server?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Encryption
D. IP verification
Answer: B
Explanation:
The function of the thumbprint scanner that has been configured to control the access
provided by the company's server is authentication. This is because a thumbprint scanner
is a biometrics that is used to verify the identity of a user. The biometric devices allow
access to a system, resource, or a network after verifying the identity of a user.
QUESTION NO: 21
The multifactor authentication method can be best describes as an authentication
method that ___________.
A. combines passwords and PIN numbers for authentication.

B. combines fingerprints and retinal scans for authentication.
C. combines two types of authentication strategies.
D. requires an authentication token from the server before the data from the client can be
transmitted.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The multifactor authentication method can be best describes as an authentication method
that combines two types of authentication strategies. There can be three categories of
authentication:
1 Something that user knows. Such as passwords and PIN numbers
2. Something that user has. Such as tokens, smart cards and USB key devices
3. Something that user is. Such as fingerprints, retinal scans, and voice recognition.

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Multifactor authentication combines any of the two above give categories of
authentication to authenticate a user.
QUESTION NO: 22
___________is a wireless security protocol
A. WAPP
B. WEP
C. WEPP
D. WTLP
E. WPP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a wireless security protocol. It encrypts the wireless
communication done between wireless clients and wireless access points.
QUESTION NO: 23
process of explaining to the new interns in your department what a Trojan horse is.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that a Trojan horse is malicious software that monitors the
Internet surfing habits.
B. You should inform them that a Trojan horse is malicious software that is attached to
another piece of software.
C. You should inform them that a Trojan horse is malicious software that can be attached
incoming email.
D. You should inform them that a Trojan horse is malicious software that is
self-replicating.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 24
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive notification to identify the
forms of biometric authentication.
A. You should consider a secure ID Token.

B. You should consider optical recognition.
C. You should consider a smart card.
D. You should consider voice recognition.
E. You should consider a barcode scanner.
F. You should consider a fingerprint reader.
Answer: B, D, F
QUESTION NO: 25
testking.com. You receive an instruction from management to determine the tools
that will aid you in preventing viruses as well as malware.
A. You should consider using Windows Defender.

B. You should consider using Windows Event Viewer.
C. You should consider using Data Execution Prevention.
D. You should consider using CHKDSK.
E. You should consider using FilterKeys.
Answer: A, C

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QUESTION NO: 26
You are employed a technician at TestKing.com. The TestKing.com network
process of informing the new interns what computer intrusion detection entails.
A. It can best be described as an alert that occur at logon when an unknown user tries to
logon.
B. It can best be described as a set of firewalls as well as anti-virus programs designed to
safeguard the computer.
C. It can best be described as an alert that occur when the computer casing has been
opened.
D. It can best be described as an action sensitive web cam recording in the room.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
single Active Directory domain named testking.com. You receive an instruction to
ensure that the network is able to broadcast on a wireless network.
What should you do?

Which of the following is assigned to broadcast on a wireless network?
A. Your best option would be to assign MAC filtering.

B. Your best option would be to assign a WEP key.
C. Your best option would be to assign a WPA key.
D. Your best option would be to assign SSID.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28

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explaining to the new interns in your department the features of a secure password.
A. A secure password contains AES encryption.

B. A secure password contains numbers and letters.
C. A secure password is kept in a text file.
D. A secure password contains special characters.
E. A secure password contains an incomprehensible word in a dictionary.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO: 29
TestKing.com. You receive an instruction from management to make sure that the
data of every user is secure on a shared Windows XP Professional system.
A. This can be accomplished by adding multiple users in the Control Panel User Account
applet.
B. This can be accomplished by using the File Encryption settings in the Advanced
Settings of Properties for every user's data folder.
C. This can be accomplished by using the Security Center Control Panel Applet in order
to protect the resources on the shared system.
D. This can be accomplished by using NTFS security in order to protect the data files.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO: 30

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consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. TestKing.com
currently makes use of digital signatures. You are in the process of explaining to
new interns the purpose of digital signatures.
A. A digital signature is an e-mail application ID that adds the signature block to all
e-mail messages.
B. A digital signature is a cryptographic mechanism that is able to recognize the sender
and the message integrity.
C. A digital signature is a foolproof method that is able to bind a signature to a message.
D. A digital signature is used to ensure that the receiver have the private key of the
sender in order to access the e-mail.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You are in the
process of describing to users in the sales department what a worm is.
What should you tell them?
A. A worm can be identified as malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits.
B. A worm can be identified as malicious software that is attached to another piece of
software.
C. A worm can be identified as malicious software that is able to self-replicate as well as
to self- propagate.
D. A worm can be identified as malicious software that makes changes to the users home
page.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32

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TestKing.com. During the course of the day you receive an e-mail message stating
that the online auction was compromised. It also states that you need to login and
change your old username, password together with all your account details.
What should you do?
A. You should ignore it as it is a Phishing attack.

B. You should ignore it as it is a Botnet attack.
C. You should ignore it as it is a Spyware attack.
D. You should ignore it as it is a Trojan attack.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
instruction from management to control the access to the network based on their
hardware.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to use WEP encryption.

B. Your best option would be to use WPA encryption.
C. Your best option would be to use MAC filtering.
D. Your best option would be to use NAT routing.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34

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receive an instruction from management identify the methods that are commonly
used for Biometric authentication.
A. The Fingerprint reader is used for Biometric authentication.

B. The Logical token is used for Biometric authentication.
C. The Retinal scan is used for Biometric authentication.
D. The RFID smartcards is used for Biometric authentication.
E. The Encrypted passwords are used for Biometric authentication.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO: 35
TestKing.com. You are in the process of explaining to the new interns the functions
of a firewall.
A. Firewalls are used to dynamically assign IP addresses for every client configuration.
B. Firewalls are used to protect network Internet traffic via a shared key encryption.
C. Firewalls are used to provide security for a network by means of ACLs.
D. Firewalls are used to determine queries for the resolution of host names to IP
addresses.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36

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TestKing.com. You receive an inquiry from a user who wants to know in which
operating system he is able to find the UAC security feature.
A. The UAC security feature can be found in Windows 2000 Professional.

B. The UAC security feature can be found in Windows Vista Business.
C. The UAC security feature can be found in Windows Server 2003.
D. The UAC security feature can be found in Windows XP Professional.
Answer: B
Section 2: Summarize security features (27 Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
On a FAT 32 partition in Windows XP, which of the following file attributes can
you set on files? (Select all that apply.)
A. Hidden,
B. Read Only
C. Archive
D. System
E. Compression
F. Encryption
G. Indexing
Answer: A, B, C, D
Explanation:
On a FAT 32 partition in Windows XP you can set Hidden, Read Only, Archive, and
System attributes on the files. The attributes such as Encryption and Compression are not
supported by FAT 32. They are supported by NTFS files system.
QUESTION NO: 2

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Which of the following statements is true about Standard permissions?
A. The Standard permissions are same as special permissions

B. The Standard permissions are Read, Write, and Execute permissions
C. The Standard permissions can only be assigned to users but not to groups
D. The Standard permissions can be grouped together for easy assignment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Standard permissions can be grouped together for easy assignment. They are the
permissions that control a broad range of detailed permissions. The standard permissions
are Modify, Read & Execute, Read, and Write.
QUESTION NO: 3
What should be the frequency of the antivirus definitions update on your computer
in general?
A. Once a week
B. Once a month
C. Once a year
D. Bimonthly
E. Antivirus definitions do not need to be updated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
It's critical to keep your antivirus software up to date, so you should update your antivirus
definitions at least once per week.
QUESTION NO: 4
You have recently installed windows Vista on your computer system. Which of the
following options should you choose to keep your system safe from virus and other
potential security problems? (Select all that apply)
A. Install a third party firewall.

B. Create security policies in Windows.
C. Keep your Operating System updated with latest patches and service packs.

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D. Update your computer with latest antivirus definitions.
E. Update your network devices.
Answer: B, C, D, E
Explanation:
Keeping your operating system, applications and devices updated with latest updates can
keep your computer safe. Creating security policies in Windows would also keep your
computer safe but it is not necessary to install a third party firewall on your system
because Windows Vista already has a Firewall built into the system.
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following physical security zones addresses the outer-level access
control of a facility?
A. Perimeter security
B. Mantraps
C. Security zones
D. Strong passwords
E. Internet Security
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Perimeter security is the physical security zone that addresses the outer-level access
control of a facility. It is the first layer of access control that is intended to delay or deter
entrance into a facility.
QUESTION NO: 6
You use Windows Vista on your office computer. To ensure security of your data,
you want to encrypt the entire volume that stores your client's data. Which of the
following tools would allow you to do that?
A. BitLocker
B. Syslock
C. Drive Defender
D. NLock
E. EFS

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Answer: A
Explanation:
The BitLocker tool in Windows Vista allows you to encrypt the entire volume.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a chip on PC's motherboard that is used for entire volume
encryption and is capable of storing cryptographic keys and passwords?
A. CHAP
B. MAC
C. TPM
D. BAP
E. EFS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows Vista uses BitLocker Drive Encryption that uses TPM (Trusted Platform
Module) chip that can store cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates. This feature
ensures that the disk is encrypted at startup and if the disk were stolen and removed to a
different computer, the thief would need the recovery keys or TPM before they could
read the data.
QUESTION NO: 8
The internal network users of the company have been repeatedly reporting that
they see antivirus message on their system again and about the same virus. Which of
the following do you think is the cause of the problem?
A. One of the network servers is acting as a carrier for a virus.

B. A caterpillar virus has attacked the network.
C. The antivirus software that internal network users are using is malfunctioning.
D. A DoS attack is under way.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because internal network users of the company have been repeatedly reporting that they
see antivirus message on their system again and about the same virus, means that one of
the network servers is acting as a carrier for a virus. Actually some viruses don't damage
files on the server on which they are settled so that they may be able to spread into all the
other systems in a network. These viruses use that system as the carrier of the virus.
QUESTION NO: 9
When you leave your computer for sometime, you noticed that the hard disk of your
system is very active even though the computer is not connected to the Internet and
no processes are running on the system. What do you think is the cause of the hard
disk being so active?
A. The hard disk is about the fail.

B. A virus is spreading in the system.
C. Your system has been hacked.
D. Remote connection your system has been established.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The reason why the hard disk of your system is very active even though the computer is
not connected to the Internet and no processes are running on the system is that a virus is
spreading in the system. Some viruses show unusual activity on the system disk while
they spread and infect files on the system.
QUESTION NO: 10
As a network administrator when you checked all the logs as a routine check, you
found a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log on are reported by the e-mail
system. You understood that the e-mail server of the company has been targeted.
Which of the following types of attack is this?
A. Software exploitation attack

B. Backdoor attack
C. Worm
D. TCP/IP hijacking
E. Virus attack

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Answer: A
Explanation:
This is most likely the software exploitation attack. This attack is launched against
applications and higher level services to gain access to data using weaknesses in software
or a flaw in a service. They include types such as database exploitation, application
exploitation, email exploitation, rootkits, and spyware.
QUESTION NO: 11
You received an order from higher management to implement firewall within the
organization as soon as possible. You decided to implement a packet filtering in the
firewall. Which of the following is the function of a packet filter?
A. A packet filter filters all packets coming to the network and prevents unauthorized
packets from entering the network
B. A packet filter allows all packets to leave the network
C. A packet filter allows all packets to enter the network
D. A packet filter checks all the packets to eliminate collisions in the network
Answer: A
Explanation:
A packet filter filters all packets coming to the network and prevents unauthorized
packets from entering the network. The Packet filters filter specified traffic based on IP
address, protocols, and many other attributes.
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following storage media is prone to viruses?
A. Tape
B. Memory stick
C. CD-R
D. All of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
Explanation:

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All of the other alternatives apply storage media devices are prone to viruses. All these
devices can store viruses in them and pass them to uninfected systems. Even though
CD-R is read only but if it contains virus then it can be copied on to your system
QUESTION NO: 13
You want to implement file encryption on your Windows 2000 computer. Which of
the following file systems can you use?
A. FAT16
B. FAT32
C. NTFS
D. NTFS-E
Answer: C
Explanation:
To implement file encryption on your Windows 2000 computer, you can use only NTFS
file system because only NTFS support encryption.
NTFS-E is an invalid file system name.
QUESTION NO: 14
While installing Windows XP on your computer, you formatted your drive with
NTFS file system. Which of the following are features can you use? (Select all that
apply.)
A. File compression
B. File encryption
C. File permissions
D. Folder permissions
F. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: E
Explanation:
On your Windows XP computer, you can now use all the above given features because
all these features are supported by NTFS. However, none of these options are supported
by the FAT or FAT32 file systems.

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QUESTION NO: 15
On your Windows XP computer, you want to install an unsigned device driver.
Which of the following level of access do you need to be able to install the driver?
A. Administrator
B. B. Super User
C. User
D. Guest
Answer: A
Explanation:
If the driver is not digitally signed, then you need administrative access to be able to
install the driver. The Super User does not exist in Windows XP.
QUESTION NO: 16
You want to gain access to the BIOS configuration of your computer but an
unknown password prompt is preventing the access. What should you do?
A. Clear the CMOS memory by repositioning the jumper on the motherboard

B. B. Clear the CMOS memory by holding down a BIOS-specific key while booting the
computer
C. Keep the computer unplugged for at least two minutes
D. Clear the password from the boot menu by pressing F8 in the early boot sequence.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BIOS can be protected by a password. However, if you forget the password, you
need to clear CMOS or reset the CMOS jumper on the motherboard to reset the CMOS
memory to its default state. This process removes any BIOS supervisor and user
passwords that might be set.
QUESTION NO: 17

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On the new computer that you have just purchase you want to install Windows XP
on the 100GB hard drive that your computer has. Which of the following file
systems can you choose? (Select all that apply.)
A. NTVS
B. B. FAT32
C. FAT48
D. NTFS
E. FAT 16
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
You can choose both FAT 32 and NTFS file system to install Windows XP because it
supports both.
QUESTION NO: 18
in the process of informing the new interns about the advantages of using a
password generator.
What should you do?
A. It will extend the need to change passwords every quarter.

B. It will stop users from creating passwords that is a security risk.
C. It will stop the need to establish log-in attempt restrictions.
D. It will create new passwords as soon as a user log on in order to prevent social
engineering.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. A TestKing.com
intern named Amy Walsh is employed in the IT department and wants to know
what the BitLocker utility is used for.

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A. BitLocker is used to block all harmful network traffic.

B. BitLocker is used to secure wireless access points.
C. BitLocker is used to encrypt hard drives.
D. BitLocker is used to store passwords.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
assigned a workstation and company policy states that only the most secure
passwords be used.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of rw2%HN as your password.

B. Your best option would be to make use of SR1234ct as your password.
C. Your best option would be to make use of ct23&P#h~ as your password.
D. Your best option would be to make use of CompTIA558475 as your password.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
testking.com. You receive a query from a user who wants to know what the SSL
technology is used for.
What should you do?
A. Inform the user that it is used to encrypt the contents of a hard disk.
B. Inform the user that it is used to prevent unauthorized login attempts.
C. Inform the user that it is used to provide remote assistance to users.

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D. Inform the user that it is used to secure communications with websites.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
consists of a single Active Directory domain named testking.com. The interns in
your department want to know what will be created when you MAC filtering are set
up.
What should you do?
A. This will result in WPA being created.

B. This will result in ACL being created.
C. This will result in SSID being created.
D. This will result in WEP being created.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
testking.com. You are in the process of setting up a WAP and need to disable all
services that is broadcasted by default.
What should you do?
A. You should disable WPA.

B. You should disable WEP.
C. You should disable SSID.
D. You should disable RADIUS.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 23
testking.com. You are informing the new interns the benefits of disabling SSID from
broadcasting on a Wireless Access Point.
A. You will be able to encrypt data traveling across the wireless network.
B. You will be able to keep track of users physically logging in to the wired network.
C. You will be able to stop users from seeing the wireless network.
D. You will be able to make sure that only certain devices are allowed access the
network.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
testking.com. You receive a call from a user who wants to extract files; however, she
wants to stay clear of extracting the files from the Internet.
A. This can be achieved using browser Plug-Ins.

B. This can be achieved using temporary Internet Files.
C. This can be achieved using downloaded Program Files.
D. This can be achieved using Windows Temporary Files.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25

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processing highly confidential documents when you discover documents in a filing
cabinet that is not marked. The security policy of TestKing.com states that the all
document have to be labeled even if it's not confidential. You thus need to determine
the security elements that govern information confidentiality.
A. Information confidentiality is governed by Unclassified.

B. Information confidentiality is governed by Exceptions.
C. Information confidentiality is governed by Classification.
D. Information confidentiality is governed by Cultural Sensitivity.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
TestKing.com has employed you as a system administrator at TestKing.com. The
testking.com. A TestKing.com user named Kara Lang receives the subsequent
message:
The security log on this system is full.
You thus decide to log on and resolve this issue.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to use SECEDIT.EXE to fix the problem.

B. Your best option would be to use Event Viewer to fix the problem.
C. Your best option would be to use. SECPOL.MSC to fix the problem.
D. Your best option would be to use Windows Security Center to fix the problem.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27

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both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. During the
course of the day you receive an instruction from the CIO to control the access to
the companies' wireless network. TestKing.com wants the access to the wireless
network based on a user supplied key.
What should you do?
A. Your best option would be to make use of WEP.

B. Your best option would be to make use of SSID.
C. Your best option would be to make use of MAC.
D. Your best option would be to make use of NAT.
Answer: A
Topic 6: Operational Procedure (61 Questions)
Section 1: Outline the purpose of appropriate safety and

environmental procedures and given a scenario apply them (22
Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You have the power outage problem in your area. Whenever, power outage happen,
your computer shuts down abruptly and then creates problems. You want to use a
device that can keep your computer running for some time in case of a power
failure. Which of the following device can you use to meet your objective?
A. Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)

B. Solar panels
C. Surge protector
D. Power strip

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Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use a UPS to keep your computer running for some time in case of a power
failure. It contains batteries that can keep your system running for a short period of time
when power failure occurs.
QUESTION NO: 2
You want to know about the emergency cleanup procedures for Halogenated
Solvents. Which of the following options contain such information?
A. OSHA
B. MSDS
C. Product label
D. CRT
E. API
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) are the documents that are mostly available on
Internet and they contain information about chemical properties of the substance and the
information on emergency procedures as to what to do if an accident occurs.
QUESTION NO: 3
The inkjet printer cartridge that you have purchased several days back is giving
you some problem. To resolve the problem, you want to go through the MSDS of the
printer cartridge. From which of the following places can you obtain it?
A. In the store from where you have purchased your inkjet printer cartridge.
B. In the packaging of the printer cartridge.
C. You cannot legally obtain the MSDS of the printer cartridge.
D. At the website of the manufacturer of the printer cartridge.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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To obtain the MSDS of the printer cartridge, you need to visit the website of the
manufacturer of the printer cartridge. It is not a mandatory document that a company
must provide with the product. However, on demand it can be obtained from the
manufacturer's website.
QUESTION NO: 4
In order to provide a safe work environment, you want accident reporting to be
done on your company's website. Which of the following incidents should be
reported?
(Select all that apply.)
A. An accident
B. A near-accident
C. Dirty workplace
D. Water puddles on the office floor
E. Violence at workplace
Answer: A, B, D, E
Explanation:
Accidents, near-accidents, and Violence at workplace should always be reported. The
after puddles on the office floor may also cause accidents as people can slip and fall on
them. However, dirty workplace is not a safety issue and therefore nod not be reported.
QUESTION NO: 5
The humans need an electrostatic discharge of ________________ to feel a shock.
A. 300 volts
B. 3,000 volts
C. 30,000 volts
D. 300,000 volts
Answer: B
Explanation:
The humans need an electrostatic discharge of 3,000 volts to feel a shock. The charge
below 3,000 volts is below human sensation.

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QUESTION NO: 6
While working on the inner components of a computer, which of the following
options would you chose to keep yourself away from the ESD? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Antistatic wrist strap

B. Antistatic bag
C. Antistatic floor mat
D. Antistatic hair net
E. Antistatic gloves
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
While working on the inner components of a computer such as motherboard and its
components, you should use Antistatic wrist straps (for safe grounding), Antistatic bags
(to keep various parts), and floor mats to reduce the risk of ESD. There are nothing called
antistatic hair nets and antistatic gloves.
QUESTION NO: 7
You want to implement OSHA regulations to ensure a safe work environment in
your office. Which of the following rules do you need to follow? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Attend all the seminars of OSHA.

B. Ensure that your company uses properly maintained tools and equipment.
C. Ensure that you have records of accident reports.
D. Ensure that an OSHA poster is displayed at a prominent location.
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
To implement OSHA regulations to ensure a safe work environment in your office, you
need to maintain tools and equipment, keep records of accidents, and display a safety
information poster in your office. Attending OSHA seminars is however, not important.

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QUESTION NO: 8
The CRT monitor that you had discarded long time back has been broken down
recently. Which of the following options would you choose to dispose the broken
monitor?
A. Take it to a computer recycling center.

B. Discharge the monitor with a high-volt probe
C. Throw it away.
D. Give it to someone who can reuse it.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To dispose a Monitor, you should always take it to a computer recycling center because it
contains many harmful elements including lead. Throwing it away may cause
environmental problems and the broken monitor cannot be reused.
QUESTION NO: 9
You have shifted your work location to another floor of your office. You now need
to shift all the computer peripherals to the other room. Which of the following
options should you keep in mind while moving computer equipment? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Lift equipments by bending over at the waist.

B. Ensure that the glass face of the monitors is away from your body.
C. Use a cart to move heavy objects.
D. Ensure that the path is free of safety hazards.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
While moving computer equipment from one place to another, make sure that you use
carts for heavy objects and the path that you are using for taking these object is free of
safety hazards otherwise you may fall and hurt yourself.
You should always lift equipments by bending knees and not the waist. Monitors should
be carried with the glass facing towards your body.

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QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following methods would you choose to dispose the AA alkaline
batteries?
A. Throw them away.

B. Charge them and then reuse them.
C. Take them to a recycling center.
D. Flush them in a sewer.
E. Burn them
Answer: C
Explanation:
To dispose the AA alkaline batteries, you should take them to a recycling center because
they should always be recycled. Throwing them and flushing them can contaminate the
environment and burning them can explode them.
QUESTION NO: 11
You deal with wood and paper in your office premises. Which class of fire
extinguisher should you use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Combination of Class ABC
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
For Wood and paper fires, you should class A fire extinguisher or a combination Class
ABC extinguisher.
QUESTION NO: 12
You want to purchase different types of screwdrivers for different needs. Which of
the following are the different types of screwdrivers? (Select all that apply.)
A. Flathead

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B. Philips
C. Torx
D. Helix
E. Posidrive
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
The different types of are screwdrivers are flathead, Philips, Posidrive and Torx. Helix is
not a type of screwdriver. Instead it is Hex.
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following elements should you consider to create good safety plans for
your workplace? (Select all that apply.)
A. Monthly inspections at workplace

B. A training program for workers
C. Retribution for employees who do not abide by safety rules
D. A third-party auditing of safety programs at workplace
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Good safety plans are created to ensure that the interests of the workers are protected and
cost of company is reduced. Periodic workplace inspections and a training program for
workers are good safety plans.
Retribution of employees or punishing employees who do not abide by safety rules
should not be done. Third-party auditing of safety programs is not necessary. However,
you can get them done if required.
QUESTION NO: 14
The MSDS contains information on ___________.
A. Boiling point
B. Handling and storage instructions
C. Personal protection instructions
D. Firefighting measures

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Answer: E
Explanation:
MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheets) contain all kind of information such as the product
information, accident procedures, and safety procedures.
QUESTION NO: 15
As a responsible employee of a company, which of the following OSHA
requirements should be followed by you? (Select all that apply.)
A. Report all accidents to OSHA without any delay.

B. Use all protective gear and equipments.
C. Attend all safety trainings held by OSHA.
D. Follow all employer-implemented health and safety rules.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
As a responsible employee of a company, you should use all protective gear and
equipments and follow all employer-implemented health and safety rules so that a safe
work environment can be maintained.
Accidents must be reported to the employer, not OSHA. There are no rules requiring
safety training.
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following information should be documented when you change the
refresh rate of your monitor?
A. The old and the new refresh rate.

B. The method used to change the refresh rate.
C. All the refresh rates that were tested.
D. The color resolution requested by the user and the refresh rate applied.
Answer: A
Explanation:

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The information that should be documented when you change the refresh rate of your
monitor is the old and the new refresh rate. Both the monitor and adapter have different
refresh rates but they must agree on the refresh rate you select. If either device does not
support a particular refresh rate, such a rate cannot be used therefore the refresh rate that
was supported earlier and the new refresh rate is good information to be documented.
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following safety measures should you take to shift fifteen CRTs to the
other side of the building and get new LCDs from there?
A. Make use of back brace at your back while lifting and carrying the CRTs to another
location.
B. Make use of anti-static wrist straps to prevent ESD in the monitors.
C. Remove capacitors from the old monitors so that they can be used in new monitors
and then recycle the old monitors.
D. Request for the help of several technicians for lifting the CRT monitors and use a cart
for transporting them.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To shift fifteen CRTs to the other side of the building and get new LCDs from there, you
should request for the help of several technicians for lifting the CRT monitors and use a
cart for transporting them. While moving computer equipment from one place to another,
make sure that you use carts for heavy objects and the path that you are using for taking
these object is free of safety hazards otherwise you may fall and hurt yourself.
QUESTION NO: 18
identifying the best manner to stop the electrostatic discharge whilst working on a
notebook computer.
What should you do?
A. This can be achieved by unplugging the notebook computer.

B. This can be achieved using a wrist strap.
C. This can be achieved using an UPS.

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D. This can be achieved using nonmetallic tools.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
inquire about the devices that can have a dangerous electrical charge when it is
exposed.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the CRT monitor has a dangerous electrical charge.
B. You should inform her that the Laptop LCD screen has a dangerous electrical charge.
C. You should inform her that the Optical DVD-RW drive has a dangerous electrical
charge.
D. You should inform her that the USB mouse has a dangerous electrical charge.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
TestKing.com. During the course of the day you receive a call from a user who
wants to log a complaint.
What should you do?
A. Your first step should be to identify the user and problem.

B. Your first step should be to allocate a suitable priority for the issue.
C. Your first step should be to elevate the call to a higher level of support.
D. Your first step should be to identify the hardware make, model and serial number of
the device.

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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. You receive notification from
management to replace the current cables with one that will emit less toxic fumes in
the event of a fire.
What should you do?
A. You should consider using UTP cables.

B. You should consider using STP cables.
C. You should consider using Plenum cables.
D. You should consider using Non-plenum cables.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
of the day you receive an instruction from management to set up a test lab for ten
wired workstations as well as one switch that is in a star topology.
What should you do?
A. You should consider the amount of fans in the room to prevent overheating.
B. You should consider the electrical safety of users with the additional network cables.
C. You should consider placing the workstations in the correct position for air flow.
D. You should consider cable management in order to prevent trip hazards.
Answer: D

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Section 2: Given a scenario, demonstrate the appropriate use of
communication skills and professionalism in the workplace (39
Questions)
QUESTION NO: 1
You went with a problem to the Enterprise administrator of the company. The
administrator tried to explain the method to resolve the problem. Which of the
following ways would you choose to show the administrator that you are listening to
him?
A. Nodding at the administrator

B. Repeating what he is saying
C. Asking questions from the administrator
D. All of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
Explanation:
To show the administrator that you are listening to him, you can perform all these
actions.
QUESTION NO: 2
When you went to your colleague's workstation to verify that the network
connection is working. You did not find her around. Then you noticed the user
name and password of the user is written on a sticky note at the bottom of the
keyboard. What should you do?
A. Log in to the user's computer, verify the network connection, and log out.
B. Log in to the user's computer, verify the network connection, and stay logged in when
you are finished.
C. Page the user.
D. Log in and change the user's password.
Answer: C
Explanation:

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In the above given scenario the best action that you should take is to page the user and
then tell her that you visited her workstation to verify the network connection. You also
tell her about the sticky note you saw and recommend her to change her password.
Logging in to the user's computer is wrong and that way you would be violating her
privacy.
QUESTION NO: 3
Due to some reason, you will not be able to visit your customer's office to service his
problem even after promising him. Which of the following tasks should you do to
handle the situation?
A. The first thing that you do in the morning is to visit that customer.
B. Wait until after hours and then leave a message that you were there.
C. Call the customer and tell him about the situation.
D. Send him an e-mail informing him that you will be late.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If you will not be able to visit your customer's office to service his problem even after
promising him, you should call the customer and tell him about the situation. Although,
calling and sending an e-mail are quite same, but calling is an immediate means of
communication.
QUESTION NO: 4
When you visited a customer on his complaint about some problem with his
computer system, you were unable to understand what he is saying due to a thick
accent that he had. Which of the following tasks should you do to handle the
situation?
A. Don't pay any attention to him and start looking for obvious errors.
B. Call your supervisor and tell him about the situation.
C. Call another technician to handle the situation.
D. Apologize and find another user or manager who can help you translate.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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If you are unable to unable to understand what the customer is saying due to a thick
accent that he had, you should apologize and find another user or manager who can help
you translate. This may help you to understand the problem.
QUESTION NO: 5
A customer became very angry and shoved you against a wall when after
troubleshooting his system for 4-5 hours you told him that his data is irretrievably
lost. Which of the following actions should you do to handle the situation??
A. Shove the user back.

B. Register a complaint against the user.
C. Try to calm the user down.
D. Shout for help.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the situations like these you should try to calm the user down because physical abuse
should be avoided at all costs. You should then try to leave the premises of the user as
soon as possible and report the incident to your managers so that they may be aware of
what had happened.
QUESTION NO: 6
You visited a customer's house on his complaint to repair his computer. The
customer told you that technician who visited them earlier spent three hours on the
phone making personal calls. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. Nothing.
B. Inform your manager about the last technician.
C. Talk to the technician personally and recommend him not to repeat that again.
D. Ask the customer to prove the allegation.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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If you hear such information, you should inform your manager about that technician to
make your manager aware of the situation or concern so that this thing can be avoided in
future. You should not personally talk to the technician about the issue.
QUESTION NO: 7
The most critical website of your company is down because of a failed server. You
fond the CEO of the company very tense and worried. What should you do?
A. Lighten the environment for the CEO by offering a joke.

B. Pacify the CEO by downplaying the situation.
C. Show CEO that you are very serious about the situation by keep looking at manuals
D. Tell the CEO that this kind of problem is not new for you and you will find a way out
as soon as possible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In such situations you should always act with confidence. Ignoring, downplaying, or
joking is not a good way to handle such situations.
QUESTION NO: 8
A customer who was tired of being put on hold from one hold on queue to another
requested you to fix his problem as soon as possible. However, you were temporarily
filling in the on phone support. What should you do?
A. Tell customer that you will not be of much help because you are filling in temporarily.
B. Transfer his call to another technician.
C. Try to solve his problem as soon as possible without transferring his call anywhere
else.
D. Suggest the customer to call some other time when you are not there.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In such situation you must try to solve the customer's problem as soon as possible
without transferring his call anywhere else.

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QUESTION NO: 9
You have spent your whole day to solve a user's problem. However, when the
problem was about to solve, the user informed you that he has to leave. What should
you do?
A. Inform your manager that the user had to go.

B. Let the user go. Finish your work and leave a note about the work done and your
contact details.
C. Inform the user's manager that you have finished your work.
D. Leave the problem as it is and do the rest of the work next day when user comes again
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
To sign off on the job, it is important that you inform the managers involved in this task
and leave a note for the user about your contact details so that he can contact you in case
of a problem. This would leave the user with a sense that his problem has been taken care
of.
QUESTION NO: 10
A user called up to register a complaint against the computer problem that she is
facing. However, the use of profanity for every other word is creating hindrance in
your understanding the problem. What should you do?
A. Request the user to refrain from using an offensive language.

B. Do not pay any heed to the profanity.
C. Hang up the call.
D. Use as many expletives in your language as she is using.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If profanity for every other word is creating hindrance in your understanding the
problem, you must request the user to refrain from using an offensive language.
Although, profanity shows the frustration of the user, it should be eliminated. However,
this is not always correct and can make the already upset customer even angrier. But the
customer is not always right, and she should be made to realize about the problem
keeping in mind that she is always a customer.

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QUESTION NO: 11
While troubleshooting a network problem at your customer's place, you realized it
to be necessary to reboot the server. What should you do?
A. Inform all the users through a broadcast a message that the server will restart in few
minutes.
B. Reboot as the server quickly.
C. Ask the customer to reboot the server in the lunch time.
D. Ask the customer to reboot the server after office hours.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should be courteous to inform all the users through a broadcast a message that the
server will restart in few minutes.
You should not reboot the server quickly without first informing the network users
because it may hinder their work. Also you should not leave the server reboot to the
customer because it is a part of your responsibility and a problem can occur in your
absence.
QUESTION NO: 12
As an IT support staff of your company, you have to abide by several ethics. Which
of the following IT ethic is also governed by the law?
A. Punctuality
B. Accountability
C. Privacy
D. Respect
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IT ethic that is also governed by the law is Privacy of the customers and the
company.

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QUESTION NO: 13
You have been assigned a service call in the field. Which of the following options is
the correct time to close the call?
A. When you are handed the complaint

B. When you arrive at the client's premises
C. When you have solved the problem
D. When the customer is satisfied
Answer: D
Explanation:
The complaint call should be closed when the customer is satisfied with the solution you
have given and the problem is resolved.
QUESTION NO: 14
At the customer's site after resolving the customer's problem, the customer insisted
to have your contact details so that she may get hold of you after hours if there is a
problem. What should you provide her?
A. Your home phone number

B. Your office phone number
C. Your mobile phone number
D. It depends on company policy.
E. You should not provide her any personal contact details
Answer: D
Explanation:
If the customer insists on the contact details so that you can be traced after hours, you
must provide contact details as per the policy of your company. As a representative of
your company, you must always follow company policy.
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following options would you choose if while providing phone support
to a customer, she suddenly asks for your name?
A. Hang up the phone.

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B. Provide your first name.
C. Make a joke.
D. Ask her why he wants to know.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The names are often used to ease the conversation. If you have been asked for your name
you should provide your first name and continue with the conversation.
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following actions would you take if you notice a network switch that is
likely to fail soon, while troubleshooting a server problem for a customer?
A. Focus only on the problem that you have come to fix.

B. Inform the customer about the erroneous network switch.
C. Tell the customer that he needs to fix the other problem now as well.
D. Fix the network switch and charge the customer for that also.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you notice a network switch that is likely to fail soon while troubleshooting a server
problem for a customer, you must inform the customer about the erroneous network
switch. This is because the switch is still working and it is possible that that customer has
already ordered a replacement.
QUESTION NO: 17
On arriving at the customer's place to solve his desktop problem, you did not find
the customer around. What should you do?
A. Page the customer.

B. Sit and wait for the user.
C. Call your manager and check for other jobs to be done.
D. Come back later.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
If you have been called by the customer and the customer is not around, you must page
the customer and inform him about your arrival. You cannot keep sitting and waiting for
the customer. Neither should you call your manager for other jobs till the current call is
attended.
QUESTION NO: 18
Your supervisor is explaining the solution of a complicated problem to you. Which
of the following is the best way to show your supervisor that you are listening to her
description?
A. Taking notes
B. Smiling
C. Blinking
D. Winking
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to show your supervisor that you are listening to her description is by
taking notes. This way your supervisor will know that you are paying attention to the
details and attempting to fully comprehend them.
QUESTION NO: 19
When you arrived at the customer's office on their complaint, you were told by the
customer that they did not want to deal with you because they are used to dealing
with another technician, who is currently unavailable. What should you do?
A. Don't care about what they say and continue towards the equipment you have been
called to fix.
B. Leave the client's office immediately.
C. Tell the customer that the other technician is not as qualified as you are.
D. Call your manager and inform him of the situation.
Answer: D
Explanation:

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In such a situation, you should call your manager and inform him of the situation,
without showing any disrespect to the client or the fellow technician. Your manager can
best guide you about handling the situation.
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following actions should you take if while responding to a customer's
call, your co-worker keeps on insisting on telling you about his weekend stories?
A. Listen to the co-worker's stories after taking customer's permission to put him on hold.
B. Join the conversation with the co-worker and put the customer on hold just for a few
minutes.
C. Join the conversation with the co-worker after forwarding the customer to another
technician.
D. Politely ask the co-worker to talk later after taking customer's permission to put him
on hold.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In such a scenario it is important that you politely ask the co-worker to talk later after
taking customer's permission to put him on hold. This is because the customers are very
important for a company and putting them on hold for a long time or forwarding their call
to another technician would annoy the customer.
QUESTION NO: 21
A customer who was very worried because his computer was unable to boot and he
had to submit his research papers by the end of the day has approached you. Which
of the following responses would be an appropriate response for the customer?
A. You should blame user for downloading a Trojan recently that has caused the
problem. And tell him that the virus may have infected the OS or worked its way into the
MBR.
B. You should comfort user by telling him that you understand his concern, and will try
to solve his problem as soon as possible so that he can finish and submit his research
papers.
C. You should ask user that if the paper was so important then why did he not create a
backup copy of the papers on another computer so that he could finish his work in time.

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D. You should tell that you are unable to understand why he is so upset. He can tell his
professor about the problem and his professor will understand the problem for sure.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The appropriate response for the customer in this situation will be to comfort user by
telling him that you understand his concern, and will try to solve his problem as soon as
possible so that he can finish and submit his research papers. Blaming him or giving him
an unpractical suggestion will make the user think that you don't understand the urgency
of his work and therefore not taking his problem seriously.
QUESTION NO: 22
You are employed as the senior desktop support technician at TestKing.com. The
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a complaint stating that a file
server experienced an anticipated outage before office hours. The technician has a
strong suspicion that it could be a bad on-board NIC. Various users harass the
helpdesk personnel demanding how long the server will be down.
What should you do?
A. You should inform them that there is no way to determine how long the server will be
offline as hardware and software is not exact sciences.
B. You should inform them that there is an error with the NIC and that the server will be
operational by the following day.
C. You should inform them that the error was identified and technicians are working
around the clock to have the server up and running as soon as possible.
D. You should inform them that the server will be operational and they can have the rest
of the day off as the technicians fix the server.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23

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laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com.
During the day a user logs a call to reset the printer server since they are unable to
print any documents. The user also informs you that there are a number of
documents in the queue when she looks in the printer in the control panel. You
detect that the possible reason for the error is a paper jam.
What should you do?
A. You should send a technician to fix the paper jam and supply the user with reference
material to examine preventative techniques in order to fix minor problems.
B. You should inform her that a technician is in the process of repairing the paper jam
and it will result in printer jobs piling up.
C. You should log the complaint and ask the user questions to determine if they know
what the possible error is.
D. You should inform her that her solution to the problem did not work and trained
personnel will take the matter further.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. One of the users experiences a
few errors with her workstation and inquires how long it will take to resolve the
errors on the workstation.
What should you do?
A. You should consider giving the user a projected time for the repairs based on your
assessment.
B. You should inform the user to contact the helpdesk daily to determine whether the
system is operational.
C. You should enquire when the user wants the job to be completed.
D. You should inform the user that he or she will be contacted when the problem is
solved as other users are before her on the repair list.

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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
TestKing.com has employed you as a technician at TestKing.com. You receive an
instruction to fix a workstation for one of the clients. Upon arrival you find the
client very angry and agitated that it took three hours for a response.
What should you do?
A. You should explain to the client that there is problems with the call tracking system
and inform the client that the present service level agreement allows for a ten hour
response.
B. You should complete the task in an expedited manner and when you are done you
document the situation and inform your superior about the clients' behavior.
C. You should contact the dispatch team without delay and request to speak to a manager
to determine the breakdown in response time.
D. You should empathize with the client and focus on completing the task in an
expedited manner and when you are done you document the situation and inform your
superior that the client was not happy with the response time.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
testking.com. You are currently on a service call to a client when you receive a
personal call.
What should you do?
A. You should ask the client permission before answering the call.
B. You should ignore the call and call back after you done with the client.
C. You should answer the call and put the client on hold.
D. You should tell the client to call back later as you are experiencing problems with the
line.

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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to report some problems and whilst explaining
the symptoms you already know what the problem is.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the solution is known and no other symptoms need to be
discussed.
B. You should wait until she is finished and refer her to a website in order to find the
resolution.
C. You should be polite and listen without interrupting her if it does not take too much
time.
D. You should ask her to repeat the symptoms numerous times to ensure that you have all
the facts.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
TestKing.com user named Amy Walsh informs you regarding an update that
happened months ago that have no affiliation with the current problem she is
experiencing.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the update has nothing to do with the problems she is
experiencing and continue to implement a solution.
B. You should wait until the user is done with her statement and inform her how to
resolve the new issue.
C. You should inform her where the information of the update was released.

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D. You should disregard the statement and proceed to resolve the new issue.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
resolving a wireless connectivity issue with a user's mobile computer when the
users' colleague interrupts the user whilst explaining the problem with issue that is
not related to the current problem.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that you will fix the problem if there are more problems
on the mobile computer.
B. You should inform the users' colleague to let the user finish their explanation and
listen carefully to what the user is saying.
C. You should inform the users' colleague to stop interrupting and inform him to go
away.
D. You should inform the user that you are able to solve his colleagues' problem but he
has to wait his turn.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
reporting that a program she used the previous day is missing. You need to identify
the appropriate questions to ask her to determine the extent of the problem.
What should you ask her?
A. You should ask her to check the Recycle Bin to see whether it was accidentally
deleted.
B. You should ask her whether they experienced a power outage the previous day.

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C. You should ask her to check if the program is misfiled.
D. You should ask her if she is sure she used that program.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Amy Walsh contacted the Help desk to report some problems and whilst explaining
the symptoms you already know what the problem is.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the solution is known and no other symptoms need to be
discussed.
B. You should wait until she is finished and refer her to a website in order to find the
resolution.
C. You should be polite and listen without interrupting her if it does not take too much
time.
D. You should ask her to repeat the symptoms numerous times to ensure that you have all
the facts.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
You are employed as a technician at TestKing.com. You are in the process of
repairing a printer problem. Upon completion the clients inquires what caused the
problem.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the client that the process of removal is so intricate that only
professional trained people should resolve it.
B. You should inform the client that moisture in the paper tray caused the paper jam.
C.

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You should inform the client the error occurred due to condensation in the lower tray
assembly which stopped the rollers of the printer from turning.
D. You should inform the client that the error occurred due to negligence.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
instruction to release a mandatory update to all employees. This update will reboot
their client computers. To ensure productivity management wants the update to run
during the lunch break of all employees. Prior to releasing the update, you need to
determine the best way to inform all employees about managements plan.
What should you do?
A. You should install the update without notifying the employees.

B. You should post notices in the building.
C. You should stop the mandatory update.
D. You should e-mail employees regarding the update.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
TestKing.com user named Amy Walsh informs you regarding an update that
happened months ago that have no affiliation with the current problem she is
experiencing.
What should you do?
A. You should inform her that the update has nothing to do with the problems she is
experiencing and continue to implement a solution.

- 336 -
B. You should wait until the user is done with her statement and inform her how to
resolve the new issue.
C. You should inform her where the information of the update was released.
D. You should disregard the statement and proceed to resolve the new issue.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
resolving a wireless connectivity issue with a user's mobile computer when the
users' colleague interrupts the user whilst explaining the problem with issue that is
not related to the current problem.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user that you will fix the problem if there are more problems
on the mobile computer.
B. You should inform the users' colleague to let the user finish their explanation and
listen carefully to what the user is saying.
C. You should inform the users' colleague to stop interrupting and inform him to go
away.
D. You should inform the user that you are able to solve his colleagues' problem but he
has to wait his turn.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
testking.com. During the course of the day you receive a call from a user stating that
the helpdesk has not returned her call after she logged a complaint a week ago.
What should you do?
A. You should inform the user to be patient as her problem will be resolved soon.

- 337 -
B. You should inform the user you have no record of the previous call.
C. You should open a new docket and delete the previous docket.
D. You should apologize an inform the user that the problem is escalated to a supervisor
for resolution.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
receive a call from an angry user reporting that an error that occurred previously
has just surfaced again. The user is not pleased with any efforts to resolve the issue
and becomes more agitated with the attempts at resolution.
What should you do?
A. You should let the user continue without interrupting her until a response is requested
from you.
B. You should inform the user that the technician is trying to assist her.
C. You should inform the user that the technician is consulting his supervisor.
Thereafter you can put the user on hold.
D. You should inform the user that you are aware that the technicians are not completely
resolving certain issues and inform her that it will be resolved.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 38
explaining to users in your department what a call logging process is used for.
A. This process is used to choose the correct priority level for the issue.
B. This process is used to determine the common issues amongst numerous users.
C. This process is used to compose a record that will enable user authentication.

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D. This process assists you in maintaining a balanced workload for the help desk
technicians.
E. This process is used to track the process of the incident.
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO: 39
both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at TestKing.com. TestKing.com
has recently developed a new policy that requires that all users sign a Standard
Operating Procedure. The signed procedure needs to be displayed on the
companies' bulletin boards throughout the organization. Employees signing and
adhering to the new policy is an example of?
A. It is an example of self monitoring, analysis and reporting technology (S.M.A.R.T).

B. It is an example of workplace compliance.
C. It is an example of professionalism in the workplace.
D. It is an example of dealing appropriately with confidential materials.
Answer: B

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Total number of questions: 699

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A. Read /write head

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A. Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R

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A. A solid-state drive has larger storage capacity

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What should you do?

A. You should identify a Tape drive as a solid state.

What should you do?

A. This can be accomplished running a Copy backup.

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What should you identify?

What should you do?

A. A Tape can be regarded as optical.

What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

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What should you inform them?

A. Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 650MB.

What should you do?

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What should you inform the user?

A. The maximum speed is at which it can read is 24x.

What should you identify?

A. Your best option would be to identify Blu-Ray.

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What should you do?

What should you do?

A. You should identify USB 1.1/2.0.

What should you identify?

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What should you inform them?

A. The USB 2.0 interface will permit you a faster speed.

What should you do?

A. Your best option would be to make use of RAID 10.

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Section 2: Explain motherboard components, types and features

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A. FireWire adapter card

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What should you do?

A. You best option would be to make use of standoffs.

What should you do?

A. Your best option would be to go to LDAP.

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What should you do?