Board Problem Template

Pamantasan ng Lungsod ng Maynila
College of Engineering and Technology

Chemical Engineering Department
DAY 1
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. The formal charge on oxygen in the molecule shown is
a. +2
b. +1
c. 0
d. -1
e. -2
2. Which of the following compounds or ions would be trigonal planar in shape?

a.BF4-1
b. H3O+
c. AlF3
d. CH3
3. When an s orbital and 1 p orbitals hybridize to form hybrid molecular orbitals,

_____ (how many) hybrid orbital(s) is/are formed that we refer to as _________
orbital(s). The atom will also then contain ________ unhybridized p orbitals.
a. 1, sp, 2
b. 2, sp, 2
c. 3, sp2,1
d. 4, sp3,0
4. How many hydrogen atoms in the following steroid?

3 OH 1
2
1
2
2
2 1
2 1
1
1 2
1 1 1
O
Chemical Engineering Board Problems 1

a. 18
b. 20
c. 21
d. 24
5. The structure of Nicotine is shown below. How many sp 2 hybridized carbon

atoms are in the molecule?
N
H
CH3
Nicotine
N
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
6. A fairly common algal metabolite is the compound (-)-geosmin, which

imparts a musty odor to water even at concentrations in the ppb range. What is
the molecular formula of geosmin?
CH3
OH
CH3
a. C11H20O
b. C12H22O
c. C11H21O
d. C12H20O

7. What would be the ideal value for the indicated bond angle in the following
compound?
Br
a. 90°
b. 109°
c. 120°
d. 180°
8. Which of the molecules below can hydrogen-bond to water but NOT to itself?
a. CH3 CH2 O CH2 CH3
b. b. CH3 CH2 COOH
c. (CH3CH2)2 CHOH
d. d. CH3 CH2 NHCH2 CH3
9. An alkane contains 32 carbon atoms. What is its formula?

a. C32H32
b. C32H60
c. C32H64
d. C32H66
10. The following Newman projection corresponds to which compound?
H
a. pentane H CH2CH3
b. butane
CH3CH2 H
c. 3-ethylbutane H
d. hexane

11. Which of the following should be able to dissolve a polar compound?

a. liquid NH3
b. CCl4
c. benzene
d. hexane
12. Which of the formula types gives us the MOST information about the
structure of a molecule?
a. a bond-line formula
b. a molecular formula
c. a Lewis structure
d. a condensed formula
13. Which of the following is NOT an intermolecular force?

a. Ion-ion
b. Dipole-dipole
c. London force
d. d. Resonance
14. Reactions that release a large amount of heat are often very favorable
reactions. Such reactions are often referred to as _________________________
reactions.
a. entropy driven
b. enthalpy driven
c. free energy driven
d. activation energy driven
15. Which of the following is a propagation step in the free-radical bromination of

methane?
a. CH3· + Br· → CH3Br
b. Br2 + light → 2Br·

c. CH3· + Br2 → CH3Br + Br·

d. CH3· + CH3· → CH3CH3
16. Which of the following is NOT true of free-radical halogenation reactions?

a. Fluorine is more reactive than chlorine in these reactions.
b. Bromine is more selective than chlorine.
c. The reactions require light, heat, or other free-radicals to proceed.
d. Brominations are faster than chlorinations.
17. Alkanes are noted for their (choose one)

a. high reactivity.
b. toxicity.
c. intense odor.
d. lack of reactivity.
18. In a carbon free radical, the single unpaired electron resides in?
a. an sp2 orbital.
b. an sp3 orbital.
c. an s orbital.
d. a p orbital.
19. Hyperconjugation is MOST useful for stabilizing which of the following?

a. pentyl radical
b. tert-butyl radical
c. isopropyl radical
d. ethyl radical

20. cis-1,3-Dibromocyclohexane is represented by structure(s):
Br Br
a. I
H H
b. II H H
Br
Br
c. III Br Br
H H
d. I & II
I II III
21. The preferred conformation of cis-3-tert-butyl-1-methylcyclohexane is the one in

which:
a. the tert-butyl group is axial and the methyl group is equatorial.
b. the methyl group is axial and the tert-butyl group is equatorial.
c. both groups are axial.
d. both groups are equatorial.
22. Which of the following has the HIGHEST heat of combustion per CH2 group?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
I II III IV
23. What structure represents the most stable conformation of cis-1,3-

dimethylcyclohexane?
CH3 H CH3
a. I
H H CH3 CH3 H
b. II H3C
c. III H3C H
H I II III
d. IV
H H
e. V H
CH3 CH3
H3C
H3C
H
IV V

24. Which choice correctly lists the following compounds in INCREASING order
with respect to their boiling points? C 2H6 , C20H44 , C3H7Cl, C4H9OH, and C5H12
a. C3H7Cl < C5H12 < C2H6 < C4H9OH < C20H44

b. C2H6 < C5H12 < C20H44 < C3H7Cl < C4H9OH
c. C4H9OH < C2H6 < C5H12 < C3H7Cl < C20H44
d. C2H6 < C5H12 < C3H7Cl < C4H9OH < C20H44
24. An alkane, C6H14, reacts with chlorine to yield four constitutional isomers with the
formula C 6H 13Cl. The structure of the alkane is:
a. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
CH3
b. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH3
CH3
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3
c.
d. CH3
CH3 CH2 C CH3
CH3
25. Which of the following correctly represents cyclopropylcyclohexane?
a. I
b. II I II
c. III
d. IV
III IV

26. The twisted boat conformation is the preferred conformation for this compound.
a. cis-1,4-Di-tert-butylcyclohexane
b. trans-1,4-Di-tert-butylcyclohexane
c. cis-1,3-Di-tert-butylcyclohexane
d. trans-1,2-Di-tert-butylcyclohexane
27. (R)-2-Chlorobutane is represented by:
CH3 CH3 H CH2CH3 CH2Cl

a. I
H3C Cl Cl CH3 H3C Cl H3C Cl H H
b. II
CH2CH3 CH2CH3 CH2CH3 H CH2CH3
c. III
I II III IV V
d. IV
e. V
28. Hexane and 3-methylpentane are examples of:

a. enantiomers.
b. stereoisomers.
c. diastereomers.
d. constitutional isomers.
29. The molecules shown are:

H H
Not chiral
a. constitutional isomers. H Br H Br
b. enantiomers.
c. diastereomers.
H Cl Cl H
d. identical.
CH3 CH3

30. Which compound does not possess a plane of symmetry?
CH3 CH3 OH OH
a. I
H OH HO H H3C H H CH3
b. II
H OH H CH3 H CH3 H CH3
c. III
CH3 OH OH OH
d. IV
I II III IV
31. Which statement is not true for a meso compound?

a. The specific rotation is 0°.
b. There are one or more planes of symmetry.
c. A single molecule is identical to its mirror image.
d. The stereochemical labels, (R) and (S), must be identical for each
stereocenter.
32. CH3CHBrCHBrCHBrCH 3 is the generalized representation of what number of

stereoisomers? (Hint – Draw the structural formula)
a. 3 (2R,4R) (2S,4S) (2R,4S) (meso) carbon #3 is not chiral
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
33. Which of the following is a meso compound?
Br Br Br Br
a. I
Br
Br
b. II
Br
c. III
Br Br Br
d. IV I II III IV V
e. V

34. Which is the correct structure for (R)-bromofluoroiodomethane?
Br H Br H
I H I Br H F Br I
I II III IV
F F I F
a. I b. II c. III d. IV

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. A stable complex of a metal with one or more polydentate ligands . For
example, calcium complexes with EDTA to form a chelate.
A. chelate
B. ammine
C. weak ligand
D. crystal field theory
2. The number of bonds formed by the central atom in a metal-ligand complex.

A. chelate
B. coordination number
C. crystal field splitting energy
3. Ligands complexed to a metal ion will raise the energy of some of its d orbitals
and lower the energy of others. The difference in energy is called the crystal field
splitting energy.
A. monodentate
4. The color, spectra, and magnetic properties of metal-ligand complexes can be

explained by modeling the effect of ligands on metal's d orbital energies.
A. chelate

5. A metal ion complex containing ammonia as a ligand. The ammonia nitrogen is

bound directly to a metal ion in ammines; amines differ in that the ammonia
nitrogen is directly bound to a carbon atom.
A. chelate
D. ammine
6. A ligand that causes a small crystal field splitting which results in a high-spin
complex
A. chelate
C. weak ligand
D. ammine
7. A binary compound containing oxygen in the -½ oxidation state. For example,

KO2 is potassium superoxide, an ionic compound containing the superoxide ion,
O2-.
A. chelate
B. superoxide
C. weak ligand
D. ammine
8. A ligand that has only one atom that coordinates directly to the central atom in
a complex
A. monodentate
B. superoxide
C. weak ligand
D. ammine

9. A fuel gas used in industrial synthesis of organic chemicals, and in welding,

glassmaking, and other high-temperature industrial applications.
A. monodentate
B. superoxide
C. water gas
D. ammine
10. The study of inorganic compounds, specifically their structure, reactions,

catalysis, and mechanism of action.
A. monodentate
B. inorganic chemistry
C. water gas
D. ammine
11. A polydentate ligand that tightly complexes certain metal ions.

A. EDTA
B. inorganic chemistry
C. water gas
D. ammine
12. Of the elements N, P, As, Sb, and Bi, which one has the most metallic character?
a. N
b. P
c. As
d. Sb
e. Bi
13. Oxides of the alkaline earth family form
a. basic solutions.
b. acidic solutions.
c. gases with water.
d. noble gas compounds.
e. soluble sulfides.

14. Oxides of nitrogen are known which have the following positive oxidation
numbers of nitrogen.
a. +2, +4
b. +2, +4, +6
c. +1, +3, +5
d. +2, +4, +5
e. +1, +2, +3, +4, +5
15. All of the following are acid-base conjugate pairs EXCEPT

a. H3O+, OH-
b. H2O, OH-
c. NH4+, NH3
d. CH3COOH, CH3COO-
e. HPO4-2, PO4-3
16. Which of the following species is the best reducing agent?

a. Cl2
b. F2
c. Na
d. Br-
e. O2-
17. All of the following would be expected to function as reducing agents EXCEPT
a. H2.
b. NH3.
c. Sn2+.
d. Mg.
e. Al3+.

18.
The strongest reducing agent of this series is

a. H2
b. Br2
c. Br-
d. Al
e. Al3+
19. An example of a neutral bidentate ligand is

a. ammonia.
b. oxalate (C2O4 -2).
c. acetate.
d. ethylenediamine. e. EDTA.
20. The name of the coordination compound with the formula Na[FeCl4] is
a. sodium iron(III) tetrachloride.
b. sodium tetrachloroferide(III).
c. sodium chloroferrate(IV).
d. sodium tetrachloroferrate(III).
e. sodium ferroyltetrachloride.

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. In the following reaction
HF(aq) + H2O(l) ↔ H3O+(aq) + F-(aq)
a. HF is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base.
b. H2O is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base.
c. HF is an acid and F- is its conjugate base.
d. H2O is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base.
2. What is the pH of a 4.2 x 10-4 M HBr solution at 25 ºC?

a. 2.80
b. 3.38
c. 3.80
d. 4.20
3. Which is the strongest acid?

a. Ascorbic acid, Ka= 8.0 x 10-5
b. Benzoic acid, Ka= 6.5 x 10-5
c. 3-chlorobenzoic acid, Ka= 1.5 x 10-4
d. Chloroacetic acid, Ka= 1.4 x 10-3
4. Knowing that H2S is a stronger acid than HCN, determine, if possible, in which
direction the following equilibrium lies.
HCN(aq) + HS-(aq) ↔ CN-(aq) + H2S(aq)
a. equilibrium lies to the left
b. equilibrium lies to the right
c. equilibrium is perfectly balanced left and right
d. can be determined if the relative acidity of HS€ is given
5. We have a 4.63 x 10-4 M solution of HCl. What is the pH of this solution at 25ºC?
a. 3.33
b. 4.00

c. 4.63
d. 8.37
6. What is the pH of a 3.18 M CH3COOH solution at 25 ºC? Ka = 1.8 x 10-5?

a. 2.12
b. 2.75
c. 1.40
d. 4.24
7. What is the % ionization of a 3.14 M CH3CO2H solution at 25 ºC? For

CH3CO2H, Ka= 1.8 x 10-5.
a. 0.24%
b. 0.57%
c. 1.8%
d. 3.2%
8. Which of the following acid-base reactions will lie predominantly toward the
products?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
9. We add 1.00 mL of 10.0 M HNO3 to 100. mL of 0.10 M NaHCOO. What is the pH

of the resulting solution? Ka(HCOOH) = 1.8 x 10-4
a. 2.37
b. 3.45
c. 4.27

d. 4.35
10. If you mix 100. mL of 0.11 M HCl with 50.0 mL of 0.22 M NH3, what is the pH
of the resulting solution? For .
a. 4.63
b. 5.19
c. 6.02
d. 8.37
11. If you mix 125. mL of 0.50 M CH3CO2H with 75.0 mL of 0.83 M NaOH, what is the
pH of the resulting solution? For CH3COO-, Kb = 5.6 x 10-10
a. 4.88
b. 5.01
c. 8.99
d. 7.14
12. What effect will the addition of the reagent in each of the following have on
the pH of the CH3CO2H solution respectively?
a. no change, increase
b. no change, decrease
c. decrease, no change
d. increase, increase
13. If you add 20.0 mL of 2.30 M NH3 to 100. mL of a 1.17 M NH4Cl solution, what is
the pH of the resulting solution? For NH , Kb = 1.8 x 10-5
a. 5.15
b. 6.35
c. 7.10
d. 8.85

14. We have 250. mL of a 0.56 M solution of NaCH3COO. How many milliliters of a

0.50 M CH3COOH solution should be added to make a buffer of pH = 4.40?
Ka(CH3COOH) = 1.8 x 10-5
a. 200
b. 230
c. 620
d. 710
15. Which of the following is the solubility product constant for Mn(OH)2?
a. Ksp = [Mn2+][OH-]2
b. Ksp = [Mn2+][2OH-]2
c. Ksp = [Mn2+]2[OH-]2
d. Ksp = [Mn2+]2[ OH-]
16. Rank the compounds from lowest to highest molar solubility.

FeCO3; Ksp = 3.5 x 10-11
BaSO4; Ksp = 1.1 x 10-10
ZnCO3; Ksp = 1.5 x 10-11
a. ZnCO3 < BaSO4 < FeCO3

b. FeCO3 < ZnCO3 < BaSO4
c. ZnCO3 < FeCO3 < BaSO4
d. BaSO4 < ZnCO3 < FeCO3
17. What is the concentration of SO 2- in a saturated solution of BaSO4 if Ksp = 1.1 x

10-10?
a. 1.1 x 10-10 M
b. 5.5 x 10-11 M
c. 5.0 x 10-5 M
d. 1.0 x 10-5 M

18. Which of the following has the highest molar solubility?

a. PbCO3; Ksp = 1.5 x 10-13
b. PbS; Ksp = 8.4 x 10-28
c. PbI2; Ksp = 8.7 x 10-9
d. PbSO4; Ksp = 1.8 x 10-8
19. For MgF2, Ksp = 6.4 x 10-9. If you mix 400. mL of 1 x 10-4 M Mg(NO3)2 and
500. mL of 1.00 x 10-4 M NaF, what will be observed?
a. A precipitate forms because Qsp > Ksp.
b. A precipitate forms because Qsp < Ksp.
c. No precipitate forms because Qsp = Ksp.
d. No precipitate forms because Qsp < Ksp.
20. For AgI, Ksp = 8.3 x 10-17. What is the molar solubility of AgI in a solution which is
5.1 x 10-4 M in AgNO3?
a. 5.1 x 10-2 mol/L
b. 1.1 x 10-5 mol/L
c. 8.3 x 10-11 mol/L
d. 1.6 x 10-13 mol/L

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following represents an increase in entropy?
a. freezing of water
b. boiling of water
c. crystallization of salt from a supersaturated solution
d. the reaction 2NO(g) → N2O2(g)
2. Calculate the standard entropy change for the following reaction, Cu(s) + 1/2
O2(g) → CuO(s) given that Sº[Cu(s)] = 33.15 J/K•mol, Sº[O2(g)] = 205.14 J/K•mol,
and Sº[CuO(s)] = 42.63 J/K•mol
a. 195.66 J/K
b. 93.09 J/K
c. -45.28 J/K
d. -93.09 J/K
3. Calculate the standard entropy change for the following reaction, CCl4(l) +
O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2Cl2(g) given that Sº[CCl4(l)] = 216.40 J/K•mol, Sº[CO2(g)] =
213.74 J/K•mol, Sº[O2(g)] = 205.14 J/K•mol, and Sº[Cl2(g)] = 223.07 J/K•mol.
a. -25.78 J/K
b. -15.27 J/K
c. +1.93 J/K
d. 238.34 J/K
4. In which of the following reactions do you expect to have the smallest entropy
change?
a. 2HF(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + F2(g)
b. 2Fe(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → Fe2O3(s)
c. CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
d. Cu(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CuO(s)

5. If ∆G is positive at all temperatures, then ∆S is and ∆H is .

a. positive, negative
b. negative, positive
c. small, zero
d. large, zero
6. If ∆H and ∆S are both negative or positive, then ∆G has a sign.

a. positive
b. negative
c. variable
d. large
7. At what temperature would a given reaction become spontaneous if ∆H =+119

kJ and ∆S = +263 J/K?
a. 452 K
b. 2210 K
c. 382 K
d. 2.21 K
8. Given the following information, calculate ∆Gº for the reaction below at 25 ºC:
SnCl4(l) + 2H2O(l) → SnO2(s) + 4HCl(g)
∆Hº = 133.0 kJ and ∆Sº = 401.5 J/K
a. -252.6 kJ
b. -13.4 kJ
c. 13.4 Kj
d. 122.9 kJ

9. For the process at 25 ºC I2(g) to I2(s), what are the signs of ∆G, ∆H, and ∆S?
10. All of the following have ∆Gºf = O EXCEPT

a. O2(g)
b. Br2(g)
c. H2(g)
d. Ca(s)
11. Consider an electrochemical cell where the following reaction takes place:
3Sn2+(aq) + 2Al(s) → 3Sn(s) + 2Al3+(aq)
Which of the following is the correct cell notation for this cell?
a. Al │ Al3+ ││ Sn2+ │ Sn
b. Al3+ │ Al ││ Sn │ Sn2+
c. Sn │ Sn2+ ││ Al3+ │ Al
d. Sn │ Al3+ ││ Al │ Sn2+
12. Calculate ∆G for the following reaction:

I2(s) + 2Br-(aq) → 2I-(aq) + Br2(›)
a. +105 kJ
b. -105 kJ
c. +312 kJ
d. +52 kJ
13. Calculate ∆G for the following reaction:

2Au3+(aq) + 3Zn(s) → 2Au(s) + 3Zn2+(aq)
a. +1310 kJ

b. +655 kJ
c. -437 kJ
d. -1310 kJ
14. Using data from the reduction potential table and the reaction
2Ag(s) + Pt2+(aq) → Pt(s) + 2Ag+(aq) Eº = 0.38 V
Calculate the standard reduction potential of the half-reaction
Pt2+(aq) + 2e- → Pt(s)
a. -1.18 V
b. -0.40 V
c. 0.40 V
d. 1.18 V
15. Using data from the reduction potential table, predict which of the following is
the best reducing agent.
a. Ag+
b. Al
c. F-
d. Sn2+
16. Given the following two half-reactions

Cd2+(aq) + 2e- → Cd(s) Eº = -0.40 V Zr4+(aq) + 4e- → Zr(s) Eº = -1.53 V
Determine Eº and the spontaneity of the following reaction:
2Cd2+(aq) + Zr(s) → 2Cd(s) + Zr4+(aq)
a. +1.13 V and not spontaneous
b. +1.13 V and spontaneous
c. -1.13 V and not spontaneous
d. -1.13 V and spontaneous

17. What is the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298 K?
2Ag+(aq) + 2I-(aq) → I2(s) + 2Ag(s) Eº = +0.265 V
a. 2.99 x 104
b. 9.04 x 108
c. 7.73 x 103
d. 87.9
18. What is the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 37øC?
Hg 2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) → 2Hg(l) + Cl2(g) Eº = -0.57 V
a. 5.1 x 10-20
b. 1.7 x 10-43
c. 2.1 x 1028
d. 2.9 x 10-19
19. How many coulombs of charge are required to deposit 1.00 g Ag from a
solution of Ag+(aq)?
a. 9.27 x 10-3
b. 1.00
c. 894
d. 1230
20. How much platinum would be produced by passing a 2.0 ampere current
through a solution of Pt2+ for 30. minutes?
a. 15 g
b. 7.3 g
c. 3.6 g
d. 1.8 g

ANSWERS INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. A PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
2. B
Day 1 3. C 1. B
4. D 2. D
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
5. D 3. D
1. D 6. C 4. A
2. C 7. B 5. B
3. B 8. A 6. C
4. D 9. C 7. A
5. D 10. B 8. C
6. B 11. A 9. B
7. C 12. E 10. B
8. A 13. A 11. A
9. D 14. E 12. A
10. D 15. A 13. D
11. A 16. C 14. D
12. C 17. E 15. B
13. D 18. D 16. B
14. B 19. D 17. B
15. C 20. D 18. D
16. D 19. C
17. D ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY 20. C
18. D 1. C
19. B 2. B
20. A 3. E
21. D 4. A
22. A 5. A
23. B 6. A
24. D 7. A
25. C 8. A
26. C 9. A
27. A 10. B
28. C 11. D
29. D 12. D
30. B 13. D
31. C 14. C
32. D 15. A
33. A 16. C
34. E 17. D
35. B 18. C
19. D
20. D

DAY 2
RATE OF PROCESSES
1. What is meant by the total rate of a reaction?

(A) The forward rate of the reaction
(B) The reverse rate of the reaction
(C) The sum of the forward and reverse rates of the reaction
(D) None of the above
2. Which of the following rate laws could describe a third order reaction?
(A) rate = 3
(B) rate = k [A]
(C) rate = k [A]2
(D) rate = k [A] [B] [C]
3. What are the units for k in a zeroth order reaction?

(A) M / s
(B) None
(C) s-1
(D) M
4. If a reaction requires two moles of a single reagent to produce one mole of

product, what is the ratio of the rate of product formation to the rate of reactant
consumption?
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1
(D) Cannot be determined

5. What is initial rate?

(A) Zero, there can be no rate when time equals zero for a reaction
(B) The rate of a reaction measured near the end of the reaction
(C) The rate of a reaction measured at a time as close to zero as possible
6. For a reaction with four (4) reagents, how many experiments are necessary to
determine the order of the reaction when using the method of initial rates?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
7. When the concentration of a reagent, A, is tripled (holding the concentrations of

all other species constant), the rate increases by a factor of 1.74. What is the
order of the reaction in A
(A) 1 / 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
8. When the concentrations of both reactants A and B are doubled the rate
increases by a factor of 8. The reaction is second order in B. Determine the order
of the reaction in A.
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Not enough information provided to solve the problem

9. What variable in the rate law can you not determine using the method of initial
rates?
(A) k
(B) The order of the reaction
(C) None
(D) rate
10. Under what circumstances should you not use the method of initial rates to
determine the rate law for a reaction?
(A) Very fast reactions
(B) Colored reactions
(C) Clear, colorless reactions
(D) Very slow reactions
11. Which of the following is a technique used to stop a reaction for analysis?
(A) Quenching
(B) Photoelectron spectroscopy
(C) NMR
(D) Method of initial rates
12. By what factor would the rate increase when a second order reactant's
concentration is tripled?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 2
(D) 6
13. What is the advantage of using the method of integrated rates as opposed to
the method of initial rates?
(A) It's more accurate
(B) There is no advantage

(C) You need to only perform one reaction

(D) It's a more secure way of finding out the rate law
14. What plot generates a straight line for a zero order reaction?
(A) 1 / [A] versus time
(B) ln [A] versus time
(C) No plot
(D) [A] versus time
15. What data is required to perform the method of integrated rates?

(A) The concentration of a reactant or product at certain times
(B) The absorbance of a reactant or product at certain times
(C) Initial rate and the concentrations of all the reactants
(D) Rate and time
16. What plot creates a straight line for a second order reaction?
(A) ln [A] versus time
(B) 1 / [A] versus time
(C) [A] versus time
17. What is the slope of the line created by a plot of 1 / [A] versus time for a second
order reaction?
(A) -k
(B) 2
(C) 2k
(D) - Ea / R

18. How many experiments are necessary to perform the method of integrated rates
for a third order reaction in A?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) One
19. What plot gives a straight line for a first order reaction?
(A) ln [A] versus time
(B) [A] versus time
(C) 1 / [A] versus time
20. What is the slope of the line for a plot of ln [A] versus time for a first order
reaction?
(A) k
(B) -k
(C) - Ea / R
(D) 1 / k
21. The concentration of A reduces from 1.0 M to 0.50 M in 25.2 minutes. If A

decomposes by a first order reaction, what is the half-life of the decomposition
of A?
(A) 50.4 minutes
(B) 12.8 minutes
(C) 25.5 minutes
(D) 96 minutes

22. If the half-life of a first order reaction is 10 s, how long does it take to decrease
the initial concentration of a reactant by 94%?
(A) 12 s
(B) 18 s
(C) 96 s
(D) 40.6 s
23. Which order of reaction has a half-life that does not depend on the
concentration of the reagents?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Zero
24. What is a half-life?
(A) The time it takes for one-half of the products to be produced
(B) The time it takes for one-half of the limiting reagent to be consumed
(C) Half of the time the reaction takes to go to completion
(D) 40 years old
25. How many collisions can take place during an elementary step?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) Four
26. Why is a tetramolecular reaction unlikely?

(A) It is not unlikely. It is the most common type of elementary step.
(B) Four atoms can never collide simultaneously to produce a reaction.
(C) Molecular collisions are all unlikely.
(D) The odds of having four molecules collide at exactly the same place
at the same time are exceedingly small.

27. What is an intermediate?

(A) A substance that is both created and consumed during a chemical
reaction that does not appear in the overall balanced reaction.
(B) A substance that speeds up the rate of a reaction without being
changed.
(C) A reactant
(D) A product
28. Which of the following is a property of a mechanism?
(A) Each elementary step represents more than one collision.
(B) The sum of the elementary steps must equal the overall balanced
equation.
(C) The mechanism gives approximately the same rate law as determined
by experiment.
(D) The mechanism is experimentally determined.
29. What is the limit on the number of elementary steps in a mechanism?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) There is no limit.
(D) 5
30. What is the rate-determining step?

(A) The slowest step in a mechanism
(B) The fastest step in a mechanism
(C) A fictional reaction added to every mechanism
31. What is a reaction coordinate?

(A) The length of the breaking bond
(B) A "dummy variable" so composed as to best describe the progress of a
reaction

(C) The angle of attack

32. What is the highest point on a reaction coordinate diagram?

(A) An intermediate
(B) The products
(C) The transition state
(D) The reactants
33. What is the vertical axis on the reaction coordinate diagram?

(A) Size
(B) Distance
(C) Angle
(D) Energy
34. What determines the number of minima between reactants and products?
(A) The number of elementary steps
(B) The molecularity of an elementary step
(C) The energy of the transition state
(D) The stoichiometry of the reaction
35. In a multi-step reaction, how can you tell from the reaction coordinate diagram
what the rate determining step is?
(A) The step with the highest activation energy
(B) The step whose transition state has the highest energy
(C) The step with the most stable intermediate product
(D) The step with the least stable intermediate product

36. What is the activation energy of a reaction whose rate doubles with a 15oC
increase in temperature?
(A) 52.9 kJ / mol
(B) 12 kJ / mol
(C) 35.8 kJ / mol
(D) 39 kJ / mol
37. Which of the following is the Arrhenius equation?

(A) rate = k [A] [B]
(B) PV = nRT
(C) k = ln 2 / t
(D) k = f p e-Ea / RT
38. What is the difference between rate and the rate constant?
(A) The rate of a reaction depends on the concentrations of reactants,
whereas the rate constant is concentration-independent and measures the intrinsic
reactivity of a reaction.
(B) They are the same.
(C) The rate is independent of temperature whereas the rate constant,
according to the Arrhenius equation, is strongly dependent on temperature.
39. What does the difference between the height of the products and that of the
reactants on a reaction coordinate diagram represent?
(A) The rate of the reaction
(B) The free energy change of the reaction
(C) The rate constant
(D) Absolutely nothing; the choice of height is arbitrary
40. Which species is placed on the left in a reaction coordinate diagram?

(A) Products
(B) Intermediates

(C) Reactants
(D) Transition states
41. What is a substance that speeds up the rate of a reaction without being
chemically altered called?
(A) Reactant
(B) Product
(C) Intermediate
(D) Catalyst
42. What type of catalyst is in the same phase as the reagents?
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Heterogeneous
(C) Spiked
(D) Trenchant
43. Which of the following is not true about the action of a catalyst?
(A) It speeds up a reaction
(B) It is present in the balanced equation for the reaction it catalyzes
(C) It lowers the activation energy of the reaction
(D) It is involved in the mechanism of the reaction
44. How much of a catalyst is needed to catalyze a reaction?

(A) 1 equivalent
(B) 10 equivalents
(C) Less than 1 equivalent
(D) More than 1 equivalent
45. What does a catalyst do to the free energy change of a reaction?
(A) Increases it
(B) Decreases it
(C) Alters it unpredictably
(D) Absolutely nothing

THERMODYNAMICS
1. For liquids, the volume expansivity except at 0°C<T<4°C is always
A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. depends on the liquid
2. Which of the following is not a unit of R

A. ft3atm/lbmolR
B. cm3torr/molK
C. J/kmolK
D. inch2torr/molK
3. Process which means “turning many ways”.

A. isochoric
B. isothermal
C. Adiabatic
D. polytrophic
4. . If PV=RT, the fluid is said to be a(n)

A. ideal gas
B. real gas
C. saturated fluid
D.none of these
5. In the PT diagram for a pure substance, the line which separates solid and liquid
regions is the
A. sublimation curve
B. vaporization curve
C. fusion curve
D. none of these

6. A single phase region is

A. univariant
B. divariant
C. trivariant
D. unvariant
7. A fluid existing at a temperature geater than T c is said to be

A. Critical
B. at triple point
C. uncritical
D. supercritical
8. The highest P and T that at which the pure chemical species are observed to
exist in vapor/liquid equilibrium.
A. critical point
B. triple point
C.Fluid regional pt.
D. none of these
9. What is the unir for the compressibility factor?

A.molK/J
B. Btu/lbmolR
C.Pa/molK
D. none
10. During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, work is done by the system and ΔU
A. decreases
B. increases
C. does not change
D. cannot be determined

11. During Adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas, the amount ofheat
absorbed is equal to
A. zero
B. one
C. positive
D. ΔU
12. The net work accomplished by an engine undergoing adiabatic compression is

equal to
A. ΔU
B. ΔQ
C. –ΔU
D. –ΔQ
13. A sample of an ideal gas is allowed to escape reversibly and isothermally in a

vacuum. Which statement is correct?
A. W=ΔU=Q= positive number
B.W=PΔV, ΔU=0, Q=PΔV and is a positive number
C. W=PΔV+VΔP
D. W=ΔU= Q=0
14. When ΔT is a positive number at a reversible isochoric process, W is

A. positive,
B. negative
C. depends on Q
D. A or B
15. When ΔV is a positive number at a reversible isothermal process, W is

A. positive
B. negative
C. depends on Q

D. A or B
16. what is the efficiency for a reversible process?

A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 0%<n<100%
d. depends on the process
17. Atmospheric air is an example of

A. critical fluid
B. uncritical fluid
C. supercritical fluid
D. not a fluid
18. If βdT-κdP=0, the process is said to be

A. Isothermal
B.Isobaric
C. isochoric
D. Adiabatic
19. He noted that all vapor-pressure data for the simple fluids(Ar, Kr, Xe) lie on the
same line when ploted as logPrsat vs. 1/Tr
A. Rackett
B. Pitzer
C. Daubert
D. Lyndersen
20. Which of the following is not true about adiabatic process? X= C p/Cv
A. TVx-1=k
B.PT(x-1)/X=k
C. VPx=k

D. none
21. R=83.14cm3bar/molK, what is its value in ft3(psia)/lbmolk?

A. 10.73
B. 17.03
C. 34.76
D. 37.46
22. In a process where T=K=25°C, the pressure is doubled, W is

A.1.72kJ
B. -1.72kJ
C. 1.27kJ
D. -1.27Kj
23. An ideal gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly from T 1=500K and P1= 1
atm to a final pressure of 10 atm. Find the final temperature.
A. 582K
B. 956K
C. 258K
D. 965K
24. . for the same problem in number 3, find Q

A. OkJ
B. 27.58kJ
C. 25.78kJ
D.9.6775
25. . Find W
A. OkJ
B. 27.58kJ
C. 25.78kJ

D.9.6775
26. Determine the molar volume of n-heptane at 510K and 20bar using the ideal-gas
equation.
A. 1696.1cm3/mol
b. 2120.1cm3/mol
C. 16691.1cm3/mol
D.2210.1cm3/mol
An ideal gas undergoes the following sequence of mechanically reversible process in a
closed system:
a. From an initial state of 70°C and 1bar, it is compressed adiabatically to 150°C
b. It is then cooled from 150 to 70°C at constant pressure
c. Finally, it is expanded isothermally to its original state
27. Calculate W
A. 168J
B. -168J
C. 0J
D.-186J
28. Calculate Q
A. 168J
B. -168J
C. 0J
D.-186J
29. Calculate U
A. 168J
B. -168J
C. 0J
D.-186J

30. . Calculate H
A. 168J
B. -168J
C. 0J
D.-186J
31. The more stable the system with regard to ∆S are systems that have
A. minimum ∆S
B. zero ∆S
C. maximum ∆S
D. none of these
32. Entropy is an
A. Intrinsic Property
B. Extrinsic property
C. neither A or B
D. depends on the problem
33. Which of the following is not a unit for entropy?

A. J/K
B.cal/R
C. e.u
D. none of these
34. When the discarded heat approaches zero, entropy approaches

A. unity
B. infinity
C. zero
D. depends on heat absorbed

35. When the absorbed heat approaches infinity, entropy approaches

A. unity
B. infinity
C. zero
D. depends on heat discarded
36. A ready designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 W and an input rating of
735 W. the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is
A. 5.67
B. 4.27
C. 3.26
D.4.44
37. A carnot cycle heat engine operating between 1540°F and 440°F has an
efficiency of approximately
A. 35%
B. 82%
C. 55%
D. 25%
38. The COD of a refrigerator operating between 70°F and 20°F is

A. 0.4
B. 9.6
C. 10.6
D. 11.6
39. Three moles of an ideal gas at 1.0 atm and 20°C are heated at constant pressure
until the final temperature is 80°C. Cv=(7.50+3.2x10-2T, cal/molK). The change in
internal energy of the process is
A. 5429cal
B. 3425cal

C. 3210cal
D. 4590.42 cal
40. For the same problem in number 9 but Cp=(7.50+3.2x10-2, cal/molK) , find the
entropy
A.4.87cal/K
B. 8.47cal/K
C. 6.21cal/K
D.9.95cal/K

ANSWERS:
RATE PROCESSES
1. (C) 16. (B) 31. (B)

2. (D) 17. (C) 32. (C)
3. (A) 18. (D) 33. (D)
4. (B) 19. (A) 34. (A)
5. (C) 20. (B) 35. (B)
6. (D) 21. (C) 36. (C)
7. (A) 22. (D) 37. (D)
8. (B) 23. (A) 38. (A)
9. (C) 24. (B) 39. (B)
10. (A) 25. (C) 40. (C)
11. (A) 26. (D) 41. (A)
12. (B) 27. (A) 42. (B)
13. (C) 28. (B) 43. (C)
14. (D) 29. (C) 44. (D)
15. (A) 30. (A)
THERMODYNAMICS
1. A 15. A 29. C
2. D 16. A 30. C
3. D 17. C 31. A
4. A 18. C 32. A
5. C 19. B 33. D
6. B 20. C 34. A
7. D 21. A 35. C
8. A 22. A 36. B
9. D 23. D 37. C
10. A 24. A 38. B
11. A 25. D 39. C
12. C 26. B 40. D
13. D 27. A
14. B 28. D

DAY 3
STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY
1. In how many ways can you arrange a group of 5 girls and 3 boys in 7 vacant
chairs?
a. 40320
b. 5040
c. 720
d. 8
2. How many 3-digit numbers can you make out of the numbers 1 to 5 without
repetition?
a. 720
b. 10
c. 60
d. 120
3. There are 2 white, 3 red, and 4 blue balls inside a basket. If three balls are drawn
randomly in succession without replacement, what is the probability that the first
ball is white, and the next two balls are blue?
a. 32/729
b. 4/63
c. 8/243
d. 1/21
4. What is the mode of the following numbers: 54, 45, 75, 60, 65, 65, 60, and 57?
a. 65
b. 60
c. 62.5
d. 60 and 65

5. From the given numbers of question number 4, what is the median?

a. 65
b. 60
c. 62.5
d. 60 and 65
6. From the given numbers of question number 4, what is the variance?

a. 77.84
b. 60.125
c. 68.11
d. 8.82
7. Seven boys are to be seated around a circular table. How many arrangements
can be made?
a. 7
b. 2520
c. 5040
d. 720
8. In how many ways can you arrange 3 boys and 4 girls in a 7-seater bench
supposing that the four girls want to be seated together?
a. 24
b. 5040
c. 576
d. 48
9. The probability that you will arrive late is 35% and the probability that you will
scolded by your boss is 15%. What is the probability that you will be both late and
scolded by your boss?
a. 5.25%
b. 50%

c. 44.75%
d. 2.33%
10. From question number 9, what is the probability that you will either be late or
scolded by your boss?
a. 5.25%
b. 50%
c. 44.75%
d. 2.33%

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1. In the cross section of a shaft subjected to torsion, the stress is maximum at what
location?
a. Near the center of the shaft
b. Between the surface and the center of the shaft
c. At the surface of the shaft
d. The stress is uniform from center to surface of the shaft
2. The stress experienced by a body under torsion is____________.

a. Shear stress
b. Compressive stress
c. Tensile stress
d. Bending stress
3. The stress experienced by a pressurized vessel is…

a. Shear stress
b. Compressive stress
c. Tensile stress
d. Bending stress
4. The “Maximum Shear Theory”, one of the known theories of failure is also known
as…
a. Mises Yield theory
b. Guest’s theory
c. Venant theory
d. Rankine Theory
5. In the stress-strain curve, it is the point at which there is an appreciable

elongation without corresponding increase in load.
a. Elastic limit
b. Rupture strength

c. Proportional limit
d. Yield point
6. What will happen to the stress in a shaft under torsion if the diameter was
decreased to half the original?
a. The stress will be twice as much
b. The stress will be halved
c. The stress will be increased eightfold
d. The stress will remain the same
7. What will happen to the stress of a body under compression if the force applied
to it was doubled?
a.The stress will increase to twice the original
b. The stress will increased to four times the original
c. The stress will remain the same
d.The stress will increase eightfold
8. Bending is actually a combination of two types of stresses…

a. Compression and torsion
b. Torsion and bearing
c. Compression and tension
d. Thermal stress and shear stress
9. The Mises yield theory of failure is best applied to what type of materials?
a. Brittle materials
b. Ductile materials
c. Elastomers
d. Metals only

10. The slope of the line before the proportional limit in a stress-strain curve is also
known as…
a. Modulus of rigidity
b. Modulus of resilience
c. Modulus of elasticity
d. Modulus of toughness

MATH , ALGEBRA, COMPUTATION

1. Which of the following is the solution set of the equation x^2-2x-15 = 0
a. (3, -5)
b. (5, -3)
c. (15, -1)
d. (-15, 1)
2. The next term in the progression 2, 8, 32, 128 is_________.

a. 128
b. 256
c. 512
d. 1024
3. Solve for x in the equation 3 lnx = 8

a. e^ (8/3)
b. e^ (3/8)
c. e^ (4/3)
d. e^ (3/4)
4. If x + y = 1 and x^2+y^2=2. Find x^4+y^4

a. ½
b. ¾
c. 15/4
d. 7/2
5. If lnx=5 and lny=2, lnx3/lnx4

a. 10/3
b. 15/8
c. 125/16
d. 5/2

6. Joan can type the whole document in 3 hrs. On the other hand, James, being
new to the job can type the same document in 5 hours. If they work together, how
long can they finish 2 documents?
a. 3 hrs
b. 3.5 hrs
c. 2.75 hrs
d. 3.75 hrs
7. Three numbers are in the ratio 1: 2: 4. Find the numbers if their sum is 42.
a. 6, 12, 24
b. 4, 12, 36
c. 4, 16, 22
d. 3, 15, 24
8. Find the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of (5x-4)^5

a. 32768
b. 25
c. 243
d. 32
9. Evaluate the expression log 3+ log 2+ 4log7

a. 9.58
b. 4.79
c. 3.43
d. 4.16

10. The sum of an infinite geometric progression is 3 and the common ratio is 1/3.
What is the first term?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 6

ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. It is the quantity of production when the income equals total cost.

a. Payback period
b. Break-even point
c. Payout period
d. economic life
2. The length of time required to recover the first cost of an investment.

a. Break-even point
b. Payback period
c. economic life
d. Payout period
3. Common term for the certificate of indebtedness

a. common stocks
b. debit
c. Bond
d. none of the above
4. It represents ordinary share in ownership of the corporation’s capital without

special guarantees of return.
a. Bond
b. debit
c. common stocks
5. A type of bond where the name of the owner is recorded in the books of the
corporation. Interests are periodically sent to him without claim action.
a. common stocks
b. registered Bond

c. debit
6. A type of business organization where two or more persons associate to engage

for a business.
a. corporation
b. partnership
c. sole proprietorship
7. A type of business organization which is a distinct legal entity capable of business

transactions like a real person.
a. sole proprietorship
b. partnership
c. corporation
8. In a partnership type of business, what will happen if one of the owners dies?
a. the partnership will continue by a relative of the co-owner
b. the partnership will
c. The partnership automatically dies
9. It is the decrease in value of a property due to the passage of time.

a. break-even point
b. salvage value
c. residual value
d. Depreciation

10. It is the length of time during which a property may be used for profit.
a. Break-even point
b. Payback period
c. Payout period
d. economic life

ANSWERS DAY 3
STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY 4. B 7. A
1. A 5. D 8. D
2. C 6. C
9. D
3. D 7. A
10. A
4. D 8. C
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
5. B 9. B
1. B
6. A 10. C 2. B/D
3. C
7. D MATHEMATICS
4. C
5. B
8. C 1. B
6. B
9. A 2. C 7. C
8. C
10. C 9. D
3. A
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS 10. D
4. D
1. C
5. B
2. A
6. D
3. C

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College of Engineering and Technology

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Chemical Engineering Board Problems 15

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