REVIEW QUESTIONS 1 1) Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity.

. B) accessory cells. C) receptor potentials. D) the fact that they are interoceptors. E) both B and C 2) Olfactory glands A) support the olfactory epithelium. B) house the sense of smell. C) react to aromatic molecules. D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus. E) group as olfactory bulbs. 3)The mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium does all of the following, except that it A) keeps the tissue moist. B) dissolves unwanted chemicals and washes them away. C) keeps the tissue free of particles. D) provides a medium to dissolve odorants. E) dilutes potentially dangerous odorants. 4) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways, except A) they exhibit a considerable amount of convergence. B) they project first to the mamillary bodies and then to the thalamus. C) they are the only sensory pathways to reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus. D) information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system. E) primary afferents synapse in the olfactory bulb. 5) All of the following are true of the lacrimal glands, except that they A) produce lysozyme. B) produce a strongly hypertonic fluid. C) produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions. D) are located in recesses in the frontal bones. E) produce most of the volume of tears. 6) Gustatory receptors are located D) in the eye. E) in the nose. A) in the ear. B) on the surface of the tongue. C) on the skin.

7) The palpebrae are connected at the A) chalazion. B) eyelids. C) conjunctiva. D) lateral and medial canthus. E) lacrimal caruncle. 8) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the A) olfactory bulb. B) medial geniculate. C) medulla oblongata. D) cerebral cortex. E) olfactory tract. 9) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) R-T interval B) P-R interval C) T wave D) QRS complex E) P wave 10) Which of the following is true about rhodopsin? A) is the visual pigment in rods B) called visual purple C) is bleached during photoreception D) consists of opsin + retinal E) all of the above 11) A pigment synthesized from vitamin A is A) cGMP. B) opsin. C) retinal. D) hodopsin. E) transducin. 12) All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye, except that it A) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert. B) contributes substantial focusing power. C) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. D) produces aqueous humor. E) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea. 13) Which of the following is true of the vascular tunic of the eye? A) controls the shape of the lens B) provides a route for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissues of the eye C) regulates the amount of light entering the eye D) secretes and reabsorbs the aqueous humor E) all of the above

14) The palpebrae A) cover and protect the eye. B) contain tarsal glands. C) are controlled by cranial nerves. D) support the lateral rectus muscles of the eye. E) A, B, and C 15) Which of the following statements concerning vision is false? A) Fibers of the optic nerve synapse at the lateral geniculates of the thalamus. B) Approximately half of the fibers in each optic nerve cross to opposite sides of the brain at the optic chiasm. C) The image that is formed on the retina is inverted. D) The visual cortex of the brain receives the entire field of vision. E) The entire retina receives equal representation in the visual cortex. 16) A structure that is located at the medial canthus and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the A) lacrimal caruncle. B) conjunctiva. C) chalazion. D) Meibomian gland. E) palpebra. 17) Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower eyelids from sticking together at their edges? A) palpebra B) lacrimal caruncle C) conjunctiva D) chalazion E) tarsal gland 18) The vitreous body A) is replaced at the rate of 20 percent per year until middle age. B) fills the posterior cavity. C) helps to stabilize the eye and give physical support to the retina. D) A, B, and C E) A and B only 19) The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye. A) conjunctiva B) canthus C) iris D) anterior chamber E) cornea 20) The transparent portion of the fibrous tunic is the A) conjunctiva. B) canthus. C) cornea. D) iris. E) pupil. 21) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the A) ris. D) cornea. E) conjunctiva. B) canal of Schlemm. C) pupil.

22) The opening in the iris through which light passes is the A) anterior chamber. C) conjunctiva. D) posterior chamber. E) pupil. 23) The space between the cornea and the iris is the A) posterior cavity. C) canal of Schlemm. D) anterior cavity. E) pupil.

B) cornea.

B) aqueous humor.

24) The space between the iris and ciliary body and the lens is the A) pupil. B) canal of Schlemm. C) posterior cavity. D) vitreous body. E) anterior cavity. 25) What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision? A) extrinsic eye muscles B) aqueous humor C) iris D) ciliary body E) none, because the lens is rigid 26) The neural tunic A) contains ganglion cells. B) contains the photoreceptor cells. C) produces the vitreous humor. D) A, B, and C E) A and B only 27) The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by A) opening and closing. B) changing shape. C) moving in and out. D) moving up and down. E) dilating and constricting. 28) The shape of the lens is controlled by the A) pupillary sphincter muscles. B) pupillary radial muscles. C) ciliary muscles. D) iris. E) A, B, and C 29) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the A) cornea. B) vitreous humor. C) aqueous humor. D) iris. E) lens.

30) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous. B) control the amount of light reaching the retina. C) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision. 31) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated A) yellow, red, blue. B) red, green, blue. C) red, white, blue. D) red, yellow, blue. E) red, green, yellow. 32) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the A) inner segment. B) tapetum lucidum. C) fovea. D) optic disc. E) outer segment. 33) An elongate outer segment containing membranous discs and a narrow connecting stalk that attaches the outer segment to the inner segment describes A) a photoreceptor. B) a ganglion cell. C) a bipolar cell. D) a horizontal cell. E) an amacrine cell. 34) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive A) blue. B) blackness. C) green. D) red. E) white. 35) Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound A) rhodopsin. B) transducin. C) opsin. D) cGMP. E) retinal. 36) Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the A) organ of Corti. B) semicircular canals. C) cochlea. D) statoconia. E) saccule and utricle. 37) Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations? A) peppery B) umami C) sweet D) salty E) sour 38) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as A) our. B) sweet. C) umami. D) salty. E) peppery. 39) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) albumins. C) lipoproteins. D) transport proteins. E) fibrinogens. 40) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter these structures in which order? A) vitreous body retina choroids aqueous humor lens conjunctiva cornea B) cornea aqueous humor vitreous body lens conjunctiva choroids retina C) conjunctiva cornea aqueous humor lens vitreous body retina choroid D) cornea aqueous humor conjunctiva lens vitreous body retina choroid E) conjunctiva cornea lens aqueous humor vitreous body retina choroid 41) The external ear ends at the E) tympanic membrane. A) cochlea. B) ossicles. C) pinna. D) vestibule.

42) The auditory ossicles connect the A) tympanic membrane to the round window. B) oval window to the round window. C) stapedius to the tympanic membrane. D) tympanic membrane to the oval window. E) otitis to the media. 43) The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the A) oval window. B) stapedius muscle. C) tensor tympani. D) cochlea. E) auditory ossicles. 44) The middle ear communicates with the nasopharynx through the A) membranous labyrinth. B) bony labyrinth. C) auditory meatus. D) auditory tube. E) auricle. 45) The senses of equilibrium and hearing are provided by receptors of the A) perilymph. B) membranous endolymph. C) inner ear. D) bony labyrinth. E) organ of Schlemm.

46) The structure that overlies the organ of Corti (spiral organ) is the A) endolymph. B) stapedius. C) perilymph. D) tectorial membrane. E)basilar membrane. 47) The structure that supports the spiral organ (of Corti) is the A) tectorial membrane. B) vestibular duct. C) basilar membrane. D) tympanic membrane. E) membranous labyrinth. 48) When an external force bends the stereocilia of the inner ear hair cells, A) dizziness results. B) there is a change in the transmembrane potential of the hair cells. C) the hair cells are temporarily damaged. D) the cells become unresponsive. E) the force is converted into mechanical energy. 49) The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the A) perilymph. B) ampullae. C) cupulas. D) utricles. E) saccules. 50) Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals A) signals linear acceleration. B) allows us to hear low tones. C) signals body position with respect to gravity. D) produces a rushing sound. E) signals rotational movements. 51) The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in A) cristae. B) cupulae. C) maculae. D) ampullae. E) otoconia. 52) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on A) changes in the pressure exerted by the cupula on hair cells. B) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae. C) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells. D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals. E) both C and D 53) The frequency of a perceived sound depends on A) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane. B) the frequency of stereocilia vibration. C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated. D) the movement of perilymph in the cochlear duct. E) the number of hair cells that are stimulated. 54) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. 1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window. 2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus. 3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve. 4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes. 5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the organ of Corti toward or away from the tectorial membrane. 6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct. The proper sequence for these steps is A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3. D) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3. B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1. C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3. E) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3.

55) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia? A) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear B) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells C) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium D) seal the oval window E) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth 56) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) seal the oval window E) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium

57) When a rod is stimulated by light, A) the retinal changes from the 11-cis to the 11-trans form. B) the plasma membrane becomes hyperpolarized. C) less neurotransmitter is released. D) cGMP decreases and sodium channels close. E) all of the above 58) Which of the following descriptions applies/apply to the term myopia? A) nearsightedness B) image focused in front of retina C) corrected with diverging lens D) A and C only E) A, B, and C 59) In which of the following cases would the focal distance be greater? A) a round lens B) a flat lens 60) A sudden rise of room brightness would cause A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles. B) conversion of the retinal retinal structure. C) a decrease in the size of the pupil. D) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles. E) all of the above 61) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term ossicles? A) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium B) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) seal the oval window E) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear 62) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term aqueous humor? A) converts to vitreous humor with age B) gelatinous fluid that fills anterior chamber C) secreted in bright light D) excessive production may lead to glaucoma E) both C and D 63) The external acoustic meatus ends at A) the eardrum. B) the tympanum. C) the tympanic membrane. D) A, B, or C E) none of the above 64) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane? A) supports the olfactory organ B) moves up and down when the stapes moves back and forth C) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) covers over the oval window 65) The ________ conveys information about head position with respect to gravity. A) ampulla B) utricle C) cochlea D) accule E) both B and D 66) The cornea is part of the A) fibrous tunic. B) iris. C) neural tunic. D) uvea. E) both A and C 67) Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________. A) dilation; constriction B) constriction; constriction C) dilation; dilation D) constriction; dilation E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction 68) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) aqueous humor. B) perilymph. C) ora serrata. D) posterior cavity. E) vitreous humor. 69) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can A) see objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet. B) see objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet. C) see objects that are 20 feet or less away. D) see 20-point type at 15 feet. E) see all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet. 70) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) ymphocytes B) eutrophils C) latelets D) rythrocytes E) reticulocytes

71) A hematocrit provides information on A) plasma composition. B) formed elements abundance. C) blood type. D) lotting factors. E) sedimentation rate. 72) A person with Type A blood has A) antigen A on the RBCs. B) anti-B agglutinins in the plasma. C) a nti-A agglutinins on the red blood cells. D) A and B only E) B and C only 73) All of the following are true of neutrophils, except that they are A) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. B) granular leukocytes. C) active in fighting bacterial infections. D) important in coagulation. E) phagocytic. 74) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) sodium. D) copper. E) iron. 75) Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if A) an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. B)a n Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus. C) both the father and the mother are Rh negative. D) both the father and the mother are Rh positive. E) the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative. 76) Which of the following is true of eosinophils? A) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs B) allergic patients have many C) granules stain with acid dyes D) have bilobed nucleus E) all of the above 77) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) whole blood. B) packed blood. C) lymph. D) serum. E) extracellular fluid. 78) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) viscosity about the same as water. B) built-in system for clotting. C) deep red color from hemoglobin. D) pH of 7.4. E) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. 79) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be A) hypovolemic. B) hypervolemic. C) antivolemic. D) normovolemic. E) isovolemic. 80) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) metalloproteins. C) immunoglobulins. D) fibrinogens. E) lipoproteins. 81) The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the following organs, except A) the spleen. B) the lymph nodes. C) the red bone marrow. D) the kidney. E) the thymus. 82) Granulocytes form in A) the intestines. B) red bone marrow. C) yellow bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) the thymus. 83) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Leukemia B) Leukopenia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Polycythemia E) Anemia 84) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of vitamin B12. C) blood transfusion. D) oral doses of vitamin B12. E) injections of iron. 85) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) myeloid cells. B) proerythrocytes. C) reticulocytes. D) band forms. E) hemocytoblasts. 86) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) packed volume. B) hematocrit. C) viscosity. D) specific gravity. E) differential cell count. 87) A typical adult hematocrit is A) 75. B) 45. C) 25. D) 65. E) 85. 88) Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?

A) hematocrit - 44 % B) RBCs - 5.2 million/l C) platelets - 280,000/l D) hemoglobin - 10.7 g/100 ml E) leukocytes - 8600/l 89) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. B) they are usually Rh negative. C) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E)their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. 90) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result A) they lack a functional common pathway. B) hey lack a functional intrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) both A and D 91) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) dissolves clots. C) forms emboli. D) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. E) forms thrombi. 92) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) plasmin. B) heparin. C) phosphokinase. D) fibrinase. E) thrombin. 93) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/l is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) eukopenia. C) hemocytosis. D) hrombocytopenia. E) leukocytosis. 94) A moving blood clot is called a(n) A) thrombus. B) embolus. C) platelet plug. D) plaque. E) procoagulant. 95) Plasma is closest in composition to A) sterile water. B) CSF. C) interstitial fluid. D) isotonic saline solution. E) urine. 96) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 45, 55 B) 92, 55 C) 50, 50 D) 92, 7 E) 55, 92 97) Which of the following blood count values would be a sign of anemia? A) 400,000 platelets B) 10,000 WBC C) 3.5 million RBC D) 5.5 million RBC E) A and D taken together 98) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) often elevated in allergic individuals C) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide D) produce antibodies in response to antigens E) helper cells are one type 99) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) lack of intrinsic factor B) vitamin B6 deficiency C) vitamin B12 deficiency D) vitamin K deficiency E) iron deficiency 100) Megan has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) lymphocytes B) eosinophils C) monocytes D) neutrophils E) basophils 101) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the A) red bone marrow. B) spleen. C) yellow bone marrow. D) liver. E) thymus. 102) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the antiA sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means A) Bill could receive type A-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood. C) Bill's plasma contains B agglutinins. D) Bill is Rh positive. E) A, B, and D

103) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) increased erythropoiesis. B) renal anemia. C) pernicious anemia. D) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. E) decreased erythropoiesis. 104) Which of the following is not true of monocytes? A) become macrophages B) can phagocytize bacteria C) enter tissues and wander D) are long lived E) bout same size as basophils 105) The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons. A)The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. B)The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. C)Both parts of the statement are true. D)Both parts of the statement are false.E)Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate. 106) Which of these descriptions best matches the term eosinophils? A) helper cells are one type B) produce antibodies in response to antigens C) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide D) often elevated in allergic individuals E) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium 107) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? C) ferritin D) transferrin E) B, C, and D A) hemoglobin B) hemosiderin

108) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) thrombocytopenia. B) starvation. C) anemia. D) hemorrhage. E) acidosis. 109) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) the release of erythropoietin. B) a rise in hematocrit. C) a drop in oxygen levels. D) both A and C E) A, B, and C 110) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. 1. right atrium 2. left atrium 3. right ventricle 4. left ventricle 5. venae cavae 6. aorta 7. pulmonary trunk 8. pulmonary veins What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? A)5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 B)5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6 C)1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5 D)1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5 E) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6 111) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart. 1. Purkinje fibers 2. AV bundle 3. AV node 4. SA node 5. bundle branches The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is A) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1. B) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1. C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1. E) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5.

112) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following, except the A) heart rate. B) duration of the ventricular action potential. C) effects of drugs and poisons. D) stroke volume. E) condition of the conducting system. 113) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's A) P wave. B) T wave. C) QRS complex. D) S-T segment. E) QT interval. 114) David suffers from a prolapsed mitral valve. This condition would cause A) increased effort by the right ventricle. B) increased effort by the left ventricle. C)systolic murmur. D) both A and C E) both B and C 115) If a patient's tricuspid valve was leaking during systole, what would happen? A) regurgitation into the right atrium B) diastolic murmur C) regurgitation into the superior vena cava D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 116) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) cardiac output will increase. B) the ventricles will beat faster. C) the ventricles will beat more slowly. D) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. E) both A and D 116) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) left ventricle. C) conus arteriosus. D) right ventricle. E) left atrium. 117) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the A) right ventricle. B) conus arteriosus. C) left ventricle. D) left atrium. E) right atrium. 118) The coronary sulcus is a groove that A) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. B) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. C) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins. D) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. E) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria. 119) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to A) trabeculae carneae. B) interatrial septa. C) papillary muscles. D) coronary sulci. E) chordae tendineae. 120) Contractions of the papillary muscles A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) close the semilunar valves. 121) The visceral pericardium is the same as the A) parietal pericardium. B) epicardium. C) myocardium. D) mediastinum. E) endocardium. 122) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) smooth muscle cells. B) pitheliocytes. C) chondrocytes. D) fibrocytes. E) cardiac myocytes. 123) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it A) is round in cross section. B) has a thicker wall. C) pumps a greater volume. D) produces about six to eight times more pressure when it contracts. E) works harder. 124) Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is increased B) when venous return is decreased C) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased D) both A and C E) both B and C 125) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. A) carotid B) ubclavian C) pulmonary D) circumflex E) coronary

126) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from A) depolarization of the SA node. B) depolarization of the ventricles. C) repolarization of the atria. D) depolarization of the AV node. E) depolarization of the atria. 127) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? A) There will be much bigger P waves. B) The ventricles will stop beating. C) The QRS duration will be longer. D) The P-R interval will be shorter. E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes. 128) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) QRS complex. D) PR complex. E) S wave. 129) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents A) atrial repolarization. B) ventricular depolarization. C) ventricular repolarization. D) ventricular contraction. E) atrial depolarization. 130) What effect would compressing the inferior vena cava just below the diaphragm have on cardiac function? A) Cardiac output would increase. B) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase. C) Stroke volume would increase. D) all of the above E) A and B only 131) The first heart sound is heard when the A) blood enters the aorta. B) AV valves close. C) atria contract. D) AV valves open. E) semilunar valves close. 132) During the isovolumetric phase of ventricular systole, the A) blood is ejected into the great vessels. B) atria are contracting and the ventricles are relaxing. C) atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed. D) all of the above E) B and C only 133) During the cardiac cycle, the A) second heart sound occurs during atrial systole. B) QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure. C) P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds. D) first heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG. E) both B and D 134) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A)stroke volume. B) cardiac output. C) end-systolic volume. D) cardiac reserve. E) end-diastolic volume. 135) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except A) increased heart rate. B) increased sympathetic stimulation. C) increased venous return. D) increased parasympathetic stimulation. E) both A and B 136) "An increase in end-diastolic volume increases the stroke volume" is a way of stating A) Sparrow's law of the heart. B) Hawking's law of the heart. C) Starling's law of the heart. D) Finch's law of the heart. E) Robin's law of the heart. 137) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the A) early diastolic filling phase. B) atrial systole. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) systolic ejection phase. E) dicrotic phase. 138) During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are A) depolarizing. B) repolarizing. C) contracting. D) relaxing. E) both B and D 139) Pacemaker cells in the SA node A) have a well-defined resting potential. B) show a slow spontaneous depolarization. C) are connected by gap junctions to atrial myocytes. D) both B and C E) both A and C

140) The first heart sound ("lub") A) is associated with atrial systole. B) is associated with opening of the aortic valve. C) is associated with closing of the aortic valve. D) is associated with opening of the mitral valve. E) is associated with closing of the mitral valve. 141)________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. A) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy B) Tachycardia; bradycardia C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia E)none of the above 142) Which of these is true about the atrial reflex? A) triggered by increasing venous return B)also called Bainbridge reflex C)depends on sympathetic innervation D)triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors E)all of the above 143) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the A) coronary sinus. B) fossa ovalis. C) ligamentum arteriosus. D) foramen ovale. E) interatrial septum. 144) Excess fluid in the ________ causes cardiac tamponade. A) both atria B) pericardial cavity C) apex of heart D) left ventricle E) visceral pericardium 145) Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because A) neural stimulation is lacking. B) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels. 146) Stroke volume depends on A) the contractility of the ventricle. B) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. C) end diastolic volume. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 147) During ventricular systole, the A) pressure in the aorta remains constant. B) atria are contracting. C) pressure in the ventricles remains constant. D) AV valves are closed. E) blood is entering the ventricles. 148) As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) etany. B) treppe. C) conus. D) fatigue. E) recruitment. 149) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) A) angina pectoris. B) coronary spasm. C) myocardial infarction. D) coronary thrombosis. E) pulmonary embolism. 150) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will reflexly lead to A) increase in heart rate. B) decrease in heart rate. C) decrease in blood pressure. D) both b and c E) both A and C 151) AV nodal cells are poorly interconnected compared to contractile cells but they have bigger diameters. A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. C) Both parts of the statement are true. D) Both parts of the statement are false. 152) Which of the following is greater during left ventricular systole? A) the peak pressure in the aorta B) the peak pressure in the ventricle C) Neither is greater. 153) If the connection between the vagus nerve and the heart is cut, which of these changes will occur? A) nodal fibers will depolarize more slowly B) cardiac output will decrease C) heart will beat slower D) stroke volume will decrease E) none of the above 154) Cardiac output is increased by A) more sympathetic stimulation. B) increased end systolic volume. C) increased stroke volume. D) all of the above E) A and C only

155) Which of the following would be greater? A) the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 60 beats/minute B) the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 150 beats/minute