1. Which of the items listed below is not one of the Software Engineering layers? a. Process b. Manufacturing c. Methods d.

Tools 2. Which of the following is not considered a player in the softwareprocess? a. Customers b. End users c. Project Manager d. Sales people 3. What are the various factors that are considered in FP? a. Inputs b. Outputs c. Online enquiry d. All the above 4. An example of a direct measure a. Reliability b. Line of code c. Complexity 5. The number of people required for a software project is determined a. After an estimate of the development effort is made b. By the size of the project budget c. From an assessment of the technical complexity of the system d. All the above 6. Which of the following are the advantages of using LOC as a size oriented metric? a. LOC is easily computed b. LOC is a language dependent measure c. LOC is a language independent measure d. LOC can be computed before a design is completed 7. Identify the signs that a project is in jeopardy a. Requirements are not clear b. Scope changes c. Team lacks people with skills d. a,c e. a,b,c 8. The software plan is not a static document; it is frequently adjusted to make the project appear on track to meet all deadlines and quality targets. a. true b. false 9. Decomposition technique is used to a. Define the scope of a project b. Estimate the project effort c. Conduct testing 10. During a sprint, the requirements can change a. No b. Yes

11. Effective software project management focuses on a. people, performance, payoff, product b. people, product, performance, process c. people, product, process, project d. people, process, payoff, product 12. Process indicators enable a software project manager to a. Assess the status of an ongoing project b. Track potential risks c. Adjust work flow or tasks d. All the above 13. In linear sequential model, the working model is available after every stage of SDLC a. No b. Yes 14. In SE, what is the difference between errors anddefects? a. Errors are identified during software development process and detects are identified after the software goes into production b. Errors are identified by the users and defects are identified by the developers c. Errors are reported when the software goes to production where as defects are identified when PM reports them 15. If team A has developed a software that has 200 defects and team b has developed a software that has 100 defects, which team did a better job? a. Team a b. Team b c. Cannot be determined from the information provided 16. SE provides a. Reliable s/w b. Efficient s/w c. Cost effective s/w d. All the above c. None of the above 17. Following are the examples of agile development life cycle a. Scrum b. RUP c. Spiral model d. a,c e. a,b f. None of the above 18. It is recommended to perform project planning a. Before the project starts b. After the development phase c. After the scope is defines 19. Size oriented metrics focuses on a. Number of inputs b. Number of outputs c. Line of code d. On line enquiry 20. Which of these items should be used to select a software process framework?

a. People b. Product c. Project d. All the above 21. The first step in planning is a. Defining the scope b. Estimate the project c. Assign resources 22. The WINWIN spiral model of software development is a. Used when requirements must be defined by customer negotiation b. Useful when a customer is able to provide requirements completely c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams d. Like the spiral model without the risk assessment step 23. Requirement analysis falls under which phase of SDLC a. Development phase b. Definition phase c. Support phase d. None of the above 24. The objective of software project planning is to a. Convince the customer that a project is feasible b. Make use of historical project data c. Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost ans schedule d. Determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project 25. Identify the phases of SDLC a. Requirement gathering b. Design c. Coding d. Testing e. All of the above f. None of the above 26. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the a. Classical life cycle model b. Fountain model c. Spiral model d. Chaos model 27. What is a Fish bone analysis? a. Project Manager assigns the defects in a table b. Project Manager identifies the defect and assigns a cost value to it c. Project Manager perform a brain storming of the possible causes for a defect 28. Rapid Application Model can be applied if a. Requirements are well defined bThe project can be modularized c. The project scope doesnt change during the cycle d. None of the above e. All of the above 29. In scrum, the person who manages the process is called as a. Project Manager

b. Product owner c. Scrum master 30. What is Function point? a. A method of estimating project completion time b. SDLC process model c. Method that uses LOC in a program 31. Which one of these is not a primary managerial function? a. Staffing b. Controlling c. Co operating d. Organizing 32. Which of these is not correct about the classical approach of management a. Management is viewed as a systematic network of various functions b. Functions, principles and skills of management are universal c. People are not motivated by economic gains d. Formal education and training are necessary to acquire managerial skills 33. An effective planning program incorporates the effect of a. Neither capital nor material requirements b. Neither external nor internal factors c. Both capital and material requirements d. Both external as well as internal factors 34. Which of these is correct about the planning function? a. It improves the competitive strength of the company b. It creates a unity of purpose for the organization c. It prevents hasty judgments d. It increases unproductive work 35. Which principle suggests that each person in the organization should report to only one boss? a. Scalar chain b. Unity of command c. Equity d. Centralization 36. ____ is future oriented and determines an organizations direction a. Controlling b. Planning c. Directing d. Organizing 37. _______ is based on oversimplified assumptions. Its principles are ambiguous and contradictory a. The classical approach b. The psychological theory c. The scientific approach d. The administrative approach 38. Which principle suggests that authority and responsibility should be delegated as far down the hierarchical line as possible? a. The principle of order b. Decentralization of power c. Equity d. Centralization

39. Which of these is the first of the 4 primary management functions? a. Directing b. Staffing c. Controlling d. Planning 39. Which of these statements about planning is correct? a. It is an organized foresight only b. It is an organized foresight as well as a corrective hindsight c. It is neither an organized foresight nor a corrective hindsight d. It is a corrective hindsight only 41. _____ typically consists of a classical mechanistic hierarchical structure a. An informal organization b. A rigid organization c. A flexible organization d. a formal organization 42. The scientific and technological inventions in the production of various goods and services did not result in a. Mass production due to anticipation of demand b. Advent of corporate form of org, which led to large scale production c. Spectacular improvements in the transport and communication facilities d. Decrease in competition for markets 43. There is evidence that companies that engaged in formal planning consistently performed. Those with none or limited formal planning a. Better than b. Worse than c. Similar to d. Poorly than 44. Why should the line function and the staff function be kept separate? a. The overlapping of these functions results in ambiguity b. Organizations do not have any mechanism to handle such complex tasks c. Precise division of work facilitates specialization d. This will place the decision making power near the actual operations 45. .. are open ended statements of purpose which help describe an organizations philosophy a. Visions b. Missions c. Protocols d. Declarations 46. Which one of these is not a main pillar on which the classical approach is based a. Bureaucracy b. Psychological theory c. Scientific management d. Administrative theory 47. Who coined the word PODSCORB a. Luther guelick b. Henry fayol c. F W taylor d. Peter drucker

48. An organization should be because it is easier to manage and it should be.. because it can quickly adapt to changing conditions a. Complex; rigid b. Simple; flexible c. Functional; operational d. Dynamic; hierarchical 49. Which of these about planning is not correct? a. It is anticipatory in nature b. It is system of decision c. It increases the risk of uncertainties d. It is focused on desired future results 50. Which of these statements about organizing in not correct? a. It requires a formal structure of authority b. The flow of direction of authority is well defined c. It determines the activities to be done in order to achieve the organizational goals d. It is future oriented 51. What does ROI stand for? a. reverse on interest b. return on investment c. renege on involvement 52. A Project Proposal is a a. high level plan b. minor description c. verbal contract 53. A project concept is the idea or the reason that the project is deemed necessary a. true b. false 54. Valuable companies frown on the use of brainstorming techniques to come up with concepts for projects a. true b. false 55. What does RFI generally stand for a. realize future investments b. release for internet c. request for information 56. What does RFP generally stand for? a. remember future profit b. request for proposal c. request for proof 57. What does RFQ generally stand for? a. request for quotation b. request for quality c. reach for quality 58. Hardware projects are generally less complex than software projects due to the use of standard components a. true

b. false 59. Which one of the below items is NOT a phase in the hardware and software life cycle? a. planning b. development c. hiring d. designing 60. Two of the main factors involved in project planning are a. resources and scope b. financing and resources c. support and scope 61. Bob and Jane are leading a project that started January 1st, 2008. The deadline is December 31st, 2008. There are four milestones, three months apart: one each at the end of March, June, September, and December. Each milestone requires an internal release, so each milestone does a good job of exercising the team's ability to create a shippable product. The team doesn't meet their March deadline until the end of June. In other words, they're three months late. Assuming the team size and makeup doesn't change and the requirements don't change, what's the most reasonable thing Bob and Jane could tell their boss about their schedule? a. The project will ship on time, in December, as planned. b. The project will ship three months late, at the end of March 2009. c. The project will ship six months late, at the end of June 2009. d. The project will ship a year late, at the end of December 2009. e. The project will never ship at all and should be cancelled. Hint: The project is most likely to ship a year late. Of course, with such a long time schedule, anything could happen. (Specifically, it could take longer. The team is doing a good job of mitigating this risk by creating internal releases for each milestone.) Still, this is the most reasonable interpretation of the data. The team took twice as long as planned to meet their first milestone, which means the estimates were half of what they should have been. They'll probably take twice as long as planned to meet every milestone... so the whole plan will take two years instead of one and the project will ship a year late. 62. What most distinguishes projects from day-to-day operation? a. It has a definite budget. b. It has to deliver specific outcomes at a predefined time. c. It brings changes to the organization d. It requires planning. Hint: Operation and projects alike require budget, planning and outcomes. On the other hand, every single project brings about changes to the organization involved. 63. If you are only allowed one tool to manage a project, which of the following would you choose? a. Work breakdown structure b. Gantt chart c. Resource chart d. Risk register Hint: Although Gantt chart, resource chart and risk register are essential to todays project managers, WBS defines the entire scope of a project and is the source from which activities, resource needs and risks are derived from. 64. Do you agree project management is an isolated discipline being used by only a few specific industry sectors? a. Yes. Only industry sectors such as construction and IT are using project management. b. Yes. Project management requires lots of mathematical skills that only engineers can handle. c. No. Although not essential, it is trendy to apply some project management concepts. d. No. Project management is now adopted by all industry sectors for projects large and small, and is absolutely essential for successful project delivery

Hint: Project management is used by virtually all companies nowadays. Every organization needs to deliver business results and this can be achieved by beefing up PM skills of managers and adopting PM best practices. 65. Risk is a difficult subject in project management because: a. Risk involves something unknown. b. People tend to believe a risk will not occur until it actually does c. Some risks are unpredictable and hence impossible to manage. d. Some risks such as natural disaster or fire are impossible to prevent. Hint: Risks involve unknown factors, and some difficult to predict and prevent. However they can always be managed. The most detrimental factor in risk management is peoples attitude towards risk. 66. Changes are inevitable for every project. The implication is: a. Project planning is not important as it will always be changed later. b. A proper change control process has to be implemented c. It is mandatory to have customer signoffs for all planning documents to avoid subsequent changes. d. Skills in handling changes are more important than those in project planning for a project manager. Hint: Good project planning and involvement of customers in accepting planning deliverables help reduce changes in the latter stages of a project. However, a good change control process can ensure the projects objectives can be met even though changes inevitably occur. 67. The biggest challenge to a project manager in team management is: a. Most project team members are expert in specific areas and consider the project manager not technically competent. b. Many team members are employed on contract basis and busy looking for another job near the end of a project. c. There are too many communication channels both within and outside the team. d. Most of the time a project manager has to manage the team without formal authority Hint: Whereas the other three answers are common people issues within a project environment, managing without authority (or formal authority) is a real challenge for project managers. 68. Which of the following factors can definitely make a project fail? a. The project team does not have insufficient skills. b. The customer raises a lot of change requests. c. The project team fails to communicate and build up working relation with the customer d. A key team member is pulled away from the project due to changing priority. Hint: While the other three factors can affect project performance, poor communication and relationship between the project team and customer will definitely break a project. 69. Quality, schedule and cost are three important objectives of any projects. Which of the following statement is true? a. Their relative importance compared to each other varies from project to project and has to be decided by the stakeholders involved. b. Quality is of equal importance to schedule and cost in todays projects; though in the past schedule and cost take precedence over quality. c. They are usually called the triple constraints of project performance. d. Quality is a performance objective for customer, whereas schedule and cost are performance objectives for the project team. Hint: Quality is now regarded as of equal importance to the traditional triple constraints of a project-scope, schedule and cost. In a real-life project, there is bound to be tradeoff among the four objectives. Their relative importance has to be decided by the relevant project stakeholders. 70. When a project needs to procure equipment or services from the outside, vendor management is a serious challenge for the project team because: a. Vendors are motivated by self-interests. b. Contractual matters involve legal knowledge which is a difficult subject for most project teams.

c. Vendor usually pursues a different interest than the project team. For example, vendor is more concerned about profitability whereas the project team is concerned about on time delivery of the project. d. Vendors present a security threat to the project team, as proprietary company information may easily be leaked to the outside world. Hint: The key challenge of vendor management is to align the vendors interest with the projects objectives. Unfortunately that is not always easy to achieve, as vendors tend to be more concerned about profits and financial performance, whereas project teams focus more on time, scope, and quality. 71. Which of the following statements about 'power and politics' is true for projects? a. Power and politics are unavoidable in any projects because stakeholdersinterest and sometimes power will be affected. The only way to balance interests and power among stakeholders is through political process. b. Power and politics are to be avoided in order to deliver a successful project. c. Politics are distasteful to most people and damaging to organizations. It is critical to build up stakeholders' relationship to such an extent that no politics exist within a project environment. d. A project team should focus on technical deliverables of the project. As long as people get good results from a project, they will not turn to politics to achieve their needs. Hint: No matter how people disdain politics, they exist in any projects regardless of their size. A project manager has to maintain strong politicalties throughout the organization to achieve project success. Use of politics cannot be ignored or avoided. 72. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included? a. Create a contingency plan b. Create a risk management plan c. Create a WBS d. Create a scope statement 73. What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? a. FS b. FF c. SS d. SF 74. What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion? a) Scope verification b) Completing a scope statement c) Risk management plan d) Scope definition 75. Which of the following provides the foundation for team development? a. Motivation b. Organizational development c. Conflict management d. Individual development 76. Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution? a. Work authorization system b. Project plan c. Corrective action d. Preventive action 77. A project manager would find team development the most difficult in which form of organization? a. Weak Matrix organization b. Balanced Matrix organization

c. Projectized organization d. Tight Matrix organization 78. Once the project is complete, the complete set of project records should be put in which of the following? a. Project archives b. Database c. Storage room d. Project report 79. Which of the following is a common format for performance reporting? a. Pareto diagrams b. Bar charts c. Responsibility assignment matrices d. Control charts 81 If the cost variance is positive and the schedule variance is also positive, then it indicates that a. Project is under budget and behind schedule b. Project is over budget and behind schedule c. Project is under budget and ahead of schedule d. Project is over budget and ahead of schedule 82. Which one of the following is the last step of project closing? a. Client appreciates your product b. Client has accepted the product c. Lessons learned are documented d. Archives are complete 83. Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at closure of project? (Choose the BEST answer) a. Project office b. Management of the performing organization c. Project team d. Stakeholders 84. Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment? a. Peer Review b. Expected value technique c. Delphi Technique d. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)