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Refuting the Muslims Polemics

by abuGian

Before we begin, first secure a copy of the translation of the Qur'an, preferably from
Yusuf Ali, Shakir or Pickthal, but if you have the means and if it is possible, compare
different translations of the references given here so you will have a complete grasp of
the points that will have to be raised. Translation of the Qur'an is freely available and
downloadable from the internet. Unless otherwise specified all Qur'an quotes are based
on Yusuf Ali's translation.

The typical Muslim polemics in this page:

[a.] The Bible Has Been Tampered With But Not The Qur'an.
[b.] Qur'an Is The Last and Final Testament.
[c.] Paul Was A Messenger of Satan Who Greatly Influenced Christianity.
[d.] Muhammad Was Prophesied In The Bible.
[e.] Jesus, The Son of Mary Was Not crucified.

[a.] The Bible Has Been Tampered With But Not The Qur'an.

They often allege the lack of extant manuscripts supporting the Bible, they will also
allege contradictions therein by quoting sometimes atheistic sources or by
misinterpreting passages, they will also misrepresent Christian doctrines or confuse
Christian doctrines with heretic ones, particularly the Trinity and the Atonement. Most of
them are really sincerely convinced that they are pointing the weaknesses of the Bible but
sadly some of them are aware that there are already refutations to what they would like
allege for Islam is a religion that permits its followers to bend the truth to achieve its

This is the easiest allegation to counter. Simply ask the polemicists where can they find
such a claim in the Qur'an because according to their own sacred book or according to
Muhammad in the Seventh Century, God gave the Scriptures as a clear guide (Surah
2:213; 2:53; 5:44; 6:154; 23:49; 28:49; 32:23; 37:117-118; 40:53-54; 46:12). Also ask
them how they understand 5:46 which says,

"And We caused Jesus, son of Mary, to follow in their footsteps, confirming that which
was (revealed) before him in the Torah, and We bestowed on him the Gospel wherein is
guidance and a light, confirming that which was (revealed) before it in the Torah - a
guidance and an admonition unto those who ward off (evil)." (Surah 5:46. Emphasis
added, Pickthal's Quran Translation)

Because the Qur'an is also said to be,

"It is He Who sent down to thee (step by step), in truth, the Book {referring to the
Qur'an}, confirming what went before it {referring to the Scriptures}; and He sent
down the Law (of Moses) and the Gospel (of Jesus) before this, as a guide to mankind,
and He sent down the criterion (of judgment between right and wrong)." (Surah 3:3.
Emphasis added. See also Surah 5:48; 46:12)

Then show them the unity of the Old Testament (which includes the Torah or the "Taurat"
and the Psalms or the "Zabur") and the New Testament (which includes the Gospel or the
"Injeel") regarding its main theme (Jesus Christ and the Way of Salvation) and then ask
them, if the New Testament confirms the Old Testament while maintaining the unity in
doctrines and of records, how does the Qur'an confirm the Old and the New Testaments?
By contradicting it?

Ask them how the Scripture was corrupted, when did the corruption occur, and up to
what extent did the corruption of the Scriptures occur. Ask them if they have considered
that Christians still have more than 24,000 complete and partial manuscripts dated as far
as the Second Century from different places in Europe and Asia. That is to say that if
some manuscripts were corrupted in Asia, we still have other copies to compare it with
from Europe. True enough we have all of this testable and observable evidences to prove
that the Scripture is supernaturally preserved by God.

Furthermore, we find that contrary to what the Muslim polemicists claim, the Qur'an or
Muhammad approved of the copy of the Scriptures during his time (in the Seventh
Century); admonishing people to believe it (Surah 2:136; 3:184; 4:47, 136; 29:46; 42:13);
to consult it (Surah 4:26; 5:77; 10:94; 16:43; 21:7) and not to hide it (Surah 3:187)
because it is the foundation of faith (Surah 2:113; 3:93; 5:68). That, it is to be followed
(Surah 6:155) because it is from God (Surah 6:89; 41:45; 11:110) by inspiration (Surah
16:43) and it is settled in heaven (Surah 21:105 cf. 85:21-22; 4:163). That God is its
protector (Surah 17:2) from the corruption of its message (Surah 15:9) therefore none can
alter it (Surah 6:34, 115; 10:64; 48:23).

"The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfilment in truth and in justice: None can change
His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all." (Surah 6:115. Emphasis
added. See also Surah 15:9; 6:34; 10:64; 18:27; 48:23)

Make them realize that every criticism they hurl against the preservation, inspiration and
authority of the Scripture is a criticism against the preservation, inspiration and authority
of the Qur'an, after all, if man can alter the Scriptures which is the Word of God, man can
also alter the Qur'an.

If you have to go through Surah 2:78-79,

"And there are among them illiterates, who know not the Book, but (see therein their
own) desires, and they do nothing but conjecture Then woe to those who write the
Book with their own hands, and then say: 'This is from Allah,' to traffic with it for
miserable price!- Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make
thereby." (Emphasis added.)
Please understand that the context reveals that it does not speak of global corruption of
the Scriptures, for it speaks of "illiterates who do not understand but rather misinterpret
the meaning of the Scriptures." After all not all Christians are alike (Surah 2:146; 3:23;
3:113; 3:119).

[b.] Qur'an Is The Last and Final Testament.

They will point to how the Qur'an was perfectly preserved, its eloquence and beauty, its
prophecy about the vast Muslim expansion they now enjoy. They will also allege that it
has scientifically tested statements and that it is without contradictions.

Christians must be made aware that even after the death of Muhammad, there was no
such book as a Qur'an, it was only collated during the Caliphate of Abu Bakr (Pickthall,
quoted by J. P. Gudel) then it was during the Caliphate of Uthman all the variant
manuscripts were burned. Having these in mind we can ask the question: How can
Muslims prove that the words of "given" to Muhammad was actually preserved? Sure it
can be memorized but even the "Qurra" (those who memorized the entire Qur'an) and the
Shi'ites opposed the Uthmanic Recension?

Are eloquence and beauty sufficient evidence to prove that the Qur'an is the Last and
Final Testament of God? Even the English playwright and poet Shakespeare (1564-1616)
can match the beauty and eloquence of the Qur'an.

Can we consider Muhammad's victory speech a prophecy? I mean, almost all world
conquerors, like Hitler, made such statements which came to pass. If you are a potential
recruit to an army which is to go for a battle would you hear something short of a promise
of victory? Now top that with a promise of paradise with beautiful women and young
servant boys. (Surah 5:36).

And what scientific statements? Are stars supposed to be thrown at the devils (See also
Surah 15:16-18; 37:6-10; 72:8-9; 86:2-3)?

"And we have, (from of old), adorned the lowest heaven with Lamps, and We have made
such (Lamps) (as) missiles to drive away the Evil Ones, and have prepared for them the
Penalty of the Blazing Fire." (Surah 67: 5.)

What unity? For brevity sake we shall consider two of Qur'an's numerous internal
contradictions: (a) The angel or angels who talked to Mary Surah 3:42, 45 vs. Surah
19:17-21. (b) Conflict in the number of creation days Surah 7:54; 10:3; 11:7 25:59 (6
days) vs. Surah 41:9-12 (8 days). You can see for yourself the historical inconsistencies
therein, for example, the Mary mother of Jesus as the sister of Aaron (Surah 19:27-28,
66:12); and the "coexistence" of Abraham (2000 BC) and Solomon (950 BC).

How many angels talked to Mary?

Behold! the angels said: "O Mary! Allah hath chosen thee and purified thee- chosen thee
above the women of all nations. (Surah 3:42. Emphasis added. )

But in another Surah the account says only one angel:

She placed a screen (to screen herself) from them; then We sent her our angel, and he
appeared before her as a man in all respects. (Surah 19:17.)

It seems that the popular negation to this contradiction is to say that there were two
separate occasion when the angels appeared. However, when you study the context we
are compelled to ask how come Mary's surprised expression remains the same? Is it a
lack of faith on her part? Compare,

She said: "How shall I have a son, seeing that no man has touched me, and I am not
unchaste?" (Surah 19:20.)

And, Surah 3:47,

She said: "O my Lord! How shall I have a son when no man hath touched me?" He
said: "Even so: Allah createth what He willeth: When He hath decreed a plan, He but
saith to it, 'Be,' and it is!

[c.] Paul Was A Messenger of Satan Who Greatly Influenced


They will allege that Paul infiltrated Christianity and transformed it to what it is now--
having a teaching that is contrary to the "Islamic" teachings of Christ.

First of all we need a little background on the life of the Apostle Paul. We also need to
look at the dates of his important letters and his martyrdom. We also need some
background checks on his conversion experience and how the other Apostles treated his
writings and his ministry. And lastly we will have to compare the important doctrines
explained by Paul, compare it with Jesus and/or the other Apostles.

It is very important for Christians to understand this kind of polemic because it seeks to
discredit 13 epistles of Paul and consequently discrediting the 2 Gospel accounts of his
traveling companion Dr. Luke. We must emphasize here that although Paul, having
written 13 epistles, was the greatest expounder of Christianity he was not its founder.

Paul and His Works. Paul's letters to the Thessalonians were dated between AD 50 and
51; his letters to the Corinthians were dated AD 56-57; Galatians, AD 55-57; Romans,
between AD 58; Ephesians, Philippians and Colossians, either AD 60 or 61; Philemon,
AD 61; Titus, 64-66; and his letters to Timothy were between, AD 64-66. In summary his
letters started as early as AD 50 and was cut short at AD 66. We ask, "For what reason?
Since he said,
"For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain." Philippians 1:21

We also know from history that it was Nero who ordered the beheading of Paul
(Eusebius, Book2 Chapter 25) and that Nero died on AD 68, therefore Paul could have
written his last letter somewhere in the spring of AD 68 or in AD 67. And evident in that
letter, Paul said,

"For I am now ready to be offered, and the time of my departure is at hand. I have fought
a good fight, I have finished my course, I have kept the faith." 2 Timothy 4:6,7

A Little Background Check. We read from Acts 5:34-39 and 22:3 that Paul (formerly
called Saul of Tarsus) was taught by the famous Rabbi named Gamaliel and was a Roman
Jew (Acts 9:11; 21:39; 22:3; 16:37; 22:25-26). We read from Acts 9:7 while in Jewish
zeal, Paul's went his way to persecute Christians (Acts 7:58; 22:4, 20; 26:9; Galatians
1:13) a along the way he encountered the resurrected Christ where he was blinded this
was not a mere claim from Paul, there were eye witnesses (Acts 9:1-18; 26:14-18).

How can a former persecutor of Christianity become its founder? Don't you think that the
question assumes that Christianity (Acts 11:26) was founded first? Besides, Paul was not
even one of the Twelve (Romans 16:7; 1 Corinthians 15:9; 2 Corinthians 11:5; 12:11), so
how could he have successfully imposed his "perversions" on the entire scattered Church
(Acts 8:1)? Not to mentioned he was first mentioned only in Acts 7.

The Approval of the Other Apostles. John was the last of the Apostles, his was the last
of the Divinely inspired writings of the Judeo-Christian Scriptures (1,2,3 Epistles,
Gospel Account and Revelations, c. 90-95 AD). He said (tacitly approving the writings
and ministry of Paul),

"And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be
written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that
should be written. Amen." (John 21:25)

Last of Apostle Peter's letter (the Second Epistle) was written AD 64 and we read him
explicitly approving the writings and the ministry of Paul,

"And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother
Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you." (Emphasis
added. 2 Peter 3:15)

We read in Galatians 1:11-12 is the source of Paul's teachings:

"But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus
Christ." (See also 1 Corinthians 11:23; 15:3-4)

Let us now compare the teachings of Paul with Jesus and the other Apostles:
Did Paul admonish the abolishment of the Mosaic Law? Paul was referring to the
ceremonial components of the Law which was ritualistic in nature and was given
exclusively to the Jews (Colossians 2:13-15). If we compare it with what Jesus said
starting from Matthew 5:21, we realize that Jesus is also upholding the moral component
or the spirit of the Law. Furthermore we read him saying that he is the fulfillment of the
moral and ceremonial component of the Law.

Was the Atonement a Pauline innovation? On the contrary! Jesus said the bread was
His body and the wine was His blood (John 6:51). He also said,

"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his
life a ransom for many." (Matthew 20:28)


"I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep." (John 10:11)

Which was earlier prophesied in the Old Testament,

"All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the
LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all." (Emphasis added, Isaiah 53:6)

See also Matthew 26 and Mark 14 regarding the last supper also in Exodus and
Leviticus, where the Lord commanded many different sacrifices for atonement.

Even the Muslims perform a sacrifice ("Qurbaani") of a permissible ("halal") animal (like
a sheep, a goat, a ram or a cow or a camel, per family) after Salaat-Al-Eid and before the
Maghrib of 13th Zul-Hijjah during Eid-ul-Azha or the Bakr-Eid this is in commemoration
of Surah 37:100-109; 108:2 cf. 3:183; 22:37. Having this in mind ask them, therefore, to
consider this,

"And We {Allah} ransomed him with a momentous sacrifice: And We left (this
blessing) for him among generations (to come) in later times." (Surah 37:107, 108.)

Salvation by Grace through faith was invented by Paul? On the contrary! Jesus said,
"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the
Son of man which is in heaven. And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even
so must the Son of man be lifted up: That whosoever believeth in him should not perish,
but have eternal life. For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that
whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life" (John 3:13-14).
Jesus taught that salvation is free and it comes by faith in Him by which we can have His
Spirit who cause us to do good works.

The Ministry of Jesus was limited only to the Jews? (Matthew 7:6; 10:6 and 15:24.)
Matthew 7:6 which says "Give not that which is holy unto the dogs, neither cast ye your
pearls before swine, lest they trample them under their feet, and turn again and rend
you," does not really refer to the Gentiles per se rather it refers to the narrow-minded or
close-minded religious zealots. It is so because in the same book (28:19,20) Jesus said,
“Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of
the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have
commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world.”

The command in Matthew 10:6 which says "go rather to the lost sheep of the house of
Israel." and the statement of Jesus in Matthew 15:24 which says "But he answered and
said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." were both taken out of
context. First of all Matthew 10:6 was limited only at the beginning of the Ministry of
Jesus whereby his "time [was] not yet come" (John 7:6). Secondly, what was said in
Matthew 15:24 was only to disclose the great faith of the Canaanite woman. Observe that
in v.28 Jesus said, "O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her
daughter was made whole from that very hour." Jesus, none the less, granted her request.
Also Jesus said that the lost sheep of Israel and the non-Israelites must be brought
together in one fold,

"And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall
hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd." (John 10:16)

[d.] Muhammad Was Prophesied In The Bible.

They will point Ahmed-sound-a-likes or to ancient Biblical words that have similar
meaning to the name of Muhammad, no matter how absurd it is. They will point you to
Deuteronomy 18:15-18; 33:2; Isaiah 42:10-11; Songs 5:16; and, John 14:16; 15:26;
16:7, among others.

They have a problem with Songs and Isaiah because the claim of the Qur'an extends only
from the Law and the Gospel,

"Those who follow the messenger, the unlettered Prophet, whom they find mentioned in
their own (scriptures),- in the [L]aw and the Gospel;- for he commands them what is
just and forbids them what is evil; he allows them as lawful what is good (and pure) and
prohibits them from what is bad (and impure); He releases them from their heavy burdens
and from the yokes that are upon them. So it is those who believe in him, honour him,
help him, and follow the light which is sent down with him,- it is they who will prosper."
(Surah 7:157. Emphasis added, See also Surah 61:6)

According to the Qur'an, Muhammad was prophesied in the Law and in the Gospel.
Remember that the Heb. "Tanaakh" (Old Testament) is divided into three parts (1) the
Torah (the Law or the "Pentateuch," lit., Five-Books); (2) the Prophets; and, (3) The
Kethubim or the Writings or the Psalms. And that the Song of Songs or Songs of
Solomon belongs to Kethubim or the Writings which includes the Wisdom writings (Job,
Proverbs, Ecclesiastes), the Poetry (Psalms, Lamentations, Song of Songs), and some
Stories/History (Ruth, Esther, Daniel, Esra, Nehemiah, Chronicles). And that Isaiah
belongs to the Second Division of the Tanaakh which is the writings of the Prophets. This
is how it was divided even in the time of Jesus' ministry,

"And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet
with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in
the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. (Luke 24:44)

Anyway let us answer their contentions.

Deuteronomy 18:15-18; 33:2. They will contend that Muhammad is referred to as the
Prophet from among the brethren, after all he was from the line of Ishmael the first born
son of Abraham, and then they will show a table of comparison between Muhammad and
Moses while showing a table of contrast between Jesus and Moses. But you must be keen
in your observation of these tables because with the criteria they post is also applicable to
you--not only to Muhammad. Let's have our own table of comparison and contrast:

1. Moses (Exodus 1:17; Exodus 2:2-10) and Jesus (Matthew 2:16) was saved as a
baby. Not Muhammad.
2. Moses (Exodus 16:15; 33:13-14; Numbers 9:8-9) and Jesus (Matthew 17:2-8) had
intimate relationship with God. Muhammad did not communicate directly to God
(there was an mediating angel named Gabriel)
3. God has given Moses and Jesus many miracles. Muhammad had none. (Surah
4. Moses and Jesus made specific prophecies that were fulfilled. Aside from the
usual pre-war speeches he had none.
5. Moses (Exodus 32:30-32) and Jesus (Isaiah 53:5; Matthew 26:28) "atoned" for
the sins of the people. Muhammad did not.
6. Moses (Leviticus 4:2; 6:24-25; 14:13; Exodus 12:5; 13) and Jesus (Matthew
26:28; Mark 14:24; Luke 22:19-20; John 6:53-58) taught Atonement by means of
"bloody sacrifice." Muhammad taught exactly the opposite. (Surah 6:164; 53:38)
7. Moses (Exodus 2:1; 3:150 and Jesus (Matthew 1:2, 16; Luke 3:23, 34) both
belong to the lineage of Jacob. Muhammad and his followers claim he belongs to
the lineage of Ishmael.

Jesus is the Prophet like Moses?

Isaiah 42:10:11. They will allege that Isaiah 42:10-11 is about a Gentile (a non-Israelite)
Prophet appealing to the word "Kedar" in verse 11 which means, "A son of Ishmael"
(Strong's 6938) and since according to them Muhammad is a descendant of Ishmael and
that Jesus is not a prophet for the Gentiles (appealing to Matthew 7:6; 10:6 and 15:24),
Isaiah 42 to them therefore, is the prophecy about Muhammad. What does Matthew had
do say about this. We read Apostle Matthew's commentary in 12:17-21,

"That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, 18 Behold
my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will
put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles. 19 He shall not
strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. 20 A bruised reed shall
he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto
victory. 21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust."

Take note that the Prophet is not said to be a Gentile but will show judgment to the
Gentiles and that his name shall be trusted by the Gentiles. Now let's check the context of
the passage (Isaiah 42) starting from verse 6:

"I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep
thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles; 7 To open
the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness
out of the prison house. 8 I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give
to another, neither my praise to graven images. 9 Behold, the former things are come to
pass, and new things do I declare: before they spring forth I tell you of them. 10 Sing
unto the LORD a new song, and his praise from the end of the earth, ye that go down to
the sea, and all that is therein; the isles, and the inhabitants thereof. 11 Let the wilderness
and the cities thereof lift up their voice, the villages that Kedar doth inhabit: let the
inhabitants of the rock sing, let them shout from the top of the mountains."

Take note that even the Qur'an affirms that this is a prophecy about Jesus,

"And (appoint him) a messenger to the Children of Israel, (with this message): "'I {Jesus}
have come to you, with a Sign from your Lord, in that I {Jesus}make for you out of clay,
as it were, the figure of a bird, and breathe into it, and it becomes a bird by Allah's leave:
And I {Jesus} heal those born blind, and the lepers, and I {Jesus}quicken the dead, by
Allah's leave; and I {Jesus}declare to you what ye eat, and what ye store in your houses.
Surely therein is a Sign for you if ye did believe. (Surah 3:49. Emphasis added. )

Solomon 5:16. Again they found an Ahmed sound-alike in this passage so we can expect
them to be selective of this particular verse. Referring to the Hebrew "machamadim" the
root ("makh-mawd") of which means: delightful; hence, a delight, i.e. object of affection
or desire:--beloved, desire, goodly, lovely, pleasant (thing) (Strong's Hebrew 4261). In
one of their desperate attempts to prove that Muhammad was prophesied in the Judeo-
Christian Scriptures, the Muslims claim that Muhammad is being referred to in Songs
5:16. But the Hebrew word is not a proper noun and it is in plural in numbers ("im")
which is can either be an abstract noun or an adjective but in this case, it was used as an
adjective. This is a word game that is played but one word can have many usage in
different languages, but was it really Muhammad who was in the mind of the writer?
Let's check the context. of this chapter. In verse one we read,

"I am come into my garden, my sister, my spouse: I have gathered my myrrh with my
spice; I have eaten my honeycomb with my honey; I have drunk my wine with my milk:
eat, O friends; drink, yea, drink abundantly, O beloved." Song of Songs 5:1

Isn't wine forbidden in Islam?

John 14:16; 15:26; 16:7. Now we turn to Gospel, expect them to refer to the Greek
"parakletos," which means, an intercessor, consoler:--advocate, comforter. (Strong's
Greek 3875) but this time it is with a twist, they will misspell it as Aramaic "paraklytos"
which means, "glorious one," or "praised one," which has the same meaning to the name
of Ahmad (a form of Muhammad). Did you notice the word play here? Unfortunately for
them we will not find even a variant manuscript of John that spells "paraklytos"--it is not
even in the Scriptures. Paracletos means a counselor or an advocate while "paraklytos"
means glorious one or praised one or Ahmad, so how would a Muslim resolve this? The
second dilemma that they will have to face is the context of the passage which reads,

"And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide
with you for ever; Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it
seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and
shall be in you." (John 14:16,17)

Did Muhammad abide with the disciples of Christ and their succeeding disciples until he
was born in the Seventh Century and until now? Certainly not! So how can Muhammad
be this "paraklytos" (if there was ever a word in this passage)?

Did Muhammad dwell WITH the apostles and the disciples of Christ? Did he dwell IN
the apostles and the disciples or their succeeding disciples? Muhammad was seen says in
verse 7, the Parakletos can't be received by the world, much less be seen. Is Muhammad
the Spirit?

We all know that after the promised Parakletos in John, Jesus ascended 40 days later. And
ten days after Jesus' ascension the promised Parakletos came (Acts 2:1ff). The Holy Spirit
is the Parakletos not Muhammad who came 570 years later.

[e.] Jesus, The Son of Mary Was Not crucified.

The detail of their allegation here varies, some of them appeal to Substitution Theory,
some of them believes in the Swoon Theory. But one thing is for sure, to them Christ did
not suffer in the hands of the Jews by believing that Allah does not allow his prophets to
suffer, much less die in the hands of unbelievers.

Even in the Qur'an we read God allows His prophets to suffer consider the following
passages in the Qur'an: Surah 2:253; 3:112, 181, 183; 4:147-159; 5:70, 75.

"We took the covenant of the Children of Israel and sent them messengers, every time,
there came to them a messenger with what they themselves desired not - some (of these)
they called impostors, and some they (go so far as to) slay." (Surah 5:70. Emphasis

Not only that. We also notice that in the following suras we find evidences that Jesus died
and was brought to life again--
Regarding John the Baptist, it is said,

"So Peace on him the day he was born, the day that he dies, and the day that he will be
raised up to life (again)!" (Surah 19:15.)

Which is amazingly interesting because it is parallel to the words of Isa in the Qur'an:

"So peace is on me the day I was born, the day that I die, and the day that I shall be
raised up to life (again)"! (Surah 19:33. Emphasis added.)

That could be representing the (a) incarnation (b) death and (c) resurrection of Christ
which is symbolized by Christian's water baptism. And take note that in this inaccurate
translation of Ali,

"Behold! Allah said: "O Jesus! I will take thee {Arabic, "mutawafeeka"}and raise thee to
Myself and clear thee (of the falsehoods) of those who blaspheme; I will make those who
follow thee superior to those who reject faith, to the Day of Resurrection: Then shall ye
all return unto me, and I will judge between you of the matters wherein ye dispute."
(Surah 3:55. Emphasis added.)

The literal translation of the Arabic word "mutawafeeka" is "to cause you to die." Also,

"I spake unto them only that which Thou commandedst me, (saying): Worship Allah, my
Lord and your Lord. I was a witness of them while I dwelt among them, and when Thou
tookest me {Arabic, "tawafaittani"} Thou wast the Watcher over them. Thou art Witness
over all things." (Surah 5:117. Emphasis added, Pickthal's Quran Translation)

The literal translation of the Arabic word "tawafaittani" is "cause me to die."

Then proceed with the classical defense of the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ,

(a) There were eye witnesses and their accounts were found in biblical and extra-biblical
accounts; (b) the execution was held in public by highly disciplined Roman soldiers--so
too was the burial site guarded by these men; (c) the Apostles and many eye witnesses
were dramatically changed and died preaching it; (d) and it was prophesied by Christ and
by the incredibly too numerous passages in the Old Testament Scriptures.

Josh McDowell's book Evidence That Demands A Verdict: Historical Evidences for the
Christian Faith and the Resurrection Factor compiled many extra-biblical documentary
evidences that are very useful.

Amazingly, to the Muslims there is only one authoritative quote against the suffering and
the death of Christ, that is from a vague passage in the Seventh Century Qur'an,

That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of
Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them,
and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only
conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not: (Surah 4:157.)

I said vague ("mutashaabih") because it can be interpreted in a manner that is in harmony

with Surah 3:55; 5:117; 19:15; and 19:33 and with the Scriptures. Observe,

"But they killed him not, nor crucified him but so it was made to appear to them."

Isn't it obvious that the Jews nor the Romans were not really successful in putting Jesus
to death for good? Surely, they did not successfully killed Jesus for good because he was
resurrected on the third day!

Isn't obvious that since it was prophesied that the Pure Sacrificial Lamb will be the
ransom for many it is only fitting that the crucifixion was not really from the Jews or the
Romans but that it was "only made to appear to them" because it was the plan of God all
along--God's way of salvation?

If it is true that the correct interpretation to this vague passage is that God only made to
appear that Jesus was the one who died at the crucifixion, then God is accused of
deceiving the many souls who witnessed Jesus died on Calvary.


1. To Every Muslim An Answer (Part Two in a series on Islam from Forward

magazine) by Joseph P. Gudel. CRI, P.O. Box 7000, Rancho Santa Margarita, CA
92688 (
2. Using the Qur'an in Evangelism, Isa Masih Homepage
3. Methods Muslims use to attack Christianity by Matthew Slick (c) 1998.
Christian Apologetics Research Ministry (
4. The Seven Deadly Questions of Islam by a certain UK Medical Doctor
5. Who Founded Christianity - Jesus or St. Paul? an Apologetic Paper by Joseph
Smith, May 1995 (
6. Who is the Prophet Like Moses? Truth Tracts (c) 1996 The Domini Project
7. Is Muhammad Prophesied in the Injil? Truth Tracts (c) 1996 The Domini
Project (
8. Uncomfortable Questions For The Qur'an an Apologetic Paper by Jay Smith,
May 14, 1995 (
9. How "Non-Jesus" Was Paul, Really? Parts One and Two. The Christian
ThinkTank. (
10. A Christian Response to Dr. Jamal Badawi's "Seven Wonders of The Quran"
by Sam Shamoun(
11. If Mohammad was a prophet of God, how come his name is not in the Holy
Bible? (
12. Does Song of Songs Mention Muhammad's Name? by Answering Islam
13. Muhammad (P.B.U.H.) Not Foretold In The Bible by Abdullah Ibrahim
14. Strong's Hebrew and Greek Words from Godrules.Net
15. Is the Qur'an the Word of God? by Jay Smith June 3, 1996
16. The Qur'an and the Bible in the light of history and science by Dr. William
Campbell. Copyright 1986 by Arab World Ministries (http://answering-