again a repeat paper.mixture of AIPG DENTAL 2009 AND AIIMS RECENT .

MEDICAL QUESTIONS ARE ALSO REPEATED FROM AMIT ASHISH 2009 AND 2010 http://www.aippg.net/forum/f23/dentalaiims-may-2011-a-96600/ http://rxdentistry.co.in/forum/showthread.p hp?219-Aiims-may-2011-discussion Anatomy:Q.1 C.nerve not carrying psn stimulatn a)4th b)3rd c)7th d)9th c.n. Nerve Not carrying parasympathetic fibres - Trochlear Q.2 TMJ dev. (AIPG 2009) a)2wk b)10wk @@@ c)20wk d)22wk Q3. area that lies immediately lateral to the ant. Perforating substance isa.orbital gyrus B.UNCUS C.OPTIC CHIASMA D.LIMEN INSULE@@@ Q. Lateral to optic chiasma Limen insulae @@@ Q.4.which organ posterior 2 pancreas a)kidney @@@ b)stomach c)colon d)duodenum Q.5. all structure pierced buccinater .except a)parotid gland b)molar glands of cheeks c)buccal br of facicl n d)buccal br of mand n. @@@ Physiology:Q.6 intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells..refer aiims may 2010 a a Q.7 A pt diagnosed withincrease in ldl.his father n broalso had same ds. a)l dl recepter mutation @@@ b)familial lipoprotein lipese def Q8. primary func of muscle spindle a)length b)stretch c)metabolism d}propioception Q. golgi spindle detect a)muscle length @@@ b)m.tension c)motor n. stimulation Q.9. cortical representation of body in cerebrum a) vertical @@@ b)oblique c)tandem Q.10. which one associated with increased aging a)increased cross linkages in collagen b)increased superoxides dismutase c)increased accumulation of free radicals / free radical injury @@@

AIIMS MAY 2011 DENTAL: Discussion ==============

Q.11 main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles a)raised blood flow b)vasodilatation due 2 local metabolite c)increased heart rate Q. Vasodilatation - Accumulation of metabolites

grow as mycelial form when incubated at room temperature under laboratory conditions and yeast phase, yeast like cells or spherule form when grown in human tissue or incubated at 37C on synthetic laboratory media. Fungi which can exist in two forms1-as filamentous form or Q.12 visual cycle / Visual transduction 2- as yeast depending on conditions of a) Depolarization growth. b) Repolarization In host tissue or culture at 37 00 c they c) Hyperpolarization occur as yeast while in soil and in d) hyper depolarisation cultures at 22 0 c appear as mould. Most fungi causing systemic infection Q.13 Bezolds jarrisch reflex which of the are dimorphic fungi. Examplefollowing is true. ? 1. Histoplasma capsulatum a. Tachycardia with hypovolemia (histoplasmosis) b. Bradycardia with hypovolemia@@@ 2. Blastomyces c. Hypertension inspite of hypovolumia dermatitidis(Blastomycosis) d. Bradycardia with normovolemia 3. Coccidiodes immitis Ref : Neural Blockade in Clinical Anesthesia (coccoidiomycosis) and Pain By Michael J. Cousins 4th Ed Pg 4. Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis 249 250 (paracoccoidimycoosis) Bezold-Jarisch Reflex 5. Sporothrix schenekii sporotrichosis) A cardiovascular decompressor reflex 6. Penicillium marneffei involving a marked increase in vagal 7. Malasezia furfur, (parasympathetic) efferent discharge to the but cryptococcoosis is not a dimorphic heart, elicited by stimulation of fungus chemoreceptors, primarily in the left ventricle. mnemonics-mala sinha bombay primary This causes a slowing of the heart beat health center par rahti hai. (bradycardia) and dilatation of the peripheral Highly virulent dimorphic fungi are: blood vessels with resulting lowering of the Histoplasma capsulatum var. blood pressure. capsulatum, The concept was originated by a German Histoplasma capsulatum var. physiologist Albert von Bezold in 1867, later duboisii, revised by an Austrian dermatologist Adolf Blastomyces dermatitidis, Jarisch in 1937 Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, Sporothrix schenckii, Q.14. hereditry intestinal polyposis gene Penicillium marneffei and a)BRCA Coccidioides immitis. b)p53 Dimorphic fungi cause systemic mycosis c)APC often termed as d)???? histoplasmosis, Q. Non hereditary colon ca gene ? blastomycosis, Hmlh1>>> paracoccidioidomycosis, APC sporotrichosis, P53 penicilliosis marneffei and coccidioidomycosis. Microbiology:Q.15 . all r diamorphic except a/e Q.16. culture media 4 leptospirosis.. a)blastomyces dermatidis a)korthoff @@@@ b)histoplasma b)perkin c)penicillium marneffi c)baker d)phialospora @@@ d)tinsdale The term Dimorphic fungus has been employed to potential pathogens that

Some examples of selective media include: eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB) that contains methylene blue toxic to Gram-positive bacteria, allowing only the growth of Gram negative bacteria YM (yeast and mold) which has a low pH, deterring bacterial growth blood agar (used in strep tests), which contains bovine heart blood that becomes transparent in the presence of hemolytic Streptococcus MacConkey agar for Gram-negative bacteria Hektoen enteric agar (HE) which is selective for Gram-negative bacteria mannitol salt agar (MSA) which is selective for Gram-positive bacteria and differential for mannitol Terrific Broth (TB) is used with glycerol in cultivating recombinant strains of Escherichia coli. xylose lysine desoxyscholate (XLD), which is selective for Gram-negative bacteria buffered charcoal yeast extract agar, which is selective for certain gramnegative bacteria, especially Legionella pneumophila Examples of differential media include: eosin methylene blue (EMB), which is differential for lactose and sucrose fermentation MacConkey (MCK), which is differential for lactose fermentation mannitol salt agar (MSA), which is differential for mannitol fermentation X-gal plates, which are differential for lac operon mutants Examples of transport media include: Thioglycolate broth for strict anaerobes. Stuart transport medium - a nonnutrient soft agar gel containing a reducing agent to prevent oxidation, and charcoal to neutralise Certain bacterial inhibitors- for gonococci, and buffered glycerol saline for enteric bacilli. Venkat-Ramakrishnan(VR) medium for v. cholerae. Q.17 microaerophilic a)campylobacter @@@

b)vibrio c)bacteriods d) pseudomonas Microphillic bacteria. Examples include:

iin neeraj wadhwan the answer given is 1. and the answer is 4. ???

Borrelia burgdorferi, a species of spirochaete bacteria that causes Lyme disease in humans. Helicobacter pylori, a species of proteobacteria that has been linked to peptic ulcers and some types of gastritis. Some don't consider it a true obligate microaerophile.[1]

Campylobacter has been described as microaerophilic.[2] Streptococcus intermedius has also been described as microaerophilic. Streptococcus pyogenes, a well known microaerophile that causes streptococcal pharyngitis. Q.18 autoinfection seen in a)giardia b) gnathosp Autoinfection is the infection of a primary host with a parasite, particularly a helminth, in such a way that the complete life cycle of the parasite happens in a single organism, without the involvement of another host. Therefore, the primary host is at the same time the secondary host of the parasite. Some of the organisms where autoinfection occurs are : - Strong Tea Entertains Nana'(mnemonic)

Strongyloides stercoralis, Teania solium Enterobius vermicularis, Hymenolepis nana

Q.19 gas gangrene all except a) cl.histolyticum b)cl.septicum c)cl.sporogens@@@@ d)cl.novyi General Medicine:Q.20In which area gall stones pain not percieved a)epigastrium b)rt.hypochondrium c)rt.iliac d)shoulder @@@ Q.21 all r feature of systemic inflammatory disorder SIRS except : a)oral temp>38 c b)leucocytosis c)thrombocytopenia @@@?? Oral Surgery: Q22 based on tension and compression trajectories fracture of condyle is best treated by / acc to rule of tensiona and compressional forces acting along the condylar border best way to stabilise a condylar frac against these forces wud require? a) One plate on anterior & one plate on posterior border @@?? b) One anterior only c) One laterally only d) One posterior only OR. 1. one plate at the ant border and one plate at the post @@@ 2. a plate at the anterior border 3. a plate at the posterior border 4. a plate at the lateral border

screw combined with an arch bar. Depending on the size of the plate and whether or not an arch bar will also be used Q23. In a condylar fracture and bone plate synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension & to provide another point of fixation, the fixation could be rigid or functionally compression zones the most acceptable stable place for plating is a. A plate fixed laterally in the neck of the Fixation schemes for mandibular condyle.@@@ symphyseal fracture. b. Plate on posterior border of the condyle A large compression plate in only. combination with an arch bar for a ... c. Plate on the anterior border of the symphysis fracture (two-point fixation). condyle only. Two lag screws inserted across a d. Plate on the anterior & posterior border of symphysis fracture (two-point fixation). the condyle. Two bone plates for a symphysis Ans. A (A plate fixed laterally in the fracture (two-point fixation). These may neck of the condyle) Ref: Oral and or may not be compression plates. Maxillofacial Trauma, Raymond J. Typically the larger one at the inferior Fonseca, Robert V. Walker, 3rded, border is a compression plate and the one volume 1/552 located more superiorly may or may not. Condylar neck fractures are usually Symphysis fracture with either two 2.0 treated by closed reduction. mm miniplates, or a stronger bone plate "The mandible is exposed, via a at the inferior border, as well as using the submandibular incision, which allows arch bar as another point of fixation access to the inferior border and entire ramus. A groove is drilled in the lateral Q27. most difficult fracture to treat ramus to with in the several centimeters a) Body of mandible with in the fracture line" b) Condylar Rigid fixation of a right condylar neck c) Angle fracture uses a miniplate and d) Symphyseal fracture monocortical screws Which of the following are most complicated fractures. (AIIMS may 2009) Q24. treatment of communicated fracture a. Symphysis@@@??? a) Reconstruction plates 2.5 mm @?? b) Body b) Dynamic screws / dynamic compression c) Condyle???? plates with eccentric screws d) Angle c) Single Miniplate 1.5mm Condylar fractures are the most d) Multiple miniplates complicated fractures because they can effect growth of the fcial structures and Q25. subcondylar fracture >5 deg. & >37mm because of their close approximity to overlap is treated with brain structures. a) Closed reduction & imf Overview of Mandibular Fractures:b) ORIF @@@ Location of mandibular fractures Fridrich and associates showed that most Q26.fracture of symphsis canot be treated by fractures occur in the body (29%), (Refer Aiims may 2009 Ques) condyle (26%), and angle (25%) of the a) 1.5mm One single miniplate mandible. The symphyses account for b) 2.5mm mono cortical plate 17% of mandibular fractures, whereas c) Lag screws fractures of the ramus (4%) and coronoid d) 2mm compression plates process (1%) have lower occurrence Q. a/e in symphysis # - single plate rates. In automobile accidents, the Q. A transverse fracture of symphysis is condylar region was the most common treated by all of the following except fractured site. In motorcycle accidents, a. Two Compression plates. (2mm) the symphysis was fractured most often. b. Two lag screws When assault was the cause, the angle 3.single Miniplate fixation (1.5mm) @@ demonstrated the highest incidence of 4.2.4 mm reconstruction plate. fracture.[29] single mini plate fixation cannot support Associated injuries with mandibular the dynamics of fracture at symphysis fractures - Fridrich and associates region reported that in patients with mandible Symphyseal fractures had negative fractures, 43% of the patients had an bending moments only that caused associated injury. Of these patients, head compression at the alveolar side and injuries occurred in 39% of patients, head tension at the lower border of the and neck lacerations in 30%, midface mandible and relatively high torsion fractures in 28%, ocular injuries in 16%, moments. Compressive strain develops nasal fractures in 12%, and cervical spine along the buccal aspect, whereas tensile fractures in 11%. Other injuries present strain develops along the lingual aspect. in this group were extremity trauma in This produces a fracture that begins in 51%, thoracic trauma in 29%, and the lingual region and spreads toward the abdominal trauma in 14%. Of the 1067 buccal aspect. The anterior mandible patients studied, 12 (2.6%) died of their undergoes shearing and torsional associated injuries before the mandible (twisting) fracture could be treated.[29] forces during functional activities. Number of fractures per mandible - In Application of fixation devices must patients with mandible fractures, 53% of therefore take these factors into patients had unilateral fractures, 37% of consideration. This is why most surgeons the patients had 2 fractures, and 9% had advocate two points of fixation in the 3 or more fractures symphysis: either two bone plates, two lag screws, or possibly one plate or lag

Q28. In fracture of atrophic mandible treatment modality is a) Bone grafting & load bearing ?? b) Bone grafting & load sharing c) Open reduction d) Semi rigid Q. Mand with bone loss - Reconstruction plates @@ Refer Q. AIIMS May 2009 Q. In fracture through mental foramen in mandible with less than 10mm of bone loss treatment would be, a..Champys plate. b..Lag screw c..Non rigid fixation d..Reconstruction plates@@@ In the above question there is bone loss of 10mm and the fracture line is passing through mental foramen. To prevent damage to nerve instead of two plates a load bearing reconstruction plate is given. The most simplistic way to discuss fixation schemes for fractures are to divide them into Load-Bearing versus which bear the original load Load-Sharing Fixation that share the loads with the bone on each side of the fracture Load-bearing fixation is a device that is of sufficient strength and rigidity that it can bear the entire load applied to the mandible during functional activities. Injuries that require load-bearing fixation are comminuted fractures of the mandible, those fractures where there is very little bony interface because of atrophy, or those injuries that have resulted in a loss of a portion of the mandible (defect fractures). Load bearing fixation is sometimes called bridging fixation because it bridges areas of comminution or bone loss. Such plates are relatively large, thick, and stiff. They use screws that are generally greater than 2.0 mm in diameter (most commonly 2.3 mm, 2.4 mm, or 2.7 mm). When secured to the fragments on each side of the injured area by a minimum of three bone screws, reconstruction bone plates can provide temporary stability to the bone fragments. Load-sharing fixation is any form of internal fixation that is of insufficient stability to bear all of the functional loads applied across the fracture by the masticatory system. Such a fixation device(s) requires solid bony fragments on each side of the fracture that can bear some of the functional loads. Fractures that can be stabilized adequately with load-sharing fixation devices are simple linear fractures, and constitute the majority of mandibular fractures. Fixation devices that are considered load-sharing include the variety of 2.0 mm miniplating systems, Lag screw techniques etc..,. However Simple linear fractures can also be treated by loadbearing fixation but reverse is not true.. For the majority of fractures in the dentulous mandibular body and symphysis there is sufficient height of bone to place one loadsharing plate along the inferior and one along the superior aspect of the lateral cortex. Because fixation devices are applied to the

lateral surface of the mandible, the ability to use two-point fixation requires that there be sufficient height of bone so that the fixation devices can be placed far apart from one another. For instance, an atrophic mandibular fracture, where there is a vertical height of only 15 mm, would not gain much mechanical advantage from placing two bone plates on the lateral surface . In such instances Use of a single strong bone plate (reconstruction plate) is recommended when the vertical height of the mandible is small . Q.29. alv grafting in cleft palate pt. - a)after max expansion,cross bite correction before canine correction @

Q.39. In caries,which structure becomes more prominent (AIPG 2009) a)stiae of retzius @@@ b) pickerill c)hunter shreger lines d)stie of wickhem Q40. amalgam poloshing the outersurface arranged in layer known as a) beelby layer @@@ b) weelby layer c) sealby layer

Q.49. true about simple random sampling a)every element has an equal probability of being included b)based on similar characteristics c)suitable 4 large hetrogenous population Q.50. guidelines accordingto baby friendly hospital initiative includes all except a) mother n infant 2 b together 4 24 hr. b)initiate breast feeding in 4 hr of normal delivery c)giving no food or drink other than breast milk d)encourage breast feeding on demand e. Mother to feed baby 4 hrs @@@ Q.51. which one is true about normal distribution a)meam median mode coincide at 1 pt / Mean = Mode = Median @@@ b) values distributed in normal range Q.52. all except are approaches 2 health education a/e a)provision of incentives @@@ b)service approach c)education .... d)health approach Q.53. increase in false positives cases in community a)cefepime b)cefoperazone c)cefotaxime Q. Which cephalo do nt require dose redn Cefoperazone Q. inf false positive - low prevalence

Q.57. most cariogenic sugar a) glucose b)sucrose @@@ c)lactose d)fructose Q. 58) Fructosamine a/e - Screening of diabetes Q.59. while reducing # lingual splaying of segments noted. which will cause increase in a)intercanthal distance b)interangular distance @??? c)go-gn distance Q. 60. hybridization of dna homologous but not identical inc with Pharmacology:Q. 61. ifosfamide false is a) nitrogen mustard b) metabolized by CPY c) cloroacetaldehyde d) less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide>>> Q. 62. piogltazone false is --a) peroxisome proliferative activated receptors PPAR b) used in DM 1>> c) metabolized by liver d) c/I in cardiac dystolic function Q. 63. a) b) c) exenatide all r true except GLP analogue Releases glucagon>>> Used in DM 2used subcutaneously

Q41 In a class V cavity preparation M-D walls depends on a. Direction of enamel rods@@@ b. Contours of gingiva c. Size of carious lesion Q.30. most common impaction d. Location of contact area a)mesio angular @@ Ans. A (Direction of enamel rods) Ref. b)vertical Sturdevant, 4th ed. pg 755/ 5th ed. pg 797, c)distoangular 798, 799, 801 d)horizontal - The Outline form Of Class V amalgam tooth preparation is primarily determined by the Q.31 Route not used in children (AIPG 2009) location and size of caries or a)I/M - External shape is related to the contour of b)subdermal @@@ marginal gingival c)sub mucosal - The direction of mesial & distal wall follows d)I/V the direction of the enamel rods Proper outline from for Class V amalgam Q.32. nitrous oxide acts by - non specific tooth preparations results in extending the depression cavosurface margins to sound tooth structure, while maintaining a limited axial depth of 0.5 Q.33. when a minimal injury as a glancing mm inside the DEJ and 0.75 mm inside the blow is struck 2 what variable its related cementum (when on the root surface). a) angulation @@@ Presently, a more conservative philosophy is b)position used (resulting in smaller restorations with c)location outline forms that are dictated primarily by the d)area of strike size of the defect

Q.54. All of the following measures are used for nutrition assessment to indicate CONSERVATIVE Q42. on a radiograph an RCT treated tooth 2 inadequate nutrition except. Q34 lubricating gel used while rubber dam years back a radiolucent cyst enlarged even a. Increased 1-4yr mortality rate placement all except (AIPG 2009) after sugery what is the reason b. Birth weight < 2500gm a) Soapy water a) Leaking from unobturated main canal c. Hb< 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of b) Vaseline @@@ @@@ pregnancy.@@@@ c) Shaving cream b) Unobturated accessory canal d. Decrease weight for height d) Scrub gel c) Apex was not resected ans. C (Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of d) Actinomyces infection pregnancy) Ref : CMDT 2008/677; Park 19th Q35 while placement of ruber dam following / 515-518; Ghai 6th/101; Nelson's 18th7228 technique is NOT used Q.43. lateral incisor with periapical abcess n Anemia in pregnancy is defined as a) Place clamp on tooth and insert the dam sinus tract. treatment of sinus tract - a) no Hemoglobin measurement below lOg/dl and b) Place dam on tooth then place clamp over treatment @@@@ not 11.5 g/dL Hemoglobin levels less than it lOg/dl during pregnancy may be used to c) Place dam & frame outside the oral Q.44 If histologic slide n contents of canal indicate inadequate nutrition (nutritional cavity & then on tooth using forcep OVER space could b obtained most common finding anemia) and not a Hemoglobin level of less the dam @@@@ in radioluency region is (AIPG 2009) than ll.Sg/dl. This is therefore the single best d) Place dam & frame outside the oral cavity a)normal pulp answer of exclusion. & then on tooth using forcep UNDER the dam b)osteoclastic activity @@@ Increased 1-4 year mortality rate indicates un c)A.I. undernutrition / malnutrition in a community Q36. to restore ACID eroded non carious d)decrease in cellularity (Park l9th/517) lesion which is used (AIPG 2009) 'Mortality in the age group of 1 to 4 years is a) GIC Q45. Acid etching is done to particularly related to malnutrition' - Park b) RMGIC a) Dec. micro leakage @@@ 19th/517 c) Compomer b) Dec. polymerization shrinkage Vital & Health Statistics (Mortality & Morbidity d) composite c) Dec. coefficient of thermal expansion data): Indicators of Malnutrition in Community d) Dec. porosity in restorative material 1 to 4 year mortality rate Q.37. bonding of GIC 2 tooth structure (AIPG Infant mortality rate 2009) Orthodontics: Second year mortality rate a)metal ions Q.46. normal mandibular plane angle Rate of low birth weight babies b)OH IONS a)17-30 @@@ Life expectancy c)COO- ions / Carboxlic groups@@ b)115-130 d)micromechanical bonding c)25-40 Q.55. pt on acarbose n insulin has got hypoglycemic attack..treatment ??? Q38. fluoride released from GIC restoration is Q. 47. 131 deg interincisal angle denotes a) maltose replaced by Proclined incisors b)glucose @@@ a) Hydoxl ion @@@ c) galactose b) Aluminium ion Q48. Abt y axiswhat is true - obtained by d)sucrose c) Silicate ion joining sella gnathion to F H plane d) Carboxylate ion Q56. a/e causes hypoglycemia - acarbose Community Dentistry:-

Q.64. not a sign of succesful stellate ganglion block a)nasal stuffiness b)guttman sign c)horner syndrome d)bradycardia @@@?? Q.65. anesthetic drug injected for paravertebral block least likely diffuse 2 a)epidural space b)inter costal space c)sup n inf paravertebral space d) sob arachnoid space @@@? Q.66. adverse effects of valpoic acid derivative r all except a)alopecia b)liver failure c)wt. gain d)osteomalacia @@@??? Q.67. drug both anti resorptive n bone formation a)calcitonin b)strontium renelate @@@ c)ibaddronate d)teriperatide Q.68. ideal analgesia..... a)short onset of action, high efficacy,intermediate duraton b)short onset ,high efficacy,short duration c)intermediate onset,?????? Q. Patient controlled analgesia ? Periodontics Q. 69. Toothbrush abrasions more on Maxillary left Q. 70. All inv in periodontitis except Neisseria

Q. 71. All found in healthy perio except Eubacterium Q. 72. Periodontitis A.A. - Gm negative anaerobes Rods Q. 73. Role of plaque is obsolete in Desquamative gingivitis Q. 74. Chronic gingivitis h/f - Disruption of gingival fib n infiltration of lymphocytes plasma cells Q. 75. False abt juvenile periodontitis Bone loss simultaneous Q. Which of the following is untrue of LJP localized juvenile periodontitis? (AIIMs may 2009 ) a) more common in females b) mirror image type of bone loss is seen bilaterally c) Amount of bone destruction is proportional to the amount of plaque @@@ d) aggressive periodontal bone destruction compared to normal periodontitis ans C amount of bone destruction is far advanced then the inflammatory changes caused by deposition of plaque. The amount of bone destruction far exceeds the amount of plaque deposition Q. 76. .tfo least affects (repeat ap 2007) a)periodontium b)enamel c)cementum d)epithelial attachment@@@ Q. 77. wich is not an abrasiv in dentrifice a)CaCo3 b)amylose @@@ c)silicate

The clinical course of the Lesion is one of its unusual aspects. It begins as a small firm nodule that develops to full size over period 4-8 wks and then undergoes spontaneous regression over the next 6-8 wks (self healing carcinoma) If spontaneous regression does not occur, the lesion is usually treated by surgical excision parakeratin or orthokeratin surface layer with central plugging is important histologic feature. Keratoacanthoma is a localized lesion (usually found on sun-exposed skin, including the upper lip Q. 82. CVS manifestation in AIDS / HIV include all except A/E a)pericardial tamponade(?) b) Aortic aneurysm @@ Q.83. widening of predentin layer n presence of large areas of interglobular demtin n irregular tubular pattern of dentin a) D.I b) dentin dysplasia c) odontodysplasia @@@ Q.84. not associated with natal teeth a)van de woude syndrome @@@ b)sotos syn c)cleft palate d)ellis van crevold Q.85. most common developmental cyst a) median ant. palatal cyst @@@ b) globullo max cyst c)median mand cyst

b)apical cyst c) PA granuloma d)chronic periodontitis Q.89. ceph radiology distance b/w film n source - 5 feet from midsagittal plane Q. 90. RFLP Q. 91. Upper 2 R/L Leakage frm main canal

Radiology:Q. 86. RVG sensors are protected from infection / While using the Radio visiography, the best method of infection control for receptors is (Aiims may 2009) a) Autoclave the receptors after each use Q. 78. In periodontitis pt.which one used b) immerse the receptors in disinfectant a)tooth paste with max abrasive c) wipe the sensor with 5.25% hypochlorite b)tooth paste with min abrasive @@@ solution c)tooth powder with max abrasive d) cover with impervious plastic d) no abrasive sheath@@@@@ Ref : Infection Control & Occupational Safety Q. 79. brushing technique in pd patients Recommendations for Oral Health a)roll b)scrub Professionals in India 2007 by anil kohli c)bass d)sulcular@@@ 1st/124. The digital sensors and receptors are Oral Pathology / Oral Medicine semicritical instruments. The digital receptor Q. 80. Malignant transformation - Junctional is used in the patient's oral cavity needs to neavus be sheathed with a plastic sheath extending at least 5 inches outside the patient's mouth. Q. 81. Self healing carcinoma among the The sheath needs to be changed between following is . patients and the digital receptor and only a. Leukoplakia needs to be wiped with a disinfectant wipe if b. Keratoacanthoma@@ contaminated c. Benign neuroma Do not immerse Digital Receptors (ones with d. Melanoma electronic leads) in disinfectant as the Ans. B (Keratoacanthoma) Ref: Burkets leaching of liquids 10thed/167, Shafer 4thEd/88 & 5thEd/116 & may short the circuits in the receptor. Digital 6th ed Pg 82 Sensors (that do not have leads) may be Keratoacanthoma (self healing carcinoma, immersed in a disinfectant per manufacturer's molluscum pseudo-carcinomatosum, recommendation. molluscum sebaceum) is a relatively common Q. 87. rvg use compared to conventional low-grade malignancy that originates in the pilosebaceous glands. Trauma, HPV virus, radiography genetic factors and immuno compromised a) Same status have been implicated as etiologic b) Half @@@ factors. It occurs twice commonly in men than c) 1/5 women, usuaLly on sun exposed areas. Lips d) increased and the vermillion bolder of both the upper and lower lip are affected with equal Q.88 which of the following is identified only frequency. by radiographs? (AIPG 2009) a) mental foramen @@@