Medical education in the United States has focused almost exclusively on curative medicine,

while preventive care has been given scant attention. This is misguided. Medical schools should
invest as much time in teaching their students how to prevent illness as in teaching them how to
cure it. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
Many contagious diseases can be prevented with vaccines.
In 1988, for every three cents the United States spent on prevention, it spent 97 cents on curative
treatment.
The number of students enrolled in medical school is the highest it has ever been.
More people die each year from disease than from accidental causes.
As the population grows, the number of doctors in certain specialties has not been keeping pace.

The conclusion is that medical schools are misguided. The basis for this claim is that they pay
little attention to preventive medicine. The argument would be made stronger by a statement
concerning the benefits of preventive medicine.
(A) CORRECT. Vaccines are a type of preventive medicine that have known benefits, i.e.,
preventing contagious diseases.
(B) This statement supports the idea that the more time and money are spent on curative
medicine than on preventive medicine. However, it does not speak to the benefits of preventive
medicine.
(C) The number of students enrolled in medical school has nothing to do with the benefits of
preventive medicine.
(D) Accidental causes have nothing to do with the benefits of preventive medicine.
(E) The number of doctors in certain specialties has nothing to do with the benefits of
preventative medicine.
Consumer advocates argue that the coating found on non-stick cookware contains harmful
chemicals that are released into the air when the cookware is heated above a certain temperature.
The manufacturer of the cookware acknowledges this hazard but assures consumers that the
temperature threshold is much higher than would ever be needed for food preparation and
therefore no special precautions need be taken in using the cookware.

Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the claims of the
manufacturer?

The chemicals released by the coating can linger in the air for days

Empty cookware left on the flame often reaches exceptionally high temperatures.

Several consumers have already claimed illness as a result of using the cookware.

The manufacturer did not test the cookware for this phenomenon until consumer advocates
brought the issue to its attention.
There are effective non-stick coatings that do not release toxins when heated.

The claim of the manufacturer is that no special precautions need be taken when using the
cookware. The basis of this claim is that the cookware is dangerous only when it reaches a
temperature much higher than normally reached during cooking. We are asked to find a choice
that weakens this claim; since the danger comes only at high temperatures, the correct choice
will likely have something to do with temperature.
(A) The fact that chemicals can linger for days does not affect the claim; if the chemicals are not
released in the first place, this is irrelevant.
(B) CORRECT. If "empty cookware left on the flame often reaches exceptionally high
temperatures," then there may indeed exist circumstances under which the cookware will pose a
danger. The manufacturer's claim that no precautions need be taken is greatly weakened.
(C) The fact that several consumers have claimed illness as a result of using the cookware does
not mean that their illnesses were in fact from the cookware; the food may have been
contaminated or the illness may have resulted from something entirely unrelated to cooking.
Without proof of the claim, this choice is not relevant.
(D) The fact that the manufacturer did not test the issue ahead of time is irrelevant to the claim
that no special precautions need be taken.
(E) The existence of other non-stick coatings that do not release toxins has little to do with the
manufacturer's claim here about a non-stick coating that could release toxins.
The public often protests when an unregulated service industry is found to be corrupt. However,
regulation often leads to increased costs for the consumer. Fewer companies survive in a
regulated market, leading to decreased competition and higher prices. The public then responds
negatively to the increased costs of these services.

The statements above best support which of the following?

Service industries should not be regulated.

The public should not protest unregulated services.

Only unregulated services are subject to public protest.

The public is sometimes the cause of its own complaints.

Decreased competition always leads to increased prices.

 The passage describes how public complaints about one issue (corruption in unregulated service
industries) can have consequences (increased costs) that lead to new public complaints. The
correct answer will tie together this information without assuming too much.
(A) This answer choice is too extreme. While regulation does often result in increased costs,
which consumers don't like, the regulation presumably halts the corruption, which consumers
also don't like.
(B) This answer choice is a judgment call based on the idea that the increased costs are less
desirable than the corruption. The passage does not provide information to support this claim.
(C) The passage doesn't address what types of services are subject to public protest. In addition,
the word "only" is extreme.
(D) CORRECT. This answer summarizes what the passage describes – a cycle of public
discontent. Notice that the correct “inference” or “conclusion” here isn't much more than a
summary of the premises in the passage.
(E) In the passage, the author says "regulation often leads to increased costs for the consumer"
due to decreased competition. Always is not the same as often. This answer choice is too
extreme.
When a company refuses to allow other companies to produce patented technology, the
consumer invariably loses. The company that holds the patent can charge exorbitant prices
because there is no direct competition. When the patent expires, other companies are free to
manufacture the technology and prices fall. Companies should therefore allow other
manufacturers to license patented technology.

The argument above presupposes which of the following?

Companies cannot find legal ways to produce technology similar to patented technology.

Companies have an obligation to act in the best interest of the consumer.

Too many patents are granted to companies that are unwilling to share them.

The consumer can tell the difference between patented technology and inferior imitations.

Consumers care more about price than about quality.

The conclusion of the argument is that companies should allow other manufacturers to license
patented technology. The basis for that claim is that not doing so keeps prices high and harms the
consumer. We're asked what the argument assumes ("presupposes") in drawing its conclusion.
The correct answer will fill the logic gap between the idea that keeping prices high harms the
consumer and that companies should allow other manufacturers to license patented technology.
The conclusion is based on the assumption that companies have an obligation of some kind to do
what's best for the consumer.

(A) This does not address the moral obligation to the consumers (i.e. “should”) of the companies
who produced the patented technology, the main point of the conclusion. Furthremore, even if
companies could find legal ways to produce similar technologies, the patented technology could
still command exorbitant prices, thereby harming the consumer.

(B) CORRECT. The conclusion only makes sense if companies have an obligation to act in the
best interest of the customer, as this choice states.

(C) This generally follows along with the author's claim, but we are not required to assume this
in order to reach the conclusion that companies who are granted patents are obligated to look out
for the best interests of their customers.

(D) This addresses a tangential issue of whether or not consumers could notice the difference
between a new patented technology and a possible imitation. This does not address the core issue
of the obligation to the consumer.

(E) This does not address the obligation of the companies toward the consumers, or indeed the
companies at all.

A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism. Human clones are nothing new; they
occur naturally in the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the successful cloning of a
sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a
human been considered seriously.
Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the same basic methodology that
resulted in Dolly. A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material
(DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type. This
would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full
complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, the egg would then undergo several cell divisions.
Placed into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with luck, develop until birth.
Although this cloning technique is conceptually and procedurally simple, its success rate
has been extremely low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the preparation of 277 re-
nucleated eggs, followed by the implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success rate
can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the
genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already
committed itself to a particular physiological role. In order for proper fetal development to occur,
mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be
difficult to achieve for the human species.
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human cloning, scientists, politicians, and
others have raised serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, there is a chance
that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might be
deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone. Proponents of human cloning counter
that human sexual reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human cloning could be
made safe, the motivations behind producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of the
ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially appealing motivations – a man and a woman
who are both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure that their child will not be
afflicted with the disorder – critics argue that the practice could and likely would be used for
unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for
example.
The primary purpose of the passage is to

dismiss a new scientific method as unethical

defend a medical procedure against unwarranted attack

explain a process and its ramifications

describe a hypothesis and its negative consequences

analyze the possible outcomes of a new medical approach

The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. The correct answer must take the
entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus. The passage focuses on
the process by which cloning occurs and gives a brief discussion of the debate surrounding the
ethics of the practice; in this debate, the author presents both sides from the points of view of
others (critics and proponents).

(A) The passage does not dismiss cloning as entirely unethical, it merely raises the issue of
ethics.

(B) Cloning is not a medical procedure, and furthermore the passage does not defend cloning. It
gives a more neutral presentation of the topic.

(C) CORRECT. This passage explains cloning and discusses its ramifications.

(D) Cloning is not a hypothesis, as the passage states – it has been successfully accomplished
with sheep. Furthermore the passage does not focus only on the negative consequences.

(E) Cloning is not a new medical approach. Also the passage doesn't analyze possible outcomes,
or results, of cloning; it discusses the positive and negative ramifications of cloning.
The author of the passage mentions Dolly most probably in order to

suggest that human cloning is feasible

show that the ethical concerns against cloning are misguided

argue that nonhuman cloning is less efficient than human cloning

establish a basis for an argument against human cloning

refute a counterargument in favor of human cloning.

In the first paragraph, the author states "Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly,
however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been
considered seriously." This indicates that the author believes Dolly's success has encouraged
researchers to pursue human cloning.
(A) CORRECT. If researchers have been encouraged by Dolly's success to pursue human
cloning, it must be because they believe there is a chance of success.
(B) Dolly is mentioned in the first paragraph; the ethical concerns are discussed in the fourth
paragraph. In addition, the author does not show that ethical concerns are misguided; he merely
presents both sides of the argument.
(C) The author does not argue, or even discuss, anywhere in the passage the idea that one type of
cloning is less efficient than another type.
(D) The author does not argue for (or against) human cloning anywhere in the passage.
(E) The author does not refute anything in the passage. In the fourth paragraph, the author does
present the viewpoints of proponents and critics, but the author does not weigh in on the debate.

According to the passage, which of the following is a potential obstacle to human cloning?

Lack of adequately prepared human eggs

Predetermination of DNA function within the adult body

Shortage of funding for additional research

Inability to pinpoint specific biological relationships within an egg

Unpredictability of chemical reactions within the uterus

The third paragraph states "The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the
young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which
is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological
role." This means that human cloning faces difficulties in overcoming the fixed roles of mature
DNA.
(A) The difficulty lies in overcoming the fixed roles of mature DNA; this choice does not
address the issue.
(B) CORRECT. "Predetermination" reflects the fixed rolls of DNA found with "mature" or adult
cells.
(C) The passage does not mention funding issues.
(D) The passage does not mention a need to determine "biological relationships within an egg" or
the equivalent. The issue revolves around the different between young DNA and mature DNA.
(E) The passage does not mention any issues surrounding chemical reactions in the uterus. The
issue revolves around the different between young DNA and mature DNA.

The passage suggests which of the following?

Human cloning is reachable within ten years.

The cloning of nonhuman animals has always been successful.

The eggs of nonhuman animals are easier to obtain than human eggs.

DNA taken from an adult human cell contains DNA from both parents.

Human DNA is less predictable than nonhuman DNA.

The second paragraph states "A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its
genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult
human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to
obtain a full complement of DNA." This implies that the DNA from the adult cell already
contains DNA from the egg (mother) and the sperm (father).
(A) The passage does not address anything about the time table for success with human cloning.
(B) The passage directly contradicts this statement by noting, in paragraph three, how difficult it
was to clone Dolly. In addition, the word "always" is extreme.
(C) The passage does not imply this; if anything, it implies that the similarity between the two
types of egg is part of the reason why the success of cloning Dolly may translate into success
with human cloning.
(D) CORRECT. As noted above, the passage implies that an adult cell contains DNA from both
parents.
(E) The passage does not imply this; if anything, it implies that the similarity between the two
types of DNA is part of the reason why the success of cloning Dolly may translate into success
with human cloning.

Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as a reason not to pursue human cloning?

The unknown effects of cloning on adult human clones.

The potential harm to cloned embryos.

The chance that cloning will be used to select for only certain socially advantageous
characteristics.

The technical difficulty of obtaining suitable DNA.

The exorbitant costs associated with the medical procedures used in cloning.

In this "double-negative" question, we have to be very careful to make sure that we don't get
confused or turned around. The "true-false" technique will be useful here: answer choices get a
True if they are mentioned as a reason not to pursue human cloning and a False if they are not
mentioned for this reason. The correct answer will be labeled False.
(A) True. Paragraph four states that there "might be deleterious effects on the long-term health
of the clone." This translates into unknown effects on adult human clones.
(B) True. Paragraph four states "there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely
affect the developing embryo."
(C) True. Paragraph four states that cloning could be used to "select for certain traits, such as
hair/eye color..."
(D) True. Paragraph three states that "mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful
state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species."
(E) CORRECT. False. While it may be true that cloning is exorbitantly expensive, these costs
are not mentioned anywhere in the passage.

The fight against the drug trade in Country X should focus for the time being on tightening
the country’s borders and targeting its major smugglers. Wiping out poppy fields in rural
areas means even greater hardship for an economically depressed farming population. Rather,
the United Nations and the government of Country X must carefully rebuild agricultural
infrastructure in areas where the economy depends on these poppy fields.

What purpose do the two boldface sentences serve in the passage?

The first is the conclusion drawn by the speaker; the second is the alternative to that conclusion.

The first is a short-term solution to a problem; the second is a long-term solution to the same
problem.

The first presents a problem; the second poses an ideal solution to the problem.

The first presents a popular solution to a problem; the second presents a solution preferred by the
author.

The first presents an argument; the second presents evidence to support the argument.

The first boldface sentence states that the fight against the drug trade in Country X should focus
for the time being on tightening the country’s borders and targeting its major smugglers. The
second boldface sentence states that the United Nations and the government of Country X should
eventually replace the poppy fields with other farming ventures ("agricultural infrastructure").
We need to find a choice that describes the relationship between these two sentences.

(A) This choice states that the first sentence is the conclusion and that the second sentence is an
alternative to that conclusion. This misrepresents the relationship. The first sentence is a shorter-
term conclusion and the second sentence is a longer-term conclusion of the argument.
(B) CORRECT. This choice states that the first sentence is a short-term solution to a problem and
the second a long-term solution to the same problem. This accurately describes the relationship.
The first sentence states that the fight should focus "for the time being" on borders and
smuggling while the second sentence states that the United Nations and the government of
Country X should work to replace the poppy crop with something else.

(C) This choice states that the first sentence presents a problem. According to the text, however,
the first sentence is not a problem but a solution to a problem.

(D) This choice states that the first sentence presents a popular solution to a problem. Since we
have no way of knowing whether the solution is popular, this cannot be correct.

(E) This choice states that the first sentence presents an argument and that the second sentence
provides evidence to support that argument. Though the first sentence does present an argument,
the second sentence, rather than providing evidence, presents a second argument.

A certain medication used to treat migraine headaches acts by blocking pain receptors in the
brain. When a person takes the medication within one hour after ingesting grapefruit or
grapefruit juice, however, the effectiveness of the medication is significantly diminished.
Researchers have determined that the grapefruit contains a compound that alters the shape of the
pain receptors, with the result that the medication can no longer bind with them completely.

Which of the following conclusions could be most properly drawn from the information given
above?

If one takes the medication more than an hour after ingesting grapefruit, its effectiveness is not
diminished.

Ingesting grapefruit after taking the medication does not diminish the effectiveness of the
medication.

There is only one type of pain receptor in the brain.

The medication is fully effective only when it properly binds with its target pain receptors.

It is not possible to design a medication for migraine headaches that can bond with the altered
receptors.
 For questions asking us to draw a conclusion, we need to base the conclusion only on the
information presented; we cannot add any new information or assumptions. In addition,
remember that we are not required to use all of the information presented in the premises, though
the more information we can include, the better (as long as we don't take it too far!).
(A) The passage says that grapefruit or grapefruit juice ingested within an hour will
"significantly" diminish the effectiveness of the medication. This does not mean that grapefruit
or grapefruit juice ingested more than an hour before the medication is ingested will have no
effect on the medication; it may have a mild effect.

(B) The passage speaks only of taking the medication after ingesting grapefruit; it says nothing
about the effects of eating grapefruit after taking the medication.

(C) The passage implies that the pain receptors that the specific medication works on are the pain
receptors that are affected by grapefruit. This does not mean that these are the only pain receptors
in the brain.

(D) CORRECT. The passage says that the medication has been shown to be less effective when
taken after grapefruit consumption. Furthermore, grapefruit has been shown to affect the binding
of the medication to pain receptors. It can be concluded that effective binding is needed to enable
the effectiveness of the medication.

(E) This choice is out of scope. We are given no information about possible research or design
of new migraine medications.
In 1963, Congress approved the Community Mental Health Centers Act, which outlined plans to
release the mentally ill from institutions, incorporate these individuals into their communities,
and provide outpatient treatment. Leading associations of mental health professionals
overwhelmingly applauded these goals and approved of these plans because, the experts said, the
treatment rather than the institutional environment was the crucial element for the welfare of
these patients. Within twenty years, state authorities succeeded in discharging 95% of these
patients from institutional care. In 1983, however, executives from these same professional
associations said that the plight of the mentally ill was worse than ever.

Which if the following, if true, best resolves the paradox in the above passage?

More people were diagnosed with psychiatric disorders in 1983 than in 1963.

Many mental health professionals believe that if their peers had administered the project rather
than the state authorities, the results would have been better.

The state budget allocation for services to the mentally ill has not increased faster than the rate of
inflation.
Congress agreed to fund these outpatient services, provided that the money come from cuts in
other domestic programs; these cuts, however, never materialized.

Many of the released patients had, at some time, been addicted to illegal narcotics.

The passage states that, on the one hand, the government was successful in releasing mental
health patients from institutional care. On the other hand, according to the leading professional
health associations, which explicitly supported the government's plans, the plight of the mentally
ill only became worse. We need to find one statement that explains what prevented the plan from
achieving its expected results.

(A) An increase in the number of people diagnosed with psychiatric disorders does not explain
why the plight of psychiatric patients has gotten worse.

(B) Believing that someone else could have better implemented the plan does not explain what
went wrong with the plan as it was actually implemented.

(C) The passage does not indicate or imply that adequate funding must be tied to the inflation
rate. It might have been sufficient, for example, for funding increases to match the rate of
inflation.
(D) CORRECT. This resolves the paradox by offering a reason why the plan failed: only half of
the plan was implemented. According to the passage, the original plan supported by the leading
mental health associations was "to remove the mentally ill from institutions, incorporate them
into their communities, and give them outpatient treatment." While the removal was
accomplished, choice D explains that the outpatient treatment services were not; patients,
therefore, haven't improved.

(E) The past addictions of release patients do not explain why the plight of the patients became
worse after they were released.
Inorganic pesticides remain active on the surfaces of fruits and vegetables for several days after
spraying, while organic pesticides dissipate within a few hours after application, leaving the
surface of the sprayed produce free of pesticide residue. Therefore, when purchasing from a farm
that uses inorganic pesticides, one must be careful to wash the produce thoroughly before eating
it to prevent the ingestion of toxins. But one need not worry about ingesting pesticides when
purchasing from farms that use only organic pesticides.

The argument above assumes that

Consumers are aware of the origins of the produce they purchase.

Produce from farms that use organic pesticides reaches the consumer within hours after it is
picked or harvested.

No farm uses both organic and inorganic pesticides.

No pesticide is capable of penetrating the skin of a fruit or vegetable.

The use of either type of pesticide does not increase the cost of produce.

The conclusion of the argument is that one need not worry about ingesting pesticides when
purchasing produce from farms that use only organic pesticides. The basis for that claim is the
fact that organic pesticides leave the surface of produce within a few hours of spraying. In order
for this argument to be valid, we must assume that the organic pesticides do not harm the
produce in any lasting way.

(A) This is unrelated to the argument since the conclusion speaks about not having to worry
about ingesting produce on which only organic pesticides were known to be used.

(B) If anything, this statement runs counter to what the argument is saying. If produce that has
been sprayed with organic pesticide reaches the final consumer within hours after it is picked, it
is possible that the consumer does need be concerned about the pesticides.

(C) The conclusion of the argument is already limited to those farms which use "only organic
pesticides."

(D) CORRECT. If a pesticide is capable of penetrating the skin of a fruit or vegetable then, while
the organic pesticide will dissipate from the surface of the fruit in a few hours, it may remain
inside the fruit. The author of this argument assumes that the pesticides cannot penetrate the skin.

(E) The issue of cost is unrelated to the argument's conclusion about pesticide residues.

In recent years, a class of drugs known as COX-2 inhibitors has gotten much publicity for the
drugs' power to relieve inflammation and pain. These drugs are relatively new to the
pharmaceutical industry, their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971. That
year, John Vane discovered the relationship between nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such
as aspirin, and a group of molecules, called prostaglandins, responsible for producing the
sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.
Prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s and are now known to be generated by
most mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli. Unlike classical hormones that are
synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant one, prostaglandins act on the cells that produce
them or on cells located close to the prostaglandins’ cells of origin. Aspirin alleviates pain by
inhibiting the function of an enzyme called cyclooxygenase or COX; this inhibition prevents the
production of prostaglandins. The three forms of this enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3, all
stimulate the production of prostaglandins, but each serves a different purpose. COX-1 functions
to protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids. COX-2 functions to induce inflammation in
injured tissue and COX-3 functions to control the sensation of pain. Aspirin and other similar
drugs, such as naproxen, inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2, sometimes producing or aggravating
stomach ulcers in patients who take them.
In order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related drugs, several pharmaceutical
companies in the 1990s developed drugs that inhibited only COX-2. However, side effects
almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials that seemed to indicate none. This often
occurs because trials are conducted within very limited parameters; once the drug has been
approved for mass distribution, however, the number of people taking it and the length of time
that it is taken increase dramatically. Several COX-2 drugs that have been popular in recent years
fit this pattern: initially successful in clinical trials, subsequent studies showed them to have
serious, potentially lethal side effects.
Though prostaglandin chemistry and enzymology have been studied for half a century,
pinpointing the exact role of the molecules in physiological processes still remains a challenge
for researchers. Hence it is not surprising that recent therapeutic attempts to interfere with the
formation of certain prostaglandins have produced unexpected side effects. It now seems that the
hype surrounding COX-2 drugs may have been premature.
The passage suggest which the following about COX-2 inhibitors?

They fail to protect the stomach from gastric acids that can cause irritation, but protect the body
from tissue inflammation.

They produce similar side effects as those caused by Naproxen.

They were introduced approximately 20 years after the relationship between aspirin and
prostaglandins was discovered.

They stimulate production of prostaglandins that cause tissue inflammation.

They are generated by external stimuli and act on the cells that produce them.

The word "suggests" in the question indicates that this is an inference question. The correct
answer, therefore, will not be directly stated in the passage, but it will be based only on
information found within the passage, with no outside speculation or assumptions necessary.
(A) Paragraph 2 states that COX-1 enzymes stimulate production of prostaglandins that "protect
the stomach from irritating gastric acids.” As stated in paragraph 3, however, COX-2 inhibitors
were designed to affect only COX-2; the specific impetus was not to interrupt the beneficial
effects of COX-1.
(B) The author never describes the side effects caused by COX-2 and furthermore he states in
paragraph 3 that the COX-2 drugs were designed “in order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin
and related drugs.” Paragraph 2 states that Naproxen is one of those related drug.

(C) CORRECT. Paragraph 3 states that the drug class known as COX-2 inhibitors was
introduced by “several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s." Paragraph 1 states “their
mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971." This suggests that approximately
20 years passed between the initial discovery and the introduction of COX-2 inhibitors.

(D) This choice is incorrect as it describes COX-2 enzymes, not COX-2 inhibitors; in addition,
the information is directly stated in the passage rather than suggested. Paragraph 2 states that
COX-2 appears to stimulate production of prostaglandins that "induce inflammation in injured
tissues.”

(E) This choice is incorrect as it describes prostaglandins, not the drug class COX-2 inhibitors.
Paragraph 2 states that prostaglandins are "generated by most mammalian tissues in response to
external stimuli" and "prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them."

According to the passage, all the of the following are true of prostaglandins EXCEPT:

They were discovered in the 1930s.

They are generated by most mammalian tissues.

They produce the sensation of pain in the body, but are also responsible for other bodily
functions.

They cause side effects that clinical trials failed to detect.

Their production is affected by enzymes COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3.

The "True/False" technique is useful for EXCEPT questions. Four of the answer choices will
contain information found in the passage; these will be labeled True. One answer choice will
contain information not found in the passage; it will be labeled False.
(A) True. Paragraph 2 states “prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s."
(B) True. Paragraph 2 states prostaglandins are "generated by most mammalian tissues.”

(C) True. Paragraph 1 states that prostaglandins are "responsible for producing the sensation of
pain in the human body, among other functions.”

(D) CORRECT. False. The author never claims that prostaglandins cause side effects. According
to paragraph 4, the COX inhibitor drugs, not prostaglandins, caused side effects that went
undetected during clinical trials.

(E) True. Paragraph 2 states that “aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting... COX; this inhibition
prevents the production of prostaglandins" and goes on to list the three forms of the enzyme,
COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3.

The author mentions that prostaglandins are generated in response to external stimuli primarily
in order to support the contention that

Prostaglandins can produce or aggravate stomach ulcers.

Prostaglandins act in the same tissue that produces them.

Prostaglandins prevent the enzyme cyclooxygenase from functioning.

Prostaglandins are significantly different from most mammalian hormones.

Prostaglandins are responsible for the human sensation of pain.

If prostaglandins are a response to external stimuli, or stimuli outside of the body, then that
external stimuli must be closely linked to at least one of the major functions of prostaglandin.
(A) Stomach ulcers are produced or aggravated by aspirin and similar drugs, not prostaglandins
(and, in fact, these drugs inhibit prostaglandins).

(B) It is mentioned in the passage that “prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them,” but
the author does not draw a connection between where prostaglandins act and what (i.e. external
stimuli) generates their production.

(C) Paragraph 2 states that aspirin, not prostaglandin, prevents cyclooxygenase from functioning.
(D) Paragraph 2 states that most mammalian hormones "are synthesized in one tissue but act on a
distant one" and contrasts prostaglandins, which "act on the cells that produce them" or on other
nearby cells. This difference is based upon where the hormones act, not on what the hormones
are responding to (whether external stimuli or something else).

(E) CORRECT. Paragraph 1 states that prostaglandins are "responsible for producing the
sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.” In the second paragraph the author
mentions that aspirin alleviates pain by preventing the production of prostaglandins. To bridge
the two assertions, the author provides evidence that prostaglandins are indeed responsible for
the sensation of pain, an external stimuli.

The primary purpose of this passage is to

explain the therapeutic benefits of a new type of pain reliever

initiate a debate concerning the benefits of COX-2 inhibitors

warn the public that clinical trials cannot ensure drug safety

describe the impetus for and result of COX-2 inhibitors’ introduction

introduce research findings to support COX-2 inhibitors over COX-1 inhibitors

The first paragraph introduces COX-2 inhibitors and talks briefly about a 1971 discovery linking
aspirin to prostaglandins. Paragraph 2 elaborates on the connections among aspirin,
prostaglandins, and the three types of COX enzymes. Paragraph 3 discusses COX-2 inhibitors
specifically, both the impetus for creating them and some negative effects. The final paragraph
provides caution about the promise of COX-2 inhibitors.
(A) The passage explains the intended benefits behind the development of COX-2 inhibitors, but
this is much too narrow to be the main purpose of the passage, particularly when a large part of
the passage addresses the negative consequences.

(B) The author does not initiate a “debate.” For a debate, the author must introduce two clear
opposing sides. The COX-2 inhibitors were developed to replace the earlier drugs that inhibited
both COX-1 and COX-2, but then they were also found to have side effects.
(C) While paragraph 4 states that “Side effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical
trials that seemed to indicate none," the author notes this only in the context of explaining the
result of COX-2 inhibitors. This is too narrow to be the main purpose of the passage.

(D) CORRECT. This choice reflects the summary above: why COX-2 inhibitors were developed
and the result of the drugs' introduction into the marketplace.
(E) This is incorrect because the passage never mentions a drug class of “COX-1 inhibitors.”
COX-1 is introduced as an enzyme; it is not a class of drug.

Some animals, such as dolphins, dogs, and African grey parrots, seem to exhibit cognitive
functions typically associated with higher-order primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and
humans. Some parrots, for example, have vocabularies of hundreds of words that they can string
together in a comprehensible syntax. This clearly shows that humans and primates are not the
only animals capable of using language to communicate. One parrot, named Alex, has been
known to ask to be petted or kissed and will exhibit aggression if the gesture offered is not the
specific one requested.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?

Dolphins can be trained to assist divers in ocean rescues.

Gorillas in captivity often learn hand signals for food and water.

Dogs are capable of sensing their owners' moods and often exhibit concern if they sense sadness.

Chimpanzees can memorize long sequences of key punches on machines that dispense food.

Alex does not exhibit aggression when offered a gesture that he specifically requested.

The conclusion of the argument is that humans and primates are not the only animals capable of
communicating with language. The basis for this claim is that a parrot named Alex becomes
upset when he is not given the gesture he verbally requests. We are asked to strengthen the claim.

(A) The conclusion is about non-primates or non-humans being able to use language to
communicate. Assisting divers in ocean rescues is not relevant.

(B) The conclusion is about non-primates or non-humans being able to use language to
communicate. Gorillas are primates, as stated in the first sentence of the argument.
(C) Sensing the mood of one’s owner and exhibiting concern is not a form of language
communication.

(D) The conclusion is about non-primates or non-humans being able to use language to
communicate. Chimpanzees are primates, as stated in the first sentence of the argument.

(E) CORRECT. If Alex does not exhibit aggression when offered a gesture that he specifically
requested, it suggests that Alex can tell the difference between the gestures that he requests and
those that he does not. In other words, he is a non-primate / non-human but he is communicating
via language. If he also exhibited aggression when offered the gestures he requested, it would be
more difficult to claim that he was communicating via language.
The next 2 questions are based on the following passage:

The downturn in the economy last year has prompted many companies to make widely
publicized layoffs, resulting in thousands of lost jobs. Economists predicted that these layoffs
would cause people generally to cut back on their discretionary spending, even if their jobs were
secure, in anticipation of coming hard times. However, this prediction has not come to pass,
since there has been no increase in the amount of money set aside by the general public in
savings accounts.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

The economy has not improved in recent months.

There has been no increase in the amount of money invested in stocks, certificates of deposit, or
other savings vehicles.

Salaries have decreased as a result of the economic downturn.

No business sectors have seen growth in recent months.

Those who were laid off have been able to find other employment.

The conclusion of the argument is that the prediction of decreased consumer spending has not
come to pass. The evidence for this is that there has been no corresponding increase in the
amount of money set aside in savings accounts by the general public. This question asks us to
find an assumption on which this argument is based. The author assumes that the mere fact that
people generally have not been adding more money to their savings accounts means they have
not cut down on their discretionary purchases (i.e., non-essential items). In order for this to be
valid, we must assume that a savings account is the only mechanism by which someone would
save any extra money when reducing discretionary spending.

(A) The state of the economy in the last few months has no bearing on the claim that a lack of
extra money deposited in consumer savings accounts is evidence that consumer spending has not
decreased.

(B) CORRECT. If there was an alternate explanation for the lack of increase in savings accounts,
the claim that the decrease in spending has not taken place would be greatly weakened. This
assumption guarantees us that at least one other possible explanation for the lack of increase in
savings (i.e. an increase in stocks, certificates of deposit, or other savings vehicles) is NOT true.

(C) Assuming that salaries decreased would actually weaken this argument. If salaries decreased,
that may explain the decrease in the amount of money being put aside in savings without
necessarily implying a decrease in spending. People could be making less, spending the same,
and therefore saving less.

(D) The lack of growth in business sectors has nothing to do with what consumers are doing with
their money during the same time period.

(E) The argument says the prediction was made "even [for those whose] jobs were secure."
People who find other employment, therefore, would still fall under the economists' prediction
and would, if the prediction were true, be expected to cut discretionary spending and save more
money.

The downturn in the economy last year has prompted many companies to make widely
publicized layoffs, resulting in thousands of lost jobs. Economists predicted that these layoffs
would cause people generally to cut back on their discretionary spending even if their jobs were
secure, in anticipation of coming hard times. However, this prediction has not come to pass,
since there has been no increase in the amount of money set aside by the general public in
savings accounts.

The answer to which of the following questions would be most useful in evaluating the
significance of the savings patterns described above?

What business sectors were most affected by the layoffs?

How much of their savings, on average, do laid-off employees deplete before finding new
employment?
What has been the percent increase in the cost of necessities such as food, housing, and utilities
during the period since the layoffs?

What percentage of people laid off have savings accounts?

What has been the average salary during the period since the layoffs?

The conclusion of the argument is that the prediction of decreased consumer spending has not
come to pass. The evidence for this is that there has been no corresponding increase in the
amount of money set aside in savings accounts by the general public.

This question asks us to choose a question whose answer will provide information relevant to
evaluating the significance of the fact that the amount of money placed in savings accounts has
not increased. The author mentions this savings pattern to support the claim that people have not
been curtailing their discretionary spending. So we need to find a question whose answer will
relate to savings and spending patterns.

(A) Information about which business sectors were most affected by the layoffs will not help us
establish the relevance of the savings pattern to the claim.

(B) The savings used by those who are laid off has no bearing on the savings patterns of those
who are not laid off, which is the group this argument addresses ("even if their jobs were
secure").

(C) CORRECT. This question asks about the prices of necessities such as food and utilities. If
people have not been saving their money, perhaps they have been spending it on necessities (as
opposed to spending it on discretionary items). If these items have become more expensive, then
perhaps people have not been able to save money despite curtailing their discretionary spending.

(D) The percentage of people with savings accounts is not related to the question of whether
people have curtailed their discretionary spending or increased the amount they save.

(E) Knowing the statistics for average salaries during the period since the layoffs will not help us
evaluate the significance of the spending and savings patterns during that time. It might help to
be able to compare the statistics for the periods before and after the layoffs, but knowing just one
of those statistics tells us nothing about the trends.

Company X manufactures swim wear and planned to launch a new line of women's bathing suits
in March, which is typically the peak time of year for swim wear sales. The company conducted
consumer polls, which returned favorable results for both style and price, and took out
advertisements in major fashion magazines and television stations. Yet the launch was
disappointing: sales in March did not exceed even half of the company's sales during the same
period in the previous year.

Each of the following, if true, could explain the disappointing sales of the new swim wear line
EXCEPT:

None of the stores carrying the new swim wear line displayed it prominently.

The company's manufacturing plants experienced difficulty in obtaining dyes in the advertised
colors and so substituted different colors.

A major competitor launched a line of similar swim wear at a lower price in February.

A scene in which a major actress was to wear one of the new swimsuits in a much anticipated
movie to be released in February was never filmed.

The prediction of a cool, rainy summer by meteorologists received much attention in the national
media.

The company's new swimsuit line was not as successful as hoped, especially in light of the
favorable consumer polling on both style and price. We are asked to find a choice that does NOT
explain this surprising outcome. The True/False technique is useful for EXCEPT questions:
those which would explain the outcome are labeled True, while the one which would not is
labeled False.

(A) True. This could explain the outcome: if the swim wear was not displayed prominently,
perhaps customers did not see it.

(B) True. This could explain the outcome: if the colors were not the same as the ones tested, it
may be that consumers disliked the new colors they were actually offered.

(C) True. This could explain the outcome: if a competitor offered similar swim wear at a lower
price, customers could have purchased the other brand instead.

(D) CORRECT. False. The poll was based upon style and price, not the idea that a major actress
would wear a swimsuit in a film. The fact that the scene was not filmed is irrelevant to the
argument.

(E) True. This could explain the outcome: if consumers anticipated a summer of bad weather,
they may not have been as eager to buy swim wear in March.
Unlike juvenile diabetes, which is a genetic condition present from birth, type-2 diabetes is
acquired in adulthood, generally as a result of obesity and inactivity. The number of cases of
type-2 diabetes has been steadily increasing in the United States since 1970, indicating to many
researchers that the American population is becoming increasingly heavy and sedentary. If the
government wishes to stem the spread of the disease, it should educate the public about the
dangers of an inactive, calorie-laden lifestyle and promote healthful diets and exercise.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason to believe that the proposed
education program will NOT be effective?

School health programs already educate middle-school students about the issue.

The public already has access to this information through the Internet.

Food companies encourage the public to indulge in unhealthful snacks.

The government has not set aside money for such a program.

Healthful foods and exercise programs are beyond the financial means of many people.

The conclusion of the argument is that the government should educate the public about the
dangers of inactivity and poor diet in order to stop the spread of type-2 diabetes. The basis for the
claim is that inactivity and poor diet are the main factors in developing type-2 diabetes. We are
asked to find a choice that will show that this plan likely will not work.

(A) The fact that schools educate middle school students about a disease that is generally
"acquired in adulthood" does not address the effectiveness of an adult education plan sponsored
by the government.

(B) The fact that the public already has access to this information through the Internet, does not
say anything predictive about the effectiveness of the plan. Even with access to the information,
there is a good chance that most people are not exposed to the information.

(C) Just because food companies encourage the public to indulge in unhealthful snacks, does not
mean that a program that teaches them to do otherwise would not be successful.

(D) The fact that the government has not set aside money for such a program, does not say much
about the projected program's effectiveness.
(E) CORRECT. Choice E states that healthful foods and exercise programs are beyond the
financial means of many people. This suggests that even with the best planning, the program
might not achieve its goals simply because people cannot afford to follow the program's advice.

The bond between the domestic dog and humans is such that the dog exists in every part of the
world inhabited by people. The relationship between the two species stretches back tens of
thousands of years, to the first domestication of the wolf. Every modern breed of domestic dog,
of which there are more than 400 today, is descended from this wild ancestor. Prehistoric humans
had contact with other wild canids, such as jackals, foxes, dholes, and African hunting dogs, but
only the wolf possessed the characteristics that allowed for integration into human life, which
implies social assimilation, as opposed to mere domestication, which requires only a taming of
wild instincts in the animal. So while dogs have been integrated, animals such as cows, sheep,
and goats have not.
The traits in the wolf that allowed for integration are threefold. First, the wolf is a highly
social animal, living in packs, akin to the social networks of humans. In the absence of this
behavior, it would have been difficult for the first captive wolf pups to remain in a human
settlement, constantly surrounded by other creatures. Wild canids such as the jackal and fox are
solitary animals and would not have adapted easily, if at all, to social living. Second, wolves
possess a system of social stratification remarkably similar to that of humans: each member of
the group is aware of its rank in the chain of dominance and is loyal to higher-ranking members.
Humans exploited this innate sensitivity to hierarchy by raising wolf cubs to be submissive.
Third, wolves are highly intelligent creatures, able to learn tasks quickly. Without this attribute,
the wolf would have been of little use to early man, since it does not provide meat, milk, or wool.
The more intelligent the captive wolf, the more likely humans would have sought to breed it,
resulting in perpetuation of this inborn intelligence and culminating in the remarkable cognitive
abilities of modern dogs.
The development of different breeds from the wolf appears to have begun as early as 2000
B.C. in ancient Egypt and parts of western Asia. The first recorded instances of physically
distinct breeds come from these areas. In Egypt, dogs resembling modern greyhounds were
prevalent, while in western Asia dogs resembling modern mastiffs were common. The distinct
body types of these breeds perhaps reflect the different purposes for which they were bred:
greyhounds for chasing swift prey, such as hares, and mastiffs for grappling with larger prey,
such as boars or antelope. But this is only speculation; the historical record from this period is
too sparse to allow certainty on the matter.
Which of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?

Humans value dogs more than they value any other domestic animal.

The domestication of the wolf has no parallel in any other animal.

Certain desirable traits not present in other animals allowed the wolf to become the modern dog.

Domestication of the wolf has been unquestionably successful.

Wolves are similar to humans in several important aspects.

The question asks for the main idea of the passage. The passage focuses on the evolution of the
dog from the wolf, with emphasis on the characteristics of the wolf that allowed the
transformation. The correct answer must take the entirety of the passage into account without
misrepresenting this focus.

(A) This choice does not address the evolution of the dog from the wolf.

(B) This choice misrepresents the focus of the passage. The passage is broader than this choice
would suggest. Moreover, the passage never stated or implied that no other animal has had a
similar path to domestication; this is an extreme claim.

(C) CORRECT. This choice takes the entirety of the passage into account without
misrepresenting its focus.

(D) This choice misrepresents the focus of the passage. While the author appears to approve of
this domestication, it is only one small part of the overall passage. In addition, the word
"unquestionably" is extreme.

(E) This choice misrepresents the focus of the passage. While similarities between humans and
wolves are mentioned in one paragraph, this is only a small piece of the overall passage.

The passage suggests which of the following about the modern dog?

It is the best social companion of all domesticated animals.

Its intelligence is unsurpassed among household animals.

It cannot survive outside of a social environment.

Its body type always reflects the purpose for which it was bred.
It perceives humans as superior to itself.

The question asks us to infer something about the modern dog on the basis of the information
contained in the passage. This inference must be based only on the information presented,
without any additional assumptions or information necessary.

(A) The passage does not provide any information about the "best" social companion. In addition
"best" is an extreme word.

(B) The passage does not provide any information about which household animal is most
intelligent. In addition "unsurpassed" is an extreme word.

(C) The passage does not provide any information about the dog's ability to survive outside a
social environment. In addition "cannot survive" is extreme.

(D) The passage does not imply anything universal about the dog's body type and breeding. In
addition "always" is extreme.

(E) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the author discusses the fact that domesticated wolf
cubs were raised to be submissive to humans. The modern dog, a descendant of the domesticated
wolf, would share this quality, and would perceive humans as superior to itself.

All of the following statements are supported by the passage EXCEPT:

Sheep are not part of the social fabric of human life.

It is not possible to domesticate jackals or foxes.

Submissiveness is a desirable trait in domesticated animals.

Humans tended to domesticate those animals that provided some benefit to them.

The purpose of early breeds of dog is not known.

The question asks us which of the choices cannot be inferred from the passage. We will go
through the choices and eliminate any that can be inferred. The True / False technique is useful
for EXCEPT questions: those statements which can be supported are labeled True and the one
which cannot be supported is labeled False.

(A) True. In the first paragraph, sheep are given as an example of animals that have not been
integrated (i.e., accepted socially) into human life.

(B) CORRECT. False. The passage offers no information on whether it is possible to domesticate
the jackal or fox. Paragraph 1 states that among the jackals, foxes, et al, only the wolf possessed
the characteristics that allowed for the integration into human life, however, the other animals
might be able to be domesticated.

(C) True. In the second paragraph, the passage states that wolf cubs were raised to be submissive.

(D) True. In the second paragraph, the passage states that the wolf was domesticated for its
intelligence and other animals for their milk, meat, or wool.

(E) True. This statement is implied by the last paragraph.