Hvacq&a Revised

HEATING, VENTILATION, AND AIR CONDITIONING
300-OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

[With Explanation to Answers]
By, J.ILANGUMARAN, B.E., P.G.D.C.A., Senior Lecturer/RAC Department
1. In this type of furnace, air is drawn directly from the mechanical room into the
combustion chamber:
A. condensing furnace
B. natural gas furnace
C. non-condensing furnace
D. oil-fired furnace
Ans: C
In a non-condensing furnace, air is drawn directly from the mechanical room into the
combustion chamber. In a non-condensing furnace the fuel and combustion air burn less
efficiently then in a condensing furnace. The non-condensing furnace is the most basic
and least expensive of the two types.
2. Water vapor which is at the lowest temperature it can be without condensing back into
water is called ____________________
A. dry steam
B. saturated steam
C. wet steam
D. superheated steam
Ans B
Saturated steam is water vapor at the boiling point of water at a given pressure. For
example, steam at sea level at 212 degrees Fahrenheit would be saturated. Saturated
steam is at the lowest temperature it can be - if it were any lower it would condense.
3. The temperature caused by the evaporation of water at a given pressure is known as the
________________________
A. enthalpy
B. dew point temperature
C. specific humidity
D. wet bulb temperature
Ans D
As water evaporates, it cools. This is the basic principal behind evaporative cooling. The
wet bulb temperature is caused by the evaporation of water at a given pressure.
4. The amount of heat needed to warm the air is called the _____________.
A. specific heat
B. specific humidity
C. dew point
D. standard temperature
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Ans A
It takes a certain amount of heat to raise the temperature of the air. The amount of heat
needed to warm a given amount of air is called the specific heat. For most HVAC
applications, the specific heat of air at one atmosphere can be taken at 0.24 Btu/lb.
degrees F. This means it takes 0.24 Btu to raise the temperature of one pound of air by
one degree Fahrenheit.
5. A switchboard which is devoted to just HVAC equipment is called a ___________.

A. HVAC switchboard
B. direct control center
C. motor control center
D. motor switchboard
Ans C
In commercial buildings, electricity through the primary service feeder and then travels
through a number of transformers, switchboards, and panels before arriving at the load.
The HVAC equipment is usually powered directly from the switchboards. If a
switchboard is devoted to just HVAC equipment, it is called a motor control center.
6. Which formula represents the total resistance of series resistors?

A. RTOTAL = (1/R1 + 1/R2)-1
B. RTOTAL = R1+ R2
C. RTOTAL = (R1 + R2)-1
D. RTOTAL = 1/R1 + 1/R2
Ans B
Many temperature sensors used in HVAC measurements are resistors where the
resistance changes according to the temperature. The total resistance of a series of
resistors is the sum of the individual resistances, RTOTAL = R1+ R2. The total
resistance on parallel resistors is taken from the sum of the reciprocals,
RTOTAL = (1/R1 + 1/R2)-1.
7. A step-up transformer ________ the voltage in alternating current circuits.

A. decreases
B. isolates
C. increases
D. eliminates
Ans C
Transformers are used to change the voltage in alternating current circuits. A step-up
transformer increases the voltage. A step-down voltage decreases the voltage.
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8. The temperature at which maximum saturation of the air occurs, and water begins to
condense out of the air is:
A. Absolute humidity
B. Relative humidity
C. specific humidity
D. dew point
Ans D
The temperature at saturation for a given humidity ratio and given pressure if the dew
point. If most air encounters a surface at the dew point, water will condense out of the air.
This is how a cooling coil removes water from the supply air stream to a building.
9. In order to obtain a direct reading of relative humidity, one may use a ________.
A. velometer
B. wet bulb thermometer
C. sling psychrometer
D. hygrometer
Ans D
The relative humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air divided by the amount of
water in the air at saturation at the same temperature and pressure. Direct readings of
relative humidity can be obtained from a hygrometer.
10. Which is the equation for the pumping power (in horsepower) for water?
A. horsepower = gallons per minute X total head in feet/3960
B. horsepower = gallons per minute/ 3960
C. horsepower = total head in feet/3960
D. horsepower = gallons per minute X total head in feet
Ans A
Since the properties of water in HVAC applications are constant, it is possible to devise
general equations to express those properties. The equation which represents the pumping
power of water is: Horsepower = gallons per minute X total head in feet / 3960
11. Because rectangular elbows do not present a smooth turning radius, the following are
often incorporated:
A. flanges
B. pleats
C. turning vanes
D. clips
Ans C
Ducts come in a variety of shapes and sizes. The difference in the elbows comes mostly
from the manufacturing technique and the materials used. Turning vanes are used to
present a smoother turning radius.
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12. Metal ducts may not be installed in or within ___ inches of the ground.
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Ans C
When installing metal ducts in the ground, it is necessary to insure that they are not in or
within four inches of the ground.
13. In air conditioning, the pressure exerted by a fluid mass on a plane perpendicular to
the direction of flow is called:
A. fluid pressure
B. constant pressure
C. dynamic pressure
D. absolute pressure
Ans C
The dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid that results from its motion. It is equal to
one-half the fluid density multiplied by the square of the fluid's velocity. In
incompressible flow, the dynamic pressure is the difference between the total pressure
and the static pressure.
14. A velometer is used to measure the following:

A. air velocity in feet per minute
B. absolute pressure
C. static pressure
D. air temperature
Ans A
The velometer is used for HVAC balancing, static pressure measurements, energy audits,
and more. Contractors, balancers, plant engineers, and industrial hygienists have favored
the velometer measuring air velocity in feet per minute.
15. A cooling tower classification in which water flows countercurrent to the airflow is:
A. adjacent
B. counter-balancing
C. counter-flow
D. high-boy
Ans C
In the counter-flow system the air flows downwards, opposite to the direction of the
gasses.
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16. A closed vessel in which heat is generated by the application of heat from
combustible fuels, in a self contained or attached furnace is a:
A. boiler
B. furnace
C. duct system
D. distribution system
Ans A
Boilers are used to generate steam for use in larger buildings. Steam is a convenient
medium since it does not require additional pumping power to circulate.
17. The overall heating capacity of boilers is measured in:

A. Btu per hour
B. hundreds of Btu per hour
C. thousands of Btu per hour
D. millions of Btu per hour
Ans D
Boilers are rated by their heat rate, pressure range, and by their overall heating capacity,
which is measured in millions of Btu per hour.
18. The heat rate of a boiler is the:

A. pounds of steam produced per hour
B. degrees of heat produced per hour
C. pounds of steam produced per day
D. degrees of heat produced per day
Ans B
Boilers are rated by their pressure range, overall heating capacity, and by their heat rate,
which is measured in pounds of steam produced per hour.
19. High pressure boilers operate at steam pressures greater than:

A. 15 psg
B. 25 psg
C. 50 psg
D. 100psg
Ans C
Low pressure boilers produce steam in the 5 to 15 psg range, medium pressure boilers
produce steam pressures up to 50 psg, and high pressure boilers produce steam pressures
greater than 50 psg.
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20. Electric boilers can heat water in two different ways, they are:
A. resistance heating and combustion boilers
B. resistance heating and electrode boilers
C. combustion boilers and combustion chambers
D. fans and burners
Ans B
Electric boilers can heat water in two different ways, using resistance heating and
electrode boilers. Resistance heating elements boil water by immersing the resistive
elements directly in the pressure chamber and electrode boilers have the actual open
electrical terminals exposed to the water.
21. The required insulating "R" factor for walls is:

A. 12
B. 11
C. 17
D. 6
Ans B
The "R" factor is the resistance to heat flow through any units of material or construction.
It is also called the "heat resistance."
22. The rate of heat flow through one inch thickness of a single kind of material is called
the "thermal conductivity" or:
A. "C" factor
B. "U" factor
C. "K" factor
D. "X" factor
Ans C
The "K" factor is defined as the rate of heat flow through one inch of a specific material.
It is expressed in Btu.
23. A British thermal unit (Btu) is the amount of heat required to:
A. raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Celsius
B. raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit
C. raise the temperature of one gallon of water one degree Celsius
D. raise the temperature of one gallon of water one degree Celsius
Ans B
A British Thermal Unit is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of on
pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. It is equal to 1055 joules, 1.055 kilojoules, and
252.15 calories.
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24. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is:
A. 14.7 PSI
B. 21.7 PSI
C. 24.7 PSI
D. 17.4 PSI
Ans A
Atmospheric pressure is the pressure of the weight of air and water vapor on the surface
of the earth. At sea level it measures 14.7 PSI.
25. This constant flame, found in a boiler, is much like that on a residential furnace:
A. intermittent pilot
B. standing pilot
C. spark ignition
D. boiler pilot
Ans B
There are a number of ways to light gas or oil in a boiler. A standing pilot is a constant
flame which is always lit and allows for quick lighting of a gas manifold. An intermittent
pilot is lit only when the boiler is about to come on. The intermittent pilot is lit by spark
ignition.
26. In large boilers it is important to keep the _________ above the dew point
temperature of water.
A. static pressure
B. air pressure
C. flue gas temperature
D. "K" factor
Ans C
In large boilers the flue gas conditions are usually monitored to insure that the
combustion process is operating as efficiently as possible. The flue temperature must
remain higher than the dew point temperature of water so that there is no condensation in
the flue or firebox. Not only can moisture lower the efficiency, it can also cause corrosion
of the iron components.
27. Large steam systems may contain a DA tank. DA stands for:

A. dual analyzer
B. de - accelerator
C. drum activator
D. de - aerator
Ans D
De-aerator tanks are used in larger steam systems to keep the condensate piping from
rusting out. They work by heating up the feed water to drive out the oxygen.
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28. The piping in a steam distribution should contain a _________ valve at the highest
location of the piping.
A. steam
B. safety
C. vacuum-breaker
D. water
Ans C
The piping in a steam distribution system should be designed so that condensate gathers
in a specific location where it can be removed by a steam trap. In addition to steam traps,
there is usually a vacuum-breaker installed to prevent low pressure in the steam piping
from drawing condensate back up through the condensate return lines and steam traps.
29. Preheat coils of air-handlers and reheat coils of terminal boxers are examples of:
A. steam-to-air heat exchangers
B. steam traps
C. steam-to-water heat exchangers
D. steam valves
Ans A
Steam-to-air heat exchangers are used for rapid heating of air. Examples are preheat
coils of air-handlers and reheat coils of terminal boxers. As steam condenses in the coil, it
must drain out at the bottom, so always put the down-stream steam trap and condensate
drain at the lowest spot.
30. This kind of steam trap uses a temperature dependent valve to open the trap when
there is a cool condensate present.
A. mechanical steam trap
B. local steam trap
C. thermostatic steam trap
D. disk trap
Ans C
Steam traps are required to keep steam lines from filling up with condensate.
Thermostatic steam traps use a valve which is dependent upon temperature to open the
trap. If this kind of trap is not used correctly, steam can be leaked.
31. This type of heat exchanger is often called a converter.

A. steam-to-air exchanger
B. condensate exchanger
C. mechanical steam trap
D. steam-to-water exchanger
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Ans D
A steam-to-water exchanger is similar to a heating coil except that it is much smaller and
heats water rather than air. The water and steam never mix, they just exchange energy.
32. __________ coils are used to provide rapid heating of air steams.
A. steam-to-water
B. steam-to-air
C. rapid flow
D. water-to-air
Ans B
Rapid heating of air streams can be done with the use of stream-to-air coils. A typical use
for such coils is in reheat systems or in freeze-protection applications. Steam to air coils
may have a device designed to lock out fan controls to prevent a runaway steam coil.
33. This type of fan uses a rotating drum to move air into a duct:
A. rotating
B. axial
C. tube-axial
D. centrifugal
Ans D
Fans fall into two categories, centrifugal and axial. A rotating drum is used in a
centrifugal fan. The bladed on these fans can be forward or backward inclined.
34. The blades on this type of fan tend to force air to the side as well as downstream
A. rotating
B. axial
C. tube-axial
D. centrifugal
Ans B
Axial fans are propellers that sweep air into a duct. As axial fans force the air to the side
and downstream, they give a high flow rate at a low pressure rise and are somewhat
noisy.
35. These are installed to prevent possible fires from spreading through ductwork.
A. face dampers
B. fire dampers
C. bypass dampers
D. blast dampers
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Ans B
Ductwork provides the opportunity for fires to spread throughout buildings. Fire dampers
should be located where sections of ducts pass though room or floor partitions. Local
authorities should be consulted regarding requirements.
36. This type of damper impedes air leaving a fan:

A. face damper
B. bypass damper
C. outlet damper
D. inlet vanes
Ans C
There are two devices which are used to control the amount of airflow through a constant
speed fan. An outlet damper impedes the air leaving a fan and an inlet vane restricts the
air entering the fan. Inlet vanes are quieter and are capable of pre-swirling the air.
37. 1 BTU per hour is equal to:

A. 1296 ft. lb. per minute
B. 1.296 ft. lb. per minute
C. 12.96 ft. lb. per minute
D. 129.6 ft. lb. per minute
Ans C
1 BTU per hour is equal to 0.293 watt, 12.96 ft. lb. per minute, and .00039 HP.
38. 1 boiler HP is equal to:

A. 33,480 BTU per hour
B. 3,348 BTU per hour
C. 334,800 BTU per hour
D. 334.8 BTU per hour
Ans A
1 boiler HP is equal to 33,480 BTU per hour, 34.5 lb water evap. per hour from and at
212 degrees Fahrenheit, and 9.8 KW. 1 KW equals 3413 BTU per hour.
39. If in a given winter the average high temperature is 44 degrees Fahrenheit and the
average low temperature is 10 degrees Fahrenheit, what is the average winter temperature
difference?
A. 27 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 34 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 54 degrees Fahrenheit
D. it is impossible to tell with only this information
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Ans B
The average winter temperature difference is found by subtracting the average low
temperature from the average high temperature.
40. This is the measure of the amount of heat that would be transferred through a given
surface or enclosure with a one degree difference between the two sides:
A. UA
B. U factor
C. thermal resistance
D. thermal difference
Ans A
The UA is calculated by multiplying the U-Value, or overall heat transfer coefficient U,
by the area of the surface or surfaces
41. Heat loss from a structure can be calculated by using average values for four basic
factors. These four factors are:
A. heat, wall, glass, and radiation
B. content, floor, heat, and glass
C. radiation, wall, floor, and glass
D. wall, content, glass, and radiation
Ans D
The average value of each of these factors represents the amount of heat in BTUs that
will pass through one square foot of the material in one hour. The values of each of these
factors are as follows: wall = .32 BTU; content = .02 BTU; glass = 1BTU, radiation =
240 BTU.
42. Heat loss is expressed in:

A. BTUs per square foot
B. BTUs per square foot per hour
C. BTUs per square foot per hour per degree F
D. BTUs per square foot per hour per degree F per design temperature difference
Ans D
Heat loss is defined as the amount of heat lost, measured in BTUs from a d space to be
conditioned, at the local winter outdoor design temperature and a specified indoor design
condition. It is the decrease in the amount of heat contained in a space, resulting from
heat flow through walls, windows, roof and other building surfaces.
43. This number represents how efficiently a furnace converts fuel to energy.
A. AAFE
B. AFUE
C. AFFE
D. AUUE
Ans B
The Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency is the ratio of annual output of useful energy or
heat to the annual energy input to the furnace; the higher the AFUE, the more efficient
the furnace. This value is meant to represent the ratio of heat transferred to the
conditioned space by the fuel energy supplied over one year
44. The volume of air required to supply enough oxygen for complete combustion at
elevations above 2000 feet ________________.
A. exceeds the maximum air inducing ability of the burners
B. is less than the maximum air inducing ability of the burners
C. is equal to maximum air inducing ability of the burners
D. is adaptable
Ans A
For elevations above 2000 feet, the BTU input should be reduced 4% for each 2000 feet
above sea level.
45. Most heating equipment will burn oil or gas at approximately ______ percent
combustion efficiency.
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Ans C
Combustion efficiency in furnaces is the rate at which a furnace maximized fuel use. As
of 1991, no furnaces may be manufactured with an efficiency rating of less that 78%.
46. A system which combines heating and cooling equipment in a complete package is
commonly known as a:
A. standard split system
B. combo system
C. year-round system
D. separate system
C
A year-round system provides for both heating and cooling needs. Combination heating-
cooling thermostats are of two basic kinds: one in which separate heating and cooling
thermostats are mounted together on a sub-base and one in which the mechanical
elements of both are combined under a common cover.
47. The sum of the sensible and latent heats removed from the air is called:
A. enthalpy
B. vacuum
C. saturation
D. total heat
Ans D
Sensible heat is the heat that, when added or removed, causes change in temperature, but
not in state. Latent heat is the heat that, when added or removed, causes change in state,
but not in temperature.
48. The energy savings of a unit are known as:

A. EEH
B. EAR
C. EHER
D. EER
Ans D
Energy Efficient Ratios are calculated by dividing the cooling capacity in BTUs per hour
(BTUh) by the power input in watts at any given set of rating conditions, expressed in
BTUh/watt.
49. The quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a substance from one point
to higher temperature is:
A. specific heat
B. enthalpy
C. total heat
D. specific humidity
Ans B
Enthalpy includes the latent and sensible heat necessary to raise the temperature of a
substance from one point to a higher temperature
50. _____________ is a device which enables furnaces to transfer heat from combustion
safely into breathable air.
A. Air purifier
B. Air balancer
C. Heat exchangers
D. Heat pump
Ans C
The primary heat exchanger transfers heat from combustion gases to the air blowing
through the ductwork. It's vital that none of the combustion gas itself gets into the
airstreams. The primary heat exchanger handles the hottest gases. This device transfers
heat from outgoing stale air to incoming cold air. In warm climates, this process can be
reversed. In high efficiency furnaces, secondary heat exchangers recover heat that used to
be vented up the chimney with the exhaust gases. By recovering this heat, the furnace
becomes more efficient. Part of the heat recovered here causes the water and acid to
condense out of the exhaust gas. Because this liquid is corrosive, secondary heat
exchangers must be designed to prevent deterioration. Usually this means they are made
of stainless steel or some derivative of it.
51. The condition that exists when less air is supplied to a space than is exhausted from
the space is known as:
A. total vacuum
B. inverse pressure
C. negative ventilation
D. negative pressure
Ans D
If an opening exists in a space with negative pressure air will flow from surrounding
areas into the negatively pressured space.
52. This type of furnace is usually installed in a basement.

A. high-boy
B. low-boy
C. upflow
D. counter-flow
Ans C
An upflow furnace pulls cool return air in from the bottom and blows warm air out of the
top into the ductwork.
53. This type of furnace is commonly used for housed built on a concrete slab floor.
A. high-boy
B. low-boy
C. upflow
D. counter-flow
Ans D
A counter-flow furnace is often located in a closet or utility room and the air flows
downwards opposite to the direction of the flow of flue gases.
54. This system produces conditioned air at two temperatures and humidity levels:
A. dual duct system
B. dual fuel system
C. double fuel system
D. double duct system
Ans A
The dual duct system is a central plant heating, ventilation and air conditioning system
that produces conditioned air at two levels and then supplies the air through two
independent ducts systems to the points of usage where mixing occurs.
55. Joints of duct systems shall be made airtight with the use of:
A. gaskets
B. mastics
C. tapes and crimping
D. all of the above
Ans D
It is important to use gaskets, mastics, tapes and crimping to insure that ductwork is
sufficiently airtight.
56. Sections of ducts which are typically manufactured in 22.5o, 45o, and 90o turns are
commonly known as
A. clips
B. elbows
C. turns
D. corners
Ans B
Elbows come in both rectangular and circular sections. The difference in the elbows
comes mostly from the manufacturing technique and materials used.
57. This length of couplings is used to connect two pieces of flex duct together
A. 2"
B. 4"
C. 6"
D. 8"
Ans B
Any ductwork that is attached to moving or vibrating equipment, such as a fan unit,
should use a flexible duct connector. This isolates the ductwork from the vibration to help
prevent damage.
58. The minimum clearance requirement of electrical furnace ductwork and combustible
material is:
A. 12"
B. 18"
C. 24"
D. there is no minimum clearance required
Ans D
No minimum requirement exists for electrical furnace ductwork and combustible
material, and electrical furnaces may be installed with zero clearance between the cabinet
and combustible materials.
59. These connections are used to connect different sized pipes.

A. bushings
B. couplings
C. crosses
D. All of the above
Ans D
Bushings are used to connect different sized pipes, couplings are used to connect two
pipes of the same size, crosses connect four pipes together, with each at right angles to
each other.
60. In natural gas furnaces, a _________ provides fuel to the pilot and also sends fuel to
the main burner.
A. standing pilot furnace
B. pressure valve
C. combination gas valve
D. safety valve
Ans C
Most furnaces use a standing pilot light to provide combustion to the burner manifold
when needed. A combination gas valve is used in natural gas furnaces to provide fuel to
both the pilot and the burner.
61. At the bonnet the furnace capacity should be equal to or slightly greater than:
A. the total demand of required heat
B. the capacity of the plenum
C. the total design heat loss of the house
D. the CFM values of the furnace
Ans C
The furnace capacity is the output or producing ability of the equipment. This capacity is
measured in BTUs per hour.
62. When designing a warm air heating system, the fist step is to
A. find appropriate placement for equipment
B. determine the design heat loss for the largest room to be heated
C. determine the design heat loss of all the rooms to be heated
D. determine length of ductwork to be used
Ans C
It is important to know the design heat loss of the entire space to be heated. This figure is
the total amount of heat that is lost, measured in BTUs from the space to be conditioned,
resulting from heat flow through walls, windows, roof, and other building surfaces.
63. The most efficient duct type is:

A. rectangular
B. round
C. square
D. combination round and square
Ans A
Although rectangular ducts are the most efficient, mitered rectangular elbows do not
present as smooth a turning radius as do the circular elbows, therefore turning vanes are
often incorporated into the elbows.
64. _______________ are used in HVAC systems for the operation of pneumatic sensors
and actuators
A. air filters
B. air compressors
C. air purifiers
D. air tank
Ans B
The air compressor is the heart of an air conditioning or heating system. The compressor
keeps a pressurized storage tank between 50 and 150 psi.
65. A furnace which can be mounted on top of ceiling joists in an attic space or
suspended from floor joists in a crawl space is known as a:
A. the high-boy
B. the low-boy
C. the horizontal
D. the counter-flow
Ans C
The horizontal furnace may be attached to joists. The counter-flow furnace is often
located in a closet or utility room. The low-boy furnace has the blower located adjacent to
the heat exchanger. The high-boy furnace has the blower located below the heat
exchanger.
66. This is a device that enables furnaces to transfer heat from combustion into safely
breathable air:
A. heat engine
B. air compressor
C. air filter
D. heat exchanger
Ans D
The primary heat exchanger transfers heat from combustion gases to the air blowing
through the ductwork. It is vital that none of the combustion gas gets into the air stream.
67. Under all normal HVAC conditions, water is incompressible and the only significant
property that varies is the ___________.
A. water density
B. water pressure
C. dry steam
D. wet steam
Ans A
Since the properties of water in HVAC applications do not change very much, the general
equation for pumping power may be used: HP = gal per minute x total head in ft / 3960
68. Exhaust outlets for ducts that that convey noxious gases must terminate at least ____
feet from any adjacent building or property.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
Ans A
Not only should exhaust outlets for ducts conveying noxious gases terminate at least 10
feet from any adjacent building, but they should also be located at least 10 feet above the
adjoining grade level and 2 feet above the roof surface.
69. Any room or space which holds a warm air furnace must be at least _____ inches
wider than the furnace.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Ans D
For safety purposes, furnaces not be installed in rooms with less than 12" excess room.
70. This type of furnace is designed for low headroom installations

A. high- boy
B. low boy
C. horizontal
D. counter-flow
Ans C
The horizontal type furnace is designed for situations with low headroom installations
with air flow through the appliance in a horizontal path. This type of furnace may be
mounted on a floor or ceiling joist.
71. An upflow furnace is designed with an air flow which is essentially:

A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. circular
D. none of the above
Ans B
An upflow furnace pulls cool return air from the bottom and blows warm air vertically
out of the top into the ductwork.
72. The required insulating "R" factor for a ceiling is:

A. 14
B. 19
C. 23
D. 27
Ans B
The "R" factor is a measure of the resistance to transmission of heat by an insulating
material. For a ceiling this factor is 19.
73. The required insulating "R" factor for walls is:

A. 11
B. 14
C. 18
D. 21
Ans A
material. For a ceiling this factor is 11
74. The required insulating "R" factor for floors is:
A. 13
B. 16
C. 19
D. 22
Ans C
material. For a ceiling this factor is 19.
75. The fluids in this type of heat exchangers enter at opposite ends and travel in opposite
directions.
A. parallel flow
B. cross flow
C. counter flow
D. direct flow
Ans C
The counter flow type of heat exchanger are usually more effective at transferring heat
that parallel heat exchangers because the temperature difference across the length of the
heat exchanger remains much more constant.
76. The fluids in this type of heat exchanger flow in the same direction.
A. parallel flow
B. cross flow
C. counter flow
D. direct flow
Ans A
In a parallel heat exchanger the initial heat flow from the how fluid to the cold fluid is
very high because of the large temperature difference between the two. As the fluids near
the exit the temperatures become closer and there is less energy exchanged.
77. In this type of heat exchanger the fluids cross at perpendicular directions
A. parallel flow
B. cross flow
C. counter flow
D. direct flow
Ans B
Because in a cross flow furnace there is not much surface area between the fluid pipes
and the air stream, a series of fins is used to enhance the heat transfer.
78. Air heating and cooling coils are rated by the ______________ possible at design
conditions.
A. minimum heat transfer rate
B. maximum heat transfer rate
C. average heat transfer rate
D. mean heat transfer rate
Ans B
Air heating and cooling coils, often including fins, through which treated gas or liquid is
passed , exchange thermal energy with the air surrounding it for heating or cooling.
79. This refers to the size and current- carrying capacity of a wire:
A. dampness rating
B. wire rating
C. temperature rating
D. insulation rating
Ans B
The wire rating is used to determine the appropriate size of wire needed for a specific
use. If a wire which is too small for the amount of current is used, the wire will get too
hot and there will be a fire hazard.
80 A 12 gauge wire can carry ________ current than a 14 gauge wire.

A. the same
B. more
C. less
D. . it is impossible to tell with only this information
Ans B
The lower the wire rating of a specific wire, the more current it can carry. There are
usually markings on the side of the wire jacket which list the information about the wire.
81 A wire which is identified with RHW is

A. rubber coated, lead jacket, wet use type
B. light service appliance, loaded current temp rating up to 165o, wet use type
C. rubber coated, loaded current temp rating up to 165o, wet use type
D. rubber coated, loaded current temp rating up to 190o, wet use type
Ans C
Wire is also listed by a series of letters that describe the insulation, ampacity, and
temperature rating. In this case the wire is rubber coated, with a temperature rating up to
165o, and is of a wet use type.
82. In residential and commercial applications, a white wire is:
A. hot
B. neutral
C. ground
D. inactive
Ans B
Certain color conventions are used in residential and commercial applications. Typically,
the black wire is hot, the white wire is neutral, and the green wire is ground.
83. Centrifugal pumps use _________ encased in a pump housing to increase the velocity
of the fluid that enters the pump.
A. an impeller
B. a bearing pump
C. a motor
D. pump curve
Ans A
Centrifugal pumps are used in practically all HVAC applications. The fluids enter at the
center of the impeller that is spinning at high velocity. Centrifugal forces act on the fluid
and it movers to the outside of the impeller, increasing in both speed and pressure.
84. Pumps and motors that share the same shaft are said to be:
A. open coupled
B. closed coupled
C. dual coupled
D. singular
Ans B
Closed coupled systems are typical for smaller pumps at low horsepower. If the motor
shaft is separate from the pump shaft a coupler is used ti connect the two.
85. This type of pump does not use an impeller, but rather rely on filling up a volume
with liquid and then mechanically forcing the liquid into a pipe or a reservoir:
A. negative displacement pump
B. centrifugal pump
C. negative centrifugal pump
D. positive displacement pump
Ans D
There are several situations where positive displacement pumps may be used. Rotary
pumps are often used for corrosive and high viscosity fluids. Recipricol pumps are useful
for moving slurries and sludge.
86. When connecting pipe to flared copper tubing, this type of connector may be used.
A. solder tee
B. half union
C. tube fitting
D. flare fitting
Ans B
A half union connector is used to connect pipe to fared copper tubing. When connecting
copper tubing to a flare fitting, it is recommended that you tighten the flare nut by hand
until it begins to draw on the tubing flare, then use a wrench
87. Water and steam flows in HVAC systems are controlled through:
A. fittings
B. couplings
C. valves
D. pipes
Ans C
In HVAC systems the valves which are used to control water and steam flows are chosen
based on the pipe size and the desired flow characteristics.
88. This value represents the number of gallons per minute of 60o F water that flows
through the valve with a pressure drop of 1psi when the valve is fully open.
A. flow rate
B. flow coefficient
C. flow ratio
D. flow volume
Ans B
For water valves the flow coefficient is the most commonly used flow parameter in
determining the proper valve for a specific usage
89. The _________ of a valve is the ratio of the valve pressure drop to the total system
pressure drop.
A. authority
B. preference
C. valve ratio
D. pressure ratio
Ans A
When multiple valves are installed in a system, some cause greater pressure drops than
others. The authority of the valve is the ratio of the valve pressure drop to the entire
system pressure drop.
90. In a valve, this is the part which moves up and down and drives the valve open or
closed.
A. plug
B. disc
C. valve stem
D. seat
Ans C
The valve stem moves up and down in the valve. At the end of the stem is the plug that is
made up of the disc and the seat. As the valve closes, the disc and seat make contact. The
distance the stem moves up and down is called the valve stem travel.
91. This type of valve is used when rapid flow is needed with minimal movement of the
valve.
A. two-position valve
B. gate valve
C. butterfly valve
D. ball valve
Ans A
Two-position valves can be adjusted to any position, but they are usually reserved for
simple applications where accurate flow modulation is not required. They are usually
used for shut-off service
92. This type of valve is a slidable baffle that open or close to allow water flow.
B. butterfly valve
C. gate valve
D. ball valve
Ans C
In a gate valve the actuator is often an electric solenoid that rapidly slides the gates open
or closed. These are often used on refrigerant systems and smaller water pipes.
93. This type of valve is usually used as on/off flow control but can also be used doe flow
control when the valve shaft is attached to a mechanical actuator.
B. gate valve
C. butterfly valve
D. ball valve
Ans C
Butterfly valves use a plate within the pipe that can be turned perpendicular to the flow
direction to impede the flow or parallel to the flow direction to allow flow.
94 This type of valve use a spherical valve housing that contains a ball with a hole in it.
A. ball valve
B. gate valve
C. butterfly valve
D. two-postion valve
Ans A
Ball valves are used for on/off proportional control. When the hole in the ball is rotated
parallel to the pipe, there is flow through the valve.
95. This type of valve ensures that there is always the same flow through the valve no
matter what the valve position:
A. ball valve
B. balancing valve
C. check valve
D. diverting valve
Ans B
Balancing valves are used in the bypass branch of a piping system. These valves are
manually adjusted to provide a desired pressure drop in the bypass
96. In this type of a water distribution system, the first coil after the secondary loop pump
sees the greatest pressure drop, while the coil farthest from the pump sees the smallest
pressure drop.
A. reverse-return system
B. two pipe system
C. four pipe system
D. direct return system
Ans D
In a direct return system, the first coil gets the most flow and the last coil sees the least
flow. Therefore, balancing valves are required on all coils to ensure equal pressure drop
among all coils.
97. In this type of water distribution system, an extra length of plumbing is used on the
return side, so that the first coil on the supply side is the last coil on the return side.
A. reverse-return system
B. two pipe system
C. four pipe system
D. direct return system
Ans A
The setup of a reverse-return system achieves an equal pressure drop at each coil without
the need for balancing valves.
98. Water distribution systems should be set up so that the pressure drop across the
modulating valves is at least ________ percent of the pressure drop across the entire
system.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
Ans B
While there are differing types of systems which can be implemented, it is important to
see that the pressure drops remain constant at this level.
99. The inside part of an air conditioning unit that contains the blower, cooling coil and
heater is known as the:
A. air filter unit
B. air handler unit
C. combo unit
D. total unit
Ans B
The air handler unit (AHU) is responsible for moving air. AHU refers to the equipment
which is used to provide conditioned air to a space
100. These are pieces of HVAC equipment used for cooling water and air:
A. vents
B. chillers
C. coolers
D. conditioners
Ans B
Chillers are integrated into packaged stand alone units or are one of the main components
of a central cooling plant.
101. This type of chiller uses refrigerant fluid that circulates between the high and low
pressure sides of the cooling cycle.
A. radiant chiller
B. absorption chiller
C. vapor compression chiller
D. differential chiller
Ans C
A vapor compression chiller absorbs heat on the low pressure side and rejects it on the
high pressure side. A compressor transports the fluid and maintains its pressure.
102. This type of chiller replaces the compressor with a small pump and thenuses heat to
drive the refrigeration cycle
A. radiant chiller
B. absorption chiller
C. vapor compression chiller
D. differential chiller
Ans B
In an absorption chiller the refrigerants are different than those used in the vapor
compression chiller.
103. In a vapor compression chiller, the ___________ is a heat exchanger that is cooled
by air or water.
A. compressor
B. condenser
C. expansion valve
D. evaporator
Ans B
The condenser in a vapor compression chiller rejects the heat that has been brought in
through the evaporator and compressor.
104. In a vapor compression chiller, the ____________ is where the cooling capacity is
modulated.
A. compressor
B. condenser
C. expansion valve
D. evaporator
Ans C
The expansion valve holds the pressure difference across the cycle and modulates the
cooling capacity
105 This figure is the ratio of the cooling energy to the compressor energy
A. coolant ratio
B. compressor ratio
C. pressure ratio
D. coefficient of performance
Ans D
The amount of work which the compressor needs is given by the enthalpy difference
across the compressor. A typical coefficient of performance for a vapor compression
cycle is 2.5.
106. In some chillers a ___________ is used to utilize the heat rejected from the chiller to
satisfy other heating loads.
A. suction line
B. liquid line
C. heat recovery condenser
D. reciprocal line
Ans C
A heat recovery condenser is valuable in that it uses heat already being produced to
satisfy other heating needs. There is usually a receiver tank between the condenser and
the expansion valve in such a system
107. In this type of a compressor the refrigerant enters the compressor and is subjected to
centrifugal forces.
A. rotary compressor
B. scroll compressor
C. centrifugal compressor
D. screw-type compressor
Ans C
A centrifugal compressor is similar to a centrifugal pump. Once the refrigerant is in the
compressor the velocity and the pressure of the refrigerant is increased by an impeller.
108. In this type of compressor, a series of blades move in and out as the rotor turns:
Ans A
A rotary compressor is typically used in low temperature applications. These types of
compressors may be started with low starting torque motors
109. This type of compressor forces the refrigerant into a series of interlocking screws:
Ans D
In a screw type compressor, a pneumatic or electric actuator is used to modulate the
capacity by positioning a sliding bypass valve. This valve allows the fluid to exit at
various points along the screws, resulting in a compressor with good modulating
characteristics/
110. This type of compressor is primarily used in small systems of less than 10 tons:
Ans B
Scroll compressors are typically used in residential systems and heat pumps. Refrigerant
enters at the perimeter and is compressed and moved to the center, where it leaves the
compressor.
111. In a direct expansion system, the fluid to be cooled passes directly through the
_______.
A. air-cooled condenser
B. water-cooled condenser
C. evaporator coil
D. absorber
Ans C
The evaporator coil is located in the air handler, or above the gas furnace. This will
produce cooling in the air conditioning mode and heating in a heat pump mode. This coil
section in the evaporator is where refrigerant evaporates and absorbs heat from air passed
over the coil.
112. One difference between the vapor compression cycle and the absorption cycle is that
the compressor is replaced by a ____________ combination
A. generator / absorber
B. compressor/absorber
C. generator/compressor
D. compressor/evaporator
Ans A
Another difference between the two cycles is that in a vapor compressor cycle only one
refrigerant is used and in an absorption cycle two fluids circulate. One is the refrigerant
and the other is the absorbent.
113. When a chiller shuts off it goes through a sequence in which the compressor runs
near full load for several seconds before the refrigerant solenoid valve shuts off. This
sequence is known as a:
A. cool-down
B. shut-down
C. pump-down
D. run-down
Ans C
A pump-down sequence helps maintain a high refrigerant pressure in the entire system to
ensure that the compressor does not have to work as hard the next time the unit is started.
114. In a ___________ the refrigerant travels from the refrigerant compressor to a heat
exchanger which is located outdoors.
A. water-cooled condenser
B. cooling tower
C. chiller
D. air-cooled condenser
Ans D
In an air-cooled condenser air is forced across the heat exchanger by fans in order to cool
the refrigerant. These systems are commonly found in smaller refrigeration systems.
115. A _________ is a variation of the air-cooled condenser in which the refrigerant

condenser is located nest to a fan-coil unit with a closed water or glycol loop used to
remove heat from the condenser.
A. water-cooler
B. dry-cooler
C. variable-cooler
D. transfer-cooler
Ans B
Because of its better heat transfer characteristics, the dry-cooler is able to operate at
higher temperatures than an air-cooled condenser.
116. Water is sprayed into an air stream and the evaporation of water cools the
surrounding air and water in this system
A. cooling tower
B. water-cooler
C. water condenser
D. water evaporator
Ans A
As the cooled water falls it collects in a basin at the bottom of the cooling tower where it
may be used for cooling.
117. In this type of cooling tower, the water goes directly to the condenser:
A. closed-loop
B. atmospheric
C. open-loop
D. forced draft
Ans C
In this type of cooling tower the water is open to the atmosphere
118. In a closed-loop cooling tower the water circulates from a condenser to a:

A. evaporator
B. heat exchanger
C. heat diffuser
D. heat pump
Ans B
In this type of a cooling tower, the heat exchanger is cooled by the cooling water tower. It
is important that both the open- and closed-loop cooling towers remain free of debris
which may clog strainers and pumps.
119. In this type of cooling tower water drops in from the top of the tower:
A. closed-loop
B. atmospheric
C. open-loop
D. forced draft
Ans B
An atmospheric tower is considered a passive cooling tower, where water drops in from
the top and creates a natural downdraft of cooler air as the water falls.
120. In this type of tower, a fan is used to move the air through the tower at high
velocities:
A. closed-loop
B. atmospheric
C. open-loop
D. forced draft
Ans D
By moving the air at a high velocity the cooling capacity is raised. A forced draft air
cooling tower, although efficient, it is can suffer from a lack of capacity if the air leaving
the top of the tower gets sucked back in by the fan.
121. These types of HVAC systems typically use ice or water tanks at night to store
cooling energy which can then be used during the day.
A. off-peak storage systems
B. thermal energy storage systems
C. night cooling storage systems
D. cooling transfer systems
Ans B
Thermal Energy Storage (TES) technology lowers the amount of electricity needed for
comfort conditioning during utility peak load periods. A building's thermal energy
storage system might, for example, use off-peak power to make ice or to chill water at
night, later using the ice or chilled water in a power saving process for cooling during the
day.
122. A unit used in a thermal energy storage system which behaves like an ice cube
maker is a/an:
A. ice chiller
B. ice harvester
C. water freezer
D. water harvester
Ans B
An ice harvester uses a chiller to produce ice shavings. These shavings are then around
the water circulating the piping.
123. This type of air handling unit provide air at a constant rate into the ductwork.
A. make-up air units
B. constant air volume systems
C. variable air volume
D. single-duct unit
Ans B
Make-up air units are usually used for controlling the building static pressure, constant air
volume systems provide air at a constant rate into the ductwork, variable air volume
systems vary the airflow rate to provide only as much air as necessary to a building, and a
single duct unit has a single outlet duct that supplies cool air.
124. This special class of air handling unit is common on large retail buildings,
warehouses, and small commercial buildings:
A. rooftop unit
B. make-up air unit
C. single-duct unit
D. variable air volume system
Ans A
A rooftop unit, also known as a packaged unit, is a self contained air handling unit which
provides conditioned air directly to the zone being conditioned. This type of system uses
direct expansion cooling and gas heating.
125. This category of filter refers to those filters which are replaced or cleaned when full:
A. disposable media filters
B. electronic air cleaners
C. renewable media filters
D. fibrous media unit filters
Ans D
Fibrous media filters are modular filter panels remove particles from the air stream. The
efficiency of this type of filter deceases as they fill up with debris
126. These filters continuously introduce new filter media into the air stream.
Ans C
Renewable media filters remove old, dirty media as they introduce new filter media. This
type of filter maintains a virtually constant rate of efficiency.
127. These filters apply a high voltage between two parallel metal screens
Ans B
Electronic air cleaners, also known as electrostatic precipitators, use parallel screens to
sweep out dust from the air stream. This type of filter does not see a reduction in
efficiency as is functions.
128. Flat panels which are made of glass fibers or metallic wool that are coated with a
viscous substance used to catch dust particles are called:
A. dry-media filters
B. fire dampers
C. viscous impingement filters
D. high efficiency particulate air filter
Ans C
This type of filter has a low cost, low pressure drop, and a high efficiency for lint. It has a
low efficiency for dust .
129. This type of filter has fibers which are much more closely spaced to form a dense
mat.
A. dry-media filters
B. fire dampers
C. viscous impingement filters
D. high efficiency particulate air filter
Ans A
Dry media filters do not have adhesive on the fibers and maintain a significantly higher
level of efficiency that viscous impingement filters
130. In an air handling unit, dehumidification is done with the:

A. condenser
B. evaporator
C. cooling coil
D. heat pump
Ans C
Dehumidification is the reduction of water vapor in air by cooling the air below the dew
point; removal of water vapor from air by chemical means, refrigeration, etc.
131. The cooling of the air without the removal of water is known as:
A. sensible cooling
B. latent cooling
C. dehumidification
D. humidification
Ans A
Sensible cooling implies that you can sense the reduction in temperature and it is done
without affecting the humidity.
132. The cooling load which is caused by moisture in the air is known as the:
A. latent cooling load
B. sensible cooling load
C. specific cooling load
D. average cooling load
Ans A
The latent cooling load is the net amount of moisture added to the inside air by plants,
people, cooking, infiltration, and any other moisture source. The amount of moisture in
the air can be calculated from a combination of dry-bulb and wet-bulb temperature
measurements.
133. The ratio of the sensible cooling load to the total cooling load is called:
A. average cooling ratio
B. specific cooling ratio
C. latent cooling ratio
D. sensible cooling ratio
Ans D
Most building cooling design calculations report the sensible cooling ratio, which
includes humidity as a factor in the design.
134. When the outside air is close to the desired supply air temperature and 100% of
outside air enters the building without conditioning the system is in:
A. optimal mode
B. economizer mode
C. ideal mode
D. balanced mode
Ans B
When the conditions are such that there is no heating or cooling of the air necessary the
exhaust and outdoor air dampers are fully opened and the return air damper is completely
closed, the system is in economizer mode.
135. In this type of air distribution system, air is circulated through a series of ducts
located throughout the building:
A. constant air volume
B. variable air volume
C. all-air
D. single duct
Ans C
The ducts in an all-air system supply air to terminal boxes that maintain temperature
control for each zone
136. This type of air distribution system provides a constant flow of air into the
ductwork:
C. single-duct
D. dual duct
Ans A
A constant air volume system is an air handling system that provides a constant air flow
while varying the temperature to meet heating and cooling needs.
137. This type of air distribution system is capable of serving multiple zones which
controls the temperature maintained in a zone by controlling the amount of heated or
cooled air supplied to the zone
C. multi-zone
D. dual-duct
Ans B
Variable air volume systems decrease the amount of air provided to the zones during
times of low energy demand.
138 This type of air distribution systems refers to a single air-handling unit that services
many different zones:
A. dual-duct
B. single-duct
C. multi-zone
D. manifold
Ans C
In a multi-duct system, individual ducts run into each zone from a single air-handling
unit.
139. This category of air distribution system includes systems with velocities greater than
2000 FPM and duct static pressure less than 6 inches W.G.
A. low pressure system
B. medium pressure system
C. high pressure system
D. none of the above
Ans B
A low pressure system in one with velocities less than 2000 FPM and duct static pressure
less than 2 inches W.G. A medium pressure system in one with velocities greater than
2000 FPM and duct static pressure less than 6 inches W.G. A high pressure system has
velocities greater than 2000 FPM and duct static pressure greater than 6 inches W.G.
140. This type of fan is located downstream from the zones in the return duct:
A. relief fan
B. return fan
C. exhaust fan
D. release fan
Ans B
A return fan maintains slightly negative pressure in the return duct, it is located without
any coils. Return air is air drawn into a heating unit after having been circulated from the
heater's output supply to a room. The air removed from an occupied space and returned to
the air handler to be exhausted or re-circulated.
141. This type of fan can be found just upstream from the exhaust dampers and are used
for local building pressure and smoke evacuation:
A. relief fan
B. return fan
C. exhaust fan
D. release fan
Ans C
Exhaust is air removed deliberately from a space, by a fan or other means, usually to
remove contaminants from a location near their source. It is the air flow leaving the
treated space.
142. This type of fan is usually incorporated into small air-handling or fan-coil units:
A. relief fan
B. return fan
C. exhaust fan
D. release fan
Ans A
A relief fan can be located anywhere in a building and is used to maintain building
pressure and local air conditioning
143. ___________ consist of two air-to-water heat exchangers connected by a

continuously pumped closed-looped piping system
A. continuous loops
B. air-to-water loops
C. run-around loops
D. exchanger loops
Ans C
Run around loops save money because they recover some of the heating or cooling
energy that would, without them, leave the building.
144. When sizing a steam humidifier, it is better to use a unit which is slightly _______.
A. undersized
B. oversized
C. overpriced
D. used
Ans A
Traditionally, when sizing equipment for HVAC usage, you would calculate the capacity
of the equipment based on design conditions, and then multiply by some safety factor. In
stream injection systems this may be risky as this creates a greater chance for
condensation of steam and standing water in the duct.
145. The air compartment connected to a duct or ducts is known as the:

A. core zone
B. exhaust space
C. all air zone
D. plenum
Ans D
Plenum is an air flow passage made of duct board, metal, drywall, or wood. Joins supply
and return ducts with HVAC equipment. Plenum refers to the portions of the air
distribution system that makes use of the building structure, and the sheet meal that
connects distribution ductwork to an air handling unit. Many buildings use the space
above a dropped ceiling as a plenum.
146. This is a temperature sensitive switch for controlling the operation of a heater or
furnace.
A. thermocouple
B. thermometer
C. thermostat
D. barometer
Ans C
Typically found on a wall inside the space, a thermostat consists of a series of sensors
and relays that monitor and control the functions of a heating and cooling system. It is a
device that allows control over the temperature inside the space by telling the heating or
cooling system how much air to produce. An automatic control device designed to be
responsive to temperature and typically used to maintain set temperatures by cycling the
HVAC system.
147. This type of terminal box does not measure the supply air duct pressure or flow rate:
A. pressure dependent
B. pressure independent
C. fan-powered
D. re-heat
Ans A
In a pressure dependent terminal box the supply air damper moves to a preset position
depending on the thermostat signal. In a pressure independent terminal box, a pitot tube,
a flow cross, or a hot wire anemometer is used to measure the flow
148. In the condensate lines of a steam boiler, carbon dioxide can react with possible
condensate water to form:
A. NaCl
B. H2CO3
C. HCl
D. CO3
Ans B
CO2 and water which has condensed into the condensate lines can react to form carbonic
acid (H2CO3). This lowers the pH of the water, requiring additional water treatment.
149. These are used to measure both the instantaneous power consumption od equipment
and the total usage over time:
A. electrical meters
B. power gauges
C. consumption gauges
D. motor meter
Ans A
Instantaneous power is measured in watts or kilowatts. Total energy is measured in watt-
hours or kilowatt-hours
150. A __________ is created by arranging an even number of thermocouples.

A. thermostat
B. thermometer
C. amplifier
D. thermopile
Ans D
A voltmeter can be used in conjunction with a thermopile to measure the temperature
difference between two points.
151. This is one unit of electromotive force

A. watt
B. amp
C. volt
D. ohm
Ans C
A volt is the amount of force required to drive a steady current of one ampere through a
resistance of one ohm. Electrical systems of most homes and office have 120 volts.
152. This refers to a program of building maintenance implemented to reduce the
possibility of problems, usually through periodic inspection, cleaning, adjustment,
calibration, and replacement of functioning, parts of the HVAC system, as well as
housekeeping practices to reduce the buildup of potential contaminants.
A. Preventative Maintenance
B. Periodic Maintenance
C. Preventative Measures
D. Predictable Maintenance
Ans A
Primarily done on a building's mechanical systems, preventative maintenance involves a
regular and systematic inspection, cleaning, and replacement of worn parts, materials,
and systems. Preventive maintenance helps to prevent parts, material, and systems failure
by ensuring that parts, materials and systems are in good working order.
153. This is a unit of electrical resistance:

A. volt
B. ohm
C. watt
D. amp
Ans B
An ohm is one unit of measure of electrical resistance. One volt can produce a current of
one ampere through a resistance of one ohm.
154. An instrument that measures air pressure differences between locations is known as
a/an:
A. barometer
B. thermostat
C. manometer
D. thermometer
Ans C
In order for a manometer to measure air pressure differences, tubes are usually attached
to a manometer and run to the spaces where pressures are measured
155. This is a device designed to regulate humidity input by reacting to changes in the
moisture content of the air.
A. humidifier
B. humidistat
C. thermostat
D. thermometer
Ans B
A humidistat is much like a thermostat but turns the system on and off by sensing the
humidity level.
156. This type of sensor uses a flexible coupling to amplify changes

A. bellows sensor
B. pressure sensor
C. amplified sensor
D. bourdon sensor
Ans A
A bellows sensor translates pressure change into a physical motion. The opposite end of
the bellows is attached to an armature that acts based on the displacement of the bellows.
157. If the pump on the primary loop of a chiller is not operating correctly which of the
following could happen?
A. the chiller evaporator tubes could freeze
B. the water in the boiler piping could flash to a steam
C. the system will not provide optimum heating or cooling effects
D. all of the above
Ans D
The heart of the water distribution system is the pump. If it is not functioning correctly,
not only will the desired heating and cooling effects not be achieves, but there is a chance
of frozen evaporator tubes and the boiler water flashing to a steam.
158. If a pump is does not operate or the flow is too low, the first check should be to see
if:
A. the local valves are shut
B. the local disconnect is shut off
C. the pump motor is turning
D. the water flow is obstructed
Ans C
If you encounter a pump which is does not start or has low flow, first check to see that the
motor is turning. If it is, then check the local valves. If it is not, check to see that the
pump motor has power.
159. If you are troubleshooting a pump which is excessively noisy, the first check should
be to see if:
A. the pump shaft is spinning the right way
B. the pump is separate from the motor
C. the coupler is in good condition
D. the pump motor is turning
Ans D
When you encounter a pump which is too noisy, it is necessary to first see that the motor
is turning. If it is, check to see that the shaft is spinning the right way. If it is, then check
to see that the pump is separate from the motor and if it is, check the condition of the
coupler.
160. If you encounter a valve which does no operate, your first step should be to check:
A. if the valve is electric or pneumatic
B. is the diaphragm holds pressure
C. the valve stem is bound
D. if the valve controller is working properly
Ans A
It is important to first determine the type of valve with which you are dealing. If the valve
is electric, check to see that the power is being supplied and that the connections are
intact.
161. If a valve shows excessive leakage, first see if:

A. the valve stem is bound
B. the valve is actually closed
C. the valve disk is in good condition
D. there is debris in the valve and/or pipes
Ans B
In this situation, it is necessary to see that the valve is actually closed as the leakage could
be caused because the valve is not getting a full close signal from the thermostat or
controller. In this case, the valve is not the cause of the malfunction.
162. You find that the reheat coils on a parallel pump system are not getting enough flow.
You find out that the system has been worked on recently. What might be the problem?
A. the shutoff valve was left in the open position
B. the shutoff valve was removed
C. the balancing valve was left in the closed position
D. the balancing valve was left in the open position
Ans C
Maintenance personnel will usually just shut off the balancing valve to isolate the pump.
If the valve is left in its closed position, the pump could have no coil flow.
163. If a valve appears open and the actuator is still working properly it might be that the
A. the actuator was installed backwards
B. stem plug is stuck down inside the seat
C. the valve is installed backwards
D. the stem plug is installed backwards
Ans B
The stem plug may become stuck in the seat if a piece of debris has traveled through the
pipe and has encountered the plug. In this circumstance, the actuator needs to be removed
and the stem forced back up.
164. If you think that a pneumatic plug and seat valve on a reheat coil is not working,
your first step should be to check the:
A. piping
B. balancing valve
C. system pressure
D. pump
Ans B
A balancing valve may also commonly fill up with dirt. If this happens it is necessary to
dislodge the clog by blowing it out backwards.
165 A balancing valve may also commonly fill up with dirt. If this happens it is necessary
to dislodge the clog by blowing it out backwards.
A. allow air to enter the water system
B. are no big deal
C. can cause frozen pipes
D. are a sign of a healthy system
Ans A
It is important to address leaks in valve and pump seals immediately because, by
allowing air to enter the water system, the system can become oxygenated. An
oxygenated system will cause the pipes to deteriorate quickly and rusted pipes may lead
to larger system problems.
166. If you encounter a chiller which will not start, your first step should be to see if:
A. the fuses are working properly
B. the refrigerant pressure is where it should be
C. the local safety relays have not been tripped off
D. the local power disconnect is shut off
Ans D
If the chiller does not start, first check the power supply. If the power is on, then check
the safety relays and then the fuses.
167. If the chiller starts but is not maintaining the desired temperature, the first system
check would be at the:
A. setpoint
B. load
C. evaporator coils
D. condenser coils
Ans A
If the setpoint is correct, then check to see if the load is too high. If this is not the problem
and the chiller cycles frequently, check the evaporator and condenser coils.
168. Low oil pressure in a chiller usually indicates that:

A. the condenser water is too hot
B. the condenser water is too cold
C. the oil is to hot
D. the oil is too cold
Ans B
If you encounter a chiller with low oil pressure, check to see that the condenser's return
water is in the manufacturer's recommended range. If the condenser water is fine, check
the oil level in the chiller and see that the oil strainers are free of debris.
169. One of the most common reasons why chillers run continuously is that:
A. there is not enough refrigerant in the system
B. there is too much refrigerant in the system
C. the power source has been disconnected
D. the start-up circuit is not working properly
Ans A
Ensure that there is enough refrigerant in the system by checking the charge and adding
refrigerant if necessary. If you suspect something is wrong with the chiller but can't
identify any obvious problems, you may want to calculate the chiller's performance to see
if the cycle is operating correctly.
170. A faulty thermal expansion valve in a chiller compressor may lead to

A. too much liquid refrigerant leaving the evaporator
B. a noisier operation
C. a shortened compressor life
D. all of the above
Ans D
If you discover that a faulty thermal expansion valve is the cause of a noisy chiller
compressor, try increasing the superheat setting by a few degrees.
171 These may be used on large chillers to indicate when the compressor is wearing
down:
A. vibration sensors
B. surge protectors
C. backup power systems
D. dx units
Ans A
Vibration sensors are one way of watching the wear on the compressor. It is always
cheaper to perform preventative maintenance than it is to rebuild a whole compressor
unit.
172. Using a chilled water flow switch to start the chiller ensures that
A. the power is on
B. the water flow is on before the chiller will start
C. the condenser water is as it should be
D. the oil pressure is as it should be
Ans B
It is a good idea to see that the water flow is on before the chiller will start because it is
possible to break a tube in the evaporator if the chiller is started before the water flow.
173. Freon and an open flame together can produce

A. phosgene gas
B. methanol
C. carbon monoxide
D. a vacuum
Ans A
Phosgene gas, which was used in trench warfare in WWI, is extremely dangerous.
Therefore it is important to remember not to smoke around condenser units.
174. Cooling tower fans are dangerous because:

A. the fans are often unguarded
B. the fans are often found at head height
C. they may start without notice
D. all of the above
Ans D
It is crucial to be mindful of the dangers involved in working with fans in cooling towers.
Not even quality protective headgear will stop a 5 horsepower blade.
175 When it is necessary to get inside ductwork for possible repairs, what safety
precautions should be taken?
A. bring appropriate lighting
B. beware of screws and other protruding sharp edges
C. never approach an operating fan
D. all of the above
Ans D
Safety precautions should never be overlooked when attempting to repair, install, or clean
ductwork. Always make sure you have a work lamp and backup flashlight. Always let
someone know when you are entering a duct. While inside, be aware of any possible
protrusions, such as screws and other sharp edges. Be prepared for moving air in the duct
and never approach a working fan.
176. PPE stands for:

A. Personal Preventative Equipment
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Protective Proactive Equipment
D. Personal Proactive Equipment
Ans B
All HVAC installation, maintenance, and repair should be done only with the use of
appropriate Personal Protective Equipment to insure safety.
177. OSHA stands for:

A. Occupational Safety and Heath Association
B. Operational Safety and Heath Association
C. Organization of Safety and Health Administration
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Ans D
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is the regulatory arm of the US
Department of Labor, which promulgates safety and health standards, facilitates training
programs, and enforces regulations on work sites. OSHA has developed permissible
exposure limits for over 600 contaminants present in the industrial workplace.
178. When a pump is turning but there is no flow because the piping has been isolated for
some reason it is:
A. cavitating
B. deadheading
C. controlling
D. idling
Ans B
Deadheading can lead to cavitation and damage to pump components. Deadheading is a
dangerous situation which should be remedied immediately.
179. This occurs when the pressure upstream of the pump is not high enough and the
fluid is not entering the pump fast enough
A. cavitation
B. deadheading
C. restriction
D. overload
Ans A
When cavitation is occurring, the mump will make metallic pinging noises and vibrate
more than usual. It can also cause the pump shaft to bend, which can lead to seal and
bearing failure.
180. ______________ fingers and hands may be placed in areas where they could be
caught between the valve stem and the actuator body
A. If the system is turned off
B. If the system is turned off and unplugged
C. If the system is turned off and unplugged and protective gloves are worn
D. Under no circumstances
Ans D
Pneumatic valves can move very rapidly and with a great amount of force. Precautions
should be taken to see that clothing, jewelry, and hair are not at risk of catching and there
is no circumstance where it is safe to place hands or fingers in areas where they are in
danger of getting caught in a valve with and actuator
181. If you hear a coupler making a rattling noise during operation, the best thing to do
is:
A. shut the pump off and see what the problem is
B. shut off the pump, lock out and tag out the pump power, and find out what the
problem is
C. replace the pump
D. leave the pump running and monitor occasionally
Ans B
Couplers are usually made of rubber and have a tendency to fail sometimes. If one fails, it
can come loose with great force and velocity. While most couplers have a safety shield, it
is best to shut the pump off, lock out and tag out the power before checking out what the
problem may be.
182. Excessive lubrication in a motor can cause:

A. a grease fire
B. an explosion
C. an overheated motor
D. all of the above
Ans D
If a motor is making a strange noise, it is important to investigate the root cause, rather
than just put more grease in to stop the noise. Over time grease from excessive
lubrication can cause the motor to overheat, explode or catch fire. It is much more cost
efficient and safer to fix problems as they occur instead of waiting for a mojor system
malfunction.
183. In a water distribution system, it is safest to see that:

A. all pipes are insulated
B. exposed pipes are insulated
C. chilled water pipes are insulated
D. hot water pipes are insulated
Ans A
It is important that all pipes are insulated. Chilled water pipes will likely drip, sometimes
onto open circuitry. Hot water pipes can heat up the mechanical room and possible melt
holes through wires or tubing it may contact.
184. Before you begin working on a water distribution system make sure that:
A. the water to the system is shut off
B. the isolation valves are shut off
C. the isolation valves are shut off and tagged out
D. the isolation valves are working
Ans C
Before you begin disassembling the piping, make sure that you have shut off and tagged
out the isolation valves. If you fail to do this, scalding water may exit out of open pipe,
causing great injury.
185. A chiller system is:

A. always safe
B. dangerous if it is not in good working order
C. not in need of routine maintenance
D. quiet
Ans B
All personnel should use great care when working around chiller systems. Hearing
protection is necessary to prevent ear damage. Since high pressure id used in both the
refrigerant and the water lines, a ruptured or leaking refrigerant can cut through skin.
While chillers are safe when kept in good working order, it is important to be mindful of
the system's potential for harm if not properly maintained.
186. If you find that the wet bulb temperature in a cooling tower is too high, the solution
is to:
A. add cooling capacity
B. check filters and pipes for blockage
C. replace the fan motor
D. repair pump
Ans A
If you are not getting enough cooling capacity and all fans and pumps are functioning
correctly, it may be too humid for effective evaporate cooling.
187. The basin of a cooling tower and the sump should be flushed out:
A. every month
B. every six months
C. every year
D. every five years
Ans C
Once a year the basin and sump should be flushed to prevent the accumulation of debris
which will plug the pump strainer
188. Water treatment in a cooling tower should be checked:

A. every week
B. every month
C. every six months
D. every year
Ans A
It is necessary to check water treatment every year because it is an open system. Use
chemicals which are allowed by the EPA to prevent clogging.
189. Fan motors should be checked:

A. every week
B. every month
C. every six months
D. every year
Ans B
It is good practice to check and lubricate fan motors monthly to keep the system running
smoothly.
190. Steam of HW coils in cooling towers should be checked:
A. every week
B. every month
C. every six months
D. every year
Ans D
These coils should be checked at the start of each heating season to see that they are
heating correctly. This should prevent freeze up in the winter.
191. To insure that the gas line in a boiler does not stay charged when the boiler is off,
local code may require the installation of a:
A. surge protector
B. double block and bleed valve assembly
C. special float switch
D. high pressure cut-out
Ans B
A double block and bleed is made up of two gas valves with a solenoid in the middle that
vents gas.
192. This will cause the boiler to shut off if the pressure is outside of the specified range:
A. surge protector
Ans D
If the pressure is too high the gas valve may not control the amount of gas going to the
burners, this can cause overheating. The high pressure cut-out is designed to shut the
boiler off before this happens.
193. In a hot water boiler, this is a safety that shuts off the boiler if the water level gets to
low:
A. low water control
Ans A
In order to keep the tubes in the boiler from uncovering and ultimately melting, the low
water control shuts down the boiler when the water level gets too low.
194. The pop-off pressure safety valve on a boiler operates on:
A. pressure only
B. temperature only
C. temperature and pressure
D. all of the above
Ans D
Pop-off pressure valves are necessary because they prevent new water from entering the
boiler and immediately turning into steam. It is very important to see that these valves are
always functional.
195. If the pilot light is out in a boiler it is necessary to make sure that the
A. main gas valve is shut off
B. main gas valve remains on
C. is enough make-up air
D. setpoint is correctly adjusted
Ans A
For obvious safety reasons it is important to inspect the boiler to see that if the pilot light
goes out, gas will not continue to flow.
196. If a boiler uses a flame rod, it should be located _______ of the pilot.
A. to the left
B. to the right
C. in the middle
D. directly above
Ans C
If the flame rod is not properly positioned in the middle of the pilot, the boiler may not
start or may unnecessarily cycle.
197. The proving time on a boiler is usually:

A. 3-5 seconds
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 3-5 hours
D. 3-5 days
Ans A
Large boilers have a timer which locks out the boiler if the relay sensor does not detect a
pilot once the boiler starts. This proving time is typically 3-5 seconds, but some local
codes may dictate a shorter amount.
198. The best way to insure that the pilot has enough spread to light the full manifold is
to:
A. light the boiler manually
B. remove the pilot and check it
C. watch the manifold as the gas valve opens
D. remove the manifold and check it
Ans C
If you notice that the entire manifold does not light all at once, you may need to increase
the spread of the pilot.
199. In a bigger boiler the electro-hydraulic valve runs out of oil it can:
A. fail open
B. fail shut
C. explode
D. fall off
Ans B
If the oil leaks out in this situation the valve will have to be replaced.
200. If the flow switch is working properly on a hydronic boiler and the pump is shut off,
this should happen:
A. the boiler should restart
B. the pilot should light
C. the boiler should shut off
D. the pump should switch back on
Ans C
This shutoff prevents the boiler from running without a water flow. Without this
precaution the boiler could get hot enough to blow up.
201. The pressure relief valve on a steam boiler should be checked at least:
A. once a week
B. once a month
C. every six months
D. once a year
Ans D
This yearly check may be done by pressurizing the system to see if the valve pops off at
the correct pressure.
202. If you encounter a boiler which does not start you should first check:
A. if the power disconnect is off
B. if the setpoint has been reset down
C. if the gas line has been closed
D. if the pilot is out
Ans A
If you find that the boiler power disconnect is off it will be necessary to restore the boiler
power. However, never restore power until you know why it was shut off in the first
place.
203. If the boiler capacity is low, your first response should be to check the:
A. safety relays
B. fuses
C. setpoint
D. gas line
Ans C
If the boiler setpoint has been set down, restore it to the appropriate setting. In some cases
there may be seasonal adjustments of the hot water boiler setpoint.
204. If you discover that the gas boiler safety relays have not been tripped and the boiler
still will not start you should next:
A. check the fuses
B. repair the blower
C. check the pilot
D. open the gas line
Ans A
If you discover that the boiler fuses are not intact you should replace the fuses. If the
fuses continue to blow after installing new ones, the problem is most likely a faulty
blower motor.
205. If you find that the electronic ignition on a gas boiler is not achieving a spark you
should:
A. check the gas lines
B. check the ignition plugs and power supply
C. replace the ignition
D. replace the gas lines
Ans B
When following this step, if the gas solenoid opens and you don't see a spark, you may
have a faulty ignition transformer or the ignition rod may have shorted out.
206. If the pilot light in a gas boiler repeatedly goes out after ignition you should:
A. check the blower motor
B. check the electro-hydraulic valve
C. check the ignition rod
D. check for downdrafts
Ans D
If the pilot continually goes out after ignition it is necessary to check for downdrafts from
the flue or replace the pilot sensor. On a natural gas furnace, watch for backfires and do
not look under the cover while lighting.
207. A faulty electro-hydraulic valve is easy to identify by the:

A. oil on the floor
B. water on the floor
C. broken solenoid
D. burning odor
Ans A
While electro-hydraulic valves tend to outlast solenoid valve, they are susceptible to
running out of oil if not properly maintained.
208. If the burner motor is not starting in an oil boiler check for:
A. a water spray
B. an oil spray
C. a blown motor fuse
D. a faulty oil pump
Ans C
If you are troubleshooting an oil burner which is not starting and find that the burner
motor starts, check for an oil spray. If the burner does not start, check the motor fuses and
transformers.
209. If the burner motor does start in the example above and you find an oil spray, you
should next:
A. check the ignition system
B. check the pump filters
C. replace fuses
D. check contactors
Ans A
If there is an oil spray but no ignition, the problem may be electrical. Examine the
ignition electrodes for debris, loose connections, and gap width.
210. Before replacing a faulty oil pump it is wise to check for _______ in the storage
tank:
A. water
B. debris
C. air
D. oil
Ans D
In this situation if the oil level is low enough the oil line might be dry. You also may
want to check the coupling on the pump.
211. If the gas boiler capacity is low and the flame is not blue check the:
A. gas pressure
B. damper
C. gas load
D. blower speed
Ans B
It is necessary to keep the damper linkage in good shape to allow the damper to move
freely. If the damper is not allowing the proper drafe, the flame will not be hot enough.
212. If you find a yellow flame in the fire box it is a sign that:
A. there is too much combustion air reaching the combustion chamber
B. there is not enough combustion air reaching the combustion chamber
C. there is a clog in the gas line
D. there is a problem in the control circuitry
Ans B
If you find a combustion chamber which is lacking in combustion air, check to see that
the vents are not blocked and that the flue is not blocked.
213. Insufficient make-up air in a boiler room can lead to:

A. low flame
B. high flame
C. overcurrent shut off
D. filter clog
Ans A
Never block vents which supply make-up air to the boiler room. Air handlers in the boiler
room may depressurize the space and draw air away from the boiler.
214. If the blower motor gets stuck on one set of windings, this may occur:
A. the fan will cycle rapidly
B. the heating capacity will decrease
C. the speed will be incorrect
D. all of the above
Ans D
Boiler lowers sometimes have several windings to operate at different speeds. Watch for
these signs of a motor becoming stuck.
215. If oil is stored outside or it runs along an exterior wall you may need to frequently:
A. check the oil nozzle
B. check the line voltage
C. pre-warm the oil
D. check the fuses
Ans C
in this situation, oil may become viscous and cold. This may be remedied by pre-
warming the oil or by increasing the pump capacity.
216. In a gas steam boiler, a flue gas analysis will check the:
A. water quality
B. fuel/air mixture
C. valve performance
D. heating capacity
Ans B
Testing the flue gas several times per year is a good idea because it will tell if the boiler
is operating as efficiently as possible.
217. If a boiler keeps shutting down, you should first check the:
A. pump
B. valves
C. flame safety circuit
D. fire control
Ans C
If you encounter a boiler which repeatedly shuts down, first check the flame safety
circuit. If the flame detector is functioning properly, the problem may be short circuits or
improper flame sensor location.
218. If the boiler keeps tripping out on high temperatures, it may be a faulty:
A. valve
B. pump
C. pilot
D. gas line
Ans B
If the hot water pump shuts off at the same time as the boiler, the hot water in the boiler
can rise rapidly in temperatures.
219. If the boiler starts sometimes and not others, it is wise to check the:
A. wiring
B. gas line
C. pump
D. valves
Ans A
The vibration of the blower motor can loosen the wires and screws.
220 If the stack temperature is too high, ________ may need cleaning.
A. boiler tubes
B. pilot
C. pumps
D. valves
Ans A
This means that too much heat is going into the stack and not enough is going into the
water. It could be caused by scale build up on the water side and soot build up on the
burner side.
221. In a steam boiler, ________ are used to remove condensate

A. receiver tanks
B. isolation valves
C. steam traps
D. relief valves
Ans C
Liquid water left in piping can cause pressure loss and pipe erosion. Too much water in
the steam coil will prevent the effective flow of steam.
222. In this type of steam system, the condensate pump actually pulls a vacuum on the
condensate side:
A. single pipe system
B. double pipe system
C. vacuum system
D. secondary system
Ans C
Although they are not commonly installed anymore, it is important to maintain vacuum
pumps in these systems.
223. Because steam piping expands when it is heated, it is necessary to install:

A. expansion joints
B. vacuum-breaker valve
C. steam traps
D. condensate return lines
Ans A
This piping should be supported so that no binding or kinking occurs when the pipes
expands or contracts.
224. This type of steam trap operates by assuming that there is some condensate of the
top of the disk:
A. mechanical
B. disc
C. thermostatic
D. inverted bucket
Ans B
When this trap is hot, the condensate is turned into steam and keeps the disc closed. Then
it is cool, the steam above the disc condensates, causing the disc to open.
225. This type of steam trap contains a temperature dependent valve to open the trap
when cool condensate is present:
A. mechanical
B. disc
C. thermostatic
D. inverted bucket
Ans C
Much steam may be leaked through this kind of trap if the resistance of the valve, the
temperature sensitivity, and the line steam pressure are not equated.
226. This kind of steam trap commonly uses some type of float sensor:
A. mechanical
B. disc
C. thermostatic
D. inverted bucket
Ans A
The float sensor in a mechanical steam trap will open the trap once it has filled with
condensate. It is necessary for this kind of trap to be upright for proper functioning.
227. A cause of zone overheating in a steam distribution system may be:

A. faulty positioner
B. downstream pipe is too cool
C. valve diaphragm failure
D. faulty gauge
Ans C
Once a valve diaphragm fails, the air pressure signal cannot close the valve. A squeeze
bulb is useful in determining if a pneumatic valve has a perforated diaphragm.
228. If there is full pressure on the input of a positioner and the valve doesn't move you
should:
A. remove the valve assembly
B. pull off the line between the positioner and the actuator
C. remove the positioner
D. remove the actuator
Ans B
After you have done this, use a squeeze bulb to blow up the positioner diaphragm.
229. If the steam coil is not providing heat you should first check to see if:
A. there is steam pressure at the coil input
B. the coil trap is not leaking
C. the boiler is working
D. the air side of the coil is clean
Ans C
If you find that the boiler is working, check to see if the sir side of the boiler is clean. If it
is not, perform boiler diagnostic checks.
230. If the air side of the coil is clean, you should then check to see it:
A. there is steam pressure at the coil input
B. the coil steam trap is not leaking
C. the coil steam valve operation is functioning
D. the upstream steam lines are not clogged
Ans A
If you find that there is steam pressure at the coil input, you should then check the coil
steam trap for leaks. If there is no pressure at the coil input, check the upstream lines
231. A stream trap that is allowing steam to pass without trapping is said to be
A. stopped up
B. blowing through
C. clogged up
D. hammered
Ans B
When a steam trap is "blowing through" the heat output of the coil is greatly reduced.
232. When a steam trap does not allow condensate to pass it is said to be:
A. stopped up
B. blowing through
C. clogged up
D. hammered
Ans A
A "stopped up" steam trap may cause the coil to hammer and it may trip off the fan on
the low temperature safety in freezing weather.
233. If the zone is too hot in an electric thermostat, you should first check:
A. the pressure on the thermostat output
B. the power supply
C. the output signal from the thermostat
D. the inlet pressure to the thermostat
Ans C
If you find that there is an output signal from the thermostat, check the steam valve. If
there is no output signal, check the power supply.
234. If the zone is too hot in a pneumatic thermostat, you should begin by checking the:
A. steam valve
B. pressure line
C. pressure on the thermostat outlet
D. inlet pressure to the thermostat
Ans C
If there is pressure on the thermostat output, check the pressure line attached to the steam
valve. If there is not pressure on the outlet, check the inlet pressure
235. If in the case above there is no inlet pressure to the thermostat, you should:
A. check compressed air system
B. replace thermostat
C. check pressure line
D. check steam valve
Ans A
There should be inlet pressure in the 15 - 20 psi range. If this is not happening, check the
compressed air tubing for leaks.
236. A zone that is too cold usually implies:

A. poorly located thermostat
B. leaking steam valve
C. restricted valve steam travel
D. any of the above
Ans D
Since steam valves usually fail open, any of the three above problems may be implicated.
If there is a heat source close to the thermostat, it may give a false reading. A leaking
steam valve can send moisture unto the valve actuator, and a valve filled with debris will
restrict the travel of the steam.
237. If you notice cavitation in the condensate pumps, check the functioning of the:
A. pumps
B. traps
C. valves
D. thermostat
Ans B
Because the condensate is so hot, even slightly higher than normal temperatures can lead
to cavitation.
238. If a steam valve won't shut off and all else looks to be functioning properly, the
problem may be that the:
A. thermostat is broken
B. pumps are not functioning
C. valve seat or disc is defective
D. valve seal is dysfunctional
Ans C
This may be caused by wire draw, which is caused by the valve seats cut down in the
middle, or chunks knocked out.
239. When designing a steam system, it is a good idea to __________ the close-off rating
when specifying the steam valves where you want tight shut-off
A. double
B. triple
C. half
D. quadruple
Ans A
Because some valves don't have tight enough shut-off valves, you may need to double the
rating. Also make sure to place the shut-off valve ahead of the control valve.
240. If you encounter a damper motor with an electric actuator, which does not operate,
first check the:
A. damper controller
B. power to actuator motor
C. damper linkage
D. power transformer
Ans B
If in this circumstance you find that there is no power to the actuator motor, check the
power supply. If there is power to the motor, check the power transformer.
241. If you encounter a damper motor with a pneumatic actuator, which does not operate,
first check the:
A. pneumatic position signal
B. damper controller
C. damper linkage
D. power supply
Ans A
If in this case there is no pneumatic position signal, check the damper controller. If there
is a signal, check the damper linkage.
242. If you find a bound damper linkage, you will have to:
A. replace the actuator motor
B. replace or repair the damper linkage
C. check the damper controller
D. check the pneumatic signal
Ans B
The damper linkage can bind up if the linkage is rusty or bent. If this is the case it will
need to be repaired or replaces
243. In an electric damper, the ratio of transformers to actuators should be:
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:1
D. 1:3
Ans C
Many electronic actuators rely on an isolated power supply, such as a transformer. A
good rule of thumb is one transformer for each actuator.
244. Outside air enters an air handling unit

A. when it is cooler than the inside air
B. when it is at the same temperature as the inside air
C. when it is warmer than the inside air
D. all year round
Ans D
It is necessary to allow for outside air to enter the air handling unit to maintain air quality
in the building.
245. The outlet side of cooling coils in and air handling unit usually has ______to contain
any water that condensed on the coils.
A. reservoirs
B. catch pans
C. gutters
D. drains
Ans B
Catch pans can fill up with water and must be kept clean to prevent mold and mildew
growth.
246. The first thing to check is an air handling unit has difficulty controlling its mixed air
temperatures and the controls are functioning properly is:
A. location of the mixed air transmitter or sensor bulb
B. the damper
C. the valves
D. the fans
Ans A
The bulbs need to be placed in a location which represents the average temperatures of
the twp mixed streams.
247. If in the above case the bulb is in an appropriate location, the problem may be due to
_________ of the mixed air plenum.
A. high temperatures
B. low temperatures
C. incorrect pressures
D. incorrect outlet temperatures
Ans C
This problem may occur if the exhaust or return fans are running too high, possibly
leading to indoor air quality problems.
248. In a VAV system, if the pressure sensor is located too close to the fan it will cause:
A. the fan to speed up
B. the fan to slow down
C. the pressure sensor to shut down
D. the fan to shut down
Ans B
Because the sensor is too close to the fan, it will give a higher duct pressure reading,
causing the fan to slow down to regulate the perceived duct pressure
249. If the zone is too hot in a zone terminal system, the first thing to check is the:
A. terminal box damper
B. reheat valve
C. thermostat placement
D. thermostat setpoint
Ans C
If the thermostat is not in the room which is too hot, place it in the appropriate room.
250. If the thermostat is in an appropriate place, check to see if:

A. it is obstructed
B. it has a control signal
C. it is in heating only mode
D. the reheat valve is stuck open
Ans A
A thermostat will not correctly read the temperature of the room if it is obstructed by an
object such as furniture or equipment.
251. If you find that the thermostat is in a good location and the room is still to hot in a
zone terminal system, you should check the:
A. terminal box dampers
B. setpoint
C. control signal
D. reheat valve
Ans C
If the thermostat does indeed have a control signal, check the thermostat setpoint. If not,
fix the thermostat.
252. In the situation above, if you find that the thermostat setpoint is not too high you
should check:
A. the box dampers
B. the valves
C. the thermostat mode
D. the control signal
Ans C
If the thermostat is in heat-only mode, switch it to cooling mode,
253. This type of thermostat will provide a signal to the reheat coil
A. electronic
B. pneumatic
C. both electronic and pneumatic
D. neither electronic nor pneumatic
Ans C
Both types of thermostats should provide a signal to the reheat coil. If this is not
happening, check the power and connections in the electronic thermostat and the pressure
and tubing in the pneumatic thermostat.
254. If there is an indoor noise problem in an evaporative cooling system, you should
first check the:
A. belts and bearings
B. water tank
C. fan speed
D. pulley adjustment
Ans A
Although many motor bearings are sealed and require no maintenance, fan bearings
require annual lubrication.
255. If there is no or low flow in a branch of ductwork and the insulation and coils are not
the problem, examine:
A. where the branch exits the system
B. where the branch is connected to the main supply duct
C. the length of the branch
D. all of the above
Ans B
If the connection is close to the supply fan and has a side takeoff, the fast moving air in
the supply duct can actually suck air from the rooms through the diffusers
256. In a single duct VAV systems, most temperature problems are caused by
improper_____________ at the air handling unit.
A. ductwork
B. power source
C. controls
D. insulation
Ans C
In these situations, if the air handler is not the problem, check to see if the ductwork is
located on an exterior wall or some other unconditioned space. This can particularly be a
problem is the ductwork is not insulated
257. In an evaporative cooling system, if a mold or mildew smell id detected, check the:
A. belts and bearings
B. fan speed
C. pulley adjustments
D. space humidity
Ans D
If the space humidity is too high, consider dehumidification of the treated space. If it is
not too high, check the water tank for biological growth
258. In an evaporative cooling system, if the space is too hot and there is air flow from
the evaporate cooler, you should then check:
A. the water in the water tank
B. refill float valve
C. drain plug
D. zone loads
Ans A
If there is no water in the refill tank, make sure that the drain plug is closed. If you find
water in the tank, check the power to the water pump.
259. If a furnace in a residential setting will not start but the pilot light is lit, check the:
A. gas pressure
B. high limit switch
C. pilot connections
D. thermocouple position
Ans D
If you find that the thermocouple is in the proper position, check the setting of the high
limit switch. If it is not in the pilot light, reposition the thermocouple
260. If in the above example the thermocouple is in the pilot light, and the high limit
setting is not too low, you should check:
A. the gas pressure
B. the motor starting circuit
C. the ignition wiring
D. the control transformer
Ans B
The fan starting circuit has several components that may go bad and some fans may have
a starting capacitor which may need replacing
261. An installed and functioning thermocouple should be this color on the end:
A. red
B. blue
C. yellow
D. colorless
Ans A
The thermocouple should be red on the end and the pilot flame should be blue and just
surrounding the thermocouple.
262. If a residential furnace is unable to condition a space and is not cycling to much, the
first thing to check is the:
A. belt
B. gas pressure
C. thermostat
D. filters
Ans C
Check not only the setpoints, but also see if it is on a manual setting that keeps the system
from turning on or shutting off.
263. A squeaking or dull roar in a furnace is a signal to check the:
A. ductwork
B. filters
C. setpoint
D. motor belts
Ans D
If you hear these types of noises, check the tension of the motor belt. When you press the
belt halfway between the motor and the fan cage there should be about one inch of slack.
264. A chirping sound in a residential heating system is a sign that _______ need to be
checked.
A. bearings
B. pulleys
C. filters
D. fan blades
Ans A
Check to see if the bearings need to be lubricated, if they have not been lubricated
recently, a few drops of oil in the bearing ports will stop the chirping sound.
265. When it is necessary to get inside ductwork for possible repairs, what safety
precautions should be taken?
A. bring appropriate lighting
B. beware of screws and other protruding sharp edges
C. never approach an operating fan
D. all of the above
Ans D
Safety precautions should never be overlooked when attempting to repair, install, or clean
ductwork. Always make sure you have a work lamp and backup flashlight. Always let
someone know when you are entering a duct. While inside, be aware of any possible
protrusions, such as screws and other sharp edges. Be prepared for moving air in the duct
and never approach a working fan.
266. PPE stands for:

A. Personal Preventative Equipment
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Protective Proactive Equipment
D. Personal Proactive Equipment
Ans B
All HVAC installation, maintenance, and repair should be done only with the use of
appropriate Personal Protective Equipment to insure safety.
267. OSHA stands for:

A. Occupational Safety and Heath Association
B. Operational Safety and Heath Association
C. Organization of Safety and Health Administration
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Ans D
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is the regulatory arm of the US
Department of Labor, which promulgates safety and health standards, facilitates training
programs, and enforces regulations on work sites. OSHA has developed permissible
exposure limits for over 600 contaminants present in the industrial workplace
268. When a pump is turning but there is no flow because the piping has been isolated for
some reason it is:
A. cavitating
B. deadheading
C. controlling
D. idling
Ans B
Deadheading can lead to cavitation and damage to pump components. Deadheading is a
dangerous situation which should be remedied immediately
269. This occurs when the pressure upstream of the pump is not high enough and the
fluid is not entering the pump fast enough:
A. cavitation
B. deadheading
C. restriction
D. overload
Ans A
When cavitation is occurring, the mump will make metallic pinging noises and vibrate
more than usual. It can also cause the pump shaft to bend, which can lead to seal and
bearing failure.
270. ______________ fingers and hands may be placed in areas where they could be
caught between the valve stem and the actuator body
A. If the system is turned off
B. If the system is turned off and unplugged
C. If the system is turned off and unplugged and protective gloves are worn
D. Under no circumstances
Ans D
Pneumatic valves can move very rapidly and with a great amount of force. Precautions
should be taken to see that clothing, jewelry, and hair are not at risk of catching and there
is no circumstance where it is safe to place hands or fingers in areas where they are in
danger of getting caught in a valve with and actuator.
271. If you hear a coupler making a rattling noise during operation, the best thing to do
is:
A. shut the pump off and see what the problem is
B. shut off the pump, lock out and tag out the pump power, and find out what the
problem is
C. replace the pump
D. leave the pump running and monitor occasionally
Ans B
Couplers are usually made of rubber and have a tendency to fail sometimes. If one fails, it
can come loose with great force and velocity. While most couplers have a safety shield, it
is best to shut the pump off, lock out and tag out the power before checking out what the
problem may be.
272. Excessive lubrication in a motor can cause:

A. a grease fire
B. an explosion
C. an overheated motor
D. all of the above
Ans D
If a motor is making a strange noise, it is important to investigate the root cause, rather
than just put more grease in to stop the noise. Over time grease from excessive
lubrication can cause the motor to overheat, explode or catch fire. It is much more cost
efficient and safer to fix problems as they occur instead of waiting for a mojor system
malfunction.
273. In a water distribution system, it is safest to see that:

A. all pipes are insulated
B. exposed pipes are insulated
C. chilled water pipes are insulated
D. hot water pipes are insulated
Ans A
It is important that all pipes are insulated. Chilled water pipes will likely drip, sometimes
onto open circuitry. Hot water pipes can heat up the mechanical room and possible melt
holes through wires or tubing it may contact.
274. Before you begin working on a water distribution system make sure that:
A. the water to the system is shut off
B. the isolation valves are shut off
C. the isolation valves are shut off and tagged out
D. the isolation valves are working
Ans C
Before you begin disassembling the piping, make sure that you have shut off and tagged
out the isolation valves. If you fail to do this, scalding water may exit out of open pipe,
causing great injury.
275. A chiller system is:

A. always safe
B. dangerous if it is not in good working order
C. not in need of routine maintenance
D. quiet
Ans B
All personnel should use great care when working around chiller systems. Hearing
protection is necessary to prevent ear damage. Since high pressure id used in both the
refrigerant and the water lines, a ruptured or leaking refrigerant can cut through skin.
While chillers are safe when kept in good working order, it is important to be mindful of
the system's potential for harm if not properly maintained.
276. When repacking valves it is necessary to see that the following isolation valves are
shutoff:
A. upstream of the valve
B. downstream
C. all the valves
D. none of the valves
Ans C
If it becomes necessary to repack the valves to see that they won't leak, make sure that the
pneumatic air supply or electric power is shut off and that all the isolation valves are shut
off.
277. When disassembling large pneumatic valves, follow manufacturer's instructions

exactly to be sure that the _________ is not ejected with great force.
A. pump
B. spring
C. coupler
D. bearing
Ans B
The very powerful spring which is located in the pneumatic valve can come flying out
with great force is the valve stem is broken. It is necessary to use extreme caution when
disassembling a pneumatic valve.
278. It is possible to create a short circuit inside the __________ when the top is pulled
off of an electric actuator.
A. pump
B. coupler
C. conduit
D. plug
Ans C
If the power wire is not connected securely to the terminals, the wire can be loosened
when the valve actuator is pulled. This can result in a shock.
279. It may be appropriate at times to wear _________ when working on a cooling tower
to prevent a fall.
A. a harness
B. protective eyewear
C. a hard hat
D. flashlight
Ans A
A cooling tower may become icy and slippery and a harness is useful to maintain
personal safety.
280. If you encounter a motor control center in which the power has been turned off you
should first:
A. turn it on to see what the possible problem is
B. find out why it has been turned off
C. disassemble it to see what is wrong
D. check the load to see if it is too high
Ans B
Never reapply power to a system unless you know why it has been turned off. Although a
faulty system should be tagged and locked for maintenance, it is possible that someone
may have overlooked this step and it is best to err on the side of caution.
281. Cooling tower fans are dangerous because:

A. the fans are often unguarded
B. the fans are often found at head height
C. they may start without notice
D. all of the above
Ans D
It is crucial to be mindful of the dangers involved in working with fans in cooling towers.
Not even quality protective headgear will stop a 5 horsepower blade.
282. It best to check fan belt tension when:

A. the belt is moving
B. the power is on
C. the power is off
D. the belt is new
Ans C
Belts on fans are moving at high speeds and are capable of coming loose without
warning. Always remove power before examining a belt to prevent injury.
283. In a thermal energy storage system, a tank with ice in it may be opened:
A. if the system is powered off
B. if the technician is wearing protective eyewear
C. if the technician is wearing protective eyewear and a hard hat
D. under no circumstances
Ans D
While there is ice in the tank it is extremely dangerous to even loosen the bolts holding
the tank top because the upward force of the ice against the top may be hundreds of
pounds.
284. It is acceptable to put an air handling unit in the same room as a natural draft boiler
if:
A. the room is large enough to accommodate both units
B. the air flow in the room is enough for both units
C. both A and B
D. it is never safe to do this
Ans D
It is never safe to place an air handling unit in the same room as a natural draft boiler.
The possibility exists that the air handling unit may create a negative pressure and if there
is not enough make-up air, the boiler fire can spread across the floor.
285. It is safest to wear this kind of shirt while working on steam lines:
A. cotton
B. polyester
C. no shirt
D. nylon
Ans A
Never wear polyester as it may melt to your skin in extreme heat. Cotton is the best
choice because it will keep you cool while insulating your skin.
286. Always open steam valves:

A. all at once
B. slowly
C. it doesn't matter how you open steam valves
D. never open steam valves
Ans B
Because steam lines grow when the steam is turned back on, the pipes may break loose if
it is turned on too quickly. Always open valves slowly to insure gradual expansion.
287. Whenever a steam pressure gauge is attached to a steam line, make sure that there is
a ________ in the connector.
A. valve
B. vacuum breaker
C. bracket
D. protective loop
Ans D
A protective loop in the connector will keep the water from getting into the gauge
mechanism and frying the gauge.
288. If you are servicing steam lines which were installed before 1980, there is a good
chance that the insulation contains:
A. amine-based chemicals
B. silica
C. asbestos
D. plaster
Ans C
Asbestos was commonly used on many steam lines prior to its ban in 1980.
289. All fan belts and pulleys in an air handling unit should be protected with a:
A. cowling
B. filter
C. warning sign
D. wall
Ans A
A cowling allows for inspection, but prevents accidental contact.
290. When an air distribution goes into _____________, the exhaust fan tracks above the
supply fan to insure an overall loss of air from a zone.
A. low exhaust mode
B. low intake mode
C. smoke evacuation mode
D. high intake mode
Ans C
While HVAC systems are not designed to be smoke control systems, the may be useful
for controlling smoke control.
291 Filters in a home heating system should be changed:

A. weekly
B. monthly
C. yearly
D. every 3 years
Ans C
When filters become clogged, much of the combustion heat goes up the flue, which not
only leads to an inefficient system, but also possible combustion chamber overheating.
292. Fan belts on rooftop evaporative coolers are _______ in cowlings or protective
enclosures.
A. always
B. never
C. rarely
D. often
Ans C
These fans can start at any time, so it is important to be mindful of where you place your
fingers. Never hold a fan pulley for leverage or support
293. Because many direct systems operate on low voltage, there is no

A. local electrical disconnect
B. motor
C. circuit breaker
D. fan belts
Ans A
When servicing such a device, make sure that the power is off to the circuit breaker and
that the breaker is properly tagged.
294. When you remove a piece of equipment from service it is most important to:
A. tell others it is not operable
B. lock and tag it out
C. return it to service when you can
D. ask for help if you can't fix the problem
Ans B
For safety reasons use local power shut-offs, padlocks, and clearly written tags to identify
the problem and who is responsible for bringing the equipment back on line.
295. If you hear a coupler making a rattling noise during normal operations, the best
thing to do is:
A. listen closely to determine the problem
B. wait until another sign of a problem is seen
C. shut off the pump, lock and tag out the power
D. wait until you have a new coupler, then replace it
Ans C
If a coupler fails, it can come loose with great force. Although most couplers have a
safety shield, it is best to be safe and remove a rattling coupler after locking and tagging
out the power.
296. Always remove _________ from pneumatic valves before removing the actuator
A. air pressure
B. power wiring
C. flex conduit
D. diaphragm
Ans A
If the actuator is loosened while still pressurized, it can cause great bodily harm.
297. Once you have removed the packing on a hot water system and find that the stem is
scratched or gouged, you will need to:
A. replace the packing
B. replace the valve
C. replace the entire system
D. replace the valve stem
Ans D
If in this circumstance you chose not to replace the valve stem, it will be leaking again in
a couple of weeks.
298. Never vent refrigerant directly into the atmosphere. Doing so will cause damage to:
A. the ozone layer
B. the chiller
C. the fans
D. the ductwork
Ans A
Not only is the emission of refrigerant into the atmosphere destructive to the
environment, it is also illegal and wastes money.
299. It is safe to go up on a cooling tower during a windstorm if:

A. you are wearing a harness
B. you have protective headgear
C. both A and B
D. it is never safe to work on a cooling tower in a windstorm
Ans D
Many condensers and cooling towers are located on roofs. It is not safe to be on these
units in either a windstorm or thunderstorm. Lightning is typically attracted to cooling
towers.
300. Because the air around a cooling tower is ___________ it is necessary to be extra
cautious when it is cold outside.
A. cold
B. saturated with water vapor
C. warm
D. hot
Ans B
The water vapor surrounding a cooling tower may adhere to and freeze on any surface in
cold weather. These condition may lead to slippery towers and stairways.

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HEATING, VENTILATION, AND AIR CONDITIONING

300-OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

5. A switchboard which is devoted to just HVAC equipment is called a ___________.

6. Which formula represents the total resistance of series resistors?

7. A step-up transformer ________ the voltage in alternating current circuits.

14. A velometer is used to measure the following:

17. The overall heating capacity of boilers is measured in:

18. The heat rate of a boiler is the:

19. High pressure boilers operate at steam pressures greater than:

21. The required insulating "R" factor for walls is:

27. Large steam systems may contain a DA tank. DA stands for:

31. This type of heat exchanger is often called a converter.

36. This type of damper impedes air leaving a fan:

37. 1 BTU per hour is equal to:

38. 1 boiler HP is equal to:

42. Heat loss is expressed in:

48. The energy savings of a unit are known as:

52. This type of furnace is usually installed in a basement.

59. These connections are used to connect different sized pipes.

63. The most efficient duct type is:

70. This type of furnace is designed for low headroom installations

71. An upflow furnace is designed with an air flow which is essentially:

72. The required insulating "R" factor for a ceiling is:

73. The required insulating "R" factor for walls is:

80 A 12 gauge wire can carry ________ current than a 14 gauge wire.

81 A wire which is identified with RHW is

115. A _________ is a variation of the air-cooled condenser in which the refrigerant

118. In a closed-loop cooling tower the water circulates from a condenser to a:

130. In an air handling unit, dehumidification is done with the:

143. ___________ consist of two air-to-water heat exchangers connected by a

145. The air compartment connected to a duct or ducts is known as the:

150. A __________ is created by arranging an even number of thermocouples.

151. This is one unit of electromotive force

153. This is a unit of electrical resistance:

156. This type of sensor uses a flexible coupling to amplify changes

161. If a valve shows excessive leakage, first see if:

168. Low oil pressure in a chiller usually indicates that:

170. A faulty thermal expansion valve in a chiller compressor may lead to

173. Freon and an open flame together can produce

174. Cooling tower fans are dangerous because:

176. PPE stands for:

177. OSHA stands for:

182. Excessive lubrication in a motor can cause:

183. In a water distribution system, it is safest to see that:

185. A chiller system is:

188. Water treatment in a cooling tower should be checked:

189. Fan motors should be checked:

197. The proving time on a boiler is usually:

207. A faulty electro-hydraulic valve is easy to identify by the:

213. Insufficient make-up air in a boiler room can lead to:

221. In a steam boiler, ________ are used to remove condensate

223. Because steam piping expands when it is heated, it is necessary to install:

227. A cause of zone overheating in a steam distribution system may be:

236. A zone that is too cold usually implies:

244. Outside air enters an air handling unit

250. If the thermostat is in an appropriate place, check to see if:

266. PPE stands for:

267. OSHA stands for:

272. Excessive lubrication in a motor can cause:

273. In a water distribution system, it is safest to see that:

275. A chiller system is:

277. When disassembling large pneumatic valves, follow manufacturer's instructions

281. Cooling tower fans are dangerous because:

282. It best to check fan belt tension when:

Hvacq&a Revised

Hvacq&a Revised