KAMARAJ SPECIAL SCHOOL, CHIDAMBARAM Std : XII Physics Lesson X (One mark questions) 1.

. High frequency waves follow a. ground wave propagation b. line of light direction c. Ionosphere propagation d. the curvature of earth 2. The main purpose of modulation is to a. combine two waves of different frequencies b. acquire wave shaping of career wave c. transmit low frequency wave over long distance efficiently d. to produce side bands 3. In amplitude modulation a. the amplitude of the career wave varies in accordance with the amplitude of modulating signal. b. amplitude of the career wave varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating signal. c. modulating frequency lies in the audio range. 4. In amplitude modulation, the band width is a. equal to the signal frequency b. twice the signal frequency c. thrice the signal frequency d. four times the signal frequency 5. In phase modulation a. only the phase of the career wave varies b. only the frequency of the career wave varies. c. both the phase and frequency of the career wave varies d. there is no change in the frequency 6. The R.F. channel in a radio transmission produces a. audio signals b. high frequency career waves c. both audio signal and high frequency radio wave d. low frequency career wave 7. The purpose of dividing each frame into two fields so as to transmit 50 views of the picture per second is, a. to avoid flicker in the picture b. the fact tat handling of higher frequencies is easier c. that 50 HX is power line frequency in India d. to avoid unwanted noises by the signal 8. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into electrical signals by the process of a. refraction b. scanning c. modulation d. light variation 9. Communication refers to a. sending information b. receiving the information c. processing the information d. sending receiving and processing the information 10. Ground wave propogation takes place a. when the transmitting antenna is close to the earth b. receiving antenna is close to the earth c. when the transmitting and receiving antennas are far off from earth d. when the transmitting and receiving antennas are close to the earth 11. Ground wave propogation is of prime importance a. short wave signals only b. long wave signals only c. medium wave signals only d. medium and long wave signals 12. Space wave propogation is particularly suitable for the frequency a. above 40 MHZ b. below 30 MHZ c. below 20 MHZ d. above 30 MHZ 13. Mechanism involved in sky wave propogation is a. reflection b. refraction c. interference d. polarisation 14. Long distance radio communication is possible though the a. ground wave propogation b. surface wave propogation c. the sky wave propogation d. all the above 15. The refraction index of the varies layers of ionosphere varies with respect to a. electron density only b. frequency of the incident wave only c. electron density and frequency of incident wave d. intensity of the incident wave only 16. Ionosphere consists of a. electrons only b. positive ions only c. negative ions only c. all the above 17. As the ionization density increases while a wave approaches a layer, the refractive index a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant d. becomes equal to 1 18. The part of atmosphere up to 15 km from earth is called a. stratosphere b. troposphere c. ionosphere d. chromosphere 19. Music, speech etc are converted into audiosignals using a. level speaker b. photo cell c. diode d. microphone 20. Electrical signals are converted sound using a. diode b. microsphere c. loudspeaker d. photocells 21. Audio frequency range is a. 20 to 200000 HZ b. 20 to 20000HZ c. 20 to 2000000HZ d. 20 to 2000HZ 22. Human voice and music contain waves with frequency range of a. 3 to 30 HZ b. 30 to 300 HZ c. 3000 to 30000HZ d. 300 to 3000HZ 23. The radiation of electrical energy is practicable only at a. low frequency b. very low frequency c. microwave frequency d. high frequency 24. Which signals can be sent through thousands of kilometers with comparatively small power a. audio signals b. video signals c. high frequency signals d. low frequency signals 25. In amplitude modulation, which is changed according to intensity of signal a. frequency of career wave b. phase of the career wave c. both frequency and phase of career wave d. amplitude of career wave 26. The factor that determines the strength of quality of the transmitted signal is a. in factor b. frequency of career wave c. frequency of modulating d. modulation factor 27. For effective modulation, the degree of modulation should a. exceed 100% b. exceed 200% c. never exceed 50 % d. never exceed 100% 28. The magnitude of amplitude of both upper and lower side band is m m a. 2 times career amplitude b. of career amplitude c. times career amplitude d. times 2 2 career 29. If the modulation factor is unity, the magnifier of amplitude of upper and lower side band a. twice the career amplitude b. half the career amplitude

1 times career amplitude 2 30. Which modulation facilitates highest transmission speed on a given bandwidth a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. phase modulation d. all the above 31. For the propose of coupling the transmitter and receiver to the space link, we use, a. amplifier b. oscillator c. antenna d. FAX 32. Transmitting antenna converts the a. electrical signal into electrical energy b. electrical signal into magnetic energy c. electrical signal into electromagnetic energy d. electromagnetic energy into electrical signals 33. Receiving antenna converts the a. electrical signal into electromagnetic b. electrical signal into electrical energy c. electrical signal into magnetic energy d. electromagnetic energy into electrical singal 34. The ability to amplify the weak signal is known as a. sensitivity b. selectivity c. fidelity d. compatibility 35. The intermediate frequency used in radio receiver is a. 10.7 MHZ b. 455 KHZ c. 475 KHZ d. 455 HZ 36. For super hetrodyne FM receiver the intermediate frequency is a. 455 HZ b. 455 KHZ c. 10.7 MHZ d. 45 KHZ 37. For commercial FM broadcast the frequency deviation sound signal is a. 25 KHZ b. 50 KHZ c. 75 KHZ d. 100 KHZ 38. In T.V. transmission sound signals are a. amplitude modulated b. frequency modulated c. phase modulated d. none of the above 39. T.V. transmission picture signals are a. amplitude modulated b. frequency modulated c. phase modulated d. none of the above 40. Vidicon camera tube works on a. photoconductivity b. thermoelectric effect c. thermionic emission d. seeback effect 41. When exposed to light the resistivity of the photo conducting material a. decreases b. increases c. increases or decreases d. is not altered 42. In vidicon camera tube the front face of the camera tube is coated with a. antimony disulphide b. aluminium oxide c. zinc sulphide d. trioxide 43. In vidicon camera to be, on the back side of the target plate is coated with photo sensitive material a. antimony trifluoride b. zinc sulphide c. tin oxide d. aluminium oxide 44. The frequency of scanning is a. 20 per second b. 25 per second c. 50 per second d. 100 per second 45. How many synchronizing pulses are used for scanning? a. one b. two c. three d. four 46. In 625 live system, the horizontal frequency of scanning is a. 625 HZ b. 525 HZ c. 50 HZ d. 15625 HZ 47. In 625 line system, the time taken to scan one horizontal line is a. 6.4 s b. 64 s c. 0.064 s d. 0.64 s 48. In interlaced scanning the vertical scanning frequency is a. 10 fields / sec b. 25 fields per second c. 50 fields / sec d. 100 fields per second 49. In CCIR standard the channel with for T.V transmission is a. 3.5 MHZ b. 38.9 MHZ c. 33.4 MHZ d. 7 MHZ 50. A modem is used for a. modulation only b. demodulation only c. modulation and demodulation d. printing the information 51. In T.V. transmission, the picture should not be scanned a. vertical scanning pulse b. horizontal scanning pulse c. blanking pulse d. triggering pulse 52 Optical fiber works on the principal of a. total internal reflection b. refraction c. reflection d. polarization 53. Satellite orbiting the earth will be at a height of a. 36000 km b. 3600 km from earth c. 360 km from earth d. 36 km from earth 54. For uplink transmission commercial communication satellites are, a. 5 MHZ band with near 6 GHZ b. 50 MHZ band with near 6 GHZ c. 500 MHZ band with near 6 GHZ d. 500 MHZ band with near 6 GHZ 55. In downlink transmission commercial communication satellites are, a. 500 MHZ band with near 4 GHZ b. 50 MHZ band with near 4 GHZ c. 500 MHZ band with near 5 MHZ d. 5 MHZ band with near 4 GHZ 56. In actual practice the band with used for uplink transmission by the satellite a. 5.725 to 0.075 GHZ b. 3.4 to 4.8 GHZ c. 6.725 to 7.075 GHZ d. 5.725 to 6.075 GHZ 57. In actual practice the band with used for downlink transmission by satellite a. 5.725 to 7.075 GHZ b. 3.4 to 4.8 GHZ c. 6.725 to 7.075 GHZ d. 5.725 to 6.075 GHZ 58. To avoid interference the downlink frequency should be away from uplink frequency by an interval a. 2 GHZ b. 3 GHZ c. 4 GHZ d. 5 GHZ 59. The gain of the amplifier the mid frequency region is 200. The gain of the amplifier at lever cut off frequency is a. 20 b. 100 c. 141.4 d. 282.2 60. If 900 KHZ station is tuned then the local oscillation will have to produce then a frequency of a. 600 KHZ b. 455 KHZ c. 10.7 KHZ d. 1355 KHZ 61. A carrier of 5 KHZ sinusoidal wave of amplitude 10mv is modulated by a 5 KHZ sinusoidal audio signal wave of amplitude 6mv find the upper and lover side band a. 4.995 and 5.005 MHZ b. 9.995 MHZ to 10.005 MHZ c. 4.5 MHZ to 5.5 MHZ d. 10 MHZ to 15 MHZ 62. A carrier wave of amplitude 10 mv is modulated by a sinusoidal audio singal wave of amplitude 6 mv. The modulation factor is a. 0.6 b. 6 c. 60 d. 0.06
c.
2 times career amplitude

d.

KAMARAJ SPECIAL SCHOOL, CHIDAMBARAM Std : XII Physics Lesson IX (One mark questions) 1. Electrons in the atom of an element which determine the chemical and electrical properties are called a) Valence electrons b) Revolving electrons c) Excess electrons d) Active electrons 2. In an N - Type semiconductor, there are a) Immobile negative ions b) No minority carriers c) Immobile positive ions d) Holes are majority carriers. 3. In a P-Type semiconductor, there are a) Immobile negative ions b) No minority carriers c) Immobile positive ions d) Electrons are majority carriers 4. The reverse saturation current in a P-N junction diode is only due to a) majority carriers b)minority carriers ) acceptor ions d)donar ions 5. In P- Type semiconductor, a) electrons are majority carriers b)holes are majority c arriers c)holes are minority carriers d)immobile positive ions are majority carriers. 6. In N- Type semiconductor , a) electrons are majority current carriers b) holes are majority current carriers c) immobile negative ions d) electrons are minority carriers 7. In the forward bias characteristic curve a diode appears as a) A high resistance b) a capacitor c)an OFF switch d)an ON switch 8. Zener breakdown is primarily due to a) collision b) ionization c)breaking of bonds in high electric field d) none by the above 9. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on a) collision b) ionosation c)doping d)recombination 10. The colour of light emmited by LED depends on a) the reverse bias b)the amount of forward current c) The forward bias d) type of semi-conductor material 11. The emmiter-base junction is forward biased, the collector-base junction is reverse biased. If the base current is increased, then its a) VCE will increase b) Ic will decrease c)Ic will increase d) Vcc will decrease 12. Improper biassing of a transistor circuit produces a) heavy leakage of emitter current b)distorsion in the output signal c)excessive heal at collector terminal d) faulty location of load line 13. An oscillation is a) an amplifier with feedback b) a convertor of AC into Dc energy c) nothing but an amplifier d)an amplifier without feed back 14. In a colpit oscillator circuit a) Caparitance feed back is used b) tapped coil is used c) no turned LC circuit is used d) no capacitor is used 15. Since the input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite a) Input current is zero b) the output resistance is high c) the output voltage becomes independent of load resistance d) it becomes a current controlled device 16. The following arrangement performs the logic function of a) AND b) OR c) NAND d)EX-OR 17. The output Y of the following circuit is 1, if ABC must be a)0 1 0 b)1 0 0 c)1 0 1 d) 10 0 18. According to the law of Boolean algebra (A+Ab) is equal to a)A b)AB c)B d)A 19. The Boolean expression A C can be simplified to B a) AB + c b) A . B . C c) AB + BC + CA d. A + B + C 20. A solid state device mainly consists of a a) conducting material b) insulating material c) semiconducting material d)super conducting material 21. Resistively of a semiconductor a) greater than that of conducting material b) less than that of conducting material c) similar to that of insulator d) equal to that of conductor 22. Of the following which is wrong? a. Resistively of semi conductors is approximating 10-2 to 104 ohm - meter b. Resistance of semi conducting devices decreases with increase of temperature c. Resistance of a conductor increases with increases of temperature d. Resistively of a conductor lies between 102 to 104 ohm meter. 23. The resistively of a conductor is a. 10-6 to 10-8 ohm meter b. 10-2 to 104 ohm meter c. 108 to 1014 ohm meter d. 10-8 to 10-14 ohm meter 24. Resistively of an insulator lies between a. 10-2 to 104 ohm meter b. 10-6 to 10-8 ohm meter c. 108 to 1014 ohm meter d. 10-8 to 10-14 ohm meter 25. Resistively of a semi conductor lies between a. 10-2 to 104 ohm meter b. 108 to 1014 ohm meter c. 10-6 to 10-8 ohm meter d. 10-8 to 10-14 ohm meter 26. An example of semi conductor is a. Fe b. Co c. Ni d. Ge 27. An example of semi conductor is a. Fe b. Ni c. Cu d. In 28. An example of semi conductor is a. Ni b. Ge c. Si d. both b and c 29. For an insulator the energy gap is a. less than 3ev b. less than 0.7 ev c. more than 3ev d. 0.7ev 30. For a semi conductor germanium, the energy gap is a. 1.1 ev b. 0.7 ev c. 3 ev d. above 3 ev

31. For Si the forbidden energy gap is a. 0.7 ev b. 1.1 ev c. 3 ev d. more than 3 ev 32. For conductors the energy gap is a. 0.7 ev b. 1.1 ev c. more than 3 ev d. no energy gap 33. In glass the forbidden energy gap is of the order of a. 3 ev b. 6 ev c. 10 ev d. 0.7 ev 34. Electrons in an intrinsic semi conductor which more into conduction bond at high temperatures are called a. valence electrons b. hole c. donor d. intrinsic carrier 35. In intrinsic semi conductors a. number of free electrons is equal to number of holes b. no. of free electrons is more than the number of holes c. number of free electrons is less then the number of holes d. number of free electrons is zero 36. Amount of imparity atoms to be added to an intrinsic semi conductor is of the order of a. 50ppm b. 100 ppm c. 500 ppm d. 1000 ppm 37. Donor atom is a a. trivalent b. tetravalent c. pentavalent d. divalent 38. Acceptor atom is a a. trivalent b. tetravalent c. pentavalent d. divalent 39. Of the following donor atoms are a. Si and Ge b. Aluminium and gallium c. Bismuth and arsenic d. boron and Indium 40. Of the following accepter atoms are a. Si and Ge b. Aluminium and gallium c. Bismuth and arsenic d. Boron and Aluminium 41. The follering is an example of acceptor atom a. Al b. Bi c. P d. As 42. The difference of potential from are side of the barrier to the other side of a PN junction diode is known as, a. depletion region b. potential gradient c. potential barrier d. contact 43. The potential barrier in a PN javention dilate deports on a. Of electrons b. number of holes c. potential difference d. nature of the material 44. In forward biased P-N junction diode a. potential barrier is reduced b. potential barrier is increased c. Width of the potential barrier is increased d. potential barrier remains the same 45. Rectifier efficiency of a half wave rectifier is a. 60.4% b. 81.2% c. 40.6% d. 30.2% 46. Rectifier efficiency of a full wave rectifier is a. 60.4% b. 81.2% c. 40.6% d. 30.2% 47. Variation of d.c. output voltage as a function of d.c. load current is called a. rectification b. filter c. regulation d. full wave rectification 48. Percentage of regulation is known as, Vnoload Vload Vnoload Vload Vload Vnoload V Vload X 100 b. noload X 100 X 100 a. c. d. Vnoloade Vloade Vloade 100 49. Zener diodes are used as a. rectifiers b. filters c. regulators d. amplifiers 50. Sever current is a. dependent on applied voltage b. independent of applied voltage c. dependent on the material of the diode d. dependent on knee voltage 51. A reverse biased heavily doped semi conductor PN junction diode is a. LED b. LCD c. zener diode d. transistor 52. A diode working in what region can act as a voltage regulator a. normal b. saturated c. break down d. constant voltage 53. The reverse saturation current in a PN junction diode is only due to a. majority carriers b. Minority carriers c. acceptor ions d. denar ions 54. A forward biased diode will act as a. a high resistance device b. a capacitor c. an off switch d. an ON switch 55. During the normal operation of a transistor, if base current is increased then its a. VCE will increase b. IC will increase c. IC will decrease d. VCC will increase 56. The mani feaction of the emitter is to supply, a. electrons b. majority current carriers c. holes d. minority current carriers 57. In any transistor, which of the following is true IB IE a. I E = b. IC = IE + IB c. IE = IB + IC d. I C = IC IB 58. Ratio of collection current to emitter current is a. b. c. A d. A 59. Value of in terms of is given by 1 + 1 a. = b. = c. = d. = 1 + 1 60. The value of in terms of is 1 + 1 a. = b. = c. = d. = 1 1 + 61. The value of in any transistor lies between a. 50 to 300 b. up to 1000 c. 0 to 9 d. 0.95 to 0.99 in a transistor lies between 62. The value of a. 50 to 300 b. 0.95 to 0.99 c. 0 to 9 d. 0 to 50

63. The value of

a. input impedance b. output impedance c. current gain d. current gain 64. Common emitter configuration has a. high input impedance b. high current gain c. high voltage gain d. all the above 65. In CE amplifiers the phase reversal between input and output voltages is a. 0o b. 90o c. 180o d. 270o 66. The most widely used method of providing bias and stabilization of transistor a. base bias b. base bias with emitter feed back c. base bias with collector feed back d. voltage divider bias 67. Voltage gain of R.C coupled amplifiers depends on a. Current range b. voltage range c. frequency range d. phase range 68. The voltage gain of the amplifiers is constant at, a. low frequency range b. high frequency range c. both low and high frequency range d. mid frequency range 69. At lower and upper cut off frequency the gain of the amplifier is a. two times mid frequency gain b. 2 times mid frequency gain 1 1 c. times mid frequency gain d. times mid frequency gain 2 2 70. When a number of amplifiers are cascaded the over all voltage gain is equal to a. sum of the voltage gain b. difference of voltage gain c. product of voltage gain d. mean of voltage gain 71. When a fraction of of output voltage is fed into the input, the new input voltage will be 1 1 1 1 a. Vi = Vi + Vo b. Vi = Vi Vo c. Vi = Vi Vo d. Vi = Vi + 2Vo 72. Voltage gain of the amplifier with positive feed back A A 1 A 1 + A a. b. c. d. 1 + A 1 A A A 73. Essential condition for the maintenance of oscillation 1 1 a. = with positive feed back b. = with negative feed back A A c. = 1 with positive feed back d. = A with negative feed back 74. The value of

VBE I B

is called

VBE I B

is called
c. input admittance c. f = d. output admittance d. f =

a. input impedance b. output impedance 75. Frequency of oscillation of a colpilies oscillator is 1 1 a. f = b. f = 2 C1C 2 2 ( L1 + L2 + 2 M ) C

1 2

C1C 2 C1 + C 2

1 2

C1 + C 2 (C1C 2 ) L

76. Operational amplifier consists of a. 20 transistors, 11 resistors and 1 capacitor b. 20 resistors and 11 transistor and 1 capacitor c. 20 capacitors, 11 resistors and 1 transistor d. 20 transistor, 11 capacitors and one resistor =0.95, IE = 1 mA, then collector current is 77. In C B connection a. 0.05 mA b. 0.95 mA c. 1.05 mA d. 0.1 mA 78. In a transistor, = 0.99, is a. 49 b. 90 ` c. 99 d. 9.9 T = 25 collector current is A 79. In a transistor, = 40, a. 100 A b. 1000 A c. 1mA d. 0.1 mA 80. In a transistor in C B mode IC = 12.5mA, IE = 13 mA, then T is a. 25.5 mA b. 0.5 mA c. 50 mA d. 50 A = 100 then VBE required for collector of 1 mA 81. The input impedance of a transistor is 1000 ohms and a. 1 V b. 199 mV c. 10mV d. 1 mV 82. In CE configuration IC changes from 2 mA to 4mA, When VCE is increased from 5 to 10v then the output impedance is a. 1 kito ohm b. 1.5 ohm c. 2.0k ohm d. 2.5k ohm 83. Three amplifiers have gains 10, 50 and 80 respectively. When they are connected in cascades the overall gain is a. 4000 b. 400 c. 40000 d. 140 84. The inductor of inductance oscillation a. 5mH 85. Find voltage at point B a. 1.7v

1 H and as capacitor 4 Df are in parallel to form LC circuit then frequency of 4 2

b. 0.5 MHZ c. 50MHZ d. 500MHZ

b. 2.0v

c. 2.9v

d. 3.7v

KAMARAJ SPECIAL SCHOOL, CHIDAMBARAM Std : XII Physics Lesson I (One mark questions) 1. A glass rod with silk acquires a charge of +8 x 10-12C. The number of electrons, it has gained or lost is a. 5 x 10-7 gained b. 5 x 107 lost c. 2 x 10-8 lost d. -8 x 10-12 lost 2. The electrostatic force between two point charges kept at a distance d apart in a medium r = 6 is 0.3N. The force between them for the same separation in vacuum is a. 20N b. 0.5N c. 1.8N d. 2 N 3. Electric field intensity is 400 Vm-1 at a distance of 2m from a point charge. It will be 100 Vm-1 at a distance of a. 30 cms b. 4 cm c. 4 m d. 1.5 m 4. Two point charges +4q and +q are placed at 30cms apart. At what print on the line joining them the electric field is zero? a. 15 cms from charge q b. 7.5 cms from charge q c. 20 cms from the charge 4q d. 5 cms from charge q 5. A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with its axis parallel to the field. It experiences. a. only a net force b. only a torque c. both a net force and torque d. neither a net force nor a torque 6. If a point lies at a distance x from the mid print of a dipole, the electric potential at that point is proportional to a.

1 x2

b.

1 x

c.

1 x3

1
d.
3

x2

7. Four charges +q, +q, -q and q are placed at the corners of A, B, C and D of a square of side a. The electric potential at the centre of the square is q 2q 4q a. b. c. d. zero 4 0 a t 4 0 a t 4 0 a t 8. The electric potential energy U of two point charges is, q1 q 2 q1 q 2 a. b. c. PE cos d. PE sin 2 4t 0 r 4t 0 r

9. The work done in moving 500 C charge between two points on an equipotent surface is, a. zero b. finite positive c. finite negative d. infinite 10. Which of the following quantities is a scular a. dipole moment b. electric force c. electric field d. electric potential is 11. The electric field outside the plates of two oppositely charged plane sheets of charge dencity + a. b. c. d. zero 2t o 2t o to 12. The unit of permi9ttivity is a. C2N-1m-2 b. Nm2C-2 c. Hm-1 d. Nc-1m-2 13. The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge 1 C is a. 1.129 x 1011 b. 1.6 x 10-19 c. 0.25 x 1018 d. 8.8 x 1012 14. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases from 5 f to 60 f when a diabetic constant of the dielectrics is a. 65 b. 55 c. 12 d. 10 15. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points a. outside the sphere b. on its surface c. inside the sphere d. at a distance more than twice the radius 16. If two charged bodies of charges +2q and -5q are brought in contact the total charge of the system is a. +3q b. -3q c. zero d. either +2q or -5q 17. Unit of electric field intensity a. NC-1 b. NC-1 m-2 c. Cm d. volt 18. The unit of electric charge is volt sec ond a. coulomb b. ampere second c. d. all the above ohm 19. Which one of the following is an insulator? a. human body b. earth c. copper d. ebonite 20. Electrical dipolemonent always acts from a. q to q b. +q to q c. to +q d. to q 21. A device to store charges is a. resistor b. conductor c. inductor d. capacitor 22. When a dipole is aligned with axis parallel to the field then the potential energy is given by a. PE sin b. zero c. PE d. PE cos 23. Work done in moving a charge in an equipotent surface is a. zero b. minimum c. maximum d. infinity 24. Which of the following is not a polar molecule? a. H2O b. CO2 c. HCl d. O2 25. Relative permittivity of vacuum a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0 26. Van de graff generator can produce a potential difference of a. 109 V b. 108 V c. 107 V d. 106 V 27. Potential at a point due to a point charge is q q q2 q2 a. b. c. d. 2 4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 r 2 28. Dielectric is also called as a. conductor b. insulator c. resistor d. inductor 29. Permittivity of vocuum is

a.

30. The permittivity of a medium is Eo a. b. Eo + Er Er 31. Electric field intensity at any point is given by, a. E = Fq b. E =
F q

1 1 C2 N-1 m-2 b. C-2 N-1 m-2 9 4 9 10 4 9 10 9

c. 9 x 109 C2 N-1 m-2

d. 9 x 109 C-2 N-1 m-2

c. EoEr q F

d. Eo - Er

c. E =

d. E = F . q

32. Unit of electric flux a. N m2 C-1 b. N m2 C-2 c. N m C2 d. N m-2 C2 33. Lightning conductor works on the principle of a. corona discharge b. action of sharp points c. a or b d. none 34. According to Garss law, q q a. = b. q = c. = d. = q + o o o o 35. A device not working on the principal of electrostatic induction a. van de graff generator b. microwave oven c. a or b d. lighting 36. When two capacitors are connected in series to a source of emf then each of them will have the same a. voltage b. electric field c. both a and b d. charge 37. If medium between two charges is replaced by air, then the force between them a. increases b. decreases c. becomes zero d. remains constant 38. If a Grausssian surface encloses a dipole 2qd, then the total flux through the surface is a.
q o

b.

2q o

c.

q 2 o

d. zero

39. Action of points is used in a. dynamo b. lightning conductor c. van de graff generator d. both b and c 40. When air medium in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of dielectric r, then the capacity a. decreases r times b. increases r times c. remains content d. increases r2 times 41. An example of polar molecule is a. N2 b. H2 c. O2 d. H2O 42. If a dipole is placed at angle in a non-uniform magnetic field, a. there is net force only b. there is a torque only c. there is a net force in addition to torque d. there is neither a net force nor a torque 43. Two charges 10-6 and 10-7 repel each other with a force of 400N. The distance between them is a. 0.16mm b. 1.5 mm c. 15 mm d. 0.5 m 44. The potential difference between two paralled plates of parallel plate capacitor is 100 V. Electric field between them is 104 v/m. The distance between them is, a. 1 mm b. 1 m c. 10 cm d. 1 cm 45. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by a distance of 1 mm of the capacitance is 8.854 f then the area of the plates is a. 10-3 m2 b. 10 m2 c. 103 m2 d. 10-2 m2 46. The work done in moving a charge of 2 c between two points having different potentials 110 V and 220 V is a. 22 x 10-4 J b. 2.2 x 104 J c. 22 x 104 J d. 2.2 x 10-4 J 47. Two capacitors of capacitance 200 pf and 600 pf are in parallel and then charges to a potential of 120V then the value of total charge a. 24 x 10-9 C b. 96 x 10-9 C c. 48 x 10-9 C d. 72 x 10-9 C 48. The intensity of electric field that produce a force of 10N on a charge 5 C is a. 2 N C-1 b. 50 N C-1 c. 5 N C-1 d. 0.5 N C-1 49. If two identical point charges separated by 3m experience a force of 10 N, then the value of each charge is a. 0.1 C b. 10 C c. 1 C d. 10-4 C -9 50. The moment of an electric dipole is 1.2 x 10 cm. The charge of dipole a. 3.6 C b. 40 C c. 3.6 x 10-12 C d. 0.4 C f. The capacity of one is 4 f, the value of the other is 51. The equivalent capacitance of two capacitors in series is 1.5 a. 2.4 f b. 0.24 f c. 0.417 f d. 4.17 f 52. In the circuit below, the value of each capacitor is 1 f, the effective capacity between the points P and Q is

3 2 5 2 f b. f c. f d. f 2 5 6 3 53. If a capacitor of capacitance 55pf is charged to 1.6v, then the number of charges on the negative plate is a. 55 x 107 b. 5.5 x 107 c. 550 x 107 d. 0.55 x 107 KAMARAJ SPECIAL SCHOOL, CHIDAMBARAM Std : XII Physics Lesson II (One mark questions)

a.

1. A charge of 60C passes through an electric lamp for 2 minutes. Then the current through the lamp is a. 30 A b. 1A c. 0.5 A d. 5 A 2. The material through which electric current can flow easily a. quartz b. mica c. germanium d. copper 3. The current flowing through a conductor is proportional to 1 1 a. drift velocity b. c. d. square of area of cross section area of cross section number of electrons 4. A toaster operating at 240V has a resistance of 120 ohms. The power is, a. 400w b. 2w c. 480w d. 240w 5. If a certain length of a copper wire has certain resistance R, then on doubling the length, is specific resistance 1 th a. will be doubbed b. will become c. will become 4 times d. will remain the same 4 6. When two 2 ohm resistances are in parallel the effective resistance is a. 2 ohm b. 4ohm c. 1 ohm d. 0.5 ohm 7. In the case of insulators, as the temperature decreases, resistivity a. decreases b. increases c. remains constant d. becomes zero 8. According the Faradays Law of electrolysis, when a current is passed the mass of ions deposited on the electrode is independent of a. current b. charge c. time d. resistance 9. When n resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the effective resistance is n R 1 a. b. c. d. nR R n nR 10. When n resistors of equal resistance R are connected in parallel, the effective resistance is n R 1 a. b. c. d. nR R n nR 11. Free electrons are very loosely attached to the a. nuclei b. protons c. atoms d. neutrons 12. The thermodynamic internal energy of the materials is sufficient to liberate a. inner electrons b. outer electrons c. protons d. neutrons 13. The external energy required to drive the free electrons in a definite direction is called a. current b. resistance c. emf d. power 14. If a charge of q coulomb passes through a conductor in time I seconds, then the current is given by, t 1 q a. I = qt b. I = c. I = d. I = q q t t 15. Force experienced by a free electron in an electric field E is e E a. Ee b. c. d. Ee2 E e 16. Accebration experienced by a free electron of mass m and charge e in an electric field E is eT eE E m a. a = b. c. d. m m m e 17. Expression for mobility is E e E e m e T a. b. c. d. m m m T 18. The unit of mobility is _____ a. m2VS-1 b. m2V-1S c. m2V-1S-1 d. m-2VS-1 19. Drift velocity of electron is proportioned to a. electric field on intensity b. charge of protons c. are of the conductor d. none of these 20. Drift of the electrons is of the order of a. 0.2 cm b. 0.1 cm / sec c. 0.1 m s-1 d. 1cm / sec 21. Unit of current density is a. Am-2 b. Am-1 c. Am d. mA-2 22. The relation between current and drift velocity is a. I = nJe v d b. I =

Aev d n

c. I = nA v d e c. v d = neJA c. R =

d. I = ne v d d. I = ne v d
nAe 2 m L

23. Relation between current density and drift velocity a. I = Jne v d b. v d = Jne 24. Expression for electrical resistance R is a. R =

25. The current through a conductor is proportional to a. length of conductor b. charge of conductor 26. Reciprocal of resistance is a. resistively b. conductivity 27. Unit of conductance is a. ohm b. ohm meter 28. Unit of resistively is a. ohm b. ohm meter 29. Unit of conductivity is a. ohm b. ohm meter

mLv nAe 2

mL nAe 2

b. R =

nL mAe 2

d. R =

c. e2 c. conductance c. mho c. mho c. mho

d. e3 d. inductance d. mho met-1 d. mho met-1 d. mho met-1

30. The resistance of a conductor of unit length having unit area of gross section a. conductance b. capacitance c. resistivity d. conductivity 31. The reciprocal of resistively is a. conductance b. inductance c. resistivity d. conductivity 32. The conductivity of a material is obtained by the relation RA LA L lA a. = b. = c. = d. = L R RA R 33. Materials having resistivity of the order of 10-6 ohm meter to 10-8 ohm meter are a. insulator b. conductors c. semi conductors d. none of the above 34. Resistivity of conductors of the order of 108 ohm meter to 1014 ohm meter are called a. insulators b. conductors c. semi conductors d. none of these 35. Semi conductors have resistivity of the order of a. 108 to 1014 ohm meta b. 10-6 to 10-8 ohm meta c. 10-2 to 104 ohm meter d. 10-2 to 10+2 ohm meta 36. Resistively of mercury is zero at a. 2.4 K b. 4.2 K c. 2.4oC d. 4.2oC 37. At transition temperature the electrical resistivity drops to a. zero b. maximum c. just above zero d. none of these 38. At transition temperature, the conductivity becomes, a. zero b. infinity c. maximum d. none of these 39. The care of the carbon resistance is made of a. carbon b. silver c. ceramic d. iron 40. The tolerone of silver, gold, red and brown in carbon resistors are respectively. a. 1%, 2%, 5% and 10% b. 10%, 2%, 5%, 1% c. 10%, 5%, 1% and 2% d. 10%, 5%, 2%, 1% 41. The tolerance of carbon resistor without a colour ring is a. 20% b. 10% c. 2% d. 25% 42. Colour code for 1 in carbon resistors is, a. Black b. brown c. silver d. red 43. In the carbon resistor, the third coloured ring indicates a. fist significant figure b. tolerance c. power of 10 to be multiplied d. second significant figure 44. The formula for effective resistance for several resistances in series is 1 1 1 1 1 1 a. Rs = + b. = R1 + R2 c. = + d. Rs = R1 + R2 R1 R2 RS RS R1 R2 45. The reciprocal of effective resistance of resistances in parallel is R1 1 1 1 1 1 a. RP =R1 + R2 b. = + c. = R1 + R2 d. = RP R1 R2 RP RP R2 46. The effective resistance of two resistances in parallel is R1 R2 R1 + R2 1 1 a. RP = b. RP = c. RP = d. RP = R1 + R2 R1 R2 R1 + R2 R1 R2 47. If Ro and Rt are the resistances of a conductor at 0oC then temperature coefficient of resistance is, Ro E R o Rt Rc Rt Rt R o a. = b. c. d. Ro Rt Ro t Ro t Rc t 48. If the resistance of a material increases with temperature them the temperature coefficient of resistance is a. zero b. negative c. positive d. none of these 49. The temperature coefficient of resistance for insulators and semi conductors a. positive b. negative c. low d. zero 50. The material with negative temperature coefficient of resistance is called a. metal b. alloy c. thermistor d. thermometer 51. Due to ageing, the internal resistance of a cell a. increases b. decreases c. does not change d. becomes zero 52. The temperature coefficient of resistance for managain and constantan is a. infinity b. high c. low d. high 53. The internal resistance of a cell can be calculated using the formula, E V E V E V E t R R R R a. r = b. r = c. r = d. r = I V E I 54. The condition for bridge balance in wheatstones bridge is a.
P R = S Q

b. PR = QS

c. PS = QR c. P = V2R b. I2R

d. PR = RS d. P = I2Rt c. V2Rt d.
V2 Rt

55. Equation for electric power is a. P = Vit b. P = VI 56. Equation for electriced energy a. I2Rt

57. One kilo watt hour is equal is a. 3.6 x 105J b. 0.36 x 105J c. 36 x 105J d. x 103J 58. The positive ions which are mostly formed from metals or hydrogen are called a. anions b. cations c. positive particles d. atoms 59. When one ccorclemeb of charge is passed through an electrolyte, the mass of the substance liberated is called a. a weight b. electro chemical equivalent c. current d. electrical resistance 60. Unit of electro chemical equivalent is a. CKg-1 b. KgC c. KgC-2 d. KgC-1 61. The electrodes used in voltaic cell are

a. Cu, Zn b. Cu, Fe c. Fe Zn d. Cu, C 62. The potential difference between the two electrodes of voltaic cell are a. 1.5V b. 1.8V c. 1.08V d. 1.58V 63. The emf of lechleanche cell is a. 1.08V b. 1.5V c. 1.05V d. 1.1V 64. Lechlanche cell can supply a current of a. 0.25A b. 0.5A c. 2.5A d. 5.2A 65. In secondary cell, the process of producing active materials is called a. charging b. discharging c. specific gravity d. internal resistance 66. Electrolyte used in lead acid accumulator is a. lead acid b. HCl c. dilute H2SO4 d. HNO3 67. The electrolyte used in lechlanche cell is a. dil H2SO4 b. NH4Cl c. HCl d. HNO3 68. The EMF of lead acid accumulator under freshly charged and discharge condition are a. 2.2V and 2 V b. 2 V and 2.2 V c. 2.2V and 1.35V d. 2V and 1.35V 69. The value of EMF developed and specific gravity of the electrolyte in lead accumulator are a. 1.95V and 1.35 b. 2.2V and 1.35 c. 1.35V and 1.9 d. 2.2V and 1.28 70. While on charging and discharging the specific gravity of the electrolyte in lead acid accumulator are a. 1.28V and 1.12 b. 1.12 and 1.28 c. 1.9 and 1.28 d. 2 and 2.2 71. A charge of 1 C passes through an electrical equipment in 10s, then the current flowing through it is a. 0.54 b. 1A c. 0.1A d. 10a 72. The making of at the bottom of a take recordor are 9V, 450mA. Then the net resistance of the tape recorder. 1 a. 20ohm b. 200ohm c. 2 ohm d. ohm 20 73. An electrical instrument of R = 30 ohms is operated at 240V. The power is a. 240W b. 1290W c. 920W d. 1920W 74. If two resistance of 200 ohm and 0.1 kilo ohm are in series, the efficiencies resistance is a. 200.1ohm b. 300 ohm c. 201 kilo ohms d. 2.1 K. ohms 75. If 6.25 x 1018 electrons flow through a conductor in unit time, then the current is a. 1A b. 2A c. 0.1A d. 0.04A 76. An electric lamp is operated at 240V and the current is 0.5A, then the resistance of lamp is a. 840 ohm b. 480 ohm c. 240 ohm d. 380 ohm 77. A cell has a potential difference of 6 V in open circuit. It drops to 4 V what is internal resistance of cell? When a current of 0.2A is drown a. 1 ohm b. 10 ohm c. 0.1 ohm d. 2 ohms 2 78. The resistance of a wire of 1m length and area 0.034 mm cross section & resistivity 1.7 x 10-8 ohm meter is a. 0.5 ohm b. 5.0 ohm c. 2 ohm d. 0.05 ohm 79. The number of electrons flowing per second flowing through a conductor carrying a current of 3.2 A is a. 2 x 1019 b. 3 x 1018 c. 6.25 x 1018 d. 6.25 x 1019 80. A 1.5 KW and 230V water heater can draw a current of a. 2A b. 0.2A c. 5A d. 0.5A 81. The ratio of diameters of two copper wires of 2m and 8m having equal resistances is, a. 2 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 2 : 8 d. 1 : 6 82. Three resistances of values, 10 ohms , 2ohms and 3ohms are connected to form the sides of a triangle, AB, BC and CA respectively. The effectiv3e resist between A and B is a. 3.33 ohms b. 2.33ohms c. 3.5 ohms d. 3.9 ohms 83. In wheatstones bridge under bridge balance condition, the four resistances of the four arms in cylic order a. 5, 10, 4, 8 b. 5, 10, 8, 4 c. 5, 8, 10, 4 d. 5, 4, 8, 10 84. Two resistances 6 ohm and 4 ohm are connected in parallel and the combination is connected in series with a resist of 2.6 ohms and an accumulator of emf 2v. The current in the circuit is 5 5 2 A A A a. b. c. d. 5A 2 4 5 85. In a meter bridge a resistance of 5 ohm in the right gap, the ratio of balancing length is 3 : 2. The value of other resistance is 1 0 1 0 1 5 3 a. ohm b. ohm c. ohm d. ohm 3 9 2 5 86. In potentiometer experiments, the balancing lengths of two cells are 250 cms & 750 cms respectively. EMF of I cell is 2V. Then EMF of II cell is 2 3 a. 6V b. 4V c. V d. V 3 2 87. A 750 W iron box is used for 4 hours. If the cost per unit is 75 paise, the total expense is a. Rs. 22.50 b. Rs. 5.25 c. Rs. 2.25 d. Rs. 3.00 88. Value of a carbon resistor with the colour code yellow, violet, orange is a. 37 kilo ohms b. 47 kilo ohms c. 4.7 ohms d. 3.7 kilo ohms 89. The value of a carbon resistor is 33 K. ohms. The colour code is a. brown, yellow, orange b. yellow, orange, red c. red, blue, orange d. orange, orange, orange 90. The resistance of a coil is 4 ohms at 0oC and 6 ohms at 100oC. Then the temperature coefficient of resistance is a. .003/oC b. 0.004/oC c. 0.005/oC d. 0.006/oC

KAMARAJ SPECIAL SCHOOL, CHIDAMBARAM Std : XII Physics Lesson III (One mark questions) 1. Joules law of heating is I2 a. H = b. H = V2 Rt c. H = VIt d. H = IR2t t R 2. Nichrome wire is used as heating element because it has a. high specific resistance b. low melting point c. low specific resistance d. high conductivity 3. Peltier coefficient at the junction of a thermocouple depends on a. the current in the thermocouple b. the time for which current flows c. the temperature of the junction d. the charge that passes through the thermocouple 4. In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 20oC, Neutral temperature is 270oC. Then the temperature of inversion is, a. 520oC b. 540oC c. 500oC d. 510oC 5. Which of the following represents Biot savart law
c. dB = Idl x r d. dB = Idl x r r2 r3 6. The magnetic induction due to a long straight conductor placed in a medium of per meabiling is, I I I I a. o b. o c. d. 4 a 2 a 4a 2a 7.In a T.G., for a constant current the deflection is30. The place of the coil is turned through 90. Now for the same current, the deflection will be a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 0 8. The period of revolution of a charged particle inside a cyclotron does not depend a. magnetic induction b. the charge of the particle c. the velocity of the particle d. mass of the particle 9. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic field is large when a. number of terms is large b. number of turns is less c. the place of the coil is perpendicular to the field d. the area of the coil is small. 10. Phosphor be wire is used for suspension in a moving coil galvanometer because it has a. high conductivity b. high resistively c. large couple per unit twist d. small couple per unit twist 11. of the following devices which has small resistance a. moving coil galvanometer b. ammeter of range 0 to 1A c. ammeter of range 0 to 10A d. voltmeter 12. A galvanometer of resistance G ohm shunted with S ohm. The resistance Re. Then which of the following statements is true. a. G is less than S b. S is less than Re but greater than G c. Re is less than both G and S d. S is less than both Re and G. 13. An ideal voltmeter has a. finite resistance less than G but greater than zero b. zero resistance c. resistance greater than G but less than infinity. d. infinity resistance. 14. For a steady current I, the amount of heat produced in time t is a. H = VIt b. V2It c. VI2t d.

Idl a. dB = o 2 4 r

Ids b. dB = o 2 4 r

V t

15.Accoridng to Joules law of heating for a given R, heat produced a. directly proportional to square of current b. inversely proposition to square of current c. directly proportional to the current d. inversely proportional to current. 16. of the following which is wrong? a. H i2 for a given R b. H R for a given I c. H V for a given R d. 1 + 1/R 17. Nichrome is an alley of a. nickel, chromium and manganese b. nickel, cobalt and iron c. nickel and iron d. nickel and chromium 18. Nichrome is used as heating element because a. it has high specific resistance b. high melting point c. it is not easily oxidized d. all the above 19. Fuse wire is an alloy of a. 37% Pb and 63%Sn b. 63% Pb and 37% tin c. 73% Pb and 27% Sn d. 37%Sb and 63% Sn 20. Melting point of Tungsten is a. 3380 C b. 338o K c. 380C d. 380K 21. Filament of an electric bulb is usually enclosed in a glass bulb containing a. inert gas at high pressure b. inert gas at low pressure c. ideal gas at high pressure d. inert gas at low pressure 22. In which of the following Joule heating effect is undesirable a. Electric iron b. electric toaster c. Transformer and dynamo d. fuse wire 23. Which of the following is not a thermo emf effect? a. serbeck effect b. Joule effect c. Peltier effect d. Thomson effect 24. Complimentary effect of seebeck effect is a. Peltier effect b. Joule effect c. Thomson effect d. negative Thomson effect 25. In a circuit containing two dissimilar metals, and emf is developed in the circuit when the junctions are at a. the same temperature b. very high temperatures c. very low temperatures d. at different temperatures 26. In Cu Fe thermocouple the direction of the current at the hot junction is, a. from Cu to Fe b. from Fe to Cu c. either a or b depending on the temp of hot junction d. random direction

27. temperature dependence of a thermo couple is given by, a. V= + 2

1 2

b. V= ( + )

c. V= a + 3

1 2

d. V= 2 + 4

28. For a given thermocouple the temp of inversion a. is a constant b. depend on the temperature of cold junction c. independ on the temperature of cold junction d. depend on neutral temperature 29. For small difference of temperature the graph showing the variation of thermo emf with the temperature of hot junction is a. Parabola b. circle c. straight line d. hyperbola 30. For a given thermocouple, the neutral temperature is a. a maximum b. minimum c. zero d. constant 31. The relation between the neutral temp. of inversion and temp. of cold junction is 32. Contact potential is a. more at hot junction b. loss at hot junction c. equal at both junctions d. zero at a junction 33. A conduction with negative Thomson effect is a. silver b. zinc c. mercury d. Cadmium 34. An example of positive Thomson effect is a. Iron b. Cobalt c. Copper d. Nickle 35. For drawing thermo electric diagram, the metal that is used as one of the two metals is a. Pl b. Copper c. Silver d. Fe 36. For purpose of drawing thermoelectric diagrams Pb is used as one of the metals in a thermo couple because a. it has high conductivity b. high specific resistance c. high melting point d. Thomson coefficient is zero 37. For large difference of temperature, the graph showing the relation between the thermony and temperature of hot junction is a. a straight line b. parabola c. circle d. hyperbola 38. of the following which is reversible a. seebeck effect b. Peltier effect c. both a and b d. Joule effect 39. Unit of Peltier coefficient is a. volt b. volt/c b. Ampere (d) ampere/c 40. The position of the metal in a thermoelectric series depends upon, a. temperature (b) nature of the metal c. magnitude of thermo emf d. atomic number of the metal 41. The device used to measure thermal radiation is, a. thermocouple b. thermopile c. thermometer d. thermoscope 42. Ina thermopile the deflection in the galvanometer is proportional to a. intensity of radiation b. frequency of radiation c. velocity of radiation d energy of radiation 43. Magnetic induction at a point due to infinity long straight conductor carrying current at a distance from the axis is a. directly proportional to a b. directly proportional to a2 c. inversely proportional to a d. inversely proportional to a2 44. Tangent galvanometer works on the principle of a. Biot savrt law b. Tangent law c. Ampere rule d. ampere circuital law 45. Magnetic needle of a T.G. is kept small because the magnetic field is a. very large at the center b. considered to be small and uniform at the center c. it is convenient to handle small needle d. radial at the center. 46. Reduction factor of a T.G. is 47. In a T.G. the plant of the coil should be adjusted to be in a. magnetic meridian b. geographical meridian c. any direction d. east west direction 48. Each section of the coil of wire in a T.G. has, a. 1,2 and 5 turns b. 2,5and 50 turns c. 2,5 and turns d. 1,5 and 500 turns 49. The T.G. is more sensitive at, a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d.90 50. Biot Savart law in an alternative is called a. end rule b. Gauss law c. Amperes circuital law d. Flamings left hand rule 51. In a more generalized way, amperes circuital law is expressed as,