GOC for GMDSS Question & Answers

Contributed by: K Line Maritime Academy Philippines (KLMA Phils.)

Module I 1. What is distress traffic? a. In radiotelegraphy, SOS sent as a single character, in radiotelephony, the speaking of the word Mayday. b. Health and welfare messages concerning the immediate protection of property and safety of human life. c. Internationally recognized communications relating to emergency, situations. d. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle in imminent danger. 2. What is an urgency transmission? a. A radio distress transmission affecting the security affecting the humans or property. b. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. c. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. d. A communications transmission concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight. 3. What is a ship earth station? a. A maritime mobile satellite station located at a coast station. b. A mobile satellite station located on board a vessel. c. A communications system which provides line of sight communication between vessels at sea and coast stations. d. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system. 4. What is the internationally recognized urgency signal? a. The letters TTT transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. b. Three oral repetitions of the word safety sent before the call. c. The word PAN PAN spoken three times before the urgent call. d. The pronouncement of the word Mayday. 5. What is a safety transmission? a. Radiotelephony warnings preceded by the words PAN. b. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. c. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. d. A radiotelegraphy alert preceded by the letters XXX sent three times.

6. What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? a. All critical message traffic authorized by the ships master b. Navigation and meteorological warnings. c. Distress calls, and communications preceded by the international urgency and safety signals. d. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. 7. Who has ultimate control of service at a ships radio station? a. The master of the ship. b. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months service endorsement. c. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. d. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force.

8. What is a distress communication? a. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. b. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. c. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. d. An official radio communications notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards.

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What is class A EPIRB? a. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. b. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. c. An automatic, battery-operated emergency position indicating radiobeacon that floats free of a sinking ship. d. A high efficiency audio amplifier.

10. What is the Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel Rescue System? a. A voluntary organization of mariners who maintain radio watch on 500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.800 MHz. b. An international system operated by the U.S Coast Guard providing coordination of search and rescue efforts. c. A coordinated radio direction finding effort between the Federal Communications Commission and U.S. Coast Guard to assist ships in distress. d. A satellite-based distress and safety alerting program operated by the U.S. Coast Guard. 11. What is false regarding the Inmarsat L-band EPIRB? a. Instant alerting b. Global coverage c. It will be activated when the ship sinks d. Minimum battery capacity is 48 hours. 12. Which equipment on the bridge is used for locating a SART? a. 3 cm (9 GHz) radar b. 10 cm (3 GHz) radar c. Radio Direction Finder d. Radar Direction Finder 13. The radiotelephone distress message consist of : a. MAYDAY spoken three times, call sign and name of vessel in distress. b. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, number of persons on board. c. Nature of distress and kind of assistance desired. d. All of these. 14. If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? a. EPIRB on 121.5 MHz/243 MHz or 406.025 MHz. b. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. c. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. d. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. 15. What is the most important practice that a radio operator must learn? a. Maintain the channel before transmitting. b. Operate with lowest power necessary. c. d. 16. What is false regarding the a. b. c. It will be activated if the ship sinks. d. Minimum battery capacity is 48 hours. 17. The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: a. Search and rescue emergency calls only. b. All short range transmission aboard ship. c. Transmission of Captains orders from the bridge. d. Navigational communications.

18. What is the international VHF digital selective calling channel? a. 2182 kHz b. 156.35 MHz c. 156.525 MHz d. 500 kHz. 99 19. When attempting to contact other vessels on Channel 16: a. Limit calling to 30 seconds. b. If no answer is received, wait 2 minutes before calling vessel again. c. Channel 16 is used for emergency calls only. d. Limit calling to 30 seconds and if no answer is received, wait 2 minutes before calling vessel again. 20. How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? a. For a period of three years from the date of entry unless notified by the FCC. b. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. c. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. d. For a period of one year from the date of entry. 21. What should an operator do to prevent interference? a. Turn off transmitter when not in use. b. Monitor channel before transmitting. c. Transmission should be as brief as possible. d. Monitor channel before transmitting and make transmission as brief as possible. 22. A ship has the MMSI 257289000. The first three digits refer to the... a. Type and size of the ship b. The nationality of the ship c. Type of communication equipment d. Official number 23. A reserve power source must be able to power all radio equipment plus an emergency light system for how long? a. 24 hours b. 12 hours c. 8 hours d. 6 hours 24. What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? a. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. b. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. c. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. d. It is intended to provide compulsory vessel with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. 25. The primary purpose of the GMDSS is? a. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. b. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. c. Automate and improve emergency communications for the worlds shipping industry. d. Effective and inexpensive communications. 26. What is the basic concept of GMDSS? a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation. b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted. c. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. d. All of these. 27. What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? a. Vessel over 300 gross tonnage may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. b. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in distress, is required to render assistance.

c. Every ship is able to perform those communication functions which are essential for the safety of the ship itself and of other ships. d. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in distress situations. 28. GMDSS is required for which of the following? a. All vessels capable of international voyages. b. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. c. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. d. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. 29. What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI? a. SART b. EPIRB c. Navtex d. Inmarsat-A. 30. Which of the following regions lies outside Sea Areas A1, A2, and A3? a. Pacific Ocean Region b. Indian Ocean Region c. Atlantic Ocean Region d. Polar Regions 31. What sea area is defined as being within range of a shore-based MF station which provides for continuous DSC alerting? a. Sea area A2 b. Coastal water c. Sea area A3 d. Sea area A1 32. What is _________ a. b. c. d. 33. What is the ______________ a. At least three approved two-way VHF radiotelephones on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. b. At least two approved two-way VHF radiotelephones on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons. c. At least one radar transponder must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship and every cargo ship of 500 gross tons and upward. d. All of these. 34. A ship operating in area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: a. Shore maintenance. b. Duplication of equipment c. At Sea Maintenance d. Any one of the above. 35. What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? a. 30-300 KHz. b. 300-3,000 KHz. c. 1,000-10,000 KHz. d. 10 MHz-30 MHz 36. What is the frequency range for High Frequency? a. 3-30 MHz b. 300-3,000 KHz.

c. 30-300 MHz d. 10 MHz-30 MHz 37. What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? a. 3-30 MHz b. 300-3,000 KHz. c. 30-300 MHz d. 10 MHz-30 MHz 38. Which of the following frequency bands would most likely provide reliable communications between two stations that are 100 miles (160) apart? a. The Low Frequency (LF) band. b. The Medium Frequency (MF) band. c. The High Frequency (HF) band. d. The Very High Frequency (VHF) band. 39. Which of the following references should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult for information on the proper operation of equipment? a. ITU List of Equipment Operations b. The manufacturers operator manuals c. 47 CFR Part 80. d. Information is available through Safety NET channels. 40. What is the meaning of Reserve Source of Energy? a. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting distress and safety communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power. b. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. c. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G and SOLAS requirements. d. None of these. 41. What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power? a. Emergency power. b. Reserve source of energy. c. Ships emergency diesel generator. d. Ships standby generator. 42. What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? a. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time b. Can be independent of the propelling power of the ship. c. Must be incorporated into the ships electrical system. d. Must be independent of the ships electrical system. 43. What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? a. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required for radio communications. b. A reserved power source is not required for radio communications. c. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. d. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communication. 44. Under sea? a. b. c. d. GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at Daily Annually, by a representative of the FCC. At the annual SOLAS inspection Monthly

45. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? a. Captains office b. Sea cabin c. At the GMDSS operating position d. Anywhere on board the vessel 46. What is the MID? a. Mobile Identification Number. b. Maritime Identification Digits. c. Marine Indemnity Directory. d. Mobile Interference Digits. 47. Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? a. 003372694 b. 623944326 c. 030356328 d. 3384672 48. Which of the following indicates a costal station? a. 003572946 b. 454813265 c. 041329746 d. 325700142 49. A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: a. 003664512 b. 030327931 c. 338462941 d. 003036483 50. Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? a. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. b. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. c. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with 2 zeros followed by the MID. d. None of the above. 51. Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating a distress alert transmission? a. Channel 6 DSC. b. Channel 6 Radiotelephony. c. Channel 13 Radiotelephony and channel 16 DSC. d. Channel 70 DSC. 52. How many total frequencies are available for DSC distress alerting? a. One (1) b. Two (2) c. Five (5) d. Seven (7) 53. You send a VHF-DSC distress alert. What channel do you use for the follow-on voice transmission? a. 12 b. 70 c. 13 d. 16 54. Your ship received a distress relay from another ship on DSC freq. 2187.5 kHz. You would acknowledge by radio telephony on what frequency? a. 4207.5 kHz b. 8290.0 kHz c. 2182.0 kHz d. 6312.0 kHz

55. Your ship received a Distress relay on DSC VHF channel 70, on what channel would you reply? a. 70 b. 06 c. 13 d. 16 56. Under what conditions would you relay a DSC distress alert? a. If the mobile unit in distress is incapable of further Distress Alert communications. b. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement is observed. c. a and b are both possible. d. You should never relay such an alert the Coast Station &m RCC will do that. 57. What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF? a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. 58. If the Watch Officer hears PAN PAN spoken three 3 times it means: a. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. b. The station is preparing to transmit an URGENT message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. c. A Mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. d. None of the above. 59. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears SECURITE spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: a. Message concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. b. Safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. c. Vessel in need of immediate assistance. d. Coast Station Traffic list. 60. Which of the following situations would normally use the voice designation Securite? a. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). b. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. c. Messages containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. d. Messages concerning On-scene communications. 61. Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? a. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. b. Treatment of crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. c. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. d. Both a and b. 62. Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? a. A crewmember over the side. b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. c. Both a and b d. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 63. The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: a. Securite repeated 3 times. b. Safety Safety Safety c. Pan Pan repeated 3 times. d. Securite Securite repeated 3 times. 64. Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? a. A crewmember over the side. b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember.

c. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. d. All of the above. 65. Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS? a. 406 MHz via EPIRB. b. 1626.5-1645.5 via Inmarsat. c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies. d. All of the above. 66. Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling? a. Channel 06 (156.300 MHz). b. Channel 13 (156.650 MHz). c. Channel 16 (156.800 MHz). d. Channel 70 (156.525 MHz). 67. How many frequencies area available under GMDSS for DSC distress-related calls? a. Two b. Four c. Five d. Seven 68. Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation? a. Alert the Coast Guard by using the survival crafts portable INMARSAT unit. b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessels location and situation. c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the on position and secure them to the survival craft. d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. 69. Which action is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. b. Transmit distress call by HF/MF/VHF DSC or Inmarsat. c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13. d. Transmit distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal. 70. DSC is used primarily to: a. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other marine safety information b. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. c. Transmit and receive distress and safety alerts to and from other ships and shore stations via radio. d. Report ships position to search and rescue authorities via satellite. 71. What is the purpose of the SARTs audile tone monitor? a. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. b. It informs survivors when the batterys charge condition has weakened. c. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode. d. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. 72. What indication is given to the personnel of survival craft of the approach of another vessel? a. The SART will provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3 CM radar. b. The Satellite EPIRB will emit an audible signal c. The VHF portable radio will emit an audible alarm signal on 156.525 MHz. d. The VHF portable will provide a visual indication. 73. How can a SARTs effective range by maximized? a. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. b. The SART into the sea as soon as possible to begin transmitting.

c. Switch the SART into the high power position. d. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. 74. In lifeboat or liferaft, what is a method of maximizing the effectiveness of an SART? a. Place the SART into the sea as soon as possible to begin transmitting. b. Hold or mount the unit as high as possible. c. Extend the length of the transmitting antenna. d. Replace the internal battery with the AC power adapter. 75. At what point does a SART begin transmitting? a. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the on position. b. It must be manually activated. c. If it has been placed in the on position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9 gHz radar signal. d. --76. ???????????? a. b. c. d. 77. ??????????? a. b. c. d. 78. What causes the SART to begin transmission? a. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. b. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. c. After being activated the SART responds to radar interrogation. d. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. 79. What does a SART signal sound or look like? a. It transmits SOS and the vessels name and position in slow speed Morse Code. b. It will appear on a radar units PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the SARTs position. c. It will appear on a radar units PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the SARTs position. d. None of the above. 80. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? a. The SARTs blips on the PPI will begin arcing and eventually become concentric circles. b. The DSC unit will react to the SARTs signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. 81. How can vessel personally detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? a. A unique radar signal consisting of a blip code radiating outward from a SARTs position along its line of bearing. b. A unique two tone warbling signal heard on VHF-FM Channel 70. c. A unique two tone alarm signal heard upon the automatic un-muting of the 2182 kHz radiotelephone automatic watch receiver. d. The SART signal appear s as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on an SART. 82. How should the signal from a Search and Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a radar display? a. A series of dashes. b. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART/

c. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. d. A series of twenty dashes. 83. In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? a. 3 GHz b. 9 GHz c. S-band d. 406 MHz 84. Which statement in NOT the true regarding the SART? a. Responds to interrogations by a vessels X-Band radar. b. Transmits on the 9 GHz band reserved for navigational radar. c. Operates in conjunction with a vessels S-Band radar. d. Transmits a distinctive code or easy recognition. 85. Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SART is true? a. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART as it is hermetically sealed. b. Testing a SART should be performed only in controlled environment as a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine distress situation. c. A SARTs battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. d. All of the above 86. The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? a. Eight hours b. Three days c. Four days d. Forty-eight hours 87. Which is a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRB? a. Vessel information recovered from the digital encoded message provided by the satellite EPIRB. b. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured. c. Information received from EPIRBS is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellites view. d. All of these. 88. Which of the following satellite systems is of particular importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? a. COSPAS/SARSAT b. AMSAT c. NASA/Arienne d. COSPAS 89. Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is true? a. EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. b. These are satellites in a low-earth polar orbit that detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to an earth-side Local User Terminal (LUT). c. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRBs location d. All of the above 90. Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a distress alert signal? a. S-Band EPIRBs b. 406 MHz EPIRBs c. Class A EPIRBs d. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs 91. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF) b. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz c. Survival Craft Transceiver d. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz

92. What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in distress? a. Flare gun b. Strobe Light c. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB d. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB 93. What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? a. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB b. Strobe light c. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB d. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit once activated. 94. What is an example of a locating signal? a. SSB phone traffic b. Ship to sore transmissions c. Loran C. d. A float Free EPIRB 95. What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? a. Vessel position and nature of distress. b. A unique Hexadecimal LD number. c. Vessel name and identification d. None of these 96. Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? a. Channel 6 b. Channel 13 c. Channel 16 d. Channel 70 97. At mid-way, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station 15 miles (24 km) distant? a. VHF FM b. 16 MHz band. c. 12 MHz band. d. 22 MHz band. 98. How is mutual interference among NAVTEX stations avoided? a. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. b. Transmitter power is limited to that necessarily for coverage of assigned area. c. Transmissions by stations in each NAVAREA are arranged in a time-sharing basis. d. Both b and c 99. When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? a. Local noontime b. Middle of the night c. Sunset d. Post sunrise 100. Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? a. 518 kHz b. 2187.5 kHz c. 4209.5 kHz d. VHF channel 16 when vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. 101. What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? a. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. b. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. c. It is limited to line of sight or about 30 nautical miles (54km) d. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km)

102. How is NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? a. The transmitting stations two digit stations two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. b. By selecting a message categorys single letter (A-Z) identifier. c. By entering the selcall of the transmitting station d. By pressing 00 in the transmitters ID block. 103. How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcast be prevented? a. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. b. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. c. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. d. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. 104. What names are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? a. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. b. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. c. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. d. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. Which of the following message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? a. Navigational warnings b. Meteorological warnings c. Search and Rescue information d. All of the above Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? a. Safety/NET b. AMVER c. VHF DSC d. ARQ SITOR

105.

106.

107. The specific gravity of a fully charged 12V storage battery is; a. 1.28 b. 1.20 c. 1.38 d. 1.40 108. The mechanism that allows a Float-free EPIRB is; a. Hydraulic Release Mechanism b. Spring Release Mechanism c. Hydrostatic Release Mechanism d. Air Release Mechanism 109. In Radiowave propagation, the distance traveled by a Radiowave from one wavetop to another is called; a. Frequency b. Wavelength c. Magnetic field d. Static duration What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power? a. Emergency power b. Reserve source of power c. Ships emergency diesel generator d. Ships standby generator

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What might be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in distress? a. Flare gun b. Strobe light c. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB d. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB What part of the satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? a. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB b. Strobe light c. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB d. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit once activated.

112.

113. Which type of equipment does not involve satellite detection? a. Radiotelephone automatic alarm signal transmitter b. Class A EPIRB c. L-Band EPIRB\ d. 121.5/406 MHz EPIRB 114. What is the joint international satellite aided SAR system? a. MARAD b. IMO c. COSPAS SARSAT d. INMARSAT 115. What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? a. Sea Area A1 b. Ocean Area regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR. c. Sea Area A2 d. Coastal and Inland Waters What is defined as an area, excluding sea area A1, within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one MF coast station, in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO? a. Sea Area A4 b. Sea Area A3 c. Sea Area A2 d. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR. What is defined as an area excluding sea areas A1 and A2, within the coverage of an INMARSAT geostationary satellite in which continuous alerting is available? a. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR. b. Sea Area A4 c. Sea Area A3 d. Coastal and Inland Waters What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling Techniques? a. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. b. Set watch on the radiotelephone distress and safety frequency associated with the distress and safety calling frequency on which the distress alert was received. c. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. d. Ship stations equipped with narrow band direct printing equipment should respond to the distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling? a. Channel 06 (156.300 MHz) b. Channel 13 (156.650 MHz) c. Channel 16 (156.800 MHz) d. Channel 70 (156.525 MHz)

116.

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120.

Which of the frequency is allocated as the GMDSS Digital Selective Calling Frequency? a. 156.525 KHz b. 2182 KHz c. 156.300 KHz d. 156.525 KHz

121. How many MF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Five 122. How many HF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Five 123. How many VHF frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC distress related calls? a. One b. Two c. Five d. Seven 124. When operating in coastal waters (sea area A1), a GMDSS equipped vessel must: a. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on 8514.5 kHz. b. Maintain a continuous aural watch on 2182 kHz. c. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 16. d. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 70. 125. A GMDSS equipped vessel must carry equipment capable of Medium Frequency (MF) DSC transmission and reception: a. When operating outside of VHF-DSC range of shore. b. When operating in areas of no INMARSAT coverage. c. Only if not equipped with the Enhanced Group Call system. d. In all operating ocean areas. 126. DSC is used primarily to: a. Received weather warnings, navigational notices and other marine safety information. b. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. c. Transmit and receive distress and safety alerts to and from other ships and shore stations via radio. d. Report ships position to search and rescue authorities via satellite. 127. Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? a. DSC on channel 70 b. VHF-FM on channel 16 c. VHF-FM on channel 13 d. the vessels working frequency

GOC for GMDSS Question & Answers

Contributed by: K Line Maritime Academy Philippines (KLMA Phils)

MODULE 2

1. The HF (high frequency) band is: a. 3-30 MHz b. 3-30 GHz c. 30-300 MHz d. 300-3000 MHz 2. Which GMDSS equipment is not necessary for ships sailing in sea area A4? a. NAVTEX receiver b. 406 MHz float-free EPIRB c. VHF DSC watch receiver d. Inmarsat SES 3. Which areas are covered by MF coast stations? a. Sea area A1 & A2 b. Sea area A2 & A3 c. Sea area A3 & A4 d. Sea area A4 & A1 4. SITOR equipment is a full, partial or alternate carriage requirement under GMDSS for vessels operating in which sea area(s)? a. A1 b. A1 and A2 c. A3 and A4 d. A1, A2, A3 and A4 5. Vessel operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either Inmarsat or HF equipment or a combination thereof under GMDSS? a. All sea areas b. A3 c. A4 d. A1 6. A ship operating in sea area A-3 must have the following provisions for maintenance: a. Duplication of Equipment b. Shore maintenance c. At Sea Maintenance d. Any two of the above 7. What is the emission of designation for MF-HF voice signals? a. F1B b. J3E c. J2B d. F3E 8. What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS MF-HF? a. Horizontally polarized whip antenna b. Long wire antenna c. Vertical whip d. None of the above

9. The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? a. Make a radiotelephone call to a Coast Station. b. Initiates an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. c. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. d. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. 10. The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? a. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. b. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. c. Send a message to another ship terminal. d. If the send light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. 11. What number will a ship station use to identify itself using SITOR? a. Four digit selcall b. Five digit selcall or 9 digit MMSI number c. 7 digit Inmarsat-A I.D number d. 9 digit Inmarsat-C I.D number 12. Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-B terminal? a. A 9 digit number beginning with the MID. b. A 7 digit number. c. A 9 digit number always starting with 3. d. A 9 digit number always starting with 4. 13. You receive a telex with the senders I.D number of 433863491. What type of terminal sent this message to you vessel? a. Inmarsat-C b. Land telex terminal c. Inmarsat-B d. Inmarsat-A 14. Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-B terminal? a. A 9 digit number beginning with the MID. b. A 7 digit number c. A 9 digit number always starting with 3. d. A 9 digit number always starting with 4. 15. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received? a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency. b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the distress alert was received. c. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. d. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the distress alert was received. 16. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert? a. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. b. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel its position or its situation. c. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. d. It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distress vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. 17. DSC relays of Distress Alerts by vessels: a. Should be done for all Distress Alerts. b. Should be transmitted to ships involved in Distress Alert.

c. Should be avoided, however after repeated alerts should be relayed to a Coast Station nearest the distress incident. d. Are the best means to provide for a relay of Distress communications 18. Which of the following is not a DSC watch frequency? a. 2187.5 kHz b. 6312 kHz c. 2182 kHz d. 12577 kHz 19. Which of the following are the MF/HF DSC Distress watch frequencies? a. 2177.5, 4210.0, 6314.0, 8416.5, 12579.0, 16806.5 b. 2182.0, 4125.0, 6215.0, 8219.0, 12290.0, 16420.0 c. 21875.5,4207.5, 6312.0, 8414.5, 12577.0, 16804.5 d. 2174.5, 4177.5, 6268.0, 87365.5, 12520.0, 16695.0 20. How many HF DSC distress watch channels must be guarded by a compulsory vessel underway? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 21. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via Inmarsat? a. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. b. By pressing a distress button or hot key(s) on the equipment. c. By contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence. d. By contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure Maydayetc. 22. Reception of a DSC Distress call is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: a. 1-2 minutes b. 2-5 minutes c. 3.5-4.5 minutes d. Not at all 23. You send a MF-DSC distress alert. What frequency do you use for the follow-on voice transmission? a. 2760 kHz b. 2187.5 kHz c. 2182 kHz d. 2174.5 kHz 24. You send a HF-DSC alert on 8414.5 kHz. What frequency do you use for the voice transmission? a. 8376.5 kHz b. 8291.0 kHz c. 8401.5 kHz d. 8201.0 kHz 25. What is the proper format for a distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times). a. All Ships 3x this is Ships Name/Call Sign 3x Mayday Position. b. Mayday 3x this is Ships Name/Call Sign 3x Distress category. c. Both of the above d. None of the above 26. What information should be included in a distress follow up voice transmission? a. Ships name and call sign b. Ships position c. Ships MMSI number d. All of the above

27. What information should be included in a distress follow up voice transmission? a. Follow up working frequency b. ETA at next port c. None of the above d. Both of the above 28. What does the acronym EOS indicates in the received message? a. Error Of Sequence b. End Of Sequence c. End Of Signals d. Equal Operating Signals 29. What action should be taken on receipt of a distress alert? a. Read the display screen and /or printout. b. Silence the alarm. c. Listen for any follow-up voice/telex transmission on the appropriate frequency. d. All of the above. 30. What action should be taken if a distress alert is received on the 12 MHz DSC frequency? a. Use DSC to acknowledge the alert using the 12 MHz DSC frequency. b. Set the receiver to 12290.0 kHz J3E. c. Do nothing; ship is too far away to render assistance. d. Set the receiver to 12520.0 kHz F1B. 31. Your ship received a distress relay from another ship on DSC frequency 2187.5 kHz. You would acknowledge by radio telephony on what frequency? a. 4207.5 kHz b. 8290.0 kHz c. 2182.0 kHz d. 6312.0 kHz 32. What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on MF? a. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2187.5 kHz. b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2174.5 kHz. c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. d. Send another DSC alert and follow up with voice on 2182.0 kHz. 33. What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on 8 MHz? a. Make an ALL SHIPS call on all 5 HF telex channels cancelling the alert. b. Make an ALL SHIPS call on 8291.0 kHz cancelling the alert. c. Make a MAYDAY call on 8414.5 kHz cancelling the alert. d. Make an URGENT call on 8614.0 kHz cancelling the alert. 34. What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on 12577.0 kHz? a. No action is necessary. b. Make an ALL SHIPS call on all 5 HF telex frequencies cancelling the alert. c. Make an ALL SHIPS call on the associated 12 MHz J3E frequency cancelling the alert. d. Send a message to the nearest RCC via Inmarsat cancelling the alert. 35. What action should you take after sending a false distress alert on Inmarsat-C? a. Press the Distress hot keys then press the cancel key. b. Select transmit menu and send a cancel message via the CES used for the distress alert. c. Both of the above d. None of the above 36. What is meant by the term radio silence? a. Stations not directly involved with the on-going distress communications may not transmit on the distress frequency or channel. b. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information.

c.

Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provides a transmitting window for distressed vessels to transmit distress alert using J3E. d. Communications on a distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the distress traffic. 37. How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? a. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the distress frequency stating SEELONCE FEENEE. b. The Coast Earth Station (CES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the distress frequency stating SILENCE FINI. c. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the distress frequency stating SILENCE FINI. d. None of the above. 38. Which of the following situations would normally use the urgency priority? a. A crewmember over the side. b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. c. Both a and b d. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 39. The Urgent Priority should be used for: a. Message concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). b. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. c. Messages containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. d. Messages concerning On-scene communications. 40. How many MF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Five 41. How many HF frequencies are available for DSC distress related calls? a. One b. Two c. four d. Five 42. GMDSS vessels equipped for A2, A3 or A4 must maintain a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. a. Only in areas beyond Inmarsat coverage. b. Only outside of areas covered by VHF-DSC. c. When directed to do so by a cognizant rescue authority. d. At all times when underway. 43. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite? a. Class A EPIRBs b. Class B EPIRBs c. L-Band EPIRBs d. Category I EPIRBs 44. Which provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress, or their survival craft? a. Radio Direction Finder b. Satellite EPIRBs c. MF/HF DSC d. VHF horning device 45. Which of the following has been designated for On-scene communications in GMDSS? a. Channel 24 b. Channel 2182

c. Channel 70 d. Channel 16 on VHF radiotelephone and 2174.5 kHz using MF SITOR? 46. Safety NET messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? a. NAVTEX b. MF and HF NBDP c. EGC receiver d. All of these 47. Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? a. AMVER b. Inmarsat-C Safety NET c. NAVTEX d. Inmarsat-M SES 48. Which HF SITOR mode would be selected to receive MSI broadcasts from high seas shore stations? a. AM b. FEC c. RTTY d. ARQ 49. Which Line? a. b. c. d. NAVAREA is associated with the Pacific Ocean north of the equator and east of the International Date NAVAREA IV NAVAREA X NAVAREA XI NAVAREA XII

50. Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-W satellite for Inmarsat communications? a. 64.5E b. 178E c. 15.5W d. 54W 51. Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-E satellite for Inmarsat communications? a. 64.5E b. 178E c. 15.5W d. 54W 52. Which longitude corresponds to the PORs satellite for Inmarsat communications? a. 64.5E b. 178E c. 15.5W d. 54W 53. Which longitude corresponds to the IORs satellite location for Inmarsat communications? a. 64.5E b. 178E c. 15.5W d. 54W 54. Which action must be taken to ensure that incoming message traffic of all priority levels will be received through Inmarsat-C? a. The system needs only to be commissioned and turned on. b. No additional action is necessary after returning on the receiver and aiming the antenna at the desired satellite. c. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite. d. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log on the desired satellite and receive the message reference number (MRN) from the CES.

55. When logging into the Inmarsat system using Inmarsat-C, it is necessary to: a. Enter you IMN b. Enter the CES answer back. c. Select the Ocean Region. d. Call the CES and inform them that you are now operating in the appropriate ocean region. 56. What is the primary function of an NCS? a. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. b. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. c. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. d. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. 57. What is the primary function of a CES? a. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. b. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. c. To provide multi-code communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. d. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. 58. Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? a. AM and VHF-FM b. SSB and FEC c. ARQ and FEC d. VHF-FM and SSB 59. To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a telex call to a coast station, the operator must: a. Select J3E mode for proper Sitor operations. b. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending in the equipment manufacturer. c. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ OR FEC is preferred. d. None of the above. 60. To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station the operator must: a. Select J3E mode for proper Sitor operations. b. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. c. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. d. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. 61. An ITU simplex channel frequency assignment is defined as: a. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. b. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. c. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-shore or ship to ship. d. Transmit and receive frequencies are different regardless of emission mode. 62. An ITU duplex channel frequency is defined as: a. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-shoreor ship to ship. b. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. c. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. d. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications. 63. Which of the following defines ITU Channel 1216? a. Channel 12 in the 16 MHz band. b. Channel 1216 in the MF band.

c. Channel 16 in the 12 MHz band. th d. This would indicate the 16 channel in the 12 MHz band, but channel 1216 does not yet exist as there are currently only 15 possible channels. 64. What is meant by the term ITU channel? a. This refers to a vessels selcall number. b. This refers to an internationally standardized assignment of frequency pairings for common use. c. This refers to VHF channels 1-28 and 60-88. d. None of the above. 65. ITU channels are: a. Frequency assignments specific to U.S vessels only. b. VMF-FM frequencies. c. International Traffic Utility frequencies. d. An international designation of specific frequencies. 66. What does the term FEC mean in SITOR communications? a. Field Effect Correction b. Forward Error Check c. Forward Error Character d. None of the above 67. The acronym SITOR stands for: a. Simplified Telephony Over Radio b. Simplified Telex Over Radio or Simplex Teleprinter over Radio. c. Simplified Telex Over Radio d. Simplex Telephony Over Radio 68. What does the term ARQ means in SITOR operations? a. Automation Repeat Request b. Automatic Repeat Request c. Automaton Repeat Request d. Automatic Request Repeat 69. Which of the following keystrokes or characters is sent as part of ARQ communications to end the radio link? a. Four N is, i.e. NNNN b. Four K is, i.e. KKKK c. BRK+ d. Five periods (..) 70. Which of the following keystrokes or characters is sent as part of ARQ communications to signal the end of communications with a land based telex terminal? a. Four Ns, i.e. NNNN b. Four Ks, i.e. KKKK c. BRK+ d. Five periods (..) 71. What character(s) are transmitted to switch control from a station currently transmitting over to the receiving station during ATOR communications in the ARQ mode? a. +? b. GA+ c. ENTER d. END 72. Acknowledgement of a DSC distress alert by use of DSC is normally made by: a. Coast station b. Any station which heard the distress alert c. All stations in the maritime service d. RCC only

73. The time it takes for a Radio wave to move from zero to 360 degrees is called: a. Wavelength b. Period c. Modulation d. Amplitude 74. An operating method in which transmission is possible simultaneously on both directions of a telecommunication channel is called: a. Simplex operation b. Semi-duplex operation c. Full duplex operation d. Multiplex operation 75. Your ship is participating in the AMVER reporting system. Which of the following report identifier should you use to report your arrival at your destination? a. AMVER/SP// b. AMVER/PR// c. AMVER/DR// d. AMVER/FR// 76. Each of the Inmarsat satellite is placed in geostationary orbit over the major ocean regions at an altitude of: a. 37,000 kms b. 57,300 kms c. 53,700 kms d. 35,700 kms 77. Your ships Inmarsat-C ID is 425746910. Therefore your ships MID (Marine Identification Digit) is; a. 257 b. 425 c. 746 d. 910 78. The angle between north and the horizontal direction of the satellite as seen from the ship is called; a. Elevation angle b. Declination angle c. Inclination angle d. Azimuth angle 79. The height of the Inmarsat satellite over the horizon as seen from the ship is called the; a. Declination angle b. Azimuth angle c. Elevation angle d. Inclination angle 80. When an Inmarsat satellites is located directly west of your ship, its azimuth angle is; a. 090 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 270 degrees d. 360 degrees 81. The basic technique used for sending a message via Inmarsat-C is called; a. Store and forward messaging b. 2-digit code messaging c. Automatic dial-up telex d. High speed data transmission

82. The Inmarsat-C SES antenna has no moving parts and is described to be; a. Omni-directional b. Bi-directional c. Directional d. e. Multi-directional 83. In ECG system, the reception of MSI is free of charge and is provided by; a. Fleet Net service b. Internet service c. Safety Net service d. Mari Net service 84. In TOR communication, the message to be transmitted is divided into a block consists of; a. 5 characters b. 3 characters c. 4 characters d. 6 characters 85. HF NBDP equipment is compulsory onboard BMDSS ships sailing in; a. Sea area A1 b. Sea area A2 c. Sea area A3 d. Sea area A4 86. When making a ship-to-ship call by Inmarsat telephone, the Ocean Region code to reach a ship located in the POR is; a. 871 b. 872 c. 873 d. 874 87. When making a ship-to-ship call by Inmarsat telephone, the Ocean Region code to reach a ship located in the IOR is; a. 871 b. 872 c. 873 d. 874 88. When making a ship-to-ship call by Inmarsat telephone, the Ocean Region code to reach a ship located in the AOR-E is; a. 871 b. 872 c. 873 d. 874 89. When making a ship-to-ship call by Inmarsat telephone, the Ocean Region code to reach a ship located in the AOR-W is; a. 871 b. 872 c. 873 d. 874 90. The coverage are Footprints of the Inmarsat satellites are from; a. 76 degrees N to 76 degrees S b. 70 degrees N to 70 degrees S c. 63 degrees N to 63 degrees S d. 60 degrees N to 60 degrees S

91. One of the charges on Inmarsat-C is computed by; a. Volume b. Duration of the call c. Fixed d. Annual 92. One bytes is composed of; a. 5 bits b. 7 bits c. 8 bits d. 9 bits 93. The system used in the operation of an Inmarsat L-Band EPIRB is; a. Inmasat-M b. Inmasat-F c. Inmasat-B d. Inmasat-E 94. What characters are transmitted to switch control from a station currently transmitting over to the receiving station during ATOR communications in the ARQ mode? a. +? b. GA c. ENTER d. END 95. Which characters are sent by the shore station to indicate that is has shifted control to and is waiting instruction from the vessel? a. WRU b. GA+ c. KKKK d. .. 22 96. Which characters are sent by the shore station to indicate that is has shifted control to and is awaiting instructions from the vessel? a. WRU b. GA+ c. KKKK d. .. 22 97. A ship at anchor has been communicating effectively with a shore station approximately 500 miles (805 km) distant on a frequency in the 16 MHz band periodically throughout the day. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what effect should be noticed? a. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. b. The grey line effect will prevent communication after dark. c. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossibly on this frequency at night. d. Communications should improve and peak at night. 98. A ship at anchor has been communicating marginally with a shore station approximately 200 miles (322 km) distant on a frequency in the 4 MHz band periodically throughout the day. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what effect should be noticed? a. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. b. Communications should slowly deteriorate but may be continued throughout the night. c. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency by night. d. Communications should gradually improve and peak at night and early morning.

99. At mid-day, what would be the4 best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station some 75 miles (121 km) distant? a. VFH-FM b. 22 MHz band c. 16 MHz band d. MF 100. a. b. c. d. The Inmarsat unified ocean code for telephone in all ocean regions since January 2010 is: 874 870 871 872

GOC for GMDSS Question & Answers

Contributed by: K Line Maritime Academy Philippines (KLMA Phils)

Module 3

1. What is the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS)? a. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellite and advanced terrestrial communications systems. b. An emergency radio service employing analog and manual safety apparatus. c. An association of radio officers trained in emergency procedures. d. The international organization charged with the safety of ocean going vessels. 2. Which of the following references should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult for information on the proper operation of equipment? a. ITU list of equipment operations b. The manufacturers operator manuals c. 47 CFR Part 80 d. Information is available through Safety NET channels. 3. What is the meaning of Reserve Source of Energy? a. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting distress and safety communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power. b. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. c. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period of equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G and SOLAS equipment. d. None of these 4. What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio-communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power? a. Emergency power b. Reserve source of energy c. Ships emergency diesel generator d. Ships standby generator 5. What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? a. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. b. Can be independent of the propelling power of the ship. c. Must be incorporated into the ships electrical system. d. Must be independent of the ships electrical system. 6. What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? a. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). b. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. c. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. d. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. 7. What is the MID? a. Mobile Identification Number b. Maritime Identifications Digits

c. Marine Indemnity Directory d. Mobile Interference Digits 8. Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? a. 003372694 b. 623944326 c. 030356328 d. 3384672 9. Which of the following numbers indicates a coastal station? a. 003572946 b. 454813265 c. 041329746 d. 325700142 10. A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessel is: a. 003664523 b. 030327931 c. 338462941 d. 003036483 11. Which of the following statement concerning MMSI is true? a. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. b. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. c. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with 2 zeros followed by the MID. d. None of the above. 12. If the Watch Officer hears PAN PAN spoken 3 times it means; a. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. b. The station is preparing to transmit an URGENT message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. c. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. d. None of the above 13. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears SUCURITE spoken three time, he can expect to receive the following information: a. Message concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. b. Safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. c. Vessel in need of immediate assistance. d. Coast Station Traffic list. 14. Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation Securite? a. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). b. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. c. Messages containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. d. Messages concerning On-scene communications. 15. Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? a. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. b. Treatment of crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. c. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. d. Both a and b 16. Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? a. A crewmember over the side. b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. c. Both a and b d. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings.

17. The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: a. Securite repeated 3 times b. Safety Safety Safety c. Pan Pan repeated 3 times d. Securite Securite repeated 3 times 18. Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? a. A crewmember over the side. b. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. c. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. d. All of the above 19. Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS? a. 406 MHz via EPIRB b. 1626.5-1645.5 via Inmarsat c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies. d. All of the above 20. How many frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC distress-related calls? a. One b. Four c. Five d. Seven 21. Which is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. b. Transmit distress call by HF/MF/VHF DSC or Inmarsat. c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordinator Center) through VHF FM on channel 13. d. Transmit distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal. 22. Which of the following EPIRBSs is most likely to be used to transmit a distress alert signal? a. S-band EPIRBs b. 406 MHz EPIRBs c. Class A EPIRBs d. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs 23. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF) b. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz c. Survival Craft Transceiver d. A SART transmitting on 406 24. What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship id distress? a. Fare gun b. Strobe light c. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. d. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. 25. What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? a. Vessel position and nature of distress. b. A unique Hexadecimal I.D number. c. Vessel name and identification d. None of the above 26. The gravity of a fully charged 12V storage battery is; a. 1.28 b. 1.20

c. 1.38 d. 1.40 27. Which characters are sent by the ship station when opening HF TELEX, to indicate a desire to send message to AMVER? a. MSG+ b. DIRTLX c. AMV+ d. OPR+ 28. Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a weather observation message? a. OBS+ b. MSG+ c. AMV+ d. OPR+ 29. What are the characters which are transmitted to indicate the end of a message in SITOR operation? a. .. b. KKKK c. END+ d. EOM.33 30. What is meant by CW? a. Continuous Working (channel) b. Continuous Wave (Morse code) c. Continuous Watch (i.e. shore station) d. Cohesive Wave 31. There are no signals or static heard in the receiver of the SSB Transceiver, although a loud noise is heard if the volume control is advanced all the way up, what is the possible cause? a. The antenna of feed line has been damaged b. The antenna switch has been transferred to the test position c. A defective receiver d. Any of these 32. What is defined as an area outside sea areas A1, A2 and A3? a. AOR-E b. AOR-W c. Coastal and inland waters d. A4 33. Which of the following frequencies have NOT been designated for on-scene communications in the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System? a. VHF-FM Channel 16, 156.8 MHz b. MF Radiotelephony on 2182 KHz c. NBDP on 2182.0 KHz d. None of these 34. Which of the following frequencies are allocated for alerting in the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System? a. 406 MHz (EPIRB) b. 1626.5-1645.5(INMARSAT) c. DSC on 156.525 MHz (channel 70) and various MF/HF frequencies. d. All of these 35. Which of the following frequencies have been designated for allocating signals in the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System? a. 406 MHz EPIRBs beacon on 121.5 MHz b. 9 GHz radar transponder c. Both choices are correct d. Neither choice is correct

36. Where the operational details of the stations transmitting maritime safety information to be found? a. 47CFR 80.1130 b. IEC Publication 945, Marine Navigational Equipment c. ITU List of Radio determination and Special Service Stations. d. Frequency allocation tables 37. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements of GMDSS? a. Licensed radio operators b. Equipment carriage requirements c. Distress alerting and response d. All of these 38. Which equipment may not be utilized to provide locating signals in GMDSS? a. Float-free EPIRBSs b. 3 GHz signals of radar transponders c. Satellite EPIRBs d. 9 GHz SARTs 39. Which equipment may NOT be utilized to provide locating signals ing GMDSS? a. SARTs signals from float-free transponders b. 406 EPIRB c. Loran C, or GPS signals d. Satellite or float-free EPIRBSs, 40. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? a. The vessel is not capable of performing all required distress and safety functions. b. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. c. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and safety certificate. d. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shore side maintenance. 41. Full equipment carriage under GMDSS is: a. Required on or after January 1, 2011. b. Required to be fitted on all vessels after August 1, 1993. c. No equipment is required on compulsory vessel on international voyages providing a licensed radiotelegraph station is fitted and a licensed Radio Officer is carried. d. Mandatory after February 1, 1991 42. If a vessel is operating 100 nautical miles from shore within range of shore based MF station, the vessel is operating within what area? a. Coastal waters b. Navigation lanes c. Sea area A2 d. Shipping lanes 43. If a vessel is operating in an area outside Zones A1, A2 and A3, this vessel is operating within what area for GMDSS purposes? a. International voyage b. Continental shelf waters c. Sea area A4 d. Coastal and inland waters 44. If a vessel is engaged in local trade, and at no point in its voyage travels outside 25 miles from the Florida coast, in which GMDSS zones would this vessel be operating? a. Coastal and international zones b. Inland and coastal waters c. Sea areas A1 and A2 d. Sea area A1

45. Which equipment is required for all vessels over 300 gross tons and all passenger ships after August 1, 1993? a. Either INMARSAT Standard-A or Standard-C SES. b. NAVTEX and satellite EPIRBs c. Three VHF-FM transceivers and a radiotelegraph automatic alarm receiver. d. There are no compulsory equipment carriage requirements for vessels under 300 gross tons. 46. Which statement is true regarding mandatory fitting of GMDSS equipment? a. After February 1, 1992, all vessels over 300 gross tons must comply. b. After August 1, 1993, all new ship construction must comply. c. All ships built after February 1, 1995 must comply with all GMDSS Requirements. d. All vessels over 300 gross tons must comply on February 1, 1995. 47. Which statement is true regarding mandatory fitting of GMDSS equipment? a. After February 1, 1992, all vessels over 300 gross tonnages must comply. b. All vessels over 300 gross tonnages must be in compliance on February 1, 1991. c. After August 1, 1993, all new ship construction must comply. d. Only those vessels substantially completed before February 1, 1995 must comply with all GMDSS Requirements. 48. The primary purpose of the GMDSS is? a. Environmental protection. b. A common international communications system for all shipping. c. Automate and improve emergency communications for the worlds shipping industry. d. Effective and inexpensive communications. 49. What can be defined as radio transmissions intended to facilitate the finding of a mobile unit in distress of the location of survivors? a. Horning signals b. Radio Direction Finder signals c. Locating signals d. Ranging signals 50. What is an example of a locating signal? a. SSB phone patch traffic b. Ship to shore transmissions c. Loran-C d. A Float-Free EPIRB 51. Vessels operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either INMARSAT of HF equipment or a combination thereof under GMDSS? a. All sea areas b. A3 c. A4 d. A3 and A4 52. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by International Maritime Organization? a. Distress, general and bridge-to-bridge radio communications b. Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination, on-scene communications, signals for locating, maritime safety information, general and bridge-to-bridge communications. c. Communications is each of the operational ocean areas. d. All communications possible within the International Safety Net service. 53. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft? a. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. b. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in distress. c. Notify RCC (Recue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. d. Communicate via INMARSAT-C from survival craft.

54. Which action is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS radio operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. b. Transmit distress call by HF/MF/VHF DSC or INMARSAT. c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13. d. Transmit distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal. 55. Which system assures communications virtually anywhere on the globe? a. MF NBDP b. INMARSAT c. VHF DSC d. 2182 kHz radiotelephone 56. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? a. MF/HF radiotelephony b. VHF DSC c. INMARSAT Standard-C d. Safety NET 57. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? a. NAVTEX b. SES c. MF NBDP d. HF NBDP 58. What is the basic concept of GMDSS? a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation. b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted. c. Shore side authorities & vessels can assist in coordinated SAR operations with minimum delay. d. All of these 59. What is the meaning of reserve source of energy? a. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting distress and safety communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power. b. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. c. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.G. and SOLAS requirements. d. None of these 60. Who may initiate a message indicating that distress traffic has finished? a. The relay ship or shore station b. The Rescue Coordination Center controlling a search and rescue operation c. The vessel in distress d. No message is required; when no distress traffic has been observed for a minimum of fifteen minutes, it may be assumed that the radio silence imposed has been lifted. 61. Which stations may transmit on the frequencies in which distress traffic is taking place? a. All stations which are aware of the distress traffic. b. Any station not itself in distress. c. All stations for which silence was imposed by the Rescue Coordination Center or station appointed to coordinate search and rescue activities. d. Any station in distress. 62. Which station may not transmit on the frequencies in which distress traffic is taking place? a. The Rescue Coordinating Center and any station appointed by them to coordinate distress traffic. b. Any stations in distress.

c.

Any station taking part in the search and rescue operation under the coordination of the Rescue Coordination Center or any station appointed by them to coordinate distress traffic. d. Any stations for which silence was imposed by the Rescue Coordinator during search and rescue operations. 63. What is the term which refers to the supply of electrical energy required to supply radio installations on every ship for the purpose of conducting distress and safety radio communications in the event of failure of the ships main and emergency sources of electrical power? a. Emergency power b. Reserve source of energy c. Ships emergency diesel generator d. Ships standby generator 64. What are the characteristics of the reserve source of energy under GMDSS? a. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. b. Can be independent of the propelling power of the ship. c. Must be incorporated into the ships electrical system d. Must be independent of the ships electrical system. 65. The radiotelephone silence periods are required; a. Twice each hour 3 minutes duration beginning on the hour and half hour. b. Once each hour, on the hour for 3 minutes duration. c. Four times each hour for 3 minutes duration commencing on the hour, 15 minutes, 30 minutes and 45 minutes. d. To be set by the captain of the vessel at the beginning of the voyage. 66. The radiotelephone silence period is: a. A time period when the radiotelephones watch receiver can be turned off because no traffic is sent. b. A time for testing to prevent interference with normal message traffic. c. d. 67. a. b. c. d. 68. a. b. c. d. 69. a. b. c. d. 70. a. b. c. d. 71. a. b.

c. d. 72. a. b. c. d. 73. a. b. c. d. 74. a. b. c. d. 75. a. b. c. d. 76. a. b. c. d. 77. a. b. c. d. 78. a. b. c. d. 79. a. b. c. d. 80. a. b. c. d. 81. a. b.

c. d. 82. a. b. c. d. 83. Under GMDSS, a compulsory 2182 kHz radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals? a. Weekly b. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. c. At the annual SOLAS inspection. d. Monthly 84. Testing of a two-tone radiotelephone alarm signal should be made: a. 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna. b. On any frequency other than 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna. c. On 2182 kHz and must be heard clearly under normal conditions at a range of 150 nautical miles. d. This should never be used expect under emergency conditions. 85. What is the meaning of the term SART? a. The U.S Coast Guard coordinated Search and Rescue Team. b. The COSPAS-SARSAT system c. The Search and Rescue Team coordinated by a national Rescue Coordination Center (RCC). d. Search and rescue radar transponder. 86. Which device provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress, or their survival craft? a. Radio Direction Finder b. Satellite EPIRBs c. SARTs d. VHF homing device 87. The SART operates in which frequency band? a. 3.5 GHz b. 9 GHz c. L-Band d. 406 MHz 88. Signal from the SART are detected on which shipboard equipment? a. S-Band Navigation Radar b. VHF-FM Channel 70 Watch Receiver c. X-Band Navigation Radar d. GPS Receiver 89. What causes the SART to begin a transmission? a. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. b. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. c. After being activated either manually or automatically, the SART responds to radar interrogation. d. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. 90. How does the search vessels GMDSS Radio Operator interrogate a survival craft SART? a. Activate the IFF interrogation system. b. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessels X-Band radar signal. c. Maintain watch on VHF-FM Channel 70 for the SARTs unique identifier. d. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessels 3.5 GHz radar signal. 91. The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? a. Eight hours

b. Three days c. Four days d. Forty-eight hours 92. What equipment is used to provide the means for locating a survival craft or a mother ship in distress? a. EPIRB b. RDF c. SART d. EPIRB and SART 93. Why should functional testing of an SART be minimized? a. Potential interference with safe navigation. b. Minimize power consumption of the battery. c. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a distress situation. d. All of these 94. What is the primary purpose of limiting the duration of operational test of SARTs? a. Limits battery capacity. b. Minimizes chance of interference with other vessels navigational radar. c. Reduced possibility of damage due to overheating when used indoors. d. Reduces the possibility of damage to own ships radar equipment. 95. Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? a. Operation on 156.8 MHz b. Operation on 456.535 MHz c. Operation on 121.5 MHz d. Any of these 96. Which statement is true regarding the requirement for survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? a. Watertight b. Internal microphone and loudspeaker c. Internal transmitter/receiver including antenna and battery d. All of these 97. Which control setting may limit the receiving range of a VHF portable radio? a. Squelch control set for minimum squelch. b. Selection of low-power (2 Watt) operation. c. Squelch control set for a maximum squelching station. d. Squelch control adjusted slightly past the range where noise is heard in the speaker. 98. What frequency is required in survival craft portable radiotelephony equipment? a. 121.5 MHz b. 156.8 MHz c. 156.3 MHz d. 156.650 MHz 99. A distress signal transmitted from which EPIRB is relayed by an INMARSAT satellite to CES (Coast Earth Stations) a. Class A EPIRBs b. Class B EPIRBs c. L-Band EPIRBs on the designated frequency d. 406 MHz EPIRB broadcast to all vessels for relay to a CES 100. a. b. c. d. Which statement is true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? EPIRBs are used as satellite beacons aboard vessels as alerting devices. Signals received by low altitude near-polar orbiting satellite are relayed to a ground Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons All of these