CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at A Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

CCNA Discovery 2 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Ci...
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Search Home Cisco CCNA Exploration 4.0 Tools & Utilities Cisco CCNA Exploration 4.0 Cisco CCNA Exploration 4.0 & Cisco CCNA Discovery 4.0 CCNA 1 Exploration Network Fundamentals (V4.0) CCNA 2 Exploration Routing Protocols and Concepts (V4.0) CCNA 3 Exploration LAN Switching and Wireless (V4.0) CCNA 4 Exploration Accessing the WAN (V4.0) CCNA 1 Discovery Networking for Home and Small Businesses (V4.0) CCNA 2 Discovery Working at a Smallto-Medium Business or ISP (V4.0) Tags
CCNA Discovery 2 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

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Cisco CCNA Discovery 2 Final Answers V4.1

1. A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server? FTPS HTTP ** HTTPS WEP2 TFTP 2. Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router? branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240 **branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.21 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown 3. Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are displayed? (Choose two.) ** Router(config)# enable secret cisco Router(config)# enable cisco Router(config)# encryption-password all Router(config)# enable login encrypted Router(config)# enable password encryption ** Router(config)# service password-encryption 4. A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.) ** Select the routing protocol to be configured. ** Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address. ** Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address. Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask. Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information. 5. How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data? if data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the segments be resent. If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data. ** TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all data has been received. The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and destination. 6. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task? routable translation dynamic translation static translation ** port address translation 7. What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol? ** BGP RIP OSPF EIGRP 8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name?
access address addresses cable
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security server switch TCP/IP updates UTP vlan vlans
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Router# ip hostname Boise Router# enable hostname Boise Router(config-line)# name Boise ** Router(config)# hostname Boise Router(config)# ip hostname Boise 9. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment? to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment ** to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order 10. What is the purpose of the routing process? to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network ** to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks to convert a URL name into an IP address to provide secure Internet file transfer to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses 11. Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.) ** The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time. **The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration mode. The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands. Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only when necessary. The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command whenever possible. 12. What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.) **DNS server WINS server **IP address NetBIOS ** subnet mask ** default gateway 13. A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED? The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM. ** The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service. The switch is functioning properly. The switch is in half-duplex mode. 14. Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct? A crossover, B straight-through, C straight-through A crossover, B rollover, C straight-through **A straight-through, B -crossover, C straight-through A straight-through, B -straight-through, C straight-through A straight-through, B straight-through, C crossover A rollover, B straight-through, C straight-through 15. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring? transport network data link ** physical 16. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) exchanges datagrams unreliably is used to send IP error messages forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets ** creates a virtual session between end-user applications **carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination 17. Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks? with BGP **with a static route with a directly connected route with an interior routing protocol 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1? rollover console crossover **straight-through 19. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use? leased line packet switched ** circuit switched point-to-point 20. A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the user do next? Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault. Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault. ** Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC . Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports.
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Categories CCNA 1 Network Fundamentals (V4.0) (11) CCNA 2 Routing Protocols and Concepts (V4.0) (11) CCNA 3 LAN Switching and Wireless (V4.0) (7) CCNA 4 Accessing the WAN (V4.0) (8) CCNA Discovery 1 Networking for Home and Small Businesses (10) CCNA Discovery 2 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP (19)
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21. A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.) The router will block the ping request message. The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response. Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B. Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A. ** Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B. ** Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A. 22. How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.) **inspection of the destination IP address in data packets ARP requests from connected routers manual configuration of routes ** updates from other routers DHCP information broadcasts updates from the SMTP management information base 23. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.) ** The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client. The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client. The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail. The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43 . **The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client. 24. What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake? sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source **synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer 25. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? host address network address **broadcast address multicast address 26. A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem? ** misconfigured firewall bad port on switch or hub misconfigured IP addressing on the customers workstation wrong DNS server configured on the customers workstation wrong default gateway configured on the customers workstation 27. The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed: C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1 From which router was this command executed? A B C D 28. Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.) ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1 ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-if)# login **ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4 ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-line)# login ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15 ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-line)# login ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1 ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown **ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0 ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-line)# login 29. A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user workstation? ** the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate the DHCP settings in the operating system the IP address, mask, and default gateway values the NIC drivers 30. Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C? RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2 RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2 **RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2 RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1 RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0
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31. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.) 255.255.255.240 ** 255.255.192.0 ** 255.255.0.0 255.192.0.0 240.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 32. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.) **RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6 RTA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6 RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.96 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6 RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6 **RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6 33. How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security? **They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations. They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur. They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers. They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications. 34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network. Which cable type is the best choice? STP UTP coaxial **fiber optic 35. What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the routing table? Convergence time Default distance ** Metric Type of router 36. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the diagram? (Choose two.) 192.168.65.31 192.168.65.32 ** 192.168.65.35 ** 192.168.65.60 192.168.65.63 192.168.65.64 37. Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet? 255.255.0.0 255.255.224.0 255.255.255.0 ** 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248 38. Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a centralized network management device? (Choose two.) ** Syslog Telnet HTTP HTTPS ** SNMP 39. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT? PAT uses the word overload at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address. Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses. Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required. **PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations. 40. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB? (Choose two.) **The router is connected to a router named Boise. Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router. Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers. **The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6 . The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links. 41. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route to the ISP network : RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.6 A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem? The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network. **The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5. The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the next hop address. The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration. 42. A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer protocol makes this possible? **SNMP FTP DHCP SMTP 43. What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.) to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client computers
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to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process **to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses **to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system 44. A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network? an IDS **an IPS a host-based firewall Anti-X software 45. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0? 30 256 **2046 2048 4094 4096 46. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another? **destination network address source network address source MAC address well known port destination address 47. A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which WAN connection type is best suited to its needs? Sonet T3 **dialup DSL leased line 48. The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will this command do? copy the configuration in RAM to a server **copy the configuration file from a server to RAM copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM 49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0 interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248 RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252 RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252 RTB(config)# no shutdown **RTB(config-if)# no shutdown **RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252 50. Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown. What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.) to map the path to 192.168.1.7 **to test reachability to 192.168.1.7 to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7 to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the address 192.168.1.7 **to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the technicians workstation
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: address, config, ip, network, router
Cisco CCNA Discovery 2 Final Answers V4.0

1. A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server? **FTPS HTTP HTTPS WEP2 TFTP 2. Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router? **branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240 **branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.21 255.255.255.240 branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown 3. Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are displayed? (Choose two.) **Router(config)# enable secret cisco Router(config)# enable cisco Router(config)# encryption-password all Router(config)# enable login encrypted
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Router(config)# enable password encryption **Router(config)# service password-encryption 4. A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.) **Select the routing protocol to be configured. **Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface. Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address. Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address. Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask. **Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information. 5. How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data? If data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the segments be resent. If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data. **TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all data has been received. The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and destination. 6. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task? routable translation **dynamic translation static translation port address translation 7. What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol? **BGP RIP OSPF EIGRP 8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name? Router# ip hostname Boise Router# enable hostname Boise Router(config-line)# name Boise **Router(config)# hostname Boise Router(config)# ip hostname Boise 9. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment? to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data **to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order 10. What is the purpose of the routing process? to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network **to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks to convert a URL name into an IP address to provide secure Internet file transfer to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses 11. Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.) **The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time. The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration mode. **The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands. Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only when necessary. The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command whenever possible. 12. What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.) **DNS server WINS server **IP address NetBIOS **subnet mask **default gateway 13. A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED? The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM. The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service. **The switch is functioning properly. The switch is in half-duplex mode. 14. Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct? A crossover, B straight-through, C straight-through A crossover, B rollover, C straight-through **A straight-through, B -crossover, C straight-through A straight-through, B -straight-through, C straight-through A straight-through, B straight-through, C crossover A rollover, B straight-through, C straight-through 15. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring? transport network data link **physical 16. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) exchanges datagrams unreliably **is used to send IP error messages **forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets creates a virtual session between end-user applications carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
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**is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination 17. Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks? with BGP **with a static route with a directly connected route with an interior routing protocol 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1? rollover console crossover **straight-through 19. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use? leased line packet switched circuit switched **point-to-point 20. A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the user do next? Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault. Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault. **Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC. Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports. 21. A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.) The router will block the ping request message. **The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response. Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B. **Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A. Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B. Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A. 22. How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.) **inspection of the destination IP address in data packets ARP requests from connected routers manual configuration of routes **updates from other routers DHCP information broadcasts updates from the SMTP management information base 23. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.) The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client. **The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client. The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail. The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43. **The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client. 24. What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake? **sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer 25. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? host address network address **broadcast address multicast address 26. A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem? **misconfigured firewall bad port on switch or hub misconfigured IP addressing on the customers workstation wrong DNS server configured on the customers workstation wrong default gateway configured on the customers workstation 27. The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed: C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1 From which router was this command executed? A B **C D 28. Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.) ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1 ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-if)# login **ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4 **ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco **ALSwitch(config-line)# login ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15 ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-line)# login
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**ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class **ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1 ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0 ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco ALSwitch(config-line)# login 29. A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user workstation? **the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate the DHCP settings in the operating system the IP address, mask, and default gateway values the NIC drivers 30. Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C? RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2 RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2 **RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2 RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1 RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0 31. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.) 255.255.255.240 **255.255.192.0 **255.255.0.0 255.192.0.0 240.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 32. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.) RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6 RTA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6 **RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.96 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6 RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6 RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 **RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6 33. How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security? **They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations. They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur. They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers. They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications. 34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network. Which cable type is the best choice? STP UTP coaxial **fiber optic 35. What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the routing table? Convergence time Default distance **Metric Type of router 36. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the diagram? (Choose two.) 192.168.65.31 192.168.65.32 **192.168.65.35 **192.168.65.60 192.168.65.63 192.168.65.64 37. Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet? 255.255.0.0 255.255.224.0 255.255.255.0 **255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248 38. Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a centralized network management device? (Choose two.) **Syslog Telnet HTTP HTTPS **SNMP 39. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT? PAT uses the word overload at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address. Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses. Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required. **PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations. 40. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB? (Choose two.) **The router is connected to a router named Boise. **Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router. Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers. The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6. The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links.
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41. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route to the ISP network : RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.6 A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem? The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network. **The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5. The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the next hop address. The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration. 42. A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer protocol makes this possible? SNMP FTP **DHCP SMTP 43. What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.) to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client computers to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process **to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses **to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system 44. A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network? an IDS **an IPS a host-based firewall Anti-X software 45. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0? 30 256 **2046 2048 4094 4096 46. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another? **destination network address source network address source MAC address well known port destination address 47. A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which WAN connection type is best suited to its needs? Sonet T3 **dialup DSL leased line 48. The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will this command do? copy the configuration in RAM to a server **copy the configuration file from a server to RAM copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM 49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0 interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248 RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252 RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252 RTB(config)# no shutdown **RTB(config-if)# no shutdown **RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252 50. Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown. What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.) to map the path to 192.168.1.7 **to test reachability to 192.168.1.7 to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7 to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the address 192.168.1.7 **to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the technicians workstation
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: address, config, ip, network, router
Cisco CCNA Discovery 2 Chapter 9 Answers V4.1

1. How many usable host addresses does the 192.168.1.0/25 subnet provide? 254 128 127 126*** 64 62 2. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem? Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?*** Do you have a link light on your network card? Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP? What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
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Can you ping http://www.cisco.com? 3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the configuration into the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with the IP addressing scheme? Serial0/0 is configured with a network address. The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on FastEthernet0/1. Serial0/1 is configured with a broadcast address. The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.*** 4. A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue? top-down*** bottom-up divide-and-conquer impossible to determine from this information 5. Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status? (Choose two.) The loopback address is not set. The encapsulation type is mismatched.*** A cable is not attached to the interface. Keepalive messages are not being received.*** The interface is administratively shut down. 6. Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server across the Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem? (Choose two.) There is no route to the Internet. The IP address on Fa0/0 is incorrect. The IP address on S0/0/0 is incorrect. The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.*** The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.*** 7. Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.) cables that exceed maximum length*** encapsulation errors viruses and worms that create excessive broadcast traffic poor termination of cables*** receiving line protocol down messages on the router console 8. A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is correctly recognized by the router? show flash: show version*** show ip route show startup-configuration 9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) ping*** show arp traceroute*** show ip route*** show controllers show cdp neighbor 10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the IP address configuration? Interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 can be in the same subnet. Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkA can be in the same subnet. Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.*** Interface Fa0/1 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet. 11. A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the port? There is a duplex mismatch error. There is a link fault error. This port is unable to forward frames. The port is operational and ready to transmit packets.*** This port has been disabled by management and is unable to forward frames. The flash memory is busy. 12. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.) FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly.*** The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0.*** FastEthernet0/0 was configured by the startup-config at bootup. Serial0/0 is experiencing a Layer 1 network problem. FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem.*** Because the port is down, Serial0/1 has an IP address that does not show in the output. 13. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 10.12.10.0/24 network are unable to access anyone on the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What two problems exist in the network? (Choose two.) R2 is using a different version of RIP.*** R2 has a missing network statement.*** R1 has an incorrect network statement. R3 has an incorrect network statement. A routing loop is occurring between all three routers. 14. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at 192.168.2.2, but it fails. What is the problem? The PC is on the wrong subnet.
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The default gateway on the PC should be 192.168.1.1.*** The default gateway should be 192.168.2.2. The DNS server is incorrect. The IP address for Fa0/0 on router A is incorrect. 15. An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup, the administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end of the serial connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring? Layer 2*** Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6 16. Refer to the exhibit. A router initially boots up to ROMMON mode. The administrator enters the dir flash: command and sees the output that is shown. What should the administrator do next? Load a new IOS onto the router by the use of TFTP. Load a new IOS onto the router via XMODEM. Boot the router using the reset command in ROMMON.*** Erase the file in flash and reboot the router. 17. A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the network. However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same subnet, the PC fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they are successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem between the PC and the FTP server? cable tester digital multimeter protocol analyzer*** network analyzer 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing connectivity problems between hosts and servers? HostA HostB Server1 Server2*** R1 Fa0/0 R1 Fa0/1 19. Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model? A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host.*** A host has an incorrect IP address. A router has no route to a host. A host sent a malformed HTTP request. 20. A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the administrator pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of troubleshooting method is the administrator employing? top-down bottom-up divide-and-conquer*** impossible to determine from this information
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: address, administrator, ip, network, router

1. Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network? authentication accreditation **accounting authorization 2. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.) **date and time of message **ID of sending device length of message **message ID checksum field community ID 3. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network? It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access. **It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point. It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment. It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses. 4. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed? packet filtering proxy **stateful packet inspection stateless packet inspection 5. A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this? authentication
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authorization **accounting accessing 6. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed? (Choose two.) **reviewing backup logs **performing trial backups performing full backups only replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape 7. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information? query broadcast ICMP ping **trap poll 8. Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.) FTP **HTTP **SNMP **Telnet TFTP DHCP 9. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network? The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key. **The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC. The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN. The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses. 10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.) **Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs. **Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs. Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested. Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks. Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time. 11. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.) SMTP **IPSEC **SSL **HTTPS FTP TFTP 12. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router? **encryption TCP usage authorization connection using six VTY lines 13. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network? network management station network management database **management information base database information agent 14. What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.) Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data. Data tapes are difficult to store offsite. **Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often. **Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability. Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions. 15. What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall? clean LAN intranet **DMZ extranet 16. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.) applications physical addresses packet size **ports **protocols 17. When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary? when a server needs to be monitored across the network **when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP 18. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication? HTTPS IMAP
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FTPS **IPSEC TLS 19. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up? daily differential **full incremental partial 20. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources? auditing accounting **authorization access control authentication acknowledgement
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: access, choose, data, network, wireless

1. Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network? authentication accreditation *accounting authorization 2. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.) *date and time of message *ID of sending device length of message *message ID checksum field community ID 3. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network? *It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access. It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point. It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment. It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses. 4. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed? *packet filtering proxy stateful packet inspection stateless packet inspection 5. A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this? authentication authorization *accounting accessing 6. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed? (Choose two.) *reviewing backup logs *performing trial backups performing full backups only replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape 7. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information? query broadcast ICMP ping trap *poll 8. Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.) FTP HTTP *SNMP *Telnet *TFTP DHCP 9. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network? The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key. *The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC. The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN. The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses. 10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.) *Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs. Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
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Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested. *Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks. Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time. 11. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.) SMTP *IPSEC *SSL *HTTPS FTP TFTP 12. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router? *encryption TCP usage authorization connection using six VTY lines 13. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network? network management station *network management database management information base database information agent 14. What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.) *Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data. Data tapes are difficult to store offsite. Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often. *Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability. Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions. 15. What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall? clean LAN intranet *DMZ extranet 16. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.) applications physical addresses packet size *ports *protocols 17. When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary? when a server needs to be monitored across the network *when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP 18. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication? HTTPS IMAP FTPS *IPSEC TLS 19. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up? daily differential *full incremental partial 20. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources? auditing accounting authorization access control *authentication acknowledgement
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: access, choose, data, network, wireless

1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.) The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model. The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols. The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model. The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection. The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers. 2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.) accessibility adaptability availability reliability scalability 3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.) It utilizes TCP port 110. A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message. It utilizes a store and forward process.
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The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server. SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers. 4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2. Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2. Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2. Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1. Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1. Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1. 5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.) Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability. Reliability is measured as a percent. Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers. Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability. The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability. 6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.) It uses well-known port 23. The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function. In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data. It requires two connections between client and server. FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine. 7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake? It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts. It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data. It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers. It identifies the destination application on the receiving host. 8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.) It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses. It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers. It supports authentication. It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows. It encrypts packets with SSL. It requires additional server processing time. 9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name? dynamic lookup forward lookup resolution lookup reverse lookup 10.
What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur? dynamic zone transfer local recursive query root domain query top-level domain query 11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.) If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically. The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10. If the ping http://www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried. The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation. Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS. 12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.) maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries maintaining the ISP server mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet 13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.) connection oriented full-duplex operation low overhead no flow control no error-recovery function reliable transmission 14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.) FTP HTTP ICMP PPP Telnet SMTP
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15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.) DNS 25 FTP 110 HTTP 80 POP3 25 SMTP 25 16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair? source port with destination port source IP address with destination port source IP address and destination IP address source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port 17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server? SNMP FTP SMTP HTTPS 18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request? Source 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:80 Source 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:1045 Source 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:80 Source 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:1061 19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP? caching-only root second-level top-level 20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client? The server will apply the default service configured in directory services. The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router. The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service. The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field. 21.
When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.) IP address MAC address session number sequence number 22. Which three fields do a TCP header and UDP header have in common? (Choose three.) checksum destination port source port
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: 8211, choose, destination, port, server

1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.) The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model. The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols. The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model. The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection. The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers. 2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.) accessibility adaptability availability reliability scalability 3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.) It utilizes TCP port 110. A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message. It utilizes a store and forward process. The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server. SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers. 4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2. Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2. Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2. Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1. Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1. Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
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5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.) Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability. Reliability is measured as a percent. Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers. Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability. The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability. 6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.) It uses well-known port 23. The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function. In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data. It requires two connections between client and server. FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine. 7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake? It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts. It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data. It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers. It identifies the destination application on the receiving host. 8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.) It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses. It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers. It supports authentication. It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows. It encrypts packets with SSL. It requires additional server processing time. 9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name? dynamic lookup forward lookup resolution lookup reverse lookup 10.
What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur? dynamic zone transfer local recursive query root domain query top-level domain query 11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.) If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically. The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10. If the ping http://www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried. The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation. Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS. 12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.) maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries maintaining the ISP server mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet 13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.) connection oriented full-duplex operation low overhead no flow control no error-recovery function reliable transmission 14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.) FTP HTTP ICMP PPP Telnet SMTP 15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.) DNS 25 FTP 110 HTTP 80 POP3 25 SMTP 25 16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair? source port with destination port source IP address with destination port source IP address and destination IP address source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port 17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
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SNMP FTP SMTP HTTPS 18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request? Source 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:80 Source 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:1045 Source 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:80 Source 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination 192.168.2.39:1061 19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP? caching-only root second-level top-level 20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client? The server will apply the default service configured in directory services. The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router. The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service. The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field. 21.
When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.) IP address MAC address session number sequence number
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: 8211, address, choose, destination, server

1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration? show version show ip route show interface **show ip protocols 2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other? 14 15 **16 17 3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)? when the companys ISP adds connection points to the Internet when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork when more than one interior routing protocol is used **when the company uses two or more ISPs 4. Consider this routing table entry R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 What type of route is this? a static route a default route **a RIP route an OSPF route an EIGRP route a directly-connected route 5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations. Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains. **Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems. 6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates? metric **subnet mask area identification hop count autonomous system number 7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs? **BGP
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EIGRP OSPF RIP v2 8. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown? routerA(config-router)# no version 2 routerA(config)# interface fa0/0 routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0 **routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway 9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available? in 30 seconds in 60 seconds in 90 seconds **Immediately 10. What statement is true regarding an AS number? AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use. Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers. ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers. All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number. 11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP? to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers **to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router 12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network? router# show ip address router# show ip route **router# show ip networks router# show ip interface brief router# debug ip protocol router# debug rip update 13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol? It is used to build and maintain ARP tables. It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets. It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network. **It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers. It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding. 14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data? **border gateway router DSLAM web server interior router 15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received? show ip route show ip rip debug ip rip show ip protocols **show ip rip database 16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions? source IP address source MAC address **destination IP address destination MAC address 17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.) a home business with one ISP connection **a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs **a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP 18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router? debug ip rip show ip route show ip interface show ip protocols debug ip rip config **show ip rip database 19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols? **Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged. Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged. Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged. Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged. 20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.) They are created in interface configuration mode. **They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes. They automatically become the default gateway of the router. **They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
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21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.) Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols. Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time. **Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network. **Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval. Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network. In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols. 22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol? **BGP EIGRP OSPF RIP 23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) **Ping show arp **Traceroute **show ip route show interface show cdp neighbor detail 24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority? Internet intranet virtual private network **autonomous system
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: ip, network, protocols, rip, routing

1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration? show version show ip route show interface show ip protocols**** 2.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other? 14 15 16**** 17 3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)? when the companys ISP adds connection points to the Internet when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork when more than one interior routing protocol is used when the company uses two or more ISPs****** 4. Consider this routing table entry R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 What type of route is this? a static route a default route a RIP route******* an OSPF route an EIGRP route a directly-connected route 5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations. Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains. Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.******** 6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates? metric subnet mask******** area identification hop count autonomous system number
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7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs? BGP******* EIGRP OSPF RIP v2 8.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown? routerA(config-router)# no version 2 routerA(config)# interface fa0/0 routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0 routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0******* routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway 9.
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available? in 30 seconds in 60 seconds in 90 seconds Immediately****** 10. What statement is true regarding an AS number? AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use. Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers. ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers. All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.********* 11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP? to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates**** to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router 12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network? router# show ip address router# show ip route router# show ip networks******** router# show ip interface brief router# debug ip protocol router# debug rip update 13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol? It is used to build and maintain ARP tables. It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets. It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network. It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.******* It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding. 14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data? border gateway router****** DSLAM web server interior router 15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received? show ip route show ip rip debug ip rip show ip protocols show ip rip database******* 16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions? source IP address source MAC address
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destination IP address******* destination MAC address 17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.) a home business with one ISP connection a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs****** a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs****** a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP 18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router? debug ip rip show ip route show ip interface show ip protocols debug ip rip config show ip rip database******* 19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols? Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.********* Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged. Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged. Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged. 20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.) They are created in interface configuration mode. They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.***** They automatically become the default gateway of the router. They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S***** They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown. 21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.) Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols. Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time. Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.*** Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.***** Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network. In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols. 22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol? BGP***** EIGRP OSPF RIP 23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) Ping**** show arp Traceroute*** show ip route*** show interface show cdp neighbor detail 24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority? Internet intranet virtual private network autonomous system****
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: ip, network, protocols, rip, routing

1. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.) **SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management. SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser. SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices. **SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands. SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration. 2. Which mode will a configured router display at login? global configuration mode setup mode ROM monitor mode **user EXEC mode 3. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown? virtual terminal only enable mode only console and virtual terminal only enable mode and virtual terminal only the service password **all configured passwords 4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
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**Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192 **Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192 **Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192 Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4 Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15 Switch1(config-line)# password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65 5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure? blinks rapidly amber blinks rapidly green **steady amber steady green 6. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? **X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254 X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1 X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1 X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1 X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0 7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes? **router# show running-config router# show startup-config router# show flash router# show version 8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) **VTY interface **console interface Ethernet interface secret EXEC mode **privileged EXEC mode router configuration mode 9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination? **Tab Ctrl-P Ctrl-N Up Arrow Right Arrow Down Arrow 10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to LAB_A? **Router> enable Router# configure terminal Router(config)# hostname LAB_A Router> enable Router# hostname LAB_A Router> enable Router# configure router Router(config)# hostname LAB_A Router> enable Router(config)# host name LAB_A 11. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch? Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop. Telnet to the switch from the router console. **Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console. The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings. 12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.) **Easy IP (IP negotiated) IP unnumbered No IP address HDLC encapsulation Frame Relay encapsulation **PPP encapsulation 13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.) **host name DHCP options **domain name interface IP addresses **enable secret password DNS server IP addresses 14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.) View a list of commands entered in a previous session. Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
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**Set the command history buffer size. **Recall previously entered commands. Save command lines in a log file for future reference. 15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet? **host name domain name DHCP address pool **DNS server IP address 16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.) ATM CHAP **Frame Relay **HDLC PAP **PPP 17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks? Router# show ip interfaces Router# show ip connections **Router# show ip route Router# show ip networks 18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible? console AUX **Telnet modem 19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.) **platform routing protocol **connected interface of neighbor device **device ID IP addresses of all interfaces enable mode password 20. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit? transmission of data reception of data **clocking for the synchronous link noise cancellation in transmitted data 21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.) stores the routing table **retains contents when power is removed **stores the startup configuration file contains the running configuration file stores the ARP table 22. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server? Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252 Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000 Router1(config-if)# no shutdown Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252 Router1(config-if)# no shutdown Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252 Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000 Router1(config-if)# no shutdown **Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252 Router1(config-if)# no shutdown 23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem? The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch. **There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port. The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC. The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch. 24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.) All router commands are available. **Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command. A password can be entered to allow access to other modes. Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured. **Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed. 25. Which command turns on a router interface? Router(config-if)# enable Router(config-if)# no down Router(config-if)# s0 active Router(config-if)# interface up **Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Posted in CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP | Tags: config, configif, interface, ip, router
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CCNA Discovery 2 - Working at A Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

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