Embryology + Anatomy Study Questions (w/ answers) 1.

During early gastrulation __________cells begin to divide and migrate to the midline. In doing so they form a ridge of cells that buckles inward to form the _______________. a. Hypoblast; Primitive Node b. Epiblast; Primitive Node c. Hypoblast; Primitive Groove d. Epiblast; Primitive Groove

2. At its ___________ end the primitive groove is enlarged into the primitive ______. a. Caudal; Node b. Cephalic (Cranial); Node c. Cephalic (Cranial); Pit d. Caudal; Pit

3. The tissue ridge around the 2nd answer to # 2 is known as the ___________. a. Primitive Pit b. Primitive Node c. Primitive Streak d. Primitive Nodule

4. On occasion the _____________ does not disappear at the end of the fourth week. This develops into a tumor (most often seen in newborn females) known as ______________. a. Connecting Stalk; dysgerminoma b. Ectoderm; endodermal sinus tumor c. Primitive Streak; Sarococcygeal Teratoma d. Yolk Sac; embryonal carcinoma

5. The _______ forms a solid sheet of cells between the ectoderm and endoderm, except in the ________ & ___________. a. Mesoderm; primitive pit (precordal plate) & cloacal membrane b. Myoderm; precordal plate (oropharyngeal membrane) & caudal pit c. Myoderm; precordal plate (oropharyngeal membrane) & cloacal membrane d. Mesoderm; precordal plate (oropharyngeal membrane) & cloacal membrane

6. During genetic screening it is determined that Baby Boy X has a defect in the gene that controls development of the first layer through the primitive groove during invagination. The childs defect is not fatal. However, this genetic defect would most likely be manifested in: a. Respiratory disease due to insufficient lining of the lungs and associated dysfunction b. Problems with excessive musculo-tendonous elasticity c. Inability to properly absorb nutrients in small intestine, related to abnormal lining of the GI tract d. Spina Bifida with accompanying decreases in distal neurological function e. A & C f. None of the following abnormalities is consistent with the dysfunction listed

7. Due to exposure to multiple tetragons during the 3rd week Baby Girl X s endoderm and ectoderm developed improperly. Given this information and your knowledge of gastrulation, these defects will most likely result in: a. Respiratory disease due to insufficient lining of the lungs b. Inability to absorb nutrients in small intestine c. Fetal Death d. Spina Bifida e. A & B only f. A, B, & C

8. A child born with multiple non-fatal deformities related to improper development of the ectoderm presents in the neonatal intensive care unit with neurological defects due to multiple problems with the nervous system & improper development of the skin. The child also presented with (choose the most probable given information above) : a. Muscular imbalances and cardiovascular irregularities b. Dysfunction of the liver and pancreas c. Reproductive malformations responsible for irreversible sterility d. Structural malformation of the face and head

9. Since the ____________ axis develops during the blastocyst stage via separation of the inner cell mass and blastocoel the synctiotrophoblast formed immediately after implantation would be described as _________ to the bi-laminar embryonic disc. a. Dorsal-Ventral; dorsal b. Dorsal-Ventral; ventral c. Cranial-Caudal; cranial d. Cranial-Caudal; cephalic

10. The ____________ disk elongates into an oval indicating the cranial-caudal axis. Yet specific cranial and caudal ends are NOT identifiable until development of the _________. a. Tri-laminar; primitive streak b. Bi-laminar; primitive streak c. Tri-laminar; oropharyngeal membrane d. Bi-laminar; oropharyngeal membrane

11. The __________ is at the ___________ end of the primitive groove. a. Primitive Pit; Caudal b. Cloacal Membrane; Cranial c. Oropharyngeal Membrane; Caudal d. Primitive Pit; Cranial

12. The ____________ is ________ to the primitive groove and __________ to the oropharyngeal membrane (prechordal plate) a. Primitive Pit; Caudal; Cranial b. Primitive Pit; Cranial; Cranial c. Notochord; Caudal; Cranial d. Notochord; Cranial; Caudal e. Notochord; Superior; Inferior

13. Directly under the primitive node and along the newly forming endoderm, ____________ cells (which mix with the endoderm) begin to form a cord in the midline. These cells grow __________ to form a thin, elongated notochordal plate. a. Mesoderm; Caudally b. Mesoderm; Cranially c. Ectoderm; Cranially d. Ectoderm; Caudally

14. Notochord development causes adjacent tissue to differentiate. As a consequence, the portion of adjacent mesoderm farthest from the notochord is called the _____________ and is continuous with the ______________. a. Ventral Mesoderm; Extraembryonic Endoderm b. Lateral Mesoderm; Extraembryonic Ectoderm c. Lateral Mesoderm; Extraembryonic Mesoderm d. Lateral Mesoderm; Extraembryonic Endoderm e. Ventral Mesoderm; Extraembryonic Mesoderm

15. In the early embryo, mesoderm cells will form a cluster (near the end of the 4th week) ________ to the notochord called the _______________ which becomes the future heart. a. Cranial; Cardiovascular Center b. Caudal; Cardiovascular Center c. Caudal; Cardiogenic Area d. Cranial; Cardiogenic Area

===================================================================================== 16. The fovea capitis is important clinically as this is the site where the _________ attaches. a. Iliofemoral ligament b. Zona Orbicularis c. Ligament of Head of Femur d. Pectineus

17. Which of the major hip ligaments is located primarily on the posterior aspect? a. Iliofemoral b. Acetabular Labrum c. Ischiofemoral d. Pubofemoral

18. The sciatic nerve passes through greater sciatic foramen. The greater sciatic foramen is formed by the: a. Sacrotuberous ligament and Sacrospinous ligament b. Sacrotuberous Ligament, Sacrococcygeal ligament, and floor of pelvis c. Greater Sciatic Notch, Sacrospinous Ligament, & most lateral and superior portions of the deep dorsal Sacrococcygeal ligament d. Posterior Sacroiliac Ligament and Sacrotuberous ligament

19. To help identify these ligaments on cadaver dissections it would be important to know that when moving from proximal to distal the _______ runs lateral to medial whereas the ______ runs medial to lateral a. ACL, PCL b. PCL, ACL c. Transverse ligament (of tibia), ACL d. PCL, Transverse ligament (of tibia)

20. If a plantar nerve swells or is thickened it can often get caught between two structures in the distal aspect of the foot (Mortons neuroma). Given your knowledge of anatomy select the structures most likely trapping this thickened plantar nerve. a. Bases of adjacent Metatarsals b. The articulations between the metatarsal bases and respective tarsal bones they articulate with c. Between adjacent metatarsal heads d. Between tarsal bones (3rd cuneiform/lateral cuneiform and cuboid)

21. The peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, and peroneal nerve each run along the lateral aspect of the lower leg and ankle. This information helps explain why the peroneal groove is located on the: a. Navicular b. Lateral Cuneiform c. Talus d. Cuboid

22. Which of the following articulations actually occurs at the transverse tarsal joint (along the transverse tarsal line)? a. Calcaneus-Lateral Cuneiform b. Talus-Medial Cuneiform c. Talus-Navicular d. Navicular-Cuneiforms (Medial, Intermediate, and Lateral) e. Cuboid-Base of 4th & 5th Metatarsals

23. The accessory bone commonly found on the medial aspect of the navicular is the: a. Os Trigon b. Os Vesalianum c. Medial Sesamoid Bone d. Os Peroneum e. Os tibiale externum

24. The Os Vesalianum is an accessory bone commonly located on the ___________ aspect of the foot and is associated with the _____________. a. Lateral; base of the 5th metatarsal b. Superior; talus c. Lateral; cuboid d. Lateral-Inferior; calcaneus

25. An ankle has been dissected with everything removed except for the three primary ligaments of its lateral aspect. If you were viewing this ankle from the side (laterally), from anterior to posterior (in order) you would notice: a. Anterior Talofibular, Posterior Talofibular, Calcaneofibular b. Anterior Talofibular, Calcaneofibular, Posterior Talofibular c. Calcaneofibular, Anterior Talofibular, Posterior Talofibular d. Anterior Talofibular/Calcaneofibular (they super-impose each other), Posterior Talofibular

26. Articulate surface for the lateral mass of the occipital condyle is located on the ________ surface of the _________ vertebrae. a. Superior surface; axis b. Inferior surface; atlas c. Inferior surface; axis d. Superior surface; atlas

27. The predental space is an important clinical landmark for lateral radiographs of the cervical spine. This critical space is between the ________ aspect of the _____________ of C1 to the most ______________________________. a. Anterior; Anterior Arch; Anterior portion of the odontoid process b. Anterior; Posterior Arch; Posterior portion of the odontoid process c. Posterior; Anterior Arch; Anterior portion of the odontoid process d. Posterior; Posterior Arch; Posterior portion of the odontoid process

28. In cervical vertebrae, the sulcus for the nerve is slightly ____________________. a. Anterior to the posterior tubercle of the transverse process b. Lateral to the transverse foramen c. Posterior to the posterior tubercle of the transverse process d. A & B e. B & C

29. Mammillary and Accessory Processes are located on the _________ spine only. Also, mammillary processes are located __________ to the accessory processes. a. Lumbar; medial & superior b. Lumbar; lateral & superior c. Thoracic; medial & superior d. Thoracic; lateral & superior

30. The pars interarticularis is best described as ______________. a. The area between the facet joints and the lamina/spinous processes b. The area between the body and the transverse processes c. The neck of the scotty dog d. The foreleg of the scotty dog e. A & C f. B & D

31. During full flexion of the elbow which of the following statements is true: a. The coronoid process of the radius is received by the coronoid fossa of humerus b. The coronoid process of the ulna is received by in the coronoid fossa of humerus c. The radial fossa of humerus accommodates the edge of the head of the radius d. The olecranon process of the ulna rests in the olecranon fossa of the humerus e. A & C f. B & C g. A, C, & D h. B, C, & D

32. The coronoid process is __________ in relation to the tuberosity of the ulna (choose best answer) a. Distal b. Proximal c. Lateral d. Medial

33. The _____________ of the ____________________ is _____________ to the trapezoid ligament (hint: answer to blank 1 + deltoid ligament = answer to blank 2). a. Coracoid ligament; coracoclavicular ligament; medial b. Conoid ligament; coracoclavicular ligament; medial c. Conoid ligament; coracoclavicular ligament; lateral d. Coracoid ligament; coracoclavicular ligament; lateral

34. The ___________ ligament inserts at into an impression on the _____________ end of the clavicle a. Costoclavicular; Acromial b. Costoclavicular; Sternal c. Coracoclavicular; Sternal d. Coracoacromial; Acromial

35. A patient with bilateral, chronically tight semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gluteus maximus and rectus abdominis would eventually develop which of the following postural decompensations: a. Lordosis b. Kyphosis c. Flat Back d. Scoliosis

36. Kyphosis is characterized by a hunch back deformity whose primary contributing factor (especially in the elderly) is: a. Osteoporosis b. Muscle Weakening c. Age-related gait abnormalities d. GI dysfunction

37. Which of the following describes a postural de-compensation and correctly list the muscles associated with that de-compensation: a. Flat back: tight semimembranosus & semitendinosus; tight iliocostalis & longissimus b. Lordosis: tight semimembranosus & semitendinosus; tight semispinalis, multifidus, & rotatores c. Flat back: tight rectus femoris, sartorius, & iliopsoas; tight semispinalis, multifidus, & rotatores d. Lordosis: tight rectus femoris, sartorius, & iliopsoas; tight iliocostalis & longissimus

38. The guiding philosophy in medical radiation use is summarized by radiologist with the acronym ALARA. What does ALARA stand for? a. As Low As Readily Allowed b. A Level Always Reasonably Achievable c. As Low As Reasonably Achievable d. As Low as Radiologically Achievable

39. Select the group of tissue below that is MOST sensitive tissue to radiation? a. Gonads b. Liver, Bladder, Thyroid Esophagus c. Lung, Stomach, Breast, Colon d. Brain, Salivary Glands, Skin

40. Which of the following contrasts is excreted by the kidneys and often used to evaluate renal function or to identify renal obstructions? a. Barium Swallows b. Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) c. Tc-99m labeled isotope d. Doppler Flow