ACS - Physics Mr.

Grecu Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A

SEMESTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2012

Multiple Choice (3 points each) Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. When an object is moving with uniform circular motion, the objects tangential speed a. is circular. b. is perpendicular to the plane of motion. c. is constant. d. is directed toward the center of motion. A child rides a bicycle in a circular path with a radius of 2.0 m. The tangential speed of the bicycle is 2.0 m/s. The combined mass of the bicycle and the child is 43 kg. ____ 2. What is the magnitude of the bicycles centripetal acceleration? a. 1.0 m/s2 c. 4.0 m/s2 2 b. 2.0 m/s d. 8.0 m/s2 3. What is the magnitude of the centripetal force on the bicycle? a. 4.0 N c. 86 N b. 43 N d. 3.7 kN 4. The gravitational force between two masses is 36 N. What is the gravitational force if the distance 11 2 2 between them is tripled? (G = 6.673 10 Nm /kg ) a. 4.0 N c. 18 N b. 9.0 N d. 27 N

____

____

____

5. In the figure above, according to Keplers laws of planetary motion, a. A 1 = A 2 . c. if t 1 = t 2 , then the orbit is circular. b. t 1 > t 2 . d. if t 1 = t 2 , then A 1 = A 2 . 6. If you cannot exert enough force to loosen a bolt with a wrench, which of the following should you do? a. Use a wrench with a longer handle. b. Tie a rope to the end of the wrench and pull on the rope. c. Use a wrench with a shorter handle. d. You should exert a force on the wrench closer to the bolt. 1

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____

7. An iron bar is used to lift a slab of cement. The force applied to lift the slab is 4.0 10 N. If the slab weighs 6400 N, what is the mechanical advantage of the bar? a. 1.6 c. 6000 b. 16 d. 6.3% 8. How does a liquid differ from a gas? a. A liquid has both definite shape and definite volume, whereas a gas has neither. b. A liquid has definite volume, unlike a gas. c. A liquid has definite shape, unlike a gas. d. A liquid has definite shape, whereas a gas has definite volume. 9. A cube of wood with a density of 0.780 g/cm is 10.0 cm on each side. When the cube is placed in water, what buoyant force acts on the wood? ( w = 1.00 g/cm ) a. b. 7.65 10 N 7.65 N
3 3 3

____

____

c. d.

6.40 N 5.00 N
3

____ 10. According to legend, to determine whether the kings crown was made of pure gold, Archimedes measured the crowns volume by determining how much water it displaced. The density of gold is 19.3 g/cm . If the crowns mass was 6.00 10 g, what volume of water would have been displaced if the crown was indeed made of pure gold? a. b. 31.1 cm
3 3 3 2

c. d.

22.8 10 cm 114 10 cm
2 3

1.81 10 cm

____ 11. Each of four tires on an automobile has an area of 0.026 m in contact with the ground. The weight of the automobile is 2.6 10 N. What is the pressure in the tires? a. b. 3.1 10 Pa 6 1.0 10 Pa
6 4

c. d.

2.5 10 Pa 4 6.2 10 Pa

____ 12. Which of the following is not an example of laminar flow? a. a river moving slowly in a straight line b. smoke rising upward in a smooth column through air c. water flowing evenly from a slightly opened faucet d. smoke twisting as it moves upward from a fire ____ 13. If the flow rate of a liquid is measured at 8.0 10 m /s going through a 20.0 m radius pipe, which of the following is the average fluid velocity in the pipe? a. b. 4.0 10 0.64 m/s
2 3 3

m/s

c. d.

2.0 m/s 6.4 m/s

____ 14. For an ideal fluid flowing through a horizontal pipe, Bernoullis principle and the continuity equation state that the pressure within the pipe does which of the following? (Assume measurements are taken along the pipe in the direction of fluid flow.) a. Pressure increases as the pipe diameter increases. b. Pressure decreases as the pipe diameter increases. c. Pressure remains constant as the pipe diameter increases. d. Pressure increases, then decreases as the pipe diameter increases. 2

____ 15. What happens to the internal energy of an ideal gas when it is heated from 0C to 4C? a. It increases. c. It remains constant. b. It decreases. d. It is impossible to determine. ____ 16. As the temperature of a substance increases, its volume tends to increase due to a. thermal equilibrium. c. thermal expansion. b. thermal energy. d. thermal contraction. ____ 17. If two small beakers of water, one at 70C and one at 80C, are emptied into a large beaker, what is the final temperature of the water? a. The final temperature is less than 70C. b. The final temperature is greater than 80C. c. The final temperature is between 70C and 80C. d. The water temperature will fluctuate. ____ 18. How is energy transferred as heat always directed? a. from an object at low temperature to an object at high temperature b. from an object at high temperature to an object at low temperature c. from an object at low kinetic energy to an object at high kinetic energy d. from an object with higher mass to an object of lower mass

____ 19. The figure above shows how the temperature of 10.0 g of ice changes as energy is added. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The water absorbed energy continuously, but the temperature increased only when all of the water was in one phase. b. The water absorbed energy sporadically, and the temperature increased only when all of the water was in one phase. c. The water absorbed energy continuously, and the temperature increased continuously. d. The water did not absorb energy. ____ 20. At what point on the figure above does the substance undergo a phase change? a. A c. C b. B d. E

____ 21. Which of the following is a set of particles or interacting components to which energy is added or from which energy is removed? a. an ideal gas c. a system b. an engine d. an environment ____ 22. When an ideal gas does positive work on its surroundings, which of the gass quantities increases? a. temperature c. pressure b. volume d. internal energy ____ 23. An ideal gas system is maintained at a constant volume of 4 L. If the pressure is constant, how much work is done by the system? a. 0 J c. 8 J b. 5 J d. 30 J ____ 24. Which thermodynamic process takes place when work is done on or by the system but no energy is transferred to or from the system as heat? a. isovolumetric c. adiabatic b. isobaric d. isothermal ____ 25. An ideal gas system undergoes an adiabatic process in which it expands and does 20 J of work on its environment. What is the change in the systems internal energy? a. 20 J c. 0 J b. 5 J d. 20 J ____ 26. Imagine you could observe the individual atoms that make up a piece of matter and that you observe the motion of the atoms becoming more orderly. What can you assume about the system? a. It is gaining thermal energy. b. Its entropy is increasing. c. Its entropy is decreasing. d. Positive work is being done on the system. ____ 27. When a drop of ink mixes with water, what happens to the entropy of the system? a. The systems entropy increases, and the total entropy of the universe increases. b. The systems entropy decreases, and the total entropy of the universe increases. c. The systems entropy increases, and the total entropy of the universe decreases. d. The systems entropy decreases, and the total entropy of the universe decreases. ____ 28. A mass attached to a spring vibrates back and forth. At maximum displacement, the spring force and the a. velocity reach a maximum. c. acceleration reach a maximum. b. velocity reach zero. d. acceleration reach zero. ____ 29. A mass-spring system can oscillate with simple harmonic motion because a compressed or stretched spring has which kind of energy? a. kinetic c. gravitational potential b. mechanical d. elastic potential ____ 30. A child on a playground swings through a total of 32. If the displacement is equal on each side of the equilibrium position, what is the amplitude of this vibration? (Disregard frictional forces acting on the swing.) a. 8.0 c. 32 b. 16 d. 64

____ 31. If a pendulum is adjusted so that its frequency changes from 10 Hz to 20 Hz, its period will change from n seconds to a. n/4 seconds. c. 2n seconds. b. n/2 seconds. d. 4n seconds. ____ 32. By what factor should the length of a simple pendulum be changed in order to triple the period of vibration? a. 3 c. 9 b. 6 d. 27 ____ 33. A wave travels through a medium. As the wave passes, the particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the waves motion. The wave is a. longitudinal. c. electromagnetic. b. a pulse. d. transverse.

____ 34. The standing wave shown in the diagram above would be produced on a string of length L by a wave having wavelength a. 1/2 L. c. 2 L. b. L. d. 4 L. ____ 35. Sound waves a. are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum. b. do not require a medium for transmission. c. are longitudinal waves. d. are transverse waves. ____ 36. Pitch depends on the ____ of a sound wave. a. frequency c. b. amplitude d. power speed

____ 37. Of the following materials, sound waves travel fastest through a. helium at 0C. c. copper at 0C. b. air at 0C. d. air at 100C. ____ 38. The Doppler effect occurs with a. only sound waves. b. only transverse waves. c. d. only water waves. all waves.

____ 39. If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 100, the new decibel level will increase a. by two units. c. by a factor of 10. b. to twice the old one. d. by 20 units. ____ 40. For a standing wave in an air column in a pipe that is open at both ends, there must be at least a. one node and one antinode. c. two antinodes and one node. b. two nodes and one antinode. d. two nodes and two antinodes.

____ 41. How many beats per second are heard when two vibrating tuning forks having frequencies of 342 Hz and 345 Hz are held side by side? a. 687 Hz c. 5 Hz b. 343.5 Hz d. 3 Hz ____ 42. Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in a television? a. infrared waves c. radio waves b. X rays d. gamma waves ____ 43. What is the wavelength of microwaves of 3.0 10 Hz frequency? a. 0.050 m c. 0.10 m b. 0.060 m d. 0.20 m ____ 44. What is the wavelength of an infrared wave with a frequency of 4.2 10 a. b. 7.1 10 m 1.4 10 m
6 5 14 9

Hz?

c. d.

7.1 10 1.4 10

7 6

m m

____ 45. If you are reading a book and you move twice as far away from the light source, how does the brightness at the new distance compare with that at the old distance? It is a. one-eighth as bright. c. one-half as bright. b. one-fourth as bright. d. twice as bright. ____ 46. If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 29 from the normal, the reflected ray will be a. 29 from the normal. c. 29 from the mirrors surface. b. 27 from the normal. d. 61 from the normal. ____ 47. When the reflection of an object is seen in a flat mirror, the distance from the mirror to the image depends on a. the wavelength of light used for viewing. b. the distance from the object to the mirror. c. the distance of both the observer and the object to the mirror. d. the size of the object. ____ 48. A concave mirror with a focal length of 10.0 cm creates a real image 30.0 cm away on its principal axis. How far from the mirror is the corresponding object? a. 20 cm c. 7.5 cm b. 15 cm d. 5.0 cm

____ 49.

What happens when the switch is closed in the circuit shown above? a. The lamp lights because current from the battery flows through the lamp. b. Current from the battery is carried through the resistor. c. Current from the battery is carried through both the lamp and the resistor. d. The lamp goes out, because the battery terminals connect to each other. ____ 50. Three resistors connected in series carry currents labeled I 1 , I 2 , and I 3 , respectively. Which of the following expresses the total current, I t , in the system made up of the three resistors in series? a. b. It = I1 + I2 + I3 1 1 1 It = + + I 1 I2 I3 c. d. It = I1 = I2 = I3 1 1 1 1 It = + + I 1 I2 I3

____ 51. Three resistors with values of 4.0 , 6.0 , and 10.0 are connected in parallel. What is their equivalent resistance? a. 20.0 c. 6.0 b. 7.3 d. 1.9 ____ 52. The a. b. c. d. equivalent resistance of a complex circuit is usually determined by inspection. simplifying the circuit into groups of series and parallel circuits. adding and subtracting individual resistances. dividing the sum of the individual resistances by the number of resistances.

____ 53. What is the equivalent resistance of the resistors in the figure shown above? a. 7.5 c. 16 b. 10 d. 18

____ 54. Three resistors connected in parallel have individual values of 4.0 , 6.0 , and 10.0 , as shown above. If this combination is connected in series with a 12.0 V battery and a 2.0 resistor, what is the current in the 10.0 resistor? a. 0.58 A c. 11 A b. 1.0 A d. 16 A

Short Answer: In a few complete sentences explain each question in your own words. (5 points each). 55. What provides the centripetal force for a car driving on a circular track? 56. Why is the net force on a submerged object called its apparent weight? 57. A pan of water at a temperature of 80C is placed on a block of porcelain at a temperature of 15C. What can you state about the temperatures of the objects when they are in thermal equilibrium?

58. A physics textbook is balanced on top of an inflated balloon on a cold morning. As the day passes, the temperature increases, the balloon expands, and the textbook rises. Is there a transfer of energy as heat? If so, what is it? Has any work been done? If so, on what? 59. One end of a rope is tied loosely to a post so that the end is free to flop up and down. Suppose you send a pulse along this rope from its opposite end. Describe what you would expect to happen when the pulse reaches the post. 60. Suppose you play a music CD in a room where there is a piano. During the silence between songs, you hear a musical note coming from the piano, but no one has touched the piano. Explain your observation. 61. When rays of light are incident upon a spherical mirror far from the principal axis, fuzzy images form. What is this characteristic of spherical mirrors?

62. Which bulb or bulbs will have a current in the schematic diagram shown above? 63. In a series circuit, one of the resistors is replaced with a resistor having a lower resistance value. How does this affect the current in the circuit? Explain. 64. You have seven resistors available, and all of the resistors have a value of 100.0 . How would you connect these seven resistors to produce an equivalent resistance of 70.0 ? Problems: Solve each problem showing neat step-by-step work (8 points each) 65. A 35 kg child moves with uniform circular motion while riding a horse on a carousel. The horse is 3.2 m from the carousels axis of rotation and has a tangential speed of 2.6 m/s. What is the childs centripetal acceleration? 66. A hydraulic lift consists of two pistons that connect to each other by an incompressible fluid. If one piston has an area of 0.49 m and the other an area of 6.2 m , how large a mass can be raised by a force of 220 N exerted on the smaller piston? 67. The temperature of an object is measured as 489.5 K. What is this temperature in degrees Celsius? 68. What is the increase in the internal energy per kilogram of water at the bottom of a 115 m waterfall, 2 assuming that all of the initial potential energy is transferred as heat to the water? (g = 9.81 m/s ) 69. A cylinder has a radius of 0.082 m. How much work is done by a gas in the cylinder if the gas exerts a 5 constant pressure of 7.5 10 Pa on the piston, moving it a distance of 0.026 m?
2 2

70. What is the period of a 6.93 m long pendulum with a bob of mass 68.0 kg? Assume the acceleration due 2 to gravity is 9.81 m/s . 71. The noise of a certain lawn mower has a power of 0.26 W. At what distance will the intensity of the lawn mowers sound be 7.2 10
4

W/m ?

72. A pencil is located 17.6 cm in front of a convex mirror whose focal length is 14.7 cm. In relation to the mirrors surface, where and how far away is the corresponding image located?

73. How much current is in one of the 10 resistors in the diagram shown above?

74. In the circuit shown above, the current in the 3.9 resistor is 0.27 A. What is the voltage of the battery?

10

ID: A

SEMESTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2012 Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: C B C A D A B B B A C D D A A C C B A B C B A C A C A C D B B C D B C A C D D C PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: 1 I IIIA IIIA II I II IIIA I IIIA IIIA IIIB II IIIA II I I I I II II I I II I II I II I II II II IIIB I II I I II I IIIB II OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 7-1.1 7-1.1 7-1.2 7-2.2 7-3.1 7-4.1 7-4.4 8-1.2 8-1.3 8-1.3 8-2.1 8-3.1 8-3.1 8-3.2 9-1.1 9-1.2 9-1.2 9-2.1 9-3.2 9-3.2 10-1.1 10-1.1 10-1.2 10-1.3 10-2.2 10-3.3 10-3.3 11-1.2 11-1.2 11-2.1 11-2.2 11-2.3 11-3.1 11-4.4 12-1.1 12-1.2 12-1.3 12-1.5 12-2.2 12-3.1

ID: A 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: D C C C B A B B D C D B B A PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: DIF: IIIA I IIIA IIIA II II I IIIB II II IIIA I IIIB IIIA OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: 12-3.4 13-1.1 13-1.2 13-1.2 13-1.4 13-2.2 13-2.3 13-3.1 18-1.1 18-2.1 18-2.2 18-3.1 18-3.1 18-3.2

SHORT ANSWER 55. ANS: Friction between the cars tires and the track provides the centripetal force. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 7-1.2 56. ANS: The buoyant force on the object pushes upward on the object so that the net force is less than the weight of the object. The object thus appears to weigh less within the fluid. PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 8-1.3 57. ANS: Both objects will have the same final temperature, which will be somewhere between 15C and 80C. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 9-1.2 58. ANS: Energy from the air was transferred as heat into the balloon. The balloon did work on the book. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 10-1.1 59. ANS: The pulse would be reflected but not inverted, so the pulse travels back toward you on the same side of the rope as it was originally. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 11-4.3 60. ANS: One of the musical sounds from the CD matches the natural frequency of the string in the piano. As a result, the energy of the sound wave causes the string to vibrate in resonance with the note from the CD. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 12-2.3

ID: A 61. ANS: spherical aberration PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13-3.4 62. ANS: Bulb A has a current, but B and C do not because the switch is open. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 18-1.2 63. ANS: The current in the circuit increases because the equivalent resistance is lower than it was before the replacement. PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 18-2.1 64. ANS: Connect five of the resistors in parallel to produce a 20.0 equivalent resistance. Connect the remaining two resistors in parallel to produce a 50.0 equivalent resistance. Then connect the two groups in series, giving an equivalent resistance of 70.0 . PTS: 1 PROBLEM 65. ANS: 2 2.1 m/s Given v t = 2.6 m/s r = 3.2 m Solution ( 2.6 m/s) ac = = r 3.2 m PTS: 1 vt
2 2

DIF: IIIA

OBJ: 18-3.1

= 2.1 m/s DIF: IIIA

OBJ: 7-1.1

ID: A 66. ANS: 280 kg Given A 1 = 0.49 m A 2 = 6.2 m

2 2

F 1 = 220 N g = 9.81 m/s Solution P1 = P2 F1 A1 = F2 A2 F2 g = F1A2 A1g = (220 N)(6.2 m ) (0.49 m )(9.81 m/s ) DIF: IIIA
2 2 2 2

m2 =

= 280 kg

PTS: 1 67. ANS: 216.4C Given T = 489.5 K Solution T = T C + 273.15

OBJ: 8-2.1

T C = T 273.15 = (489.5 273.15)C = 216.4C PTS: 1 DIF: IIIA OBJ: 9-1.3

ID: A 68. ANS: 3 1.13 10 J/kg Given h = 115 m 2 g = 9.81 m/s Solution PE + KE + U = 0 The kinetic energy increases with the decrease in potential energy, and then decreases with the increase in the internal energy of the water. Thus, the net change in kinetic energy is zero. PE + U = 0 Assuming the final potential energy has a value of zero, the change in the internal energy equals PE i . PE + U = 0 PE i + U = 0 U = PE i = mgh U 2 3 = gh = (9.81 m/s )(115 m) = 1.13 10 J/kg m PTS: 1 69. ANS: 2 4.1 10 J Given r = 0.082 m P = 7.5 10 Pa d = 0.026 m Solution Work is done by the gas, so W is positive. W = PV = PAd A = r
2 2 5 2 5

DIF: IIIB

OBJ: 9-2.3

W = PAd = Pr d = (7.5 10 Pa)( )(0.082 m) (0.026 m) P = 4.1 10 J PTS: 1 DIF: IIIB OBJ: 10-1.2
2

ID: A 70. ANS: 5.28 s Given L = 6.93 m m = 68.0 kg g = 9.81 m/s Solution T = 2 L = 2 ag 6.93 m 9.81 m/s
2 2

= 5.28 s

PTS: 1 71. ANS: 5.4 m

DIF: IIIB

OBJ: 11-2.3

Given P 0.26 W 4 2 Intensity 7.2 10 W/m Solution Intensity P

2

4 r 2 P r = Intensity 4 r= r= P Intensity 4 0.26 W (7.2 10

4

W/m )(4 )

= 5.4 m

PTS: 1

DIF: IIIB

OBJ: 12-2.1

ID: A 72. ANS: 8.013 cm Given f = 14.7 cm p = 17.6 cm

Solution Rearrange the mirror equation, 1 1 1 + = , and solve for q. p q f

1 1 1 1 1 0.0680 0.0568 0.1248 = = = = q f p 14.7 cm 17.6 cm 1 cm 1 cm 1 cm q = 8.013 cm Since q is negative, the image is located 8.013 cm behind the mirror. PTS: 1 DIF: IIIB OBJ: 13-3.1

ID: A 73. ANS: 0.80 A Given R1 2.0 R2 20.0 R3 10.0 R4 10.0 Vbatt 12 V I3 I4 Solution 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 = + + = + + R 2, 3, 4 R2 R3 R4 20.0 10.0 10.0 1 R 2, 3, 4 = 1 20.0 20.0 + 2 20.0 + 2 20.0 = 5 20.0

R 2, 3, 4 = R eq I tot = V3

= 4.00 5 R 1 + R 2, 3, 4 2.0 + 4.00 Vbatt R eq V4 R3 = 12 V = 2.0 A 6.0

6.0

(R 2, 3, 4 )(I tot ) = V4 R4 =

(4.00 )(2.0 A) 8.0 V = 0.80 A

8.0 V

I3 = I4 =

V3

10.0

PTS: 1

DIF: IIIB

OBJ: 18-3.2

ID: A 74. ANS: 2.3 V Given R1 4.2 R2 9.1 R3 3.9 R4 2.2 R5 7.5 I 3 0.27 A Solution 1 1 1 1 1 0.24 0.11 0.35 = + = + = + = R 1, 2 R1 R2 4.2 9.1 1 1 1 R 1, 2 = 1 R 4, 5 = 1 0.35 1 R4 1 = 2.9 + 1 R5 = 1 2.2 + 1 7.5 = 0.45 1 + 0.13 1 = 0.58 1

R 4, 5 =

= 1.7 0.58 Req R1,2 + R3 + R4,5 2.9 + 3.9 + 1.7 I I 3 I1,2 I4,5 Vbatt = ReqI = (8.5 )(0.27 A) = 2.3 V PTS: 1 DIF: IIIC

8.5

OBJ: 18-3.2

SEMESTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2012 [Answer Strip]

B _____ 7. A _____15. C _____21. B _____31. D _____41.

ID: A

C _____16. B _____ 8. C _____17. C _____ 1. B _____ 9.

B _____22.

C _____32.

C _____42.

A _____23. D _____33.

C _____43.

C _____24. B _____18. A _____10. B _____ 2. B _____34. A _____25.

C _____44.

B _____45.

C _____ 3.

C _____26.

A _____46.

A _____ 4.

C _____11. A _____27.

C _____35.

B _____47.

D _____12. C _____28.

A _____36.

B _____48.

C _____37. D _____13. D _____ 5. A _____14. A _____ 6. B _____20. C _____40. B _____30. D _____39. A _____19. D _____29. D _____38.

SEMESTER 2 FINAL EXAM 2012 [Answer Strip]

D _____49.

ID: A

B _____53. C _____50.

D _____51. A _____54. B _____52.