Foundation QP

This Paper has 50 answerable questions with 0 answered. http://www.futureaccountant.
com/exam-question-previous-papers/ PI(OMF) Syllabus 2008
Time Allowed : 3 Hours june 2010 The figures in the margin on the right side indicate full marks.
SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any one from the rest. Marks 1. Do you agree with the following statements? Write "Yes" or "No", giving proper reasoning in support of your answer. No marks will be awarded if only "Yes" or "No" is mentioned. (a) Organisation is not a function, but a process. (b) Under functional organization structure, the authority flows from top to bottom. (c) A committee is an organization which has a precise function. (d) Division of labour increases the efficiency of the labourer. (e) Perception means an individuals view of reality. (f) The organization in general is a social system composed of several interacting parts. (g) The mission of an organization refers to the scope of the operation in terms of products or services or clients. (h) The organizational performance is judged in terms of goals. (i) Centralisation is nothing but an advanced form of delegation of authority. 2. (a) What do you mean by the term "delegation of authority"? What are the basic steps in delegation? (b) Define line and staff organization. Explain the reasons for conflict between line and staff. 3. (a) What are the main factors influencing attitudes? (b) State the functions of organizational goal. (c) What are the determinants of personality?
SECTION II
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Answer Question No. 4 which is compulsory and any three from the rest 4. (a) Match the statement in Column I with appropriate statement under Column II. Column I Column II (i) Industrial Relations (A) Subsidised canteen (ii) Discipline (B) Estimates of future conditions (iii) Training (C) Determines personnel needs (iv) Nonfinancial Incentives (D) Sensitivity Training (v) Development (E) Familiarisation with organization (vi) Forecasts (F) Emotions (vii) Information (G) V rooms Expectancy Theory (viii) Manpower Planning (H) Creates obedience (ix) Induction (I) Basic requirements for decision making (x) Barriers to communication (J) Growth of the individual (xi) Motivation (K) Continuous process (xii) TGroup (L) Industrial peace and democracy (b)Fill in the blanks. [22- 42265] (i) As per Theory Y, work is ________. (ii) In the area of Inventory control ________ is an example of critical point control. (iii) Break Even Analysis is adopted as a tool of ________. 1x12
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(iv) Planning is looking ahead whereas control is ________. (v) Authority can be delegated but not ________. (vi) Centralization implies the ________ at the top level of the organization. (vii) Leadership is the ________ which binds a group together. (viii) ________ leadership style permits quick decision making. (ix) Informal communication system is known as ________. (c)State what the following abbreviations stand for: [32- 42275] (i) GD (ii) MBE (iii) OD (iv) PESB (v) NRF (vi) DC (vii) WTO (viii) POSDCORB (d)Do you agree with the following statements? Write Yes or No giving proper reasoning in support of your answer. No marks will be awarded if only Yes or No is mentioned. [41- 42284] (i) There is no difference between Top Management and Operative Management. (ii) There is a problem of autonomy of management in Public sector units. (iii) Planning is a wasteful exercise in times of uncertainty. (iv) Only direct workers should be included in incentive plans. (e)Define the following, in just one sentence. [46- 42289] (i) Human Resource Management (ii) Job Analysis (iii) Vestibule Training (iv) MBO (v) Group Dynamics 5. "Public sector enterprises should generate adequate surplus to assist economic development". Do you agree? 6. Explain the sequential set of steps in the process of Decision making. 7. (a) What do you understand by intergroup conflicts? How they can be avoided? (b) What are the barriers to effective communication? How to remove these barriers? 8.Write short notes on any three of the following: (a) Fundamental Principles of Taylors scientific management. (b) Steps in planning. (c) Qualities of a successful leader. (d) Statutory duties of Board of Directors. (e) Importance of Public Enterprises.
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This Paper has 52 answerable questions with 0 answered. PI(OMF) Syllabus 2008
Time Allowed : 3 Hours The figures in the margin on the right side indicate full marks.
SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any one from the rest. Marks 1. Do you agree with the following statements? Write "Yes" or "No", giving proper reasoning in support of your answer. No marks will be awarded if only "Yes" or "No" is mentioned. (a) Organisation is considered as an activity. (b) There is scalar chain in line organisation. 2x9
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(c) Informal organisation is a joint personal activity without conscious common purpose. (d) Without division of labour, a job would be so inclusive that its performance would be impossible. (e) Personality refers to external appearance and behaviour only. (f) Attitude refers to a mental status of readiness to do or not to do any activity. (g) The mission statement of an organisation refers to the target to be achieved during a period. (h) Formally goals are set by the entrepreneurs always. (i) Conflict refers to uncertainty in an organisation. 2. (a) What are the steps involved in organisation function? (b) State the four pillars of classical theory of organisation. (c) What are the methods to be adopted to resolve conflicts in an organisation? 3. (a) State the characteristics of authority. (b) Differentiate Organisation Theory and Organisation Behaviour. (c) State any four bases of departmentation.
SECTION II
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Answer Question No. 4 which is compulsory and any three from the rest 4. (a) Match the statement in Column I with appropriate statement under Column II. Column I Column II (i) Departmentation (A) Bonus/Incentive (ii) Informal group (B) Communication Process (iii) Elton Mayo (C) Compliment to Organisation Structure (iv) Intraindividual and interindividual (D) Product wise Division (v) Halseys Plan (E) Hawthorne Experiments (vi) Piece Rate System (F) Conflicts (vii) Coding and Decoding (G) C.P.M. (viii) Public Sector Undertaking (H) Method of Wage Payment (ix) Control Technique (I) Directors (x) Board Meetings (J) Service Motive (xi) Maslow (K) Twofactor Theory (xii) Herzberg (L) Hierarchy Theory (b)Fill in the blanks. [21- 41969] (i) _________involves shifting of an employee from one job to another without changing the responsibility of the employee. (ii) Temporary removal of an employee from the payroll of an organisation by an employer due to uncontrollable reasons is known as _________. (iii) Golden handshake refers to _________ retirement. (iv) _________ is a systematic attempt to probe the future by inference from known facts. (v) _________ decisions are those that are repetitive and routine. (vi) MIS is the system of organising the _________ flow network within the organisation. (vii) Theory Y assumes that people are self motivated and was advocated by _________. (viii) _________ Power is based on the personality attributes or personal virtues of a person. (ix) Profit making public sector enterprises are referred to as _________. (c)State what the following abbreviations stand for: [31- 41979] (i) MBO, (ii) SOBC Model, (iii) MIS, (iv) MOU, (v) BIRF, (vi) GST, (vii) CPM, 1x12
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(viii) GAIL. (d)Give the proper sequence among the following: [40- 41988] (i) Scrutiny of Applications, Medical examination, Interview, Checking references. (ii) Establishment of Objectives, Problem Identification, Evaluating Alternatives, Developing Premises. (iii) Social needs, Safety needs, Physiological needs, Esteem needs, Selfactualisation needs. (iv) Selection, Placement, Manpower Planning, Training and Development. (e)Define, in just one sentence, the following: [45- 41993] (i) Delegaton of Authority; (ii) Lock out; (iii) Span of Control; (iv) Privatisation; (v) Statutory Meeting. 5. Explain the fundamental principles of Scientific Management, as propounded by P.W, Taylor. 6. (a) State the different types of leadership styles. (b) Distinguish between formal and informal organisations 7. (a) Describe the process of delegation. (b) What are the challenges before the future managers? 8.Write short notes on any three of the following: (a) Unity of Command; (b) Advantages of training; (c) Any three reasons for resistance to change among employees; (d) Disinvestment Policy; (e) Kinds of Public Sector Undertakings.
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This Paper has 53 answerable questions with 0 answered. PI(OMF) Syllabus 2008
SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any one from the rest. Marks 1. Do you agree with the following statements? Write "Yes" or "No", giving proper reasoning in support of your answer. No marks will be awarded if only "Yes" or "No" is mentioned. (a) An organisation is created automatically. (b) An informal organisation is a part of formal organisation. (c) Redundancy is different from resignation and retrenchment. (d) Recruitment seeks to eliminate as many applicants for jobs as possible. (e) Decentralisation is nothing but an advanced form of delegation of authority. (f) Perception is a process. (g) Programmed decisions are not repetitive. (h) Filtering the message is a powerful barrier to communication. (i) Breakeven analysis is called CostVolume Profit analysis. 2. (a) Explain any four principles of formal organisation. (b) What are the steps involved in the implementation of strategy for handling conflict? (c) Differentiate between objectives and goals. 3. (a) How to make committees effective? 4+4+4 4+4+4 2x9
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(b) State the concept of Free Form Organisation. (c) What is meant by Classical Organisation Theory?
SECTION II
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Answer Question No. 4 which is compulsory and any three from the rest 4. (a) Give the proper sequence among the following; [2- 32300] (i) Organisational Behaviour, Human Relations, Scientific Management. (ii) Social Needs, Selfactualisation Needs, Safety Needs, Physilogical needs. Esteem Needs. (iii) Assignment of duties, Grouping the work, Division of work, Identifying the work. (iv) Staff organisation, Line organisation. (b) Fill in the blanks. [7- 32321] (i) Need hierarchy theory is a general theory is general theory of __________ developed my Maslow. (ii) Termination, demotion, transfers etc, are examples of __________. (iii) Training is jobcentred process while __________ is a careercentred process. (iv) PERT is a __________ technique. (v) CPM is a __________ technique. (vi) __________ conflict occurs when expectations of a role are materially different or opposite from the behaviour anticipated by the person in that role. (vii) __________ conflict arises between a superior and his subordinates. (viii) __________ actions are curative methods to overcome the problems of conflict. (ix) A person can be director in __________ private limited companies, government companies, companies formed not for profit etc. (c) State what the following abbreviations stand for: [17- 32331] (i) CSF (ii) OPEC (iii) ICSI (iv) AD in Registered AD (v) VRS (vi) MOU (vii) WTO (viii) BALCO (d) Define, in just one sentence, the following: [26- 32340] (i) Layoff (ii) Delegation (iii) Unfreezing (iv) Methods of training (v) Theory X (vi) Stick and Carrot Approach (vii) Privatisation. (e) Match the statement under column I with appropriate statement under column II: Column I Column II (i) Globalisation (A) Golden Handshake (ii) PSUs (B) Top Management
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(iii) Contingency Theory (iv) Strategic Management (v) Mission (vi) Vision (vii) Voluntary Retirement Scheme (viii) Functions of Management
(C) Where we want to go (D) What business are we in (E) State owned enterprises (F) Henry Fayol (G) Theory of organisation (H) Think Globally, Act Locally 3+6 (0) 9 (0) 5+4
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5. Define attitude. Discuss the popular techniques used to measure attitudes. 6. Discuss Likerts system of management. 7.Distinguish between (a) Training and Development; (b) PERT and CPM. 8.Write short notes on any three of the following: (a) Organisational Culture. (b) Operational Planning. (c) Contingency Approach. (d) Disinvestment of Shares. (e) Economic Objectives of Public Enterprises.
This Paper has 37 answerable questions with 0 answered.
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PI(OMF) Syllabus 2008
SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any one from the rest. Marks 1. Do you agree with the following statements? Write "Yes" or "No", giving proper reasoning in support of your 2x9 answer. No marks will be awarded if only "Yes" or "No" is mentioned. (a) Organisations invade us and shape our destinies. (b) Organisations are made of people, systems, procedures and objectives. (c) Organisation is not a process. (d) Organisation is a structure. (e) Delegation of authority can also be termed as delegation of responsibility. (f) Conflict has only dysfunctional aspect. (g) The need for joint decisionmaking is the only source of intergroup conflict. (h) Behavioural approach is multidimensional and interdisciplinary in nature. (i) Recruitment Sources are always external. 2. Explain the contributions of Henry Fayol in the filed of management thought. 3. Discuss the important external sources of recruitment.
SECTION II
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Answer Question No. 4 which is compulsory and any three from the rest. 4. (a) Match the statement under column I with appropriate statement under column II: Column I Column II (i) Line Organisation (A) Line managers often resist ideas (ii) Staff personnel (B) Technique of management (iii) Decentralisation (C) Military or scalar organisation (iv) Delegation (D) Psychological Phenomenon (v) Planning (E) Net profit or net loss (vi) Attitudes (F) Reduction of burden on top management 2x13
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(vii) Bottom line (viii) Top line (ix) Change (x) Motivation (xi) Capitalism (xii) Navratans (xiii) Grapevine
(G) Intellectual Process (H) Ownership of factors of production (I) Informal Communication (J) Sales (K) Stick and carrot approach (L) Resist (M) Public Sector Undertakings 1x6
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(b)Fill in the blanks. [3- 26878] (i) Authority should be __________ with responsibility. (ii) Setting goals and objectives is the first step in the __________ (iii) Authoritarianism refers to __________ of authority. (iv) The ownership of any company vests in __________ . (v) During suspension the employee receives a __________ . (vi) __________ is called the father of Scientific Management. (c)State what the following abbreviations stand for: [10- 26885] (i) MIS (ii) MBO (iii) PERT (iv) CPM (v) KSFs (vi) OJT (d)Define, in just a sentence, the following: [17- 26892] (i) Misconduct (ii) Layoff (iii) Scalar Chain (iv) Equity (v) Contingency Approach 5. Discuss the challenges before future Managers. 6. What do you mean by conflict? Are there some positive aspects of conflicts? 7. What is meant by change? Why employees resist change? 8.Write short notes on any three of the following: (a) Development of Leadership Ability of Managers. (b) Communication Process (c) Control Process (d) Singleuse plans (e) Psychological Incentives.
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This Paper has 64 answerable questions with 0 answered. P2(ACT) Syllabus 2008
SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any two questions from the rest of Section I. 1. (a) In each of the following one of them is correct. Indicate the correct answer. [2- 42307] (i) Brand Value for a business is: A. Capital B. Asset Marks 1x9=9
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C. Profit D. Liability
(0) (ii) Sale of goods has: A. Only Revenue effect B. Only Expense effect C. Both Revenue effect and Expense effect D. None of the above. (0) (iii) Error of omission means: A. That errors are compensating each other B. That any entry is totally missed C. That there is a wrong entry in the books of accounts D. That a transaction is recorded twice. (0) (iv) Cash sales at exhibition hall are: A. Recorded in Journal Proper B. Recorded in Cash Book C. Recorded in Sales Book D. Not recorded. (0) (v) In case of an Unpresented Cheque A. Bank Balance in Cash Book is more than Bank Passbook B. Bank Balance in Cash Book is less than Bank Passbook C. Either (A) or (B) D. No effect in both the books. (0) (vi) A Bill of Exchange is: A. Drawn on a specific banker B. Drawn by seller and accepted by banker C. An unconditional undertaking signed by the maker D. An unconditional order signed by the maker (0) (vii) Joint Venture Account is a A. Nominal Account B. Real Account C. Artificial Personal Account D. Representative Personal Account (0) (viii) The abnormal Loss on Consignment is credited to: A. Profit and Loss Account B. Consignees Account C. Consignment Account D. Insurance Company Account (0) (ix) A Capital Reserve is built out of A. Recurring profits B. Nonrecurring profits C. Revenue D. Reserve Fund. (b)Fill in the blanks: [12- 42317] 1x5=5 (0) (i) Debtor is a person who ________ money to the business. (0) (ii) Every debit has a ________ credit. (0) (iii) Cash account never has ________ balance. (0) (iv) Goodwill can be better explained as ________ asset. (0) (v) If the two sides of the trial balance tally, it is indication of the fact that the books of accounts are ________ accurate. (c)State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: [18- 42323] 2x8=16 (0) (i) Loan taken for 5 years is a current liability. (0) (ii) Error of Principle affects the Trial Balance. (0) (iii) P & L A/c is for a period of time.
(0) (iv) Consignee is the owner of consignment stock. (0) (v) Joint Venture is a Temporary partnership. (0) (vi) Income received is an asset. (0) (vii) Goodwill is fictitious asset. (0) (viii) If the consignee gets delcredere commission, loss of bad debt is borne by him. 2. (a)Pass necessary journal entries to rectify the following errors: [28- 42333] 1x4 (0) (i) Purchase of goods for Rs. 300 from Nathan was wrongly entered in sales book. (0) (ii) Rs. 375 paid as salary to cashier Dhawan was debited to his personal account. (0) (iii) A bill for Rs. 2,750 for extension of building was debited to building repairs account. (0) (iv) Goods of Rs. 500 returned by Raja were taken into stock, but returns were not posted. (b) X drew a bill on Y for Rs. 1,000 payable two months after date. Immediately after its acceptance, X 3 (0) sent the bill to his banker for collection. On the due date bank collects the bill and sends the advice if collection after deducting Rs. 2 as collection charges. Pass Journal entries in the books of X and Y. (c) The provision for doubtful Debts A/c shows a balance of Rs. 5,000 on 1st January, 2009. The Bad 3 (0) Debts during the year 2009 amounted to Rs. 3,000. The Sundry Debtors on 31st December, 2009 are Rs. 50,000. On 31st December, 2009, there is an additional Bad Debts of Rs. 3,000. Create a new Provision for Bad Debts @ 10% on Debtors. You are required to show how the different items will appear in the firms Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet. 3. (a)State which item of expenditure would be charged to capital and which to revenue: [36- 42341] 1x3=3 (0) (i) Freight and cartage on the new machine Rs. 150, erection charges Rs. 200. (0) (ii) Fixtures of the book value of Rs. 1,500 were sold off at Rs. 600. (0) (iii) A sum of Rs. 1,100 was spent on painting the factory. (b) A plant is purchased for Rs. 20,000. It is depreciated @ 5% per annum on reducing balance for five 5 (0) years, when it becomes absolute due to new methods of production and is scrapped. The scrap produces Rs. 5,385. Show the plant account in the ledger. (c) What is ABC Analysis? 2 (0) 4. (a)Journalise the following transactions in the books of Ramesh: [43- 42348] 1x3=3 (0) (i) Started business with Rs. 10,00,000/-, out of which Rs. 1,00,000 was borrowed from ICICI as loan. (0) (ii) Machinery purchased for Rs. 4,00,000/- on credit and Furniture Purchased for Rs. 1,50,000 on cash. (0) (iii) Deposited cash in Vijaya Bank Current A/c 2,50,000/-. (b) The following information is available from Sureshs records: 7 (0) Particulars 31st March, 31st March, 2009 2008 Rs. Rs. Creditors 16,000 10,000 Bank Overdraft 30,000 Bank Balance 20,000 Plant and Machinery 40,000 20,000 Furniture 8,000 8,000 Debtors 1,04,000 60,000 Stock of Goods 56,000 68,000 Suresh had withdrawn Rs. 10,000 for personal expenses and Rs. 9,000 for his sons marriage. Out of business funds, he had also purchased a residential building costing Rs. 40,000 which is not shown in the above balances. Additions to machinery were made on 1st April, 2008. Depreciation at 10% p.a. should be provided on plant and machinery. Find out Sureshs net profit for the year ended 31st March, 2009.
SECTION II
Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two questions from Section II
5. (a) In each of the following, one of the alternatives is Correct. Indicate the correct answer: [4942354] (i) Which of the following is a cost behaviour oriented approach to product costing? A. Absorption Costing B. Marginal Costing C. Process Costing D. Job Order Costing (ii) Over which of the following costs, management is likely to have least control: A. Wages Cost B. Building Insurance Cost C. Machinery Breakdown Cost D. Advertisement Cost (iii) Which of the following indicates BEP? A. Sales Revenue Variable Cost B. Profit = Fixed Cost + Variable Cost C. Contribution = Fixed Cost D. Contribution + Fixed Cost = Profit (iv) Payment of Royalties is: A. Direct Expenses B. Factory Overheads C. Charged to P & L D. Administration Cost. (v) Bad debts are treated as: A. Direct Expenses B. Cost of Production C. Selling Overheads D. Distribution Overheads (vi) In the situation of increasing prices, the valuation of closing stock is more under: A. FIFO B. LIFO C. Simple average D. Weighted average (vii) Reorder level indicates A. Level when a replenishment order is placed B. Level beyond which stocks are not allowed to reach C. Quantity Ordered D. Economic Order Quantity. (viii) An increase in Fixed Cost will result into: A. Decrease in PV Ratio B. Decrease in Contribution per unit C. Increase in Break Even level D. Increase in PV Ratio. (ix) Which of the following is not usually included in Goods Received Note? A. Date of receipt B. Quantity received C. Price of goods D. Description of goods. (x) Which of the following is usually prepared daily by employees for each job worked on? A. Labour Job Ticket B. Time Card C. Punch Card
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D. Cost Control Card. (b)State with reasons whether the following are True or False [60- 42365] (i) Variable Cost per unit will not change. (ii) Under LIFO method, prices are close to current market prices. (iii) Primary Packing is an item of prime cost. (iv) Order should be automatically placed with supplier quoting lowest price. (v) The BEP remains same even in fixed cost are reduced. (vi) Abnormal cost are not controllable. (vii) Fixed Overheads per unit do not reduce as production rises. (viii) Finance Expenses are included in cost sheet. (c)Specify the method of determination of cost and the cost unit for the following industries: [6942374] (i) Hospital (ii) Readymade garments (iii) Canteen (iv) House Building. 6. (a) Calculate the EOQ from the following information: Monthly requirement = 1000 units Ordering Cost = Rs. 60 per order Price per unit = Rs. 100 Inventory carrying cost = 15% on average inventory (b) The Sales and Profit for Trident Ltd. during 2008 and 2009 were as follows: Year Sales Profit Rs. Rs. 2008 2,00,000 20,000 2009 3,00,000 40,000 Find out: P/V ratio, Break even point and Margin of Safety (a) Sales required to earn profit of Rs. 80,000. (b) What will be the profit if sales are Rs. 2,40,000? 7. The following are the costing records for the year 2009 of a manufacturer: Production 1,000 units, Cost of raw materials Rs. 20,000, Labour cost Rs. 12,000, Factory overheads Rs. 8,000, Office overheads Rs. 4,000, Selling expenses Rs. 1,000, Rate of Profit 25% on the selling price. The manufacturer decided to produce 1,500 units in 2010. It is estimated that the cost of raw materials will increase by 20%, the labour cost will increase by 10%, 50% of the overhead charges and fixed and the other 50% are variable. The selling expenses per unit will be reduced by 20%. The rate of profit will remain the same. Prepare a cost statement for the year 2010 showing the total profit and selling price per unit. 8. (a) Classify packing of Products. How will you treat packing costs according to their nature? (b) What is labour turnover? How will you treat it in costs?
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SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any two questions from the rest of Section I. Marks 1. (a) In each of the following one of them is correct. Indicate the correct answer. [2- 42013] (i) Till the discounted bill is paid by the acceptor it remains: A. A contingent liability for the Acceptor. 1x9
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B. A contingent liability for the Drawer. C. A contingent liability for the Bank. D. A liability for the Drawer. (ii) Net worth is: A. Total Assets Less Outside Liabilities. B. Total liabilities plus Owners equity. C. Current Assets less Current liabilities. D. Total Accumulated profit less Liabilities. (iii) When Cash is received for services rendered in the past: A. Owners equity increases. B. Current assets increase. C. Profit increases. D. None of the above. (iv) When an endorsed bill is dishonored, for the endorsee, it becomes the liability: A. Of the drawee. B. Of the drawer. C. Of the payee. D. Of the endorser. (v) Life membership fees received by a nonprofit organization is treated as: A. Revenue receipt. B. Capital receipt. C. Deferred revenue receipt. D. Both revenue & Capital receipt. (vi) Increase in the value of opening stock results in which of the following: A. Increase in gross profit and net profit. B. Reduction in gross profit and increase in net profit. C. No effect on net profit. D. None of the above. (vii) _____ method of stock valuation considers the purchase price of stock which entered the godown last. A. FIFO B. LIFO. C. Weighted average. D. All the above method. (viii) The Trial Balance checks: A. Arithmetical Mistake. B. Honesty of the book keeper. C. Valuation of Closing Stock. D. Nature of the business. (ix) Expenses incurred in the formation of a company are shown in: A. Debit side of P & L A/c. B. As an asset in Balance Sheet. C. As a liability in Balance Sheet. D. Credit side of P & L A/c. (b)Fill in the blanks: [12- 42023] (i) The withdrawal of money from the business by the owner for his personal use is called __________. (ii) Effects of an event must be recognized in the same accounting period in which they are entered as per __________ concept. (iii) If the current years depreciation has to be shown in the trial balance, is would be shown in the __________ side of the trial balance. (iv) The Depreciation mentioned under 1 (b) (iii) above is not __________ from the corresponding asset in the balance sheet.
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(v) On return of goods to the seller by the buyer, the seller issues __________ note to the buyer. (c)State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: [18- 42029] (i) If the profit sharing ratio among the coventures is not given, the profit of the joint venture is distributed among the coventures in capital ratio. (ii) Balances of personal accounts are carried forward to the next year. (iii) Salary paid to Harish will be debited to his personal account. (iv) A drawer himself may be the payee of a bills of exchange/cheque. (v) Accumulated depreciation can be located in the debit side of the trial balance. (vi) The accumulated in 1(c) (v) above is not deducted from the corresponding asset in the Balance Sheet. (vii) Income received in advance is an asset. (viii) Petty Cash is an expense. 2. Based on the following information prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31st December, 2008 find the balance as per pass book: (i) Bank Overdraft as per cash book on 31.12.2008 Rs.6,340; (ii) Interest on overdraft for 6 months ending 31.12.2008 Rs.160 is entered in pass book; (iii) Bank charges amounted to Rs.30 for the above period were entered in the pass book; (iv) Cheques issued but not presented upto 31.12.2008 amounted to Rs.1168; (v) Cheques sent for collection to the bank but not collected upto 31.12.2008 amounted to Rs.2,170; (vi) Interest on investments collected by the bank and entered in the pass book Rs.1200. (b)Explain the following three statements in not more than 10 words each: [31- 42040] (i) P & L A/c is a Period Statement. (ii) Balance Sheet is a Point of Time Statement. (iii) Statement of Affairs is a Point of Time Statement. 3. (a) Shyam consigned 2,00,000 units @ Rs.5/- each to Mr. Ram, and paid Freight and Insurance amounting to Rs.1,00,000. Ram spent further the following amounts: Rs. (i) Insurance 5,000 (ii) Godown Rent 4,000 (iii) Clearing 6,000 2,000 units were damageed during transit due to heavy rains. Ram sold 1,00,000 units @ Rs.10/- per unit. Ram realized salvage value of damageed units Rs.2,000/Ram is to get a commission @ 5% on sales. Determine the abnormal loss. (b) From the following information determine the cash and bank balance, as on 31.11.2009: Rs. Written Down value of Land & Building 32,000 Accumulated depreciation on Land & Building 2,000 Insurance Premium paid in advance 900 Creditors 13,000 Debtors 5,000 Furniture 12,000 Capital 55,000 Cash & Bank Balance ? (c) From the following information determine amounts to be transferred to the Profit & Loss Account: Rs. (i) Sundry Debtors as on 31.03.2009 50,000 (ii) Provision for debt as on 01.04.2008 4,000 (iii) Bad debts written off during the year 200809 1,000 (iv) Recovery of bad debts earlier written off 1,000 (v) Provision for bad and doubtful debt is maintained @ 5%. (d) Discuss the effects of not providing depreciation. Only two points need be given. 4. (a) Mohan sold goods on 1st September, 2009 for 2,00,000/- to Sohan. Sohan immediately accepted a 3 months bill. On the due date Sohan requested for the renewal of the bill for a further period of two months. Mohan agrees to pay interest @ 9% per annum to be included in the new bill. Determine the
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2x8
(0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0)
6+1 (0)
1x3
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4 (0)
2 (0)
2 (0)
2 (0) 1 (0)
amount of the new bill. (b) Pass Journal entries in the current year for the rectification of following errors which were located 4 (0) after the final accounts of previous had been prepared. These errors relate to earlier year. Rate of depreciation on fixed assets is 10%. (i) Purchase of a second hand scooter was debited to the conveyance account amounting to Rs.5,000/(ii) Cash received from Mr. Z was wrongly entered in the account of Y, amount being Rs.4,000/-. (iii) Goods purchased from A was recorded in the sales book amounting to Rs.15,000/(iv) A cheque for Rs.500/- issued to the Supplier (Creditor) wrongly debited to purchases. (c) The Cost of the machinery in use with a firm as on 1st April, 2008 was Rs.2,50,000 against which 1+2+2(0) depreciation provision stood at Rs.1,05,000 on that date, the firm provides depreciation at 10% p.a. on SLM basis. On 01.10.2008 two machines costing Rs.15,000 and 12,000 ach, both purchased on 1st Oct., 2005 had to be discarded and had to be replaced by two machines costing Rs.20,000 & 15,000 each on the same date. On of the discarded machine realized Rs.8,000/- and the other is expected to realized Rs.3,000/-. Prepare the following Accounts. (i) Machine A/c (ii) Machine Disposal A/c and (iii) Provision for Depreciation A/c for the year ended 31st March, 2009.
SECTION II
Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two questions from Section II 5. (a) In each of the following, one of the alternatives is Correct. Indicate the correct one. [43- 42054] (i) Cost of Normal waste of material under contract costing is debited to: A. Contract A/c B. Trading A/c C. Material A/c D. P & L A/c (ii) Variable Costs are fixed: A. For a period B. Per unit C. Depends upon the entity D. For a particular process of production (iii) When re-ordering quantity is 300 units, minimum usages is 20 units, minimum lead time is 5 days, maximum stock 400 units, re-ordering level will be: A. 300 units B. 200 units C. 400 units D. 100 units (iv) When over-absorption of overheads is Rs.20,000 and the actual machine hour were 50,000. The overhead rate per machine hour is Rs.5/-. Actual overheads would be: A. Rs.5,00,000 B. Rs.2,30,000 C. Rs.2,50,000 D. Rs.2,70,000 (v) When Breakeven sales is 12,000 units, selling price per unit Rs.10/-, Maximum sales is 20,000 units. The margin of safety is A. Rs.70,000 B. Rs.80,000 C. Rs.60,000 D. Rs.50,000 (vi) A company with fixed costs amounting to Rs.50,000 seeks to earn a profit @ 20% of selling price. Marks 1x10
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The selling price is Rs.20/- per unit and the variable costs are Rs.15/- per unit. The units sold will be: A. 50,000 B. 60,000 C. 25,000 D. None of the above (vii) The concept of EOQ has been losing its shade since the introduction of: A. Perpetual Inventory System B. JIT Inventory System C. FIFO D. LIFO (viii) In an increasing price trend, value of closing stock of inventory would be higher under: A. FIFO B. LIFO C. Actual Cost D. Average Cost (ix) Costing method in which fixed overheads are included in the cost of inventory is A. Variable costing B. Direct Costing C. Absorption Costing D. Process Costing (x) If sales is Rs.2,70,000, variable costs are 60%, Fixed Costs are Rs.1,00,000. BEP would be: A. Rs.1,00,000 B. Rs.2,00,000 C. Rs.2,20,000 D. Rs.2,50,000 (b) (i) Determine the machine hour rate from the following information: Days available during the year 200809 306 days Machine hours available 8 hours per day Expenses Rs. Power 2,79,600 Lighting 20,000 Lubrication oil 40,000 Repairs 1,00,000 Depreciation 50,000 Salary of Directors 1,00,000 (ii) (A) Standard hours for a Job 1000 hours (B) Incentive is allowed on percentage of time saved compared to standard hours (C) Rate of pay per hour Rs.2/(D) Incentive Scheme are as follows: % of time saved Bonus Saving upto 10% 10% of time saved Saving between 11% and 20% 15% of time saved Saving between 21% and 40% 20% of time saved. (iii) Fixed costs are always fixed. Do you agree? (iv) Discuss in brief the accounting treatment of the material loss arising out of avoidable causes. (v) How the cost of unavoidable labour turnover is treated in cost accounts? (c)State with reason whether the following statements are true or false. [60- 42071] (i) The cost of abnormal waste of materials in a contract is transferred to the costing P & . A/c. (ii) The break even point remains the same even if the fixed costs are reduced. (iii) In Contract Costing the work-in-progress does not include uncertified work. (iv) Fixed overheads per unit will reduce as production rises. (v) There is no difference between marginal cost and differential cost.
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2 (0)
2 (0)
2 (0) 2 (0) 2 (0) 2x5

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6. (a) Ramnath Ltd. Manufactures and sells a typical brand of tiffin boxes under its on brand name. The installed capacity of the plants is 1,20,000 units per year distributable evenly over each month of calendar year. The cost accountant of the company has informed the following cost structure of the product, which is as follows: Raw Material Rs.20 per unit. Direct Labour Rs.12 per unit Direct expenses Rs.2 per unit. Variable overheads Rs.16 per unit. Fixed overhead Rs.3,00,000 per year. Semivariable overheads are as follows: (i) Rs.7,500 per month upto 50% capacity & (ii) Additional Rs.2,500 per month for every additional 25% capacity utilization or part thereof, the plant was operating at 50% capacity during the first seven months of the calendar year 2009, at 100% capacity in the remaining months of the year. The selling price for the period from 1st Jan, 2009 to 31st July 2009 was fixed at Rs.69 per unit. The firm has been monitoring the profitability and revising the selling price to meet its annual profit target of Rs.8,00,000. You are required to suggest the selling price per unit for the period from 1st August 2009 to 31st December 2009. Prepare cost sheet clearly showing the total and per unit cost and also profit for the period. (A) From 1st Jan. to 31st July 2009. (B) From 1st Aug. To 31st Dec.2009. (b) Discuss the uses of Break Even Analysis. How P/V Ratio can be improved? 7. (a) Rama & Co. Undertook a contract for Rs.2,80,000 for constructing a building. The following is the information concerning the contract during the year 2009: Particulars Rs. Materials Purchased 95,000 Labour engaged on site 75,000 Plant installed at site at cost 25,000 Direct expenditure 3,000 Other charges 5,000 Materials sent to site 90,000 Materials returned to stores 600 Work certified 2,00,000 Value of plant as on 31st Dec.,2009 15,000 Cost of work not yet certified 5,000 Material at site 31st Dec.2009 1,900 Wages accrued 31st Dec.2009 2,500 Direct expenditure accrued 31st Dec.,2009 250 Cash received from contractee 1,90,000 Prepare contract account in the books of Rama & Co. for the year ending 31st Dec., 2009 and show (i) The total profit and (ii) Profit to be carried over to Profit and Loss A/c. (b) What is Bin Card? Give its specimen. 8. (a) Closing stock lying on the last day of accounting year is valued at market price. Whether valuation is acceptable. (b)From the following information, Calculate [79- 42086] (i) The overhead absorption rate based on direct labour hours (ii) The overhead absorption rate based on machine hours (iii) Under absorption of overheads and (iv) Over absorption of overheads. Budgeted Actual Direct Material 1,10,000 1,20,000 Rs. Direct Labour 2,20,000 2,40,000 Rs. Production overheads 2,20,000 2,10,000 Rs. Direct Labour Hours 50,000 60,000
3+3 (0)
2+2 (0) 6+2 (0)
1+1 (0) 2 (0) 1x4

(0) (0) (0) (0)
Machine Hours 55,000 60,000 (c)For ABC Ltd., if the margin of safety is Rs.2,40,000(40% of sales) and P/V ratio is 30%. Calculate: [8442091] (i) Break Even Sales (ii) Amount of Profit on Sales of Rs.9,00,000 (iii) Sales for a profit of Rs.50,000 (iv) Total Variable Costs
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SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any two from Section I. Marks 1. (a) In each of the following one of them is correct. Indicate the correct answer. [2- 32362] (i) Till the discounted bill is paid by the acceptor, it remains A. A contingent liability B. A liability C. An expense D. An asset. (ii) Del Credere Commission is allowed to cover the risk of A. Theft B. Bad Debts C. Fire D. Damage of goods in transit. (iii) The amount of yearly depreciation under diminishing balance method A. Remains constant over the years B. Decreases year after year C. Increases year after year D. Fluctuates. (iv) The credit purchases of fixed assets are recorded in A. Purchase Book B. Cash Book C. Journal Proper D. Sales Return Book. (v) Expenses paid but not accrued means A. Cash expenses B. Prepaid expenses C. Outstanding expenses D. Capital expenses. (vi) When goods are purchased for the joint venture, the account to be debited is A. Purchases account B. Joint Venture account C. Ventures Capital account D. Consignees account. (vii) The total of discount column on the debit side of the Cash Book, is posted to the A. Credit of the discount allowed account B. Debit of the discount received account 1x9=9
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C. Credit of the discount received account D. Debit of the discount allowed account. (0) (viii) Goods purchased from Mr. Ajay for Rs. 10,000 passed through the Sales Book. The rectification of error will result in A. Increase in gross profit B. Decrease in gross profit C. No effect on gross profit D. Either A or B. (0) (ix) Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument? A. Bearer Cheque B. Promissory Note C. Bill of Exchange D. Crossed Cheque. (b)Fill in the blanks: [12- 32372] 1x5 (0) (i) The _________ balance in the bank column of the Cash Book indicates bank overdraft. (0) (ii) Expenditure is called _________ expenditure, if the benefits from it extend to more than one year. (0) (iii) The _________ discount is never entered in the books of accounts. (0) (iv) The burden of noting charges is ultimately borne by the _________ of the bill. (0) (v) Prepaid expenses appear on the _________ side of the Balance Sheet. (c)State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: [18- 32378] 2x8=16 (0) (i) Goodwill is a current asset. (0) (ii) The error of principle is caused due to incorrect allocation of expenses. (0) (iii) Accommodation bill is used without a trade transaction and is for mutual benefit. (0) (iv) Cash received from Kishor will be debited to his account. (0) (v) Balances on personal accounts are carried forward to the next year. (0) (vi) Single Entry System does not recognize two effects of a transaction. (0) (vii) Joint Venture is a permanent partnership. (0) (viii) Wages paid for installation should be debited to wages account. 2. (a) From the following particulars, prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement and arrive at the balance 7+3=10(0) as per Cash Book as on 31st March, 2009. (i) Credit balance as per Pass Book: Rs. 9,700. Cheques issued on 27th March, 2009, but presented for payment on 3rd April, 2009: Rs. (ii) 19,000. (iii) Cheques deposited in the Bank on 29th March, 2009, but credited on 2nd April, 2009: Rs. 10,000. (iv) Bank debited Bank Charges, but not yet recorded in Cash Book Rs. 250. Dividend on shares collected and credited by Bank, but not yet recorded in Cash Book: Rs. (v) 2,000. (0) (b) Write a note on Objectives of Providing Depreciation. 3. (a) Pass Journal entries to rectify the following errors: 5+3+2=10(0) (i) Machinery purchased for Rs. 5,000 was passed through Purchase Day Book. Rs. 2,000 spent for repairs was debited to Buildings A/c and depreciation @ 10% was also (ii) charged. (iii) Goods purchased from Rohan for Rs. 50,000 wrongly entered in Sales Book. (iv) An item of Rs. 6,000 in respect of Purchase Return, wrongly debited to Purchase Account. (v) Cost of cement, sand, stone chips, steel rods and wages amounting to Rs. 10,000 for extension of building was debited to Repairs & Maintenance Account. (0) (b) On 1.4.09, Mr. A draws a bill for Rs. 6,000 for 7 months on Mr. B who returned the bill to Mr. A after acceptance. On 10.4.09, Mr. A endorsed the bill in the favour of Mr. C who endorsed the bill on 15.4.09 in favour of Mr. D on 1.5.09. Mr. D discounted the bill at 10%. On maturity, the bill was dishonoured and banker paid Rs. 50 towards noting charges. Pass necessary Journal entries in the books of Mr. D. (0) (c) Indicate the due date for payment of bill drawn on 14.3.09 for 30 days after sight on Mr. P who accepted on 17.3.09.
4. (a) Ram and Shyam agreed for purchasing and selling furniture in a joint venture; their profit sharing ratio being 3 : 2 respectively. Ram purchased 10 sofas @ Rs. 10,000 per sofa. He sent these sofas to Shyam for sale after spending Rs. 1,000 per safa on insurance and transaction. He drew a bill of Rs. 50,000 on Shyam and this bill was discounted at a discount of Rs. 5,000 after acceptance. Shyam incurred further expenses of Rs. 2,000 on these sofas before sale. He sold all the sofas @ Rs. 15,000 per sofa, giving 5% commission to the dealer. Prepare Joint Venture with Shyam Account in the books of Ram. Also show Memorandum Joint Venture Account. (b) Write a note on Single Entry System.
SECTION II
8+2=10(0)
(0)
Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two questions from Section II 5. (a) In each of the following one of them is correct. Indicate the correct answer. [2- 32398] (i) A company wants to sell 1,00,000 units at Rs. 12 each. Fixed costs are Rs. 2,80,000. In order to earn a profit of Rs. 2,00,000, the variable cost should be A. Rs. 4,80,000 B. Rs. 7,20,000 C. Rs. 9,00,000 D. Rs. 9,20,000 (ii) Bad Debts are included as A. Direct expenses B. Cost of production C. Selling overhead D. Distribution overhead (iii) In behavioural analysis, costs are divided into A. Production and Nonproduction costs B. Controllable and Noncontrollable costs C. Direct and Indirect costs D. Fixed and Variable costs (iv) Sharing of a percentage of value added is done under A. Emersons Differential Pay Plan B. Rucker Plan C. Taylors Plan D. Rowan Plan (v) Difference between time keeping and time booking is called A. Idle time B. Absent hours C. Time worked on jobs D. Time for which a worker is present at the place of work (vi) A costing method in which fixed overheads are included in the cost of inventory is A. Variable costing B. Direct costing C. Absorption costing D. Process costing (vii) In marginal costing, the following are considered in contribution computation. A. Selling price and variable cost B. PV ratio and fixed cost C. Profit and fixed cost D. BEP and margin of safety. (viii) Which cost system description applies to the manufacture of 20 engraved doors for the new clubhouse at a golf course? A. Contract Marks 1x14=14
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B. Process C. Batch D. Service (ix) Lead time is the A. Maximum time to get the materials B. Time between ordering and replenishment C. Time taken for preparation of order D. None of the above. (x) The scope of inventory control is A. Related to maintaining the correct level of inventory at all times B. Related to fixation of stock levels for various items C. To check the stock figures readily D. To locate the slow and nonmoving items (xi) When sales is Rs. 10,000 and PV ratio is 40%, variable cost is A. Rs. 4,000 B. Rs. 5,000 C. Rs. 6,000 D. Rs. 3,000 (xii) Objective of Cost Accounting is to A. Link the cost to the cost centre B. Link the cost to the organisation to ascertain total profit C. Link the cost to production department D. Link the cost to individual stakeholder (xiii) Overstacking of materials may result into A. Locking of working capital and storage space B. Unfavourable price and credit terms C. Payment for idle time to workers D. Production hold ups (xiv) A company produces and sells a single product and has followed details: Selling price per unit : Rs. 40 Variable cost per unit : Rs. 20 Fixed expenses : Rs. 2,00,000 Hence, BEP sales of the company is A. Rs. 4,00,000 B. Rs. 30,000 C. Rs. 50,000 D. Rs. 2,00,000 (b)State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: [17- 32413] (i) Fixed overheads jump up, if production exceeds capacity. (ii) Primary packaging is an item of price cost. (iii) The Halsey Plan gurarantees minimum hourly rate. (iv) At break even point, there is no profit and no loss. (v) With change in production, variable cost per unit will remain fixed. (vi) Abnormal costs are not controllable. (c)Specify the methods of determination of cost and the units suitable for the following industries: [24- 32420] (i) Crude Oil/Refinery; (ii) Hospital; (iii) Printing; (iv) House Building. 6. An advertising agency has received an enquiry for submission of quotation. Bill of materials prepaired by the production department for the job states the following requirement of materials: Paper 10 reams @ Rs. 1,800 per ream Ink and other printing material Rs. 5,000
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2x6=12
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10 (0)
Binding material and other consumables Rs. 3,000 Some photography is required for the job. The agency doesnot have a photographer as an employee. It decides to hire one by paying Rs. 10,000 to him. Estimated job card prepared by production department specifies that service of following employees will be required for this job: (1) Artist (Rs. 12,000 per month) 80 hours; (2) Copywriter (Rs. 10,000 per month) 75 hours; (3) Clint servicing (Rs. 9,000 for month) 30 hours. The primary packing material will be required to the time of Rs. 4,000. Production overheads 40% of direct cost while the selling and distribution overheads are likely to be 25% on production cost. The agency expects a profit of 20% on the quoted price. The agency works 25 days in a month and 6 hours a day. You are required to determine the price to be quoted for the job. 7. (a) A factory has a price rate system. Production fixed for a day is 50 units. Remuneration payable to 7+3=10(0) workers is as follows (i) Wages Rs. 5 per piece, subject to a minimum of Rs. 200 per day (ii) Dearness Allowance Rs. 60 per day (iii) Incentive Bonus up to 80% efficiency Nil Above 80% efficiency Rs. 40 for every 1% increase in efficiency above 80%. Calculate the earnings of Mr. Amal and Mr. Kamal whose performance for the month of April, 2009 is as under: Amal worked for 20 days output 60 units Kamal worked for 24 days output 1,080 units. (0) (b) Mention 3 ways in which profitvolume ratio can be improved. 8. (a) If the margin of safety is Rs. 2,40,000 which is 40% of sales and PV ratio is 30%, calculate the 5+3+2=10(0) break even sales and profit at the sales value of Rs. 9,00,000. (0) (b) From the following data, calculate stock holding period for sugar and milk. Which is fast moving item? Sugar Milk Rs. Rs. Opening Stock 20,000 10,000 Purchases 1,60,000 2,00,000 Closing Stock 10,000 10,000 Assume 1 year = 365 days. (c) Explain how will you treat the following items in Cost Accounts? (i) Tools set up cost; (ii) Carriage and freight.
SECTION I
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any two questions from Section I. Marks 1. (a) In each of the following one of them is correct. Indicate the correct answer. [2- 26908] (i) Net assets represent excess of (a) Total assets over total liabilities (b) Paidup capital over liabilities (c) Expenditure over income (d) Assets over Issued Capital (ii) An entry of Rs. 5,400 has been debited to Xs account at Rs. 4,500. It is an error of (a) Principle (b) Omission 1x9
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(c) Commission (d) Wrong posting (iii) Prepaid expenses are shown as (a) Miscellaneous expenditure (b) Loans and advances (c) Investments (d) Capital Expenditure (iv) Noting charges are paid by (a) The acceptor (b) The payee (c) The drawer (d) The endorsee (v) Overdraft as per cash book means (a) Credit balance in the pass book (b) Credit balance in the bank column of the cash book (c) Debit balance in the pass book (d) Debit balance in the cash book (vi) Amount set apart to meet losses due to bad debt is a (a) Provision (b) Reserve (c) Appropriation (d) Depreciation. (vii) The recognition that every transaction has two sides to it, is the leading principle of (a) Accrual Concept (b) Realisation Concept (c) Dual Aspect Concept (d) Matching Concept. (viii) Statement of Affairs is a (a) Statement of Income and Expenditure (b) Statement of Assets and Liabilities (c) Not a Financial Statement (d) Statement of Loans and Advances. (ix) Retiring of bill under Rebate (a) Is settled before due date at a discount (b) Is settled after maturity (c) Is to get the period of bill extended (d) Is a fresh bill after deduction of rebate. (b)Fill in the blanks: [12- 26918] (i) Credit balance of the Pass Books indicates_________balance. (ii) The withdrawal of money by the owner of business is called_________. (iii) Effects of an event must be recognized in the same accounting period as per_________concept. (iv) Contingent Liability is a _________ item to the Balance Sheet. (v) Expenses paid but not accrured means_________expenses. (c)State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: [18- 26924] (i) Debit balance of the Pass Books indicates an overdraft. (ii) Suspense Account always shows debit balance. (iii) An agent to whom goods are sent for sale on a commission basis in called a consignee. (iv) The trade discount is never entered in the books of accounts. (v) The business of partnership firm must be carried on by all the partners. (vi) Salary paid to Ram will be debited to Rams personal account. (vii) Sales day book is the summary of both cash and credit sales of the concern. (viii) A bill of exchange is a conditional order in writing given by a Debtor to a Creditor. 2. (a) From the following particulars, prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 30.11.08:
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7 (0)
(i) Balance as per pass book (overdraft) (ii) Cheque of Ajay Ltd. deposited but not presented (iii) Cheque issued to Bijay Ltd. but not presented (iv) Bank charges and commission not entered in cash book (v) Amount directly credited by the bank against transfer of fund (vi) Dividend credited by bank but not entered in cash book (b) Define Contingent Liabilities 3. (a) Mr. A draws on Mr. B a bill of exchange for Rs. 5,000 on 1st January, 2008. Mr. A endorses the bill in favour of Mr. C. Before maturity, Mr. B approaches Mr. A with the request that the bill be renewed for a further period of 3 months at fifteen per cent interest per annum. Mr. A pays the sum to Mr. C on due date and agrees to the proposal of Mr. B. Pass the journal entries in the books of Mr. A assuming that the second bill is duly met. (b) Define Accommodation Bill. 4. (a) One Lathe machine whose original value was Rs. 1,20,000 on 1.4.2006, being the date of installation, was sold on 30.9.2008 for Rs. 1,00,000. Depreciation is charged @ 10% on reducing balance. Show Machinery account and Assets disposal account. (b) Explain Fundamental Accounting Assumption.
SECTION II
Rs. 5,000 7,160 290 120 500 1,000
3 (0) 6 (0)
4 (0) 6 (0) 4 (0)
Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two questions from Section II. 5. (a) In each of the following one of them is correct. Indicate the correct answer. [2- 26943] (i) Prime cost may be correctly termed as (a) The sum of direct material and labour cost with all other costs excluded. (b) The total of all cost items which can be directly charged to product units (c) The total costs incurred in producing a finished unit (d) The sum of the large cost terms in a product cost. (ii) Which of the following does not usually appear on a GRN? (a) Date received (b) Quantity received (c) Price of goods (d) Description of goods. (iii) From the following data production overhead absorption rate, as a percentage of prime cost: Direct material cost: Rs. 3,000 Direct labour cost: Rs. 5,000 Direct expenses: Rs. 2,000 Production overhead: Rs. 20,000 (a) 200% (b) 50% (c) 250% (d) 40% (iv) Which of the following methods of remuneration is most likely to give stability of earnings to employee and stability of labour cost to employer: (a) Straight piecework (b) Premium bonus schemes (c) Measured day work (d) Group bonus scheme. (v) Vacation pay for factory workers should be charged to (a) Workinprocess inventory (b) Direct labour (c) Administrative expense (d) Factory overhead (vi) Apportionment of overhead cost may be defined as: (a) Charge to a cost centre of an overhead cost item with no estimation.
1x12
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(b) Charge each cost centre with a share of an overhead cost using an appropriate basis to estimate the benefit extracted by each cost centre. (c) Charge to cost units for the use of an overhead cost. (d) Classification of overhead cost as fixed or variable. (vii) Which of the following indicates a breakeven point? (a) Sales revenue variable cost. (b) Profit = fixed cost + variable cost (c) Contribution = fixed cost (d) Contribution + fixed cost = profit. (viii) A factory operates on 300 days. It runs on 3 shifts of 7 hours each. Normally one hour everyday is spent on normal repair work. The number of hours for computation of machine hour rate will be: (a) 6000 hours (b) 6300 hours (c) 2100 hours (d) 6600 hours. (ix) Existing sales are Rs. 1,00,000 (500 units), variable costs are Rs. 60,000 & fixed costs are Rs. 24,000. If selling price is reduce by 10%, the breakeven sales of the company will be (a) 400 units (b) 334 units (c) 500 units (d) 450 units. (x) Margin of Safety is: (a) Fixed costVariable Cost (b) ContributionFixed Cost (c) BEP SalesVariable Cost (d) SalesBEP Sales. (xi) In situation of increasing price, the valuation of closing stock is less under: (a) FIFO (b) LIFO (c) Simple average (d) Weighted average. (xii) An increase in fixed cost will result in (a) A decrease in P/V Ratio (b) Decrease in contribution per unit (c) Increase in break even level (d) Increase in profit. (b)State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false: [15- 26956] (i) Under LIFO method, price of issues is close to current market price. (ii) Price rate system is useful when the quality of the product is extremely important. (iii) Variable cost per unit will not change. (iv) Cost centre is sometimes known as cost unit. (v) Abnormal costs are controllable. (vi) All overheads change with change in volume and in the same proportion. (vii) All packing materials are indirect, hence treated as factory overheads. (viii) Target cost is a product cost arrived at after deducting desired profit from the selling price prevailing in the market. (ix) Just in time means to complete all work just in time, without keeping anything pending for the next day. 6. (a) ABC Ltd. furnished information in relation to the production of 2,000 units of product "X" for the year 2007. Rs. (i) Direct materials 2,00,000 (ii) Direct labour 1,50,000
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2x9
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7 (0)
(iii) Indirect wages (50% fixed) 40,000 (iv) Consumable Stores (70% variable) 30,000 (v) Office rent (100% fixed) 60,000 (vi) Selling expenses (40% variable) 80,000 In the year 2008, it is estimated that the production will increase by 50%. The price of material and labour will up by 10% and 20% respectively. Compute selling price per unit of product "X" for the year 2008, if the company wishes to maintain the profit @ 10% on cost. (b) Write note on "Idle Time". 3 (0) 7. (a) A Contractor uses labour groups of two skilled and three unskilled workers to do small contract 6 (0) jobs. The contractor wishes to charge the work done by this group on an hourly basis. The information for the group is as follows: One Skilled Worker One Unskilled Worker Working hours per week 40 40 Normal idle time 10% of working hours 10% of working hours Three weeks on full pay plus Three weeks on full pay bonus of Rs. 2000 per annum Wages rate per hour Rs. 24 Rs. 16 Food Allowance per working week Rs. 120 Rs. 80 Lodging allowance per working week Rs. 180 Rs. 120 Noncontributory pension fundemployers Rs. 1,060 payment per annum You are required to calculate labour hour rate for the group, assuming fiftytwo weeks per year. (b) Write note on "CostVolumeProfit (CVP) Analysis. 4 (0) 8. (a) Calculate Economic order quantity from the following: 2+2+2+4(0) Annual Requirement 16000 kg. Price per kg. Rs. 200 Ordering Cost Rs. 50 per order Inventory Holding Cost 5% on average inventory (0) (b) Reordering level 200 units Reordering quantity 300 units Minimum usage 20 units Minimum lead time 5 weeks What is the Minimum Stock? (0) (c) The number of employees at the beginning and end of 2007 were 2500 & 3500 respectively. During the year 2007, 250 employees left and 350 persons joined the company. Calculate the labour turnover ratio under Flux Method. (0) (d) You are required to find out the break even sales (BES) and profit, it the sales of a company are Rs. 50 lakhs and P/V ratio and margin of safety are 50% and 40% respectively.
This Paper has 50 answerable questions with 0 answered. P4(BMS) Syllabus 2008
Time Allowed : 3 Hours The figures in the margin on the right side indicate full marks. Answer all the questions. Notations and symbols have usual meanings
SECTION I (Arithmetic 10 marks)
Full Marks : 100
Marks 1. Answer any two of the following: Choose the correct option showing the proper reasons/calculations. (a) If x is the mean proportional between x 2 and x + 6 then the value of x is (A) 4, (B) 3, (C) 2, (D) none of these 3x2
(0)
(0) (b) Of the five numbers the average of first four numbers is 8 and the average of the last four numbers is 6. Then the difference of the first and the fifth number is (A) 6, (B) 8, (C) 10, (D) none of these (0) (c) The true discount on a bill due in 6 months at 8% p.a. is Rs. 40. Then the amount of the bill is (A) Rs. 1000 (B) Rs. 1200 (C) Rs. 1040 (D) none of these 2.Answer any one of the following. 4x1 Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (0) (a) Divide Rs. 6,200 in 3 parts such that the interest for the three parts for 2, 3 and 5 years respectively at 5% simple interest p.a. are same. (0) (b) A dealer mixes two varieties of teas costing Rs. 100 per kg. and Rs. 160 per kg. in the proportion 5:1. He sold the 6 kg. mixture at the rate of Rs. 120 per kg. Find his profit.
SECTION II (Algebra 15 marks)
3. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) In a class of 80 students 52 read Mathematics, 36 read Statistics and 20 read both Mathematics and Statistics. The number of students who read neither Mathematics nor Statistics is (i) 60, (ii) 8, (iii) 12, (iv) None of these. (b) If logarithm of a number to the base 2 is 4, then the logarithm of the same number to the base 22 is 4 (i) (ii) 4 (iii) 8 (iv) none of these. 3 (c) The number of ways in which letters of the word MONDAY be arranged beginning with the letter O and ending with the letter Y is (i) 120, (ii) 24, (iii) 96, (iv) none of these (d) If p and q be two logical statements then (pq) p is (i) (FFFF) (ii) (TFFT), (iii) (FTTT), (iv) None of these (e) The area of a circle varies directly with square of its diameter. Area of the circle is 38.5 sq.cm when diameter is 7 cm. If diameter of the circle is 1 cm then area of the circle in sq.cm is 5.5 11 22 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) none of these 7 7 7 4.Answer any two of the following: (a) If w be an imaginary cube root of unity then find the value of (1 w + w2) (1 + w w2). (b) Simple interest and compound interest in 2 years for some principal are Rs. 200 and Rs. 210 at the same rate of interest per annum. Find the principal amount. (c) The volume of a gas varies directly as the absolute temperature and inversely as pressure. When the pressure is is 15 units and the temperature is 260 units the volume is 200 units. What will be the volume when the pressure is 18 units and the temperature is 195 units?
SECTION III (Mensuration 15 marks)
Marks 3x3
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0) (0)
3x2
(0) (0) (0)
5. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 cm. Then the area of the triangle is (i) 303 sq.cm, (ii) 36.3 sq.cm, (iii) 36.2 sq.cm, (iv) none of these (b) The sum of the interior angles and each interior angle of a pentagon is (i) (5400, 1080) (ii) (4500, 900), (iii) (7200, 1440), (iv) none of these (c) The sides of a cuboid are 40 cm, 20 cm and 10 cm. It is melted to form a new cube. The surface area of the new cube in sq.cm is (i) 1400, (ii) 2800, (iii) 4,000, (iv) none of these (d) The volume of hollow right circular cylinder of height 14 cm with internal and external radii of base 8 cm and 10 cm respectively, has the volume in cu.cm as (Take = 27 )
Marks 3x3
(0)
(0) (0)
(0)
7 (i) 4400 (ii) 1584 (iii) 88 (iv) none of these (0) (e) A right prism has triangular base whose sides are 13 cm, 20 cm and 21 cm. If the altitude of the prism is 9 cm then the volume of the prism is (i) 1134 c.c, (ii) 1200 c.c, (iii) 1000 c.c, (iv) none of these 6.Answer any two of the following: 3x2 (0) (a) A right pyramid stands on a base 16 cm square and its height is 15 cm. Find the slant surface and volume of the pyramid. (0) (b) A road of one meter wide is developed around a circular garden with diameter 20 m @ Rs. 100 per sq.m. Find the cost of development of the road. 22 (Take = ) 7 (0) (c) The volume of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. Find their radii if the sum of their radii is 21 cm. 22 (Take = ) 7
SECTION IV (Coordinate Geometry 10 marks)
Marks 7. Answer any two of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) If the three points (1, 2), (2, 4) and (x, 6) are collinear then the value of x is (i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 4. (b) If the line joining the points (2, 2) and (6, 4) are parallel to the line joining the points 3x2
(0)
(0)
( 10 , 9) and (x, 7) then x is 3 (i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) (0) (c) The three points A(a, 0), B(a, 0), C(c, 0) and p is a point such that PB2 + PC2 = 2PA2 then the locus of P is (i) (a c) x + a2 = c2 (ii) (3a c) x = a2 c2 (iii) (6a 2c) x + a2 c2 = 0 (iv) (6a 2c) x + c2 a2 = 0 2 2 (0) (d) The centre of a circle 3(x + y ) = 6x + 6y 5 is (i) (2, 2) (ii) (1, 1) (iii) (3, 3) (iv) none of these. 8.Answer any one of the following: 4x1 (0) (a) Find the equation of the parabola having vertex (3, 1) and focus (1, 1). (0) (b) For the hyperbola 9x2 16y2 36x 108 = 0 find the coordinates of the centre and its latus rectum.
SECTION V (Calculus 15 marks)
Marks 9. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) f(x) = loge, (x 3) (x 5) is undefined in the region (i) x < 3 (ii) x > 5 (iii) 3 x 5 (iv) none of these. (b) The value of (i) 1 2
2 lim 2x 10x + 12 is x2 2x2 + 4x 16
3x3
(0)
(0)
(ii) 1
(iii)
1 6
(iv) none of these
(c)
x dx (i) 0 (ii) 1 (iii) 2 (iv) 2. (d) The differentiation of x4 with respect to x3 is 4 4x 3x (i) (ii) (iii) (22 + 1), (iv) None of these. 3 3 4 (e)
1 ex The value of x dx is 0 e +3
If y = x +
then x2
dy
(0)
xy is
(0)
(0)
(i) loge
(e + 3) 4
(ii) loge
(e + 3) 3
(iii)
e+3 3
(iv) None of these. 3x2

(0) (0)
10.Answer any two of the following: (a) If y = log (x + x2 + a2 ) then prove that (a2 + x2) y2 + xy1 = 0. (b) If f(u, v) = u3 v3 + 3u2v 3uv2, then verify that u f +v f = 3f (u, v).
u v (c) Find the area of the region bounded by curves y2 = x and y = x.
(0)
SECTION VI (Statistical Methods 35 marks)
11. Answer any seven of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) The arithmetic mean of 4 observations is 8 and that of 10 observations including those 4 is 11. Then arithmetic mean of remaining 6 observations is (i) 13, (ii) 11, (iii) 10, (iv) none of these (b) Geometric mean of 10 observations 2, 2, 4, 4, 8, 8, 16, 16, 32, 32 is (i) 2, (ii) 4, (iii) 8, (iv) none of these (c) Harmonic mean of 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5 is 1 (i) (ii) 4 (iii) 5 (iv) none of these 5 (d) Number of peas of 50 peapods are as follows: No. of peas : 0 1 2 3 4 5 Total No. of peapods : 2 10 12 15 10 1 50 Median of number of peas is (i) 2.5 (ii) 3 (iii) 3.5 (iv) none of these (e) The number of members in 30 families are as follows: 1, 3, 1, 3, 4, 5, 3, 3, 1, 3, 3, 4, 5, 4, 2, 3, 3, 2, 2, 5, 2, 4, 2, 2, 3, 2, 4, 2, 4, 4 (i) 2.5 (ii) 4 (iii) 3.5 (iv) none of these (f) If arithmetic mean and harmonic mean of two positive numbers are 3 and 8 then the two numbers are
Marks 3x7
(0)
(0) (0)
(0)
(0)
(0)
3 (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 4, (iv) none of these (g) The mean deviation about 12 of the following distribution x : 10 11 12 13 14 Total Frequency : 5 9 20 13 3 50 is (i) 0.66, (ii) 0.7, (iii) 0.76, (iv) none of these (h) If variance of 10 values is 9 and sum of deviation of those ten values about 3 is 60 then mean of squares of deviations of those 10 values about 5 is (i) 25, (ii) 16, (iii) 9, (iv) none of these
(0)
(0)
(i) If runs of two players A and B in 10 cricket matches are such that player A has mean 50 and variance 36 and player B has mean 60 and variance 81 of runs then the player more consistence in runs is (i) A (ii) B (iii) Both are equally consistent (iv) none of these (j) For a distribution with A.M. = 50, coefficient of skewness 0.4 and s.d. 20, value of mode is (i) 66 (ii) 42 (iii) 58 (iv) none of these 12. (a)Answer any two of the following: [58- 42519] (i) Find the mean and the mean deviation of following frequency distribution of ages: Class of age (yrs.) : 010 1020 2030 3040 4050 Total No. of persons : 2 4 9 3 2 20 (ii) Find median and mode of the following distribution: Weekly wages (Rs.) : 5059 6069 7079 8089 9099 Total No. of workers : 6 14 16 13 3 52 (iii) If the first of two samples has 100 items with mean 15 and variance 9 and the second has 150 items with mean 16 and variance 16, find the mean and variance of the combined sample. (b)Write short note on any one of the following [62- 42523] (i) Central tendency of data; (ii) Ogive less than type.
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(0)
5x2
(0)
(0)
(0)
4x1
(0) (0)
Time Allowed : 3 Hours The figures in the margin on the right side indicate full marks. Answer all questions. Notations and symbols have usual meanings
Full Marks : 100
Marks 1. Answer any two of the following: Choose the correct option showing the proper reasons/calculations. (a) The number to be added to each term of the ratio 3 : 7 to make it 1 : 2 is (A) 2, (B) 1, (C) 3, (D) none of these (b) The average of 7 numbers is 27. If one number is included, the average becomes 25. The included number is (A) 11, (B) 10, (C) 12, (D) none of these (c) The time in which a sum of money becomes double at 10% p.a., simple interest is (A) 8 years (B) 10 years, (C) 12 years, (D) none of these 2.Answer any one of the following. (a) A bill for Rs. 2060 is due in 6 months. Calculate the difference between True Discount (TD) and Bankers Discount (BD), the rate of interest being 6%. (b) In a liquid mixture 20% is water and in another mixture water is 25%. These two mixtures are mixed in the ratio 5:3. Find the percentage of water in the final mixture.
3x2
(0)
(0)
(0)
4x1
(0) (0)
3. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) If x = 2 + 3 then the value of x4 + (i) 98,
n n
Marks 3x3
1 x
4
(0)
is
(ii) 196,
(iii) 194,
(iv) None of these.

(0)
(b) cr + cr-1 is equal to
(i) n1cr (ii) n+1cr (iii) ncr+1 (iv) none of these. (c) Given a varies as bx +c, Value of a is 3 when b = 1, c= 2 and is 5 when b = 2, c = 3. The value of x would be (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) none of these (d) If one root of the equation x2 - bx + K = 0 is twice the other root then the value of K is (i) 8, (ii) 8, (iii) 4, (iv) None of these (e) If log x = log y = log z then the value of zyz is
(0)
(0)
(0)
yz zx xy (i) 1, (ii) 0, (iii) 1, (iv) none of these 4.Answer any two of the following: 3x2 (0) (a) If universal set is {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, A = {2, 4, 5}, B = {1, 3, 5}, C = {5, 6} then find (i) B A, (ii) B B c, (iii) (A B C) where A represent complement of A. (0) (b) Find the square root of 16 30i. (0) (c) The number of handshakes in a party was counted as 66. Determine the number of guests attending the party, assuming all guests shake hands with each other.
5. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) If two adjacent sides of right angle of a rightangled triangle are such that the length of one side is twice the other and the hypotenuse is 5 cm then area of the triangle in sq. cm is (i) 10, (ii) 5, (iii) 2.5, (iv) none of these (b) If the parameter of a semicircle is 36 cm then area of that semicircle in sq.cm is 22 (Given = ) 7 (i) 144, (ii) 22, (iii) 77, (iv) none of these (c) Surface of a cube of volume 125 cu.ft. are painted with black colour at cost of Rs. 10 per sq.ft. The amount required to paint the outer surface of the cube in Rs. is (i) 1500, (ii) 1250, (iii) 1,000, (iv) none of these (d) If 3 solid spheres of radii 3 ft., 4 ft, and 5 ft. of iron are melted to form a new sphere, the surface area of the new sphere in square feet is 22 (Given = ) 7 (i) 264 (ii) 528 (iii) 792
Marks 3x3
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0)
(iv) none of these 7 7 7 (0) (e) A right pyramid stands on a base of 12 cm square and its height is 8 cm. Then its total surface area in sq. cm is (i) 240, (ii) 384, (iii) 624, (iv) none of these 6.Answer any two of the following: 3x2 (0) (a) The area of three adjacent sides of a cuboid are 15 sq. cm, 10 sq. cm and 6 sq. cm. Find the volume of the cuboid. (0) (b) The height and slant of a right circular cone is 24 cm and 25 cm respectively. Find the area of the curved surface and volume. 22 (Given = ) 7 (0) (c) The sum of length, breadth and height of a rectangular parallelopiped is 24 cm and its diagonal is 15 cm. Find the area of the whole surface of the parallelopiped.
Marks
7. Answer any two of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) The area of the triangle formed by points (0, 0), (5, 0) and (0, 6) is (i) 11 sq. unit, (ii) 30 sq. unit, (iii) 15 sq. unit, (iv) 7.5 sq. unit. (b) The equation of a straight line passing through the point (5, 5) and is perpendicular to the line x = y is (i) x - y = 5, (ii) x + y = 5, (iii) x + y = 10 (iv) None of these. (c) A point p having coordinate (x, y) moves such that its distance from the points (1, 3) and (2, 3) are equal. Then locus of p is (i) 2x = 12y + 3, (ii) 2x = 6y - 3, (iii) 6x = y + 3, (iv) none of these. (d) The directrix of the parabola x2 = 4x + 3y + 5 is (i) 4y = 15, (ii) 4y + 15 = 0, (iii) 4x + 15 = 0, (iv) none of these. 8.Answer any one of the following: (a) Find the equation of a circle which touches both the axes in the first quadrant at a distance of 5 units from the origin. (b) Find the co-ordinate of the centre and eccentricity of the ellipse 4x2 92 + 18y = 16x + 11.
3x2
(0)
(0) (0)
(0)
4x1
(0) (0)
9. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) If h = g(x) = (i) q, px + q , then g(h) is equal to (iv) none of these.
Marks 3x3
(0)
px q (ii) x, (iii) p,
(b) lim (epx eqx) is evaluated as x0 x (i) q p, (c) (ii) p q dy dx (iii) p q, (iv) none of these
(0)
If y = x1+x2 then (i) 1 2 (ii) dx 22 3 7 2
(0)
at x = 3 is (iv) None of these.

(0)
(iii) 5,
(d)
1
(i)
0 x + 1 x
is evaluated as 42 3 (iii) 2 3 (22 + 1), f f (iv) None of these.

(0)
(ii)
(e)
x (i) f(x, y), (ii) 3, (iii) 3f(x, y), 10.Answer any two of the following: (a) If xayb = (x + y)a + b show that dy = y
If f(x, y) = 3x3 5x2y + 2y3 then x
+y
y (iv) none of these 3x2

(0)
is
dx x (b) If y = Aemx + Bemx show that y2 m2y = 0. (c) Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant bounded by the parabola y2 = 4x, the xaxis and
where a and b are independent of x and y.
(0) (0)
the ordinate x = 4.
11. Answer any seven of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) First 10 odd counting numbers each occurring twice has arithmetic mean (i) 40, (ii) 10, (iii) 20, (iv) none of these
Marks 3x7
(0)
(0) (b) Geometric mean (G.M) of six numbers is 16. If G.M. of first four of them is 8 then G.M. of other two is (i) 8, (ii) 16, (iii) 32, (iv) none of these (0) (c) Two positive observations have arithmetic mean 3 and geometric mean 22. If each observation is multiplied by 2 then harmonic mean will be 16 8 (i) (ii) (iii) 12, (iv) none of these 3 3 (0) (d) If the sum of deviations of a number of observations about 4 and that about 3 are 40 and 50 respectively then arithmetic mean of the observations is (i) 4 (ii) 6 (iii) 10 (iv) none of these (0) (e) If the relation between 2 variable x and y is xy = 2 and arithmetic mean of variable x is 10, then harmonic mean of variable y is 1 1 2 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) none of these 5 10 5 (0) (g) If relation between 2 variables x and y is 2x + 3y = 5 and mean deviation of x values about mean is 9 for 10 observations, then sum of absolute deviations of corresponding 10 yvalues about mean is (i) 90, (ii) 30, (iii) 6, (iv) none of these (0) (h) If for 10 values of x sum of deviations about 5 us 10 and sum of squares of deviations about 4 is 100 then variance of x is (i) 4, (ii) 6, (iii) 10, (iv) none of these (0) (i) If two samples of sizes 4 and 5 have same mean but different standard deviations 1 and 3 respectively then the standard deviation of the combined sample is 51 7 (i) 5, (ii) (iii) (iv) none of these 3 3 (0) (j) If the mode, variance and coefficient of skewness of a frequency distribution are 100, 16 and 6 respectively then mean of the distribution is (i) 124, (ii) 76, (iii) 108, (iv) none of these 12. (a)Answer any two of the following: [58- 42237] 5x2 (0) (i) Find the mean and the mean deviation about mean of the following frequency distribution: Weight (in kg): 50 55 60 65 70 Total No. of persons 1 4 2 2 1 10 (0) (ii) Show that the combined arithmetic mean x of two groups lies between the arithmetic means x 1 and x 2 of the two groups. (0) (iii) The arithmetic mean and geometric mean of two observations are 20 and 12 respectively. Find the observations and harmonic mean of them. (b)Write short note on any one of the following [62- 42241] 4x1 (0) (i) Histogram, (0) (ii) Skewness and its two important measures.
Time Allowed : 3 Hours The figures in the margin on the right side indicate full marks. Answer all questions.
Full Marks : 100
Notations and symbols have usual meanings

Marks 1. Answer any two of the following: Choose the correct option showing the proper reasons/calculations. (a) Let marks obtained by Ram, Rahim and Jadu be A, B and C respectively. Given A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4. The combined ratio A:B:C is (A) 1 : 2 : 4, (B) 3 : 6 : 8, (C) 1 : 6 : 8, (D) none of these (b) If a + b a b 2 1 a+b ab 3x2
(0)
(0)
Then
is equal to
(A) 5/4, (B) 4/5 (C) 3 (D) none of them (c) The time, in which the discount on amount Rs. 550 due is Rs. 50 at 4% per annum, is (A) 2 yrs., (B) 3 yrs., (C) 2.5 yrs., (D) none of them 2.Answer any one of the following. (a) If x b+c = y c+a = z a+b then show that (b c) (x a) + (c a) (y b) + (a b) (z c) = 0.
(0)
4x1
(0)
(b) A person borrowed Rs. 10,000 at some simple interest rate for 2 years. After expiry of one year he borrowed another Rs. 20,000 at 1% lower interest rate for 1 year. At the end he paid fully Rs. 33,000. Find the rate of interest at which he borrowed first.
(0)
3. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) After rationalization (i) 1 + 26i, (b) (ii) 3 + 2i 3 2i 5
Marks 3x3
(0)
will be (iii) 1 2 6i, (iv) 1 + 26i 5

(0)
5 + 26i
(2n+1) + (2n+2) (2n+2) 2 ()1n
simplifies to
(i) 4, (ii) 2, (iii) 8, (iv) 20 (c) The value of log2 log2 log3 81 is (i) 1, (ii) 4, (iii) 3, (iv) 2 (d) The value of x satisfying the equations (i)
(0)
1x
+
1x x
13 6
(0)
is
(3,2)
2 3
(ii)
(9,4)
4 9
(iii) (4, 9),
(iv) None of these
(0) (e) Ifmc6 : m3c3 = 91 : 4, then the value of m is (i) 13, (ii) 15, (iii) 14, (iv) none of these 4.Answer any two of the following: 3x2 2 2 (0) (a) Find the square root of x + x y . (0) (b) The total expenses of a boarding house varies partly with the number of boarders and partly fixed. The total expenses are Rs. 10,000 for 25 boarders and Rs. 11,500 for 30 boarders. Find the fixed expenses.
(c) Of 50 students appearing in an examination 20 failed in Mathematics, 25 failed in English and 10 failed in both. Find the number of students of those 50 students who passed in both Mathematics and English. Write the formula you use completely.
(0)
5. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) The area of the equilateral triangle with a side of length 2 cm is 3 3 (i) sq.cm, (ii) 3 sq.cm, (iii) sq.cm, (iv) none of these 2 4 (b) A circular garden having diameter 60 ft. has a path of width 10 ft. surrounding outside the garden. Area of the path is 28600 1600 (i) 2200 sq.ft., (ii) sq.ft., (iii) sq.ft., (iv) none of these 7 7 (c) A rectangular parallelopiped has length 20 cm, breadth 10 cm, and height 5cm. the total surface area of it is (i) 350 sq.cm, (ii) 1000 sq.cm, (iii) 700 sq.cm (iv) none of these (d) For a solid right circular cylinder of height 9 cm and radius of 7 cm the total surface area is (i) 352 sq.cm, (ii) 550 sq.cm, (iii) 704 sq.cm (iv) none of these (e) The diameter of the base of a conical tent is 14 ft, and height of the tent is 15 ft. The volume of the space covered by the tent is (i) 2130 cu.ft., (ii) 8520 cu.ft., (iii) 700 cu.ft., (iv) none of these 6.Answer any two of the following: (a) The area of a rectangle is 96 sq.cm and its perimeter is 40 cm, what are its length and breadth? (b) Find the quantity of water in litre flowing out of a pipe of crosssection area 5 cm2 in 1 minute if the speed of the water in the pipe is 30 cm/sec. (c) The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 8 : 27 and the difference of their radii is 3 cm. Find the radii of both the spheres.
Marks 3x3
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0) (0)
3x2
(0) (0) (0)
7. Answer any two of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) The equation of a straight line passing through origin and perpendicular to the line 2x + 3y + 1 = 0 is (i) 3y + 2x = 0, (ii) 2y + 3x = 0 (iii) 2y = 3x, (iv) 3y = 2x 2 2 (b) Eccentricity of the hyperbola 9x 16y = 36 is 5 4 25 16 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4 5 16 25 (c) The equation of a parabola whose vertex and axis are (0, 0) and y = 0 respectively, passing through (5, 4), is (i) 4y2 = 5x, (ii) 5x2 = 16 y, (iii) 5y2 = 4x, (iv) 5y2 = 16x 8.Answer any one of the following: (a) Prove that the points (x, 0), (0, y) and (1, 1) are collinear if 1 + 1 = 1.
Marks 3x2
(0)
(0)
(0)
4x1
(0)
x y (b) Find the equation of the circle which is concentric to the circle x2 + y2 + 8x 10y + 5 = 0 and passes through the point (4, 11).
(0)
Marks 9. Answer any three of the following: 3x3
Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) If f(x) = (i) 1, (b) lim x+1 x1
(0)
, f (f(x)) for x 1 is (iii) x, (iv) x+1 x1

(0)
(ii) 2, (x2 1)2x
x1 2x2 3x + 1 (i) 1, (ii) 2, (c)
is evaluated as (iii) 3, dy dx (iv) 4

(0)
If y = (x2 + 5)2 then (i) 18, (ii) 72,
at x = 2 is (iii) 81, f +y f (iv) 36

(0)
(d)
If f(x, y) = x3 + y3 then x (i) f(x, y),
x (ii) 3f(x, y),
y (iii) 3,
is
(iv) none of these

(0)
(e) 2
1 (i) 2, (ii) 22 (iii) 2 10.Answer any two of the following: (a) If y = x 1 x2 show that x dy dx
x 1 is evaluated as
dx
(iv) 22 3x2
2
(0)
= y (y + 1).
(0) (0)
(b) If y = (x + 1 + x2) m, show that (1 + x2)y2 + xy1 = m2y. (c) Evaluate 1 2

x log x dx.
e
11. Answer any seven of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) Arithmetic mean of 5 observations is 8. After calculation it was noted that observations 10 and 20 have been wrongly taken in place of correct values 15 and 25 respectively. The correct mean is (i) 18, (ii) 9, (iii) 13, (iv) none of these (b) Two groups of 10 and 15 observations have means 10 and 20 respectively. Then grouped mean is (i) 15, (ii) 16, (iii) 14, (iv) none of these (c) Geometric mean of first group of 5 observations is 8 and that of second group of 4 observations is 1282. Then grouped geometric mean is (i) 64, (ii) 322, (iii) 32, (iv) none of these (d) If two groups with 2 and 3 observations have harmonic means mean of the two observations 2 5 and 1 5 respectively, then arithmetic
Marks 3x7
(0)
(0) (0)
(0)
(iv) none of these 2 4 3 (e) If the two observations have harmonic mean and geometric mean 9 and 15 respectively, then arithmetic mean of the two observations (i) 12, (ii) 25, (iii) 135, (iv) none of these (f) If the two variables x and y are related by 2x + 3y = 12 and standard deviation of x is 6 then standard deviation of y is (i) 2, (ii) 10, (iii) 4, (iv) none of these (g) For 10 values of variable x it is given that x = 13, x2 = 400 and u = x5 2 . Then u2 is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(0)
(0)
(0)
(i) 100, (ii) 520, (iii) 260, (iv) none of these (h) Mean deviation about mean is 5.8. Coefficient of mean deviation about mean is 0.2. Then mean is (i) 1.16, (ii) 2.9, (iii) 29, (iv) none of these (i) For a group of 10 observations, x = 452, x2 = 24270 and mode 43.7 the coefficient of skewness is (i) 0.8, (ii) 0.08, (iii) 8, (iv) none of these (j) The mean and coefficient of variation of runs made by a batsman in 10 innings are 40 and 125% respectively. Then s.d. of the runs made by the batsman is (i) 50, (ii) 40, (iii) 20, (iv) none of these 12. (a)Answer any two of the following: [13- 32571] (i) Find the median and mode of the following grouped frequency distribution: Salaries (in Rs.) per hour 59 1014 1519 2024 2529 Total No. of persons 10 20 30 25 15 100 (ii) Prove that for any two positive real quantities AM GM HM. (iii) The following are the sizes of 50 families in a village: 2, 3, 4, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 3, 5, 3, 5, 5, 4, 2, 4, 4, 3, 3, 3, 2, 4, 4, 3, 3, 2, 3, 4, 3, 5, 4, 2, 3, 4, 4, 2, 4, 4, 2, 6, 4, 3, 5, 4, 3, 2, 3, 3, 1. Obtain the frequency distribution of the family size and calculate the mean deviation about mean of the family size. (b)Write short note on any one of the following [17- 32575] (i) Pie Chart, (ii) Primary data.
This Paper has 83 answerable questions with 0 answered.
(0) (0) (0)
5x2
(0)
(0) (0)
4x1
(0) (0)
P4(BMS) Syllabus 2008
Time Allowed : 3 Hours Notations and symbols have usual meanings. The figures in the margin on the right side indicate full marks. Answer all questions.
SECTION I (Arithmetic 10 Marks)
Full Marks : 100
Marks 1. Answer any three of the following. Choose the correct option showing the proper reasons/calculations. (a) Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. If 10 is subtracted from both of them the ratio will be 1 : 2. So the members are (A) 15 and 20, (B) 12 and 16, (C) 30 and 40, (D) none of them (b) The mean of age of 5 men is 40 years. Three of them are of same age and they are excluded. The mean of the remaining two is 25. Age of one of the excluded persons in year is (A) 20, (B) 25, (C) 40, (D) none of the above. (c) A man bought three qualities of tea in the ratio 5 : 4 : 3 with prices per kg. Rs. 390, Rs. 375 and Rs. 450 2x3
(0)
(0)
(0)
respectively and mixed them together. The cost price of the mixture per kg. in Rs. is (A) 395, (B) 420, (C) 400, (D) none of them. (0) (d) Ram lends Hari Rs. 1,000 and Hari repays Rs. 1300 to Ram at the end of 3 years in simple interest fully. The rate of interest Ram charged to Hari per annum for repayment of loan is (A) 13%, (B) 12%, (C) 10%, (D) none of them. (0) (e) A bill of Rs. 1020 is due in 6 months. True discount in rupees at interest rate 4% per annum is (A) 25, (B) 20, (C) 20.4, (D) none of them. 2.Answer any one of the following: 4x1 (0) (a) The proportion of liquid II in four samples are 2 : 1, 3 : 2, 5 : 3 and 7 : 5. A mixture is prepared by taking equal quantities of the four samples. Find the ratio of liquid I to liquid II in the final mixture. (0) (b) If the difference between true discount and bankers discount on a sum due in 3 months at 4% per annum is Rs. 20, find the amount of bill. SECTION II (Algebra15 marks) 3. (a) Answer any three of the following: 2x3 Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. [2- 27067] (i) After arranging 5, 33, 26 in decending order they are (A) 33, 5, 26 (B) 26, 33, 5, (C) 33, 26, 5, (ii) If y (A) 4 1 x
3
(0)
(D) none of them

(0)
and x = 2 when y = 3, then for x = 3 the value of y is (B) 8 (C) 4
(D) none of them 3 9 9 (iii) The number of ways in which the letters of the word COLLEGE can be arranged is (A) 240, (B) 2520, (C) 5040, (D) none of them (iv) The number of digits in 240 is (given log10 2 = 0.30103) (A) 12, (B) 11, (C) 13, (D) none of them (v) Correct statement among 1 {1, 3, 4}, {1, 3} {1, 3, 4} and {1, 4} {1, 3, 4} is (A) 1 {1, 3, 4} (B) {1, 4} {1, 3, 4}, (C) {1, 3} {1, 3, 4}, (D) none of them (b)Answer any three of the following: [8- 27073] (i) Find the value of ( 1 )
2/5
(0) (0) (0)
1x3
(0)
32 (ii) Evaluate modulus of 3 2i. (iii) Determine the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 and 2. (iv) Draw the graph of x 3 in XOY plane. (v) If log p log q = log (p q), show that p = q2 q1 3x2
(0) (0) (0) (0)
4.Answer any two of the following: (a) Solve: 25x, 44x 2 = 83x8 163x 1
(0)
(b)
(0)
x (c) The volume of gas varies directly as the absolute temperature and inversely as pressure. When the pressure is 10 units and the temperature is 200 units, the volume is 160 units. What will be the volume when pressure is 12 units and temperature is 480 units. (d) From 7 gentlemen and 4 ladies a committee of 5 is to be formed. In how many ways can this be done to include atleast one lady? SECTION III (Mensuration 15 marks)
If x = 7 + 43 find the value of x +
(0)
(0)
5. (a) Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. [2- 27085] (i) The area of the triangle with sides of length 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm, (in sq. cm) is (A) 12, (B) 6, (C) 24, (D) none of them (ii) The perimeter in cm of a semicircle of diameter 14 cm is (A) 25, (B) 44, (C) 36, (D) none of them (iii) The volume in cu. ft of a right pyramid having altitude 6 ft and square base with length of a side 4 ft is (A) 32, (B) 96, (C) 48, (D) none of them (iv) A path of 5 ft wide is to be laid just outside round the square garden with length of a side 50 ft. The area of the path in sq. ft would be (A) 1000, (B) 2500, (C) 1200, (D) none of them (v) The volume of a solid sphere is 32 cu. cm. Surface area of the sphere in sq. cm is
2x3
(0)
(0) (0)
(0)
(0)
3 (A) 12 , (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) none of them (b)Answer any three of the following [8- 27091] (i) Find the total surface area of a cube whose volume is 64 cu. cm. (ii) Find the hypotenuse of a right angled isosceles triangle having area 9/2 sq. ft. (iii) A bicycle wheel of radius 35 cm makes 5000 revolutions to cover x km. Find the volume of x. (iv) Two solid spheres of radil 3 cm and 2 cm are melted and by them another solid sphere is formed. Find the volume of the new sphere. (v) A solid right circular cone have 7 cm height and 3 cm radius of base. Find its volume. (vi) Find the length of a side of rhombus having diagonals 6 cm and 8 cm. 6.Answer any two of the following: (a) One diagonal of a rectangle is 10 ft. If the perimeter is 28 ft, find its length and breadth. (b) A circle of radius 7 cm is inscribed within a square touching the sides. Find the area of one fillet thus formed. (c) Find the volume and surface area of a hollow cylinder with height 7 inches internal and external radil of base 5 inches and 3 inches respectively. (d) A conical tent is required to accommodate 11 people. Each person must have 14 sq. ft of space on the ground and 140 cu. ft of air to breathe. Find the height, slant height and the width of the tent. SECTION IV (Coordinate Geometry 10 marks) 7. Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. (a) Equation of a line passing through (2, 4) and having yintercept 2 (on the positive side) is (i) y = x 2, (ii) y = x + 2 (iii) y + x = 2 (iv) none of them
1x3
(0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0)
3x2
(0) (0) (0) (0)
2x3
(0)
(0) (b) The coordinates of the point which divide the line joining (3, 6) and (12, 9) internally in the ratio 1 : 2 is (i) (7, 6), (ii) (9, 3), (iii) (6, 7), (iv) none of them (0) (c) Perpendicular distance of the line 3x + 4y = 1 from the point (4, 1) is 17 (i) 3 units, (ii) 4 units, (iii) units, (iv) none of them 5 (0) (d) The radius of the circle 2x2 + 2y2 + 2y = 8x + 6 is (i) 3 units, (ii) 4 units, (iii) 5 units, (iv) none of them (0) (e) Eccentricity of the elipse 5x2 + 9y2 = 405 is 1 4 (i) 2, (ii) (iii) (iv) none of them 3 9 8.Answer any one of the following: 4x1 (0) (a) Find the equation of a straight line passing through the point (2, 3) and perpendicular to the line x + 2y = 5. (0) (b) Find the equation of the parabola whose focus is (1, 1) and directrix is x + y = 1. Find also the length of
the latus rectum.

9. (a) Answer any three of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. [2- 27113] (i) If f(x) = e2x3 then (A) e , (ii)
3 3
2x3
(0)
f(x + y)
f(x) f (y) (B) e , (C) 1

x x lim 3 2 is x0 x
is (D) none of them

(0)
The value of (A) loge ( 3 2 )
(B) log10 ( d2y

2
3 2
(C) 1
(D) none of them

(0)
(iii)
dx (A) 4 , (B) 4x loge4, (C) loge4 (D) none of them (iv) The value of x for which x (12 x2) is maximum is (A) 0, (B) 2, (C) 2, (D) none of them
x
If y = 4 then
is
(0)
(v) The value of
1 0
1+e
exdx
x
(0)
is 1+e 2
(A) loge (1 + e),
(B) loge (
),
(C) 2 log, (1 + e),
(D) none of them

(0)
(vi) If the total cost function C = x3 2x2 + 5x, then the marginal cost is equal to (A) x2 4x + 5, (B) 3x2 4x + 5, (C) 3x2 4x, (D) none of them (b)Answer any three of the following: [9- 27120] (i) Find the domain of definition of the function x+1 Prove that f(y) = x. x1 2x 5 x 9
2
1x3
(0)
(ii)
(0)
If y = f(x) =
(iii)
Evaluate
2 lim x 6x + 8 x2 x2 5x + 6
(0)
(iv)
If y = 10x + x10 find dy
dy dx 1 3 x3 3 2 x2 + x + 13 6
(0)
(v)
dx 10.Answer any two of the following: (i) A function (fx) is defined as x + 1 when x 1 f(x) = 3 x2 when x > 1 Examine whether f(x) is continuous at x = 1. (ii) Verify Eulers theorem for the function ax2 + 2bxy + cy2.
If
= x2 3x + 1 and y = 2 when x = 1 then show that y =
(0)
3x2
(0)
(0)
(iii) Evaluate
5 3
3x
dx 3x 6
(0)
11. (a) Answer any nine of the following: Choose the correct option showing necessary reasons/calculations. [2- 27131] (i) The arithmetic mean of first 9 counting numbers occurring with same frequency has its value (A) 45, (B) 190, (C) 5, (D) none of them (ii) If 2 occurs 4 times, 4 occurs 3 times, 8 occurs twice and 16 occurs once then geometric mean of them is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) none of them (iii) If a person travels first 2 km @ km/hr., next 3 km @ 3 km/hr and another 5 km @ 5 km/hr, his average speed during his journey is 38 10 (A) 3 km/hr, (B) km/hr, (C) km/hr, (D) none of them 10 3 (iv) The median of marks 55, 60, 50, 40, 57, 45, 58, 65, 57, 48 of 10 students is (A) 55, (B) 57, (C) 52.5, (D) none of them (v) If the relation between two variables x and y is 3x 2y = 5 and mode of x is 5 then mode of y is (A) 5, (B) 7.5, (C) 10, (D) none of them (vi) If the two variables x and y are related by the equation 3x = 2y + 4 and mean deviation of x about its means is 4 then mean deviation of y about its mean is 8 (A) (B) 4, (C) 6, (D) none of them 3 (vii)
2x9
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0) (0) (0)
(0) 10 10 2 If (xi 3) = 10 and (xi 3) = 100 then standard deviation of 10 observations i=1 i =1 x1, x2, ...... x10 is (A) 9, (B) 3, (C) 10 (D) none of these (0) (viii) If the relation between two variables x and y is 2x + 3y = 5 and standard deviation of y is 10 then the standard deviation of x is 25 (A) 15, (B) 10, (C) (D) none of them 2 (0) (ix) If mean, mode and standard deviation of 10 observations are 65, 80 and 25 respectively then type of skewness of the data is (A) Symmetric, (B) Positively skewed, (C) Negatively skewed, (D) none of them. (0) (x) If the mean of 50 observations is 50 and one observation 94 us wrongly recorded there as 49 then correct mean will be (A) 49.1 (B) 50, (C) 50.9 (D) none of them (0) (xi) If for two observations arithmetic mean is 80 and harmonic mean is 5 then geometric mean of them is (A) 20, (B) 400, (C) 16, (D) none of them. (0) (xii) For moderately skewed distribution A.M. = 110, Mode = 104, then median is (A) 112, (B) 108, (C) 104, (D) none of them. (0) (xiii) If the maximum and minimum values of 10 observations are 40 and 10 then coefficient of range is 5 3 (A) (B) (C) 30 (D) none of them 3 5 (0) (xiv) The standard deviation (SD) of a variable x is 10, then the SD of the variable 2x + 10 is (A) 10, (B) 10 (C) 20, (D) none of them (b)Answer any three of the following: [17- 27146] 1x3
(i) 12 observations are 2, 4, 6, 3, 3, 5, 6, 8, 4, 3, 5, 4. If I is subtracted from each of them find the range. n n If (xi 4) = 10 and (xi 3) = 15, find n. i=1 i =1 (iii) If the means of two groups of m and n observations are 50 and 60 respectively and combined mean is 54. Find the ratio m : n. (iv) The mean deviation about mean 40 is 20, find the coefficient of mean deviation about mean. (v) If mean and standard deviation of runs scored by a batsman in 10 tests are 50 and 4 respectively, find the coefficient of variation of runs. (vi) Show that the standard deviation of x for its two values x1 and x2 is 1 2 |x1 x2| 5x2 (ii)
(0)
(0)
(0) (0) (0)
(0)
12. (a)Answer any two of the following: [25- 27154] (i) Calculate mean and variance of the following grouped frequency distribution: Score : 010 1020 2030 3040 4050 5060 Total No. of Students : 10 30 60 60 30 10 200 (ii) Prove that the standard deviation of n observations is independent of change of origin but is dependent on the change of scale. (iii) Two samples of sizes 100 and 150 have means 45 and 55 and standard deviations 7 and 12 respectively. Find the mean and standard deviation of the combined sample. (iv) Find median and mode from the following grouped frequency distribution: Class : 05 510 1015 1520 2025 2530 Total Frequency : 5 15 25 30 20 5 100 (b)Write short note on any one of the following [30- 27159] (i) Histogram, (ii) Pic Chart.
(0)
(0) (0) (0)
4x1
(0) (0)
This Paper has 66 answerable questions with 0 answered. P3(EBF) Syllabus 2008
SECTION I (Marks 60)
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No.1 which is compulsory and any two questions from the rest of section I. Marks 1. (a) Answer the following : [2- 42387] (i) Deductive method is also known as (A) Hypothetical Method (B) Abstract Method (C) Priori Method (D) All of the above (ii) An individual demand curve slopes downwards to the right because (A) Income effect of fall in price (B) Substitution effect of decrease in price (C) Diminishing marginal utility (D) All of the above. (iii) Normative science deals with (A) What ought to be (B) What is 1x9
(0)
(0)
(0)
(C) Individual Consumption (D) All of the above. (0) (iv) Marginal cost is calculated as (A) TC/output (B) TC/output (C) AC/output (D) None of the above. (0) (v) Under no profit, no loss situation in perfect competition, the firm earns (A) No profit, no loss (B) Normal profit (C) Negative profit (D) None of the above. (0) (vi) In foreign trade invisible items are included in (A) Balance of trade of account (B) Balance of payment account (C) Reserve Bank of India Account (D) None of the above. (0) (vii) In a kinked demand curve in oligopoly: (A) The sellers cannot increase the price above the kink because the demand is elastic (B) The sellers cannot reduce the price below the kink because demand is inelastic (C) The sellers stick to the kinked price (D) All the above (0) (viii) NABARD is the apex body in the sphere of (A) Foreign trade (B) Urban development (C) Agricultural and Rural Development (D) Public finance (0) (ix) In a Market Economy factors of production are owned: (A) By the society (B) By the government (C) Privately (D) All the above. (b)Fill in the blanks : [12- 42397] 1x12 (0) (i) Deposit multiplier depends upon ________ ratio. (0) (ii) GNP in the ________ of all final goods and services produced by domestic sectors in the country in a year. (0) (iii) Fishers Quantity Theory of Money is also called ________. (0) (iv) JB Says Law states that Supply creates is own ________. (0) (v) In case of perfectly ________ demand, a slight change in the price will make greater change in demand. (0) (vi) A central Bank has monopoly over ________. (0) (vii) The rate of interest charged by the central bank is called the ________. (0) (viii) When the quantity supplied of a commodity rises with a rise of price of the commodity, other determinants of supply remaining unchanged, it is known as ________. (0) (ix) Law of variable proportions applies in the ________. (0) (x) Direct taxes do not lead to price ________. (0) (xi) About four decades ago a new international money known as ________ was created by IMF. (0) (xii) Specialisation on the basis of comparative advantage to obtain foreign goods more cheaply in terms of real resources forgone than ________. (c)State which of the following statement is true and which is false. [25- 42410] 1x9 (0) (i) Industrial Development Bank of India in an investment bank. (0) (ii) The scope of balance of payment is wider than balance of trade. (0) (iii) A country is said to be under populated when optimum population is more than the actual population.
(iv) The law of demand operates in every situation. (v) Quasi rent is earned from land only. (vi) The law of variable proportions operates in the short run. (vii) Average cost is equal to AFC + AVC. (viii) A producer may keep on employing workers so long as marginal cost is not more than marginal revenue. (ix) Land includes not only the surface of the earth but also includes every thing beneath and above it. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [35- 42420] (i) Cannot of Economy (ii) Fiscal Policy (iii) Human Capital (iv) Deposit Multiplier (v) Increase and decrease in demand (vi) Expansion and contraction of demand. 2. What is meant by Economic Growth? What are the components of Economic Growth? 3. What is Capital Formation? What are the steps involved in the formation of capital? 4. Discuss the theory of Demographic Transition with its different stages.
SECTION II (Marks 40)
(0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0)
1x6
(0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0)
12 (0) 12 (0) 12 (0)
Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two questions from the rest of section II. 5 (a) Answer the following : [46- 42431] (i) Proxy has the following connotations: (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four. (ii) Semantic barrier to communication is referred as in (A) Receiver misinterpreting the symbols used by the sender. (B) Sender misusing the symbols. (C) Receiver clarifying the symbols with sender. (D) Receiver not being able to decode the symbols used by the sender. (iii) Bulls are speculators in a Stock Exchange who are also called (A) Mandiwalas (B) Bears (C) Tejiwalas (D) Stock operators (iv) Which of the following is a feature of Joint Hindu Family (JHF) business? (A) Unlimited Liability (B) Can be registered under the Companies Act, 1956 (C) Only male members can be coparceners (D) This is a principle against relationship. (v) Mention which of the following are not counted in a private limited company to make the maximum strength of members to 50: (A) Present employees and shareholders (B) Past employees and present shareholders (C) None of the above (D) A and B both (vi) Demerits of state owned enterprises are (A) Inefficiency (B) Political interference (C) Redtapism Marks 1x6
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0)
(0)
(D) All the above. (b)Fill in the blanks : [52- 42438] 1x6 (0) (i) In a limited liability company, it is the members whose liability is __________ and not that of the company. (0) (ii) Memorandum of Association is one of the basic __________ of the company. (0) (iii) Without requisite __________ a meeting cannot be held. (0) (iv) Board Resolutions are of two types, ordinary and __________. (0) (v) Statutory meeting is held after one month but within six months of obtaining the certificate of __________. (0) (vi) A foreign company is __________ a company according to the Companies Act in India. (c)State which of the following statement is "True" and which is "False": [59- 42445] 1x6 (0) (i) The shareholders of a company are the coowners of the assets of the company. (0) (ii) Where B Ltd. and C Ltd. are subsidiaries of A Ltd., B Ltd. holds 30% shares in D Ltd. and C Ltd. holds 25% shares in D Ltd. Thus, D Ltd. is a subsidiary of a Ltd. (0) (iii) A minor can become a partner only in an existing form with the unanimous consent of all other partners. (0) (iv) A share warrant holder is not treated as the member of that company. (0) (v) A sale is not made at the counter or by a salesman, it is made in the mind of seller. (0) (vi) A Stock Exchange does not deal in the securities of public limited companies. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [66- 42452] 1x6 (0) (i) A company limited by guarantee. (0) (ii) A partnership firm is not a legal person. (0) (iii) True test of partnership. (0) (iv) Perpetual Succession. (0) (v) Government company. (0) (vi) Arbitrage. 6. What is a stock exchange? Discuss its functions. 8 (0) 7. Write a letter of regret to one of your customers showing your inability to execute the order. 8 (0) 8. What is an Extraordinary General Meeting? By whom it may be called? 8 (0)
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No.1 which is compulsory and any two from the rest. Marks 1. (a) Answer the following : [2- 42097] (i) Scarcity definition was given by: (A) L.Robbins (B) Alfred Marshall (C) J.M.Keynes (D) Adam Smith (ii) Real Investment comprises of: (A) Machine (B) Shares (C) Debenture (D) Bond (iii) Consumers surplus was propounded by: (A) Alfred Marshall 1x9
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(B) Pigou (C) Malthus (D) Robbins (iv) Law of demand explains: (A) Quantitative relationship (B) Qualitative relationship (C) Functional relationship (D) None of the above. (v) Exception to the law of supply is: (A) Agricultural product (B) Scarce goods (C) Labour market (D) All the above. (vi) Economic costs comprise of: (A) Explicit costs (B) Implicit costs (C) Normal profit (D) All the above. (vii) Homogeneous product is the characteristic of: (A) Perfect competition (B) Monopoly market (C) Monopolistic competition (D) Oligopoly (viii) Types of price discrimination are: (A) Price discrimination of first degree (B) Price discrimination of second degree (C) Price discrimination of third degree (D) All the above. (ix) Nonprice competition exists in: (A) Monopoly market (B) Oligopoly (C) Monopolistic competition (D) Discriminating monopoly. (b)Fill in the blanks : [13- 42107] (i) Net National Product = Gross National Product minus ________ (ii) Per Capita Income = National Income. (iii) National Income data depict the ________ of Income among economic units. (iv) Labour cannot be separated from ________. (v) Essay on the Principle of Population was written by ________. (vi) Formula for calculating optimum population is ________. (vii) Visible items comprise of exports and ________. (viii) Comparative Cost Theory of International Trade was propounded by ________. (ix) Balance of payment is ________ than Balance of Trade. (x) Money is a matter of functions four: a medium, a measure, a standard and a ________. (xi) Quantitative Theory of Money was propounded by ________ (xii) Cash Balance Approach is based on the ________ of money. (c)State which of the following statement is true and which is false. [26- 42120] (i) There is continuous rise in price level and the value of money decreases during inflation. (ii) Dear Money Policy is adopted during inflation. (iii) There is glut of goods during deflation. (iv) Central Bank creates credit. (v) Cash Reserve Ratio is a limitation of credit creation. (vi) IFCI was set up in July 1948.
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(0) (vii) Unit Trust of India is an Investment Bank. (0) (viii) International Monetary Fund stabilises the foreign exchange rate. (0) (ix) Special Drawing Rights facilitate the international liquidity. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [36- 42130] 1x6 (0) (i) Indirect Tax, (0) (ii) Proportional Tax, (0) (iii) Principle of Certainty, (0) (iv) Bank Rate, (0) (v) Marginal Cost, (0) (vi) Cash Reserve Ratio. 2. Define Central Bank. Discuss its various functions. 2+10 (0) 3.Write short notes on the following: 4+4+4 (0) (a) Characteristics of Perfect Competition; (0) (b) Consumption Function; (0) (c) Deficit Financing. 4. What is EXIM Bank? What are its functions? State the three dimensional strategy developed by the EXIM 4+4+4(0) Bank.
Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two from the rest. 5. (a) Answer the following : [51- 42145] (i) Economic activities are those which are inspired by: (A) Spiritual needs (B) The desire to earn money (C) Desire to help mankind (D) All the above. (ii) In a limited liability partnership: (A) All partners have limited liability (B) All partners have unlimited liability (C) Some partners have limited liability (D) Some partners have no liability at all. (iii) Minimum number of members needed for a public company is: (A) 9 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 2 (iv) Which of the following is not a social obligation for a firm: (A) Avoiding antisocial practices (B) Maintaining a healthy environment (C) Ensuring job satisfaction of employees (D) Earning adequate profit. (v) Organised stock exchange in the country was started in Bombay in (A) 1877 (B) 1939 (C) 1977 (D) 1907. (vi) Latest developments in communications media include: (A) Email (B) SMS (C) Videoconferencing (D) All the above. (b)Fill in the blanks : [58- 42152] Marks 1x6
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(0) (i) A company is an ________ association. (0) (ii) The quorum at the annual general meeting in case of a private company is _______. (0) (iii) Government policies are an important part of ________ environment of a company. (0) (iv) No person can be a member of a stock exchange if he is less than ________ years of age. (0) (v) Written communication provides a ________ record for future reference. (0) (vi) The main motive of state enterprises is to render ________. (c)State which of the following statement is "True" and which is "False": [65- 42159] 1x6 (0) (i) The liability of a sole proprietor is always limited. (0) (ii) The Company Law has not given any legal status to promoter. (0) (iii) The same environment may offer opportunities to some firms and threats to some other firms. (0) (iv) A stock market encourages capital formation. (0) (v) A stock exchange deals with the securities of all companies. (0) (vi) For communication to be effective, it must be communicatororiented. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [72- 42166] 1x6 (0) (i) Trade secretary. (0) (ii) Partner by estoppel. (0) (iii) A multinational company. (0) (iv) Certificate of commencement of business. (0) (v) Stock Exchange Clearing House. (0) (vi) Forward delivery contracts. 6.Write short notes on the following: 4+4 (0) (a) Merits of Limited Liability Partnership; (0) (b) Shares and Debentures. 7. What is listing of securities? What are the steps involved in completing a transaction through stock 2+6 (0) exchange broker? 8. What is communication? Explain Encoding, Decoding and Feedback as the elements in the process of 2+2+2+2(0) communication.
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No.1 which is compulsory and any two from the rest. Marks 1. (a) Answer the following : [2- 32434] (i) Economics is (A) normative science (B) positive science (C) human science (D) political science (ii) Deductive method involves (A) Moving from general to particular (B) Moving from particular to general (C) Using mathematical reasoning (D) Applying ethical reasoning (iii) Portfolio investment means (A) Depositing money into a company (B) Buying debenture of a company (C) Buying shares of a company (D) Investing in fixed assets (iv) Diamondwater paradox is explained through 1x9
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(A) Law of substitution (B) Law of exchange (C) Law of supply (D) Law of diminishing marginal utility (v) Theory of Demographic transition was developed by (A) Malthus (B) Pigou (C) Walker (D) Keyness (vi) Bank rate policy is a (A) Quantitative method (B) Qualitative method (C) Optional method (D) Fiscal method (vii) The theory of absolute cost advantage was developed by (A) David Recardo (B) Malthus (C) Adam Smith (D) Marshall (viii) Balance of Trade (A) Includes balance of payments statement (B) Excludes balance of payments (C) Includes value of merchandise transaction alone (D) Includes value of service transactions (ix) Direct taxes (A) Are shiftable (B) Are not shiftable (C) Reflect economic health (D) Affect social welfare (b)Fill in the blanks : [12- 32444] (i) Backward bending supply curve of labour indicates that labour prefers _____ to work at a high wage rate. (ii) Total economic costs = Explicit costs + _______+ Normal profit. (iii) Internal economies accrue to a firm when it ______. (iv) When consumer is made to pay one price upto a certain amount of purchase and another price for purchases exceeding this amount, it is called price discrimination of ______ degree. (v) Net national product is also called ____. (vi) Cross elasticity of demand relates price of one good and demand for _____ good. (vii) Investment multiplier = Change in Y/Change in _______. (viii) Creation of Saving and its productive investment is called ______. (ix) _____ function of money makes it available for future use. (x) Central Banks persuasive method to control the functioning of the commercial banks is called _______. (xi) The bank which was established in 1985 to rehabilitate the sick industrial units with authorized capital of Rs.2.5 crores is _____. (xii) Paper Gold is also called ______. (c)State which of the following statement is "True" and which is "False".: [25- 32457] (i) The existence of oligopoly in the longrun requires the existence of free entry of the new firms. (ii) Adding value of all goods and services produced to arrived at national income of a country is called income method. (iii) Ratio of consumption to income is called marginal propensity to consume. (iv) Ralating food production rate and population rate is Optimum Theory of Population. (v) Aggregate demand remaining the same, a fall in aggregate supply results in cost push inflation. (vi) Increased velocity of circulation of money causes recession.
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(vii) The IFC (Transfer of Undertaking and Repeal) Bill passed on March 24, 1993 privatised the IFC. (viii) Mutual funds operations in Private sector and joint sector are closely monitored by SEBI. (ix) Factor cost differences occur because of different factor endowments in different countries. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [35- 32467] (i) Marginal product: (ii) Real differentiation: (iii) Greshams law; (iv) Credit creation; (v) Regressive taxation; (vi) Deficit financing. 2. What are the causes of inflation? What are its effects? How would you control it? 3.Write short notes on the following: (a) Factors affecting supply; (b) Costoutput relationship during short period. 4. Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility. What are the limitations of the law?
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4+4+4(0) 6+6
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Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two from the rest. 5. (a) Answer the following : [2- 32480] (i) After incorporation, a company conducts a meeting to deal with (A) Issue of prospectus (B) Appointment of broker for underwriting shares (C) Appointment of a protem secretary (D) All the above (ii) In a stock exchange (A) any security can be transacted (B) only listed securities can be transacted (C) only securities of private companies be traded (D) any common person can conduct transaction directly (iii) A stag operates (A) to buy at a high price and sell at a low price (B) to buy shares at a high price to make profit in due course (C) to avoid buying at a high price but attempts to sell at a high price (D) to enter into forward contracts (iv) Schematic format of a report includes (A) subheadings (B) sequential subheadings (C) emergency communication (D) All the above (v) Subsidiary company is one in which (A) more than 40% shares are held by other company (B) majority of directors are appointed by the Government (C) more than 50% of the paidup equity share capital is held by another company (D) shareholders of the company form the majority (vi) Social environment includes (A) Taxation policies (B) Culture and traditions (C) Quality improvement (D) Foreign direct investment (b)Fill in the blanks: [9- 32487] (i) A person who just lends his name and reputation for the benefit of the firm without taking active part is called ____ . Marks 1x6
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(ii) Equity shares issued at a discount or for consideration other than cash for providing know how or making available rights in the nature of intellectual property rights are called ____. (iii) To alter a clause of memorandum of association, a _____ resolution is required. (iv) The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act was passed in ____ . (v) When a buyer of a share acquires a share without any right to receive the dividend declared is called _____ . (vi) Key result areas technique was suggested to discuss the business objectives by _____ . (c)State which of the following statement is "True" and which is "False": [16- 32494] (i) Joint Hindu Family Business requires registration. (ii) Registration of partnership is a statutory compulsion. (iii) A company is a voluntary association. (iv) Minimum subscription is necessary to cover underwriting commissions on sale of shares. (v) Bargain price order specifies the price at which the broker can buy or sell the security. (vi) Complimentary close in a letter refers to the signature of the sender. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [23- 32501] (i) Unlimited liability; (ii) Contingent dissolution; (iii) Organic objective; (iv) Company limited by guarantee; (v) Barriers to communication; (vi) Lame duck. 6.Write short notes on: (a) Memorandum of Association; (b) Salient features of a good business letter. 7. What is stock exchange? Discuss the functions of stock exchange. 8. State the meaning of business environment. Discuss the various types of business environment.
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4+4
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2+6 (0) 2+6 (0)
SECTION I (60 Marks)
Full Marks : 100
Answer Question No. 1 which is compulsory and any two from the rest. Marks 1. (a) Answer the following : [2- 26978] (i) Name the author of "Weath of Nations". (A) Adam Smith (B) Alfred Marshall (C) J.K.Mehta (D) A.C.Pigou (ii) Economics is (A) Science (B) An Art (C) Science and an Art (D) Psychology (iii) Deductive Method of Economic Analysis is based on 1x9
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(A) General to Particular (B) Particular to General (C) Neutral (D) None of the above (iv) Money supply constitutes (A) Rupee notes and coins with the public (B) Credit cards (C) Travellers cheques (D) All the above (v) Consumers surplus was propounded by (A) Alfred Marshall (B) A.C. Pigou (C) J.R.Hicks (D) J.M.Keynes (vi) Production function is (A) Inputoutput relationship (B) Creation of utility (C) Want satisfying capacity (D) None of the above (vii) Homogeneous product is the characteristic of (A) Perfect competition (B) Monopoly (C) Monopolistic competition (D) Oligopoly (viii) Nonprice competition is the characteristic of (A) Monopoly (B) Duopoly (C) Oligopoly (D) Imperfect competition (ix) A producer or seller selling its commodity at different prices to different customers is (A) Discriminating Monoploy (B) Monopoly (C) Perfect competition (D) Duopoly (b)Fill in the blanks : [12- 26988] (i) NNP at market price is GNP _______ depreciation of capital stock. (ii) GNP is a wider concept than _______. (iii) Average propensity to consume is _______ to c/y. (iv) The production of foodgrains according to Malthus increases at an _______ progression. (v) Over population is corrected by preventive checks and _______ checks. (vi) The formula for the calculation of optimum population is _______. (vii) Fishers equation is _______. (viii) Money is created by the _______ bank. (ix) Demand Pull inflation is when aggregate demand _______ aggregate supply. (x) When there is continuous rise in price level, it is called _______. (xi) Cheap money policy is followed by central bank during _______. (xii) Economy in administration is one of the _______ measures during inflation. (c)State which of the following statement is "True" and which is "False".: [25- 27001] (i) Credit is created by commercial banks. (ii) Adequate liquidity is an essential condition of a sound banking system. (iii) Size of C.R.R. does not affect the credit creation of commercial banks. (iv) Central bank is the custodian of foreign exchange reserves. (v) Expansion and contraction of credit are affected by quantitative techniques of credit control.
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(vi) Use and direction of credit are affected by qualitative techniques of credit control. (vii) Balance of trade comprises of exports and imports. (viii) Balance of payments is broader than balance of trade. (ix) Invisible items are included in exports and imports. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [35- 27011] (i) Direct Tax, (ii) Conon of Economy, (iii) Deficit Financing, (iv) Fiscal Policy, (v) Monetary Policy, (vi) Progressive Tax. 2.Write short notes on the following: (a) Functions of Money (b) Fixed costs and Variable costs. 3. Describe the essentials of a sound banking system and salient features of International trade. 4. Discuss the Canons of Taxation. SECTION II (40 Marks) Answer Question No. 5 which is compulsory and any two from the rest. 5. (a) Answer the following : [2- 27024] (i) All business activities fall under the categories of (A) Industry (B) Trade (C) Commerce (D) All the above (ii) Salient features of a cooperative are (A) Voluntary Association (B) Service Motive (C) Equality (D) All the above (iii) Characteristics of Joint Stock Company are (A) Incorporated Association (B) Voluntary Association (C) Artificial legal person (D) All the above (iv) Which is not the merit of state enterprise? (A) Easy formation (B) Acceleration of economic growth (C) Balanced regional development (D) Economy (v) Advantages of limited partnership are (A) Enables people to invest (B) Mobilises larger financial resources (C) More stable (D) All the above (vi) Which is not the characteristic of Joint Hindu Family Business? (A) No registration (B) Only male members (C) Status arises not born in the family (D) Managed by Karta. (b)Fill in the blanks: [9- 27031] (i) A chartered company is incorporated under _______. (ii) Unlimited liability of a company means _______ on the liability of its members. (iii) A private limited company is better placed to maintain _______ of the affairs of business.
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(iv) The promoter must not make any _______ from the company that he has promoted. (v) Memorandum of Association is one of the basic _______ of the company. (vi) The first official general meeting of shareholders is called _______ meeting. (c)State which of the following statement is "True" and which is "False": [16- 27038] (i) One of the social responsibilities of a business is to protect consumer interest. (ii) SWOT analysis deals with strength, weaknesses, opportunities and threats of a business. (iii) W.T.O. is not a part of international environment. (iv) Clarity of message is one of the principles of effective communication. (v) Motivation to employees is not an objective of communication. (vi) Sending Written message through telecommunication link is called email. (d)Define the following terms in not more than two lines: [23- 27045] (i) Stock Exchange, (ii) Jobbers, (iii) Stag, (iv) Contract note, (v) Brokers, (vi) Forward delivery contracts. 6.Write short notes on: (a) Registration of partnership; (b) Salient features of public company. 7. Discuss the various objectives of a business. 8. Describe the essential elements in the process of an effective communication system.
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This Paper has 50 answerable questions with 0 answered. http://www.futureaccountant.

com/exam-question-previous-papers/ PI(OMF) Syllabus 2008

Full Marks : 100

2+4 2+4 4+4+4

(0) (0) (0) (0) (0)

(0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0)

9 (0) 9 (0) 2+2 (0) 2+3 (0) 3x3

Full Marks : 100

(0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0) (0)

(0) (0) (0)

(0) (0) (0)

9 (0) 4+5 (0)

Full Marks : 100

(0) (0) (0) (0) (0)

(0) (0) (0)

PI(OMF) Syllabus 2008

Full Marks : 100

9(0) 9(0) 9(0) 3x3

Full Marks : 100

Full Marks : 100

2 (0) 2 (0) 2 (0) 2x5

2+2 (0) 6+2 (0)

1+1 (0) 2 (0) 1x4

Full Marks : 100

Full Marks : 100

Rs. 5,000 7,160 290 120 500 1,000

4 (0) 6 (0) 4 (0)

Full Marks : 100

SECTION II (Algebra 15 marks)

(iv) none of these

(iv) None of these. 3x2

u v (c) Find the area of the region bounded by curves y2 = x and y = x.

SECTION VI (Statistical Methods 35 marks)

Full Marks : 100

(iv) None of these.

(b) cr + cr-1 is equal to

If y = x1+x2 then (i) 1 2 (ii) dx 22 3 7 2

at x = 3 is (iv) None of these.

is evaluated as 42 3 (iii) 2 3 (22 + 1), f f (iv) None of these.

If f(x, y) = 3x3 5x2y + 2y3 then x

y (iv) none of these 3x2

where a and b are independent of x and y.

Full Marks : 100

Notations and symbols have usual meanings

will be (iii) 1 2 6i, (iv) 1 + 26i 5

(2n+1) + (2n+2) (2n+2) 2 ()1n

(iii) (4, 9),

(iv) None of these

Marks 9. Answer any three of the following: 3x3

, f (f(x)) for x 1 is (iii) x, (iv) x+1 x1

(ii) 2, (x2 1)2x

x1 2x2 3x + 1 (i) 1, (ii) 2, (c)

is evaluated as (iii) 3, dy dx (iv) 4

If y = (x2 + 5)2 then (i) 18, (ii) 72,

at x = 2 is (iii) 81, f +y f (iv) 36

If f(x, y) = x3 + y3 then x (i) f(x, y),

x (ii) 3f(x, y),

(iv) none of these

(b) If y = (x + 1 + x2) m, show that (1 + x2)y2 + xy1 = m2y. (c) Evaluate 1 2

(0) (0) (0)

P4(BMS) Syllabus 2008

Full Marks : 100