SECTION A:

MCQ (60 marks)

Attempt all questions (60 questions). For each of the multiple choice questions there is only ONE correct answer. All questions are of equal value. Enter your name (family name and first name in that order with a space between each) and student ID number on the General Purpose (MCQ) Answer Sheet. Carefully mark answers on Answer Sheet as instructed. Please use a PENCIL when marking Answer Sheet.

Choose the most accurate answer. Microbial ecology is the study of a the growth of microorganisms b the interaction of microorganisms with their living and nonliving environments c the interaction of microorganisms with the abiotic environment d the interaction of microorganisms with the biotic environment e disease caused by microbes Which of the following is not part of the biotic environment in relation to ecosystems? a bio-toxins b nutrients c animal-plant host defence mechanisms d parasitism e predation The term for organisms living together, in which both organisms benefit, is known as a mutualism b commensalism c predation d competition e neutralism Biogeochemical cycling involves a incorporation of nutrients into the biomass of organisms during metabolism b the release of nutrients into the environment after metabolism c oxidation-reduction processes d changes in the concentration of gaseous cycle components such as C, N and S e all of the above Which of the following statements is not true? a nitrogen-fixing bacteria have a competitive advantage when other forms of nitrogen are unavailable b the oxidation-reduction environment around a food determines the types of organisms spoiling the food c sulphate-reducing bacteria can cause a bad egg smell by reducing organic sulphur to H2S d heterotrophs cannot use organic carbon for energy transformations

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some microbes can synthesize new organic matter from CO2 and other inorganic carbon compounds

A niche is a a commensal, where only one benefits b a microhabitat within a habitat c a food source for microbes d a form of microbial biomass e a habitat where only one microorganism can grow Which of the following statements, regarding the ecology of the gastrointestinal tract, is not true? a Heliobacter pylori can metabolise urea to survive in the stomach b the ecology of the gut is complex because there are more bacteria in the gut than there are cells in the body c the natural flora of the gut does not change with age d probiotic organisms can improve nutritional and microbial balance in the gut e growth of probiotic bacteria can lower intestinal pH Which of the following statements is not true? In biofilms, bacteria have an advantage due to increased a ability to form microcolonies b production of extracellular capsules c sensitivity to sanitisers d ability to metabolically communicate with each other e ability to trap nutrients A Winogradsky column is not a a molecular method b a succession of microbial communities developing in different soil strata c a glass column containing soil and topped with water d used as a method of study of microbial habitats e an in vitro culture method that mimics the natural environment Biological acidity production (fermentation) in food may have the following benefit a foodborne pathogens may be inhibited b food spoilage organisms may be inhibited c shelf-life of food usually decreased d all of the above e a and b above In studies of bacterial growth rates, the term Ks refers to a a constant which defines the rate of growth of a bacterial species b the relationship between substrate concentration and growth rate c the reason why bacteria grow at different rates on different substrates d a substrate concentration which yields half the maximum growth rate e the conversion of growth rate from one type of logarithm to another Gram positive rod-shaped bacteria a do not have a periplasmic space b often secrete toxic proteins outside the cell wall c have complex cross links between the components of their cell walls d are all aerobic or facultatively anaerobic

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have antigenic polysaccharide side chains on their outer surface

The growth of bacteria is sometimes dependent on the concentration of a critical nutrient. As the concentration of this nutrient increases a the total yield of bacterial cells will increase linearly with the nutrient concentration b the total yield of bacterial cells will increase logarithmically with the nutrient concentration c the growth rate of the bacteria will increase linearly with the nutrient concentration d the growth rate of the bacteria will increase logarithmically with the nutrient concentration e the accuracy of determining the nutrient concentration gradually becomes less Catabolic reactions a are endergonic b provide metabolites for anabolism c lead to production of ATP in bacteria d b and c are true e a, b and c are true The glycolytic pathway a is used for the production of energy only by oxidative metabolism b results in the production of 36-38 ATP per mole of glucose metabolised c produces ATP by substrate level phosphorylation d results in the production of (oxidised) NAD e produces citric acid as the major end product Electron transport in bacteria, as a means of producing ATP a is used by aerobic and anaerobic microbes b results in the generation of a protein gradient across the cell membrane c generates most of the ATP produced by bacteria d a and c are correct e a, b and c are correct The mixed acid fermentation, where pyruvate is converted to a number of different organic acids, is a used in identifying the various anaerobic bacteria which carry out this fermentation b useful in identification because it separates genera on the basis of their metabolic endproducts c mainly a means of generating extra ATP for bacteria fermenting glucose d helpful in distinguishing between facultative and strict anaerobes e particularly helpful in identifying the major genera of enteric bacteria (Enterobacteriaceae) The most notable characteristic of Mycobacterium spp. and their close relatives is a their branching, non-sporing, non-motile growth habit b extremely slow growth due to a thick layer of long-chain mycolic acids on their surface c a requirement for pyruvate in their growth medium d their high levels of resistance to a range of antibiotics and other antimicrobials e a remarkably high level of G-C base pairs in their DNA Bacillus thuringiensis is a commercially important bacterium because a millions of dollars have been invested in processes to grow the organism b they are aerobic bacilli which infect insects through their intestinal walls c they are closely related to Bacillus anthracis, which can be used as a bioweapon d they are catalase positive Gram-positive rods

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a non-toxic (to humans) protein is produced which kills particular groups of insects

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Food poisoning, caused by Bacillus cereus a causes vomiting and diarrhoea within four hours but is not life-threatening b results from the formation of an exotoxin in the food before it is eaten c may cause diarrhoea after 24 hours if spores are ingested d can be prevented by re-heating the food in a microwave oven before eating it e is a result of the invasion of the human gut by an environmental organism 21 Clostridium perfringens is unusual amongst spore-forming Gram positive rods because a it causes both food poisoning and gas gangrene in humans b vaccination against this organism is not part of the regular infant vaccination schedule c endospores are not usually formed in culture, but are formed in the human gut d the toxin it produces interferes with nerve impulses to the gut muscles e on HBA, it produces characteristic haemolysis The toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum a interferes with nerve impulses by inhibiting release of acetylcholine from synapses b causes spastic paralysis of the muscles, preventing breathing c is not destroyed by heating to >80C d can cause a breakdown of tissues leading to blood loss and death e can be detected in honey at levels which are dangerous to infants The tetanus bacillus, Clostridium tetani a forms an exotoxin which interferes with nerve impulses in the same way as C. botulinum b forms characteristic sub-terminal, oval spores which can be seen in a Gram stain c infects deep wounds and causes localised necrosis of tissues surrounding the wound d can be prevented from harming us by administration of the toxoid at regular intervals e forms an exotoxin which causes spastic paralysis of the muscles, preventing breathing

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A blood agar plate has been incubated in an anaerobic jar at 37C overnight. The blood has lysed, but there appears to be no growth on the plate. This is because a the organism has swarmed over the surface, so a scrape with a loop will show there is growth b anaerobic bacteria sometimes form very small, indistinct colonies c the medium was old, so the growth of the organism was inhibited by oxidised compounds d the anaerobic jar failed to achieve reducing conditions soon enough, so the organisms died e proteolytic organisms can cause the blood to lyse even if they do not grow at all 25 Amino acids for use in the food industry (aspartame is a dimer of aspartate and phenylalanine, for example) or as clinical supplements used to be isolated from protein hydrolysates, but are now made by using a E. coli strains genetically modified to overproduce the amino acids b fungi which accumulate specific amino acids more efficiently than bacteria c members of the coryneform group, Corynebacterium glutamicum and close relatives d members of the Actinomycetes, the mycelium-forming Gram positive bacteria e Bacillus licheniformis and B. brevis, which also excrete enzymes and antibiotics Diphtheria, one of the diseases we are usually protected against by vaccination as an infant, is a caused by the organism Corynebacterium diphtheriae b the result of a toxin excreted by C. diphtheriae only if it is infected by a particular phage c causes difficulty in breathing and eventual suffocation if not treated d similar to tonsillitis in the way the disease presents in the throat of an infant

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caused by coryneform organisms closely related to C. glutamicum but which carry the genes for an exotoxin which causes the disease

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Some bacteria are referred to as acid-fast. This is a result of a their cytoplasm being resistant to the effect of acid, so it retains the red stain used b the Zeehl-Neelsen staining technique, which uses a hot red stain, then uses sulphuric acid to remove this, finally replacing it with methylene blue c mycolates in their cell walls, with very long alkyl chains forming a waxy layer which resists the entry of acid, so the red stain is not leached out d difficulties in transporting molecules in or out of these cells, due to their thick cell walls e their ability to take up the fluorescent stains such as auramine-rhodamine so they can be identified rapidly under a fluorescence microscope 28 Which of the following is not true for endotoxin? a it is lipid b it is excreted from the bacterial cell during growth c it only occurs in Gram-negative bacteria d it has a non-specific mode of action on the host e all of the above An organism in the family Enterobacteriaceae which produces beta-galactosidase but does not have lactose permease can be described phenotypically as a a lactose-fermenter b non lactose-fermenter c late lactose-fermenter d variable lactose-fermenter e lactose co-fermenter H antigens possessed by some members of the family Enterobacteriaceae are found on a capsules and are polysccharide b capsules and are protein c flagella and are polysaccharide d flagella and are protein e peptidoglycan and are muramic acid A good example of an opportunistic infection caused by commensal strains of Escherichia coli is a eye infection b pneumonia c outer ear infection d urinary tract infection e urethral discharge Escherichia coli is used as an indicator of faecal pollution of water because a it can grow both aerobically and anaerobically b it is resistant to environmental conditions c it is only found in the intestinal tract d it may cause gastroenteritis e all of the above

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Which of the following is not true of enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli a it is found in cattle b it is heat resistant c it is acid tolerant d the infectious dose for humans is low e a complication of infection in humans is haemolytic uraemic syndrome Which of the following is true for Shigella species? a does not grow on MacConkey agar b it is an invasive organism c complex growth requirements d cause infection in humans and other animals e Gram-negative coccus Which of the following is not true of infection with Salmonella Typhi? a the organism can be isolated from blood and faeces b infection can be prevented by immunisation c infection in Australia is most often seen in travellers who have returned from overseas d antibiotic treatment is essential e infection usually acquired from animals Which of the following is the correct notation for a Salmonella serotype? a Salmonella typhimurium b Salmonella typhimurium c Salmonella Typhimurium d Salmonella Typhimurium e none of the above Which of the following is not true for Salmonella food poisoning? a can be caused by numerous serotypes of Salmonella b it is usually acquired from animals c antibiotic treatment is essential d diarrhoea, vomiting and fever usually occur in infected humans e refrigeration will prevent Salmonella from multiplying in food A selective medium is used for the isolation of Salmonella and Shigella from faeces because it a suppresses the growth of the normal flora of the gut b provides additional nutrients to enhance the growth of Salmonella and Shigella c indicates fermentation of lactose d enhances the production of lipopolysaccharide in Salmonella and Shigella e enhances motility Which of the following is true for Pseudomonas aeruginosa? a it is a strict anaerobe b it is a common cause of diarrhoea c Gram-positive bacilli d may be resistant to dilute aqueous disinfectants e it is normal flora of the skin

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Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genus Pseudomonas? a strict aerobes b fermentative metabolism c simple growth requirements d oxidase positive e motility Which of the following characteristics is not related to the ability of Pseudomonas species to cause food spoilage? a ability to produce large amounts of acid from many carbohydrates b pigment production c slime production d proteolytic activity e lipolytic activity Which of the following is not true for Vibrio parahaemolyticus? a causes food poisoning in humans b curved Gram-negative bacillus c found in seafood d isolated from humans on XLD agar e needs NaCl for growth Which of the following is not true for Vibrio cholerae? a causes cholera b it is a strict human parasite c acquired by drinking faecally-contaminated salt water d occasional cases in travellers may be seen in Australia e can cause rapid dehydration in affected people Which of the following atmospheric conditions is suitable for the isolation of Campylobacter jejuni from faeces? a 5% oxygen, 10% carbon dioxide, balance nitrogen b 10% oxygen, 10% nitrogen, balance carbon dioxide c 20% oxygen, 10% carbon dioxide, balance nitrogen d 5% oxygen, 10% nitrogen, balance carbon dioxide e 0% oxygen, 10% carbon dioxide, balance nitrogen Which of the following is not true for Campylobacter jejuni? a produces a potent exotoxin which acts on the nervous system b causes gastroenteritis in humans c infection often acquired from undercooked chicken d occurs commonly in Australia e it is an invasive organism Which of the following is true for Haemophilus influenzae type b? a microscopically it is a long slender Gram-negative bacillus b the type is based on capsular polysaccharide antigens c it is microaerophilic d it only causes disease in immunosuppressed patients e infection with this organism does not occur in Australia

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Haemophilus influenzae produces satellitism around Staphylococcus aureus because Staphylococcus aureus produces the following during growth a NAD b haematin c haematin and NAD d pyridoxal phosphate e pyridoxal phosphate and haematin Which of the following is not true of Bacteroides species? a found as normal flora of the body b facultative anaerobes c Gram-negative rods d may be involved in abscess formation e often involved in mixed infections (ie with other organisms) Which of the following is not true for Neisseria gonorrhoeae? a it only infects humans b infection in women may be asymptomatic c infected men usually have a urethral discharge d infection is treated with antibiotics e infection with this organism can be prevented by immunisation Which of the following would be suitable for the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the laboratory? a NA, microaerophilic b HBA, microaerophilic c HBA, anaerobic with added carbon dioxide d CHA, aerobic with added carbon dioxide e CHA, anaerobic with added carbon dioxide Which of the following is an important complication of infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in women? a pelvic inflammatory disease b urinary tract infection c septicaemia d renal failure e diarrhoea Which of the following is not true for Neisseria meningitidis? a it only infects humans b some people are carriers of the organism c it causes meningitis and septicaemia d infection may be associated with a characteristic haemorrhagic rash e there is no vaccine available to prevent infection with this organism Neisseria meningitidis is most frequently isolated from a blood b cerebrospinal fluid c cervical swab d a and b above e b and c above

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Which of the following is not a characteristic of moulds? a do not contain chlorophyll b reproduction by spores c cell wall contains chitin d prokaryotic e absorptive nutrition Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between a fungus and a plants b bacteria c algae d protozoa e animals Dermatophyte fungi cause infection of a internal organs b hair c subcutaneous tissue d mucous membranes e c and d above Which of the following is a common dermatophyte fungus? a Aspergillus fumigatus b Saccharomyces cerevisiae c Malassezia furfur d Trichophyton rubrum e none of the above Which of the following is not true for mycotoxins? a low molecular weight compounds b aflatoxins are a type of mycotoxin c produced by certain fungi and bacteria d may be produced by Fusarium and Claviceps species e may cause cancer Yeasts are not used in the production of a bread b beer c wine d Vegemite e soy sauce Which of the following is used in the production of blue cheese? a Saccharomyces cerevisiae b Penicillium roquefortii c Rhizopus oryzae d Epidermophyton floccosum e Candida albicans

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SECTION B:

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Answers must be written in the spaces provided on this paper. Unless indicated otherwise, all questions are worth one mark.
1 Explain how phenetics differs from phylogenetics in naming microorganisms and give an example for each of why these systems are useful. (4 marks)

What is 16S rRNA and why is it used in phylogenetics?

Describe how the coagulase and DNase tests work in helping to identify staphylococci. (2 marks)

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Give an example of how Protein A can be used to identify Staphylococcus aureus.

Explain how S. aureus can cause food poisoning. How can we distinguish it from Salmonella food poisoning? (2 marks)

Describe what we mean by a GRAS organism. Explain how a product of Lactococcus lactis can be used to prevent food intoxication. (2 marks)

Briefly explain in point form a useful way to classify streptococci and give examples (3 marks)

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Explain the steps that lead to tooth decay (3 marks)

Why is Listeria monocytogenes sometimes mistaken for streptococci? What important test can best differentiate these two groups of bacteria? (2 marks)

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What is the size range of most virus particles? [Circle correct answer] a b c 1mm to 1cm 1 micrometer to 1mm 20 nanometers to a few hundred nanometers

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What is a mature virion?

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The outer shell of a non-enveloped virus particle is called?

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Apart from structural proteins, what other type of proteins can viruses encode?

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What name is given to bacterial viruses?

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Name one helical non-enveloped rod-shaped virus non-enveloped icosahedral virus _______ ________ 2 Marks

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Where and when do enveloped viruses acquire their envelope?

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What is measured in a virus plaque assay?

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Some viruses enter cells by the use of a receptor. Name one virus and its associated receptor. Virus Receptor 2 Marks

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In order, name four of the stages that comprise the replication cycle of a typical virus. 1. 2. 3. 4. _________________________________ ____________________________________ ___________________________________________________________ _________________________________ 2 Marks

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What does the vertical transmission of a virus mean?

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For some viruses, a number of phenotypic changes can be recognised in virus-infected cells. This is termed cytopathic effect or c.p.e. Name two of the possible indicators of c.p.e in a virusinfected cell. Change 1 Change 2 __________________________________________________________ ______________________________ _____________ 2 Marks

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The proof or criteria that have to be demonstrated to confirm that an infectious agent is responsible for a specific disease is referred to as whos Postulates?

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What is the similarity between a subunit vaccine and an inactivated vaccine

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Name one method commonly used for the purification of viruses.

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Name one method that is routinely used for the detection of virus antigens in clinical samples.

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