Name: ________________________________________________ Date: ______________Score: ______ INSTRUCTIONS: ENCIRCLE the letter of the correct answer. 1.

Perimetry is fundamental in diagnosing and managing what disease/s? a. Neurological disease b. Glaucoma c. Retinal disease d. A and B only e. All of the above 2. Which of the following is not true regarding glaucomatous visual field loss. a. Early field defects manifests as decreased sensitivity in small regions of the eye. b. In order to diagnose glaucoma, sensitivity differences across the horizontal meridian, especially in the nasal hemifield, are often used clinically. c. It usually occurs first in the areas of the upper and lower hemifields. d. It is considered the hallmark of glaucomatous visual field loss if there is significant decreased sensitivity at a single test. e. None of the above. 3. Which of the following statements best describes threshold and suprathreshold testing? a. Threshold testing is used for visual function while suprathreshold testing is used for visual sensitivity. b. Threshold testing is used for visual sensitivity while suprathreshold testing is used for visual function. c. Both are used for visual function and sensitivity. d. None of the above. 4. Which of the following items below can peripheral testing be useful? a. Drivers b. Insurance purposes c. Reading d. A and B only e. All of the above 5. What does a p<5% probability symbol mean? a. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with normal eyesight would be expected to have a decreased sensitivity in that spot. b. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with eye complaints would be expected to have a decreased sensitivity in that spot. c. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with eye complaints would be expected to have a normal sensitivity in that spot. d. In a given stimulus, fewer than 5% of people with normal eyesight would be expected to have a normal sensitivity in that spot.

6. Which of the following data on STATPAC Single field analysis is essential for diagnosis? a. Numerical Printouts b. Glaucoma Hemifield Test c. Pattern Standard Deviation d. Grayscale Printouts e. None of the above 7. Which of the following is wrong regarding the peripheral vision. a. Peripheral 30 degrees superiorly b. Peripheral >60 degrees temporally c. Peripheral 40 degrees inferiorly d. Peripheral 20 degrees nasally 8. A generally depressed field without localized loss is most commonly caused by what? a. Media opacities b. A <2mm pupil c. Lack of proper refractive correction d. A and B only e. All of the above 9. Which of the following retinal sensitivity values is the brightest? a. 10 dB b. 20 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB 10. What is the dimmest stimulus that can be seen foveally by a young, well-trained observer? a. 38 - 48 dB b. 28 - 38 dB c. 38 - 40 dB d. 18 - 28 dB 11. E.S., a 68-year old fruit vendor, came in the eye center complaining of decreased vision. Upon examination, it was noted that there is blindness in the central 30 degrees of both eyes. Upon undergoing perimetry, it was noted that some of the points in the 24-2 instrument cant sensitize a zero-decibel stimulus. What type of defect is this? a. Relative defect b. Absolute defect c. Irreversible defect d. Its normal. Its just the blind spot 12. What is the standard background illumination as set by the International Council of Opthalmology? a. 31.0 apostilbs b. 21.5 apostilbs c. 31.5 apostilbs d. 21.0 apostilbs

13. In which of the following conditions does the Goldmann test spot size V is/are used? a. Advanced field loss b. SWAP c. Media opacities d. A and B only e. All of the above 14. Which is true regarding temporal summation? a. As the duration of the stimulus increases, there is an increased permeability of cells to sodium, and the sensed stimuli will algebraically summate. b. As the duration of the stimulus increases, there is an increased number of cells that are stimulated in order to make the stimuli visible. c. It is essential to achieve temporal summation in perimetry, because it tests the visual function outside fovea. d. It happens with a duration of 200 milliseconds. 15. In perimetry, what kind of cells does it test? a. Ganglion cells b. Mostly rods c. Mostly cones d. A and B are correct e. A and C are correct f. All of the above 16. What technique is being used in order to verify the correctness of the gaze of the patient being tested? a. Humphrey perimeter b. Blind spot monitor c. Heijl-Krakau perimeter d. Heijl-Bengtsson monitor 17. What type of test pattern is used in this patient?

a. b. c. d.

30-2 24-2 10-2 54-2

18. A.J., a 60-year old male complained of partial loss of vision. HPI: pain in movement of the eye. Family Hx: (+) Multiple Sclerosis in relatives. What test should be ordered considering having perimetry? a. 30-2 b. 24-2 c. 10-2 d. 64-2 19. Goldmann size III is used as the standard in computerized static perimetry. Which of the following is true regarding this? a. Blue-yellow color, size 0.43 degrees diameter stimulus b. Blue-yellow color, size 0.56 degrees diameter stimulus c. White color, size 0.56 degrees diameter stimulus d. White color, size 0.43 degrees diameter stimulus 20. What test pattern is being used if the macular area is the only area of interest? a. SITA Fast 10-2 b. SITA Standard 10-2 c. SITA Fast 30-2 d. A and B are correct e. No test can just only focus on the macula area only, so any of the test will do. 21. Which of the following is not true regarding the 10-2 test pattern? a. It consists of 68 test points b. The different test points have a spatial resolution of 2 degrees c. It can be used in late stages of glaucoma d. Noneof the above 22. SWAP is short-wavelength automated perimetry. It is so-called because: a. It uses blue-yellow light, with yellow light having a shorter wavelength than blue. b. In the test, blue has shorter wavelength than yellow. c. Both have shorter wavelengths, like the white-on-white perimetry d. When blue stimuli is presented in a yellow background, it produces a low-wavelength stimulus that is perceived by the eye. 23. In SWAP, what kind of cells does it test? a. 280 nm cones b. L cones c. M cones d. S cones 24. Which of the following conditions below is not beneficial if you used SWAP? a. Diabetic retinopathy b. Early diagnosis of glaucoma c. Monitoring of glaucoma d. Neuro-opthalmic disease

25. Which of the following is not true regarding the test for blepharoplasty? a. It uses a stronger stimuli than the conventional perimetry b. It uses Goldmann III 4e, white c. This test is a single-level, threshold testing mode d. In Humphrey, it uses 10 dB white, size III stimulus 26. Esterman Test is used to test what? a. Driving b. Disability c. Chloroquine-induced maculopathies d. All of the above 27. Which is not true regarding Estermann test? a. It is a test for functional scoring of central vision b. It divides te visual fields unequally and on the basis of functional importance c. More points are tested in the central field than peripherally d. Test results are on the basis of percentage of points seen, in contrast to the standard perimetry 28. A tool that analyzes the patients visual field result if it is within normal range. a. Humphrey perimetry b. SWAP c. Heijl-Bengtsson monitor d. STATPAC 29. Which of the following format is not included in a standard suprathreshold test results? a. SFA b. Overview c. Charge Analysis d. All of the Above 30. Which of the following formats is not used in SWAP test? a. SFA b. Overview c. Change Analysis d. A and B only e. All of the Above 31. Which of the following is not true regarding Single Field Analysis? a. Most useful and important printout b. It only presents age-corrected normative data c. Highlights any sensitivity values or patterns that deviate significantly from normal d. It is used by Humphrey perimeter

For numbers 32-36, please refer to the picture below:

Left Eye 32. What do you call to the item pointed by the black arrow above? a. Total Deviation Probability Plot b. Total Deviation Decibel Plot c. Pattern Deviation Probability Plot d. Pattern Deviation Decibel Plot 33. What could be the most likely diagnosis? a. Advanced Glaucoma b. Cataract c. Neurological disease d. Retinal Disease

34. Which of the following is true regarding the GHT of the SFA above? a. There is p<0.03 difference between the sensitivities in one or more zones in the upper half of the field than that of the lower field. b. There is p<0.02 difference between the sensitivities in one or more zones in the upper half of the field than that of the lower field. c. There is p<0.01 difference between the sensitivities in one or more zones in the upper half of the field than that of the lower field. d. Its normal 35. What is the probability that the results are erroneous because the perimetrist didnt instruct the patient well on when to press the button or not, resulting in failure to press the button precisely? a. 0.5% b. 3% c. 5% d. 9% e. 2% 36. Which of the following is true regarding how steadily the patient gazes at the fixation stimulus? a. Extremely unsteady b. Very unsteady c. Mildly unsteady d. Very steady 37. Which of the following plots highlight significant localized visual field loss? a. Total Deviation Plots b. Pattern Deviation Plots c. GCP d. All of the Above 38. What is the most widely used instrument for manual perimetry? a. Goldmann b. Humphrey c. SITA d. SWAP 39. Which of the following is not true regarding the retina? a. Longer axons are situated deeper in the retina b. It is composed by nerve fibers and ganglion cells only that transmit light from the retina to the brain c. Ganglion cell axons follow an arcuate path to the optic nerve d. Neurons from the temporal superior and inferior retina do not mix, bu respect the TEMPORAL RAPHE

40. What is the most likely diagnosis by the grayscale shown below?

a. Bjerrum scotoma b. Paracentral scotoma c. Nasal steps d. Contractions of the nasal field 41. Which of the following is not true regarding the picture below?

a. b. c. d.

The point of fixation has virtually no rods The point of fixation has a high density of cones The area point by the arrow is 10 degrees temporal from the point of fixation The area pointed by the arrow has zero sensitivity

42. What is the most likely diagnosis in the picture below?

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

a. Early glaucomatous vision field loss b. Early Retinal disease c. Early Cataract d. Normal blindspot What is the relationship of the macula in relation/ with respect to the optic disc? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Superior d. Inferior What is the feared adverse effect of chloroquine in the eyes? a. Retinopathy b. Maculopathy c. Optha-neuropathy d. None of the above Which of the following tests below is not included in the routine monitoring of hydroxychloroquine-associated adverse effect in some countries? a. Perimetry b. Amsler test c. Corneal exam d. Snellen test What reliability parameter is mostly altered in a trigger-happy patient? a. FP b. FN c. FL d. None of the above Which of the following binocular visual fields is not acceptable for driving? a. 50 degrees to the right and left of fixation b. 60 degrees to the right and left of fixation c. 47 degrees to the right and left of fixation d. 90 degrees to the right and left of fixation

48. Which of the following is true regarding the picture below?

a. It is used in all disease entities b. It presents box plot summaries of individual tests c. It presents data using a non-standard stimulus size and/or color d. It has age correction and probability symbols 49. Which of the following is true regarding the pointed area in the picture below?

a. There is a high visual field variability in the area b. Normal sensitivity values in this area is similar to that of the point of vision area c. It is used for the evaluation of eyesight of drivers for licensing d. Dark area in this field is a sure sign of eye disease 50. What is the resolution of a 30-2 threshold test? a. 6 degrees b. 4 degrees c. 2 degrees d. None of the above

51. Which of the following is not true regarding retinal disease? a. All retinal diseases have a common field defect b. Retinochoroiditis may be similar to glaucoma in terms of defect pattern in perimetry c. Retinal detachments and retinoschises usually cause central field defects d. A complication of diabetes mellitus in the eye may cause a mottled appearance in perimetry 52. What reliability parameter is mostly altered in the picture below?

a. FP b. FN c. FL d. None of the above 53. In the picture in #52, what kind of patient below would most likely have this erroneous result? a. A 52-yr old woman who has been told that she has stage III pituitary adenocarcinoma b. A 70-yr old male who has glaucoma and is frequently undergoing perimetry test c. A 20-yr old female who has retinal disease, and is very eager to be cured d. A 3-yr old boy who had congenital glaucoma with ADHD 54. In the picture below, where could be the lesion located?

a. b. c. d.

Left optic nerve Right optic nerve Left optic tract Right optic tract

For numbers 55-57, refer to the picture below for the choices:

55. 56. 57. 58.

Inferior Nasal Step Biarcuate scotoma Enlarged blind spot Where is the lesion in the patient with perimetry results below?

a. Right occipital lobe b. Left occipital lobe c. Right parietal lobe d. Left optic tract 59. What could be the problem with this patient with a perimetry result of the right eye below?

a. Occlusion of a branch of central retinal artery b. AION

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

c. Neurological diseases d. A and B only e. All of the above In the picture above, what could be the perimetry result of the other eye? a. The same as the picture b. Totally blind c. Blind superiorly d. Normal Which of the following is not true regarding the bowl of the Humphrey field analyzer? a. The distance from the eye to the bowl is the same as the Goldmann perimeter b. Its surface is textured to provide an almost perfectly matte finish known as a Lambertian surface. c. It is patented, spherical or bullet-shaped, surface d. It is where stimuli are projected What is the distance from the eye to the center of the bowl? a. 30 cm b. 37 cm c. 24 cm d. None of the above In Humphrey perimeter, how long does the shutter remain open? a. 250 ms b. 300 ms c. 350 ms d. None of the above How many are Bjerrum areas in an eye? a. 1 only b. 5 c. 2 d. 10 Which of the following items below does a Humphrey perimeter cant perform? a. Using a size V stimulus b. Kinetic testing c. SWAP d. None of the above

For numbers 66 to 68, refer to the picture below:

66. Which of the following is true regarding the fibers that cross the optic chiasm? a. The nasal fibers of OD and the temporal fibers of OS b. The temporal fibers of OD and the nasal fibers of OD c. Only the nasal fibers of OD and OS d. Some of the nasal fibers of OD and OS, and some of the temporal fibers of OD and OS 67. Which of the following is not likely to cause this defect? a. Pituitary adenomas b. Aneurysm in the Circle of Willis c. Meningiomas d. None of the above 68. Which of the following is true regarding this lesion? a. The affected fibers in this lesion are the CROSSING FIBERS b. Defects caused by infrachiasmal lesions may be limited to the superior part of the hemifield c. This is an advanced defect d. The lesion may be localized below the hippocampus 69. What kind of error does the patient do in the perimetry result below?

a. The patient failed to raise his/her eyelids b. The patient didnt look directly at the center c. Positive strong correction lenses d. The patient lost his/her attention while performing the test 70. Which of the following is true regaring following-up of certain cases? a. There is a low test-retest variability in perimetry testing of abnormal fields b. A large difference between two tests done within a short period of time means that the disease progressed. c. The glaucoma hemifield test differentiate between random test-retest fluctuation and significant changes in glaucomatous fields d. A series of fields may be qualitatively analyzed for change using an overview printout 71. Which of the following perimetry results is not acceptable? a. 6/25 FL b. 1/13 FP c. 4/20 FL d. 2/20 FP 72. Which of the following can be a substitute to perimetry in neurological diseases? a. MRI b. CT SCAN c. Confrontation d. A and B only e. All of the above

73. A large percentage of glaucoma patients have coexisting what disease? a. Retinal disease b. maculopathy c. Media opacities d. None of the above 74. Which of the following is not true regarding retinitis pigmentosa? a. Typical field loss in this disease is circular and initially located midperiphery b. Night blindness generally precedes tunnel vision c. Tunnel vision is readily seen in 30-2 or 24-2 perimetry d. Field defects in a suprathreshold test are often deep and easily identified 75. A sudden and large change in the perimetry result of a glaucoma patient is often due to: a. Progression of the disease b. Stroke or retinal vascular occlusion c. Macular degeneration d. A and B only e. All of the above 76. What is the normal size of the blind spot? a. 3 by 5 degrees b. 5 by 5 degrees c. 5 by 7 degrees d. None of the above 77. A stimulus with a high intensity of light is the one with: a. High decibel value, low apostibls value b. High apostibls value, low decibel value c. High decibel and apostibls values d. Low decibel and apostibls values 78. How many test points does a 30-2 test pattern have? a. 64 b. 76 c. 54 d. 60 79. Which of the following is true regarding the resolution of 24-2 and 10-2 test patterns? a. 24-2 has 6 degrees resolution while 10-2 has 4 degrees resolution b. 24-2 has 6 degrees resolution while 10-2 has 2 degrees resolution c. 24-2 and 10-2 has 6 degrees resolution d. 24-2 has 54 degrees resolution while 10-2 has 68 degrees resolution 80. It tells about which test is performed and on whom performed. a. Numerical Printouts b. Reliability Indices c. Demographics d. Visual Field Indices

81. Which of the following diseases is the most important to be given corrective lenses? a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Astigmatism d. Glaucoma 82. An abnormal MD and a normal CPSD will give what kind of result? a. Normal b. Small localized field defect c. Generalized loss of sensitivity d. Large defects + localized component 83. What do you call to the criteria used in diagnosing early glaucoma through perimetry? a. Bjerrum b. Osler c. Sandeep d. Anderson 84. Which of the following is not included in the criteria asked in # 83? a. Three non-edge adjacent scotomas in pattern deviation probability plot - 2 points <P 5%, 1 point <P 1% b. Abnormal MD and Abnormal CPSD c. G.H.T. Abnormal d. PSD <P 5% 85. PSD minus SF (PSD SF) will give what value? a. MD b. CPSD c. GHT d. Theres no such thing 86. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with a perimetry result below?

a. Optic neuritis b. Tobacco-alcohol amblyopia

87.

88.

89.

90.

c. Mechanical compression of CNII d. All of the above A depressed TDP and a normal PDP can be interpreted as: a. Cataract b. Trigger-happy patient c. Glaucoma d. None of the above Appears when the overall sensitivity is higher than expected in 99.5% of the normal population. a. Outside normal limits b. General depression of sensitivity c. Borderline d. None of the above In gaze tracker, a full-scale spike indicate: a. Deviations of 10 degrees or more b. Deviations of 7 degrees or more, because the normal blind spot is about 6 degrees c. Deviations of 15 degrees or more d. Is always unreliable What test pattern is used in the perimetry data below?

a. 30-2 b. 24-2 c. 10-2 d. Cannot be determined 91. Which of the following lies in the range of abnormal vision? a. 35 dB b. 40 dB c. 25 dB d. All of the above

92. How many zones does a GHT utilize? a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1 93. Which of the following is not a sign of excessive FP results? a. Highly positive MD b. TDP is much worse than PD c. GHT shows abnormally high sensitivity d. High fixation loss rate 94. How would a shorter testing time affect the normal hill of vision? a. General Rise b. General Depression c. No change d. Variable 95. What kind of artifact is shown with a patient show below?

a. Cloverfield field b. Eyelid Artifact c. Correction lens artifact d. None of the above 96. What caused the artifact seen below?

a. Chin rest too high b. Patient gazing upward c. Lens holder too high d. This is not an artifact; it is indicative of a disease 97. What is an indication for vision testing with macular degeneration? a. Use of size V stimulus b. Use of small diamond fixation target c. Use of fixation target other than central fixation target d. B and C only 98. Which of the following is not true regarding the given raw data and TDPP below:

a. The eye tested is the left eye b. The normal age-adjusted value for the point with a 28 dB value at (+,+) quadrant is 32 Db c. The normal age-adjusted value for the point with a 14 dB and a 4 dB value at (-,-) quadrant is 33 dB. d. Those points with two values are those that are tested twice but with inconsistencies in the sensitivity perceived by the patient

For numbers 99-100, refer to the picture below:

99. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Open angle glaucoma with inferior loss of arcuate nerve fibre layer b. Inferior branch retinal vein occlusion c. Optic disc pit d. All diseases listed above can produce the same perimetry results 100. What does the visual field show? a. Centrocentral scotoma b. Paracentral scotoma c. Arcuate scotoma d. Superior Altitudinal Defect