Exam 2, BIO201, 2004

Choose the one best answer for each question.

Form A

1. An example of a difference between microtubules (MTs) and microfilaments (MFs) is: A. MTs are seen in the cytoplasm while MFs arent B. Some MTs can show cold lability while MFs dont C. MFs are not polymers while MTs are D. Only MTs have identifiable plus and minus ends. E. MTs can be seen in vivo by immunofluorescence but MFs cant 2. An example of a fiber that shows dynamic instability is: A. Basal body protofilament B. Intermediate filaments (IFs) in the nuclear lamina C. Cytoplasmic microtubule (MT) in fertilized sea urchin egg mitotic spindle D. Microfilament (MF) in a sarcomere E. Axonemal microtubule in Paramecium cilia 3. Which of the following is not an example of the function of microfilaments? A. Scaffolding to provide cell shape B. Rails for intracellular transport C. ATP-dependent cell movement (motility) in conjunction with myosin I. D. Structural support for microvilli and filopodia E. Flagella movement in eukaryotic sperm 4. Nexin bridges connect: A. A tubules to other A tubules B. A tubules to neighboring B tubules C. A tubules to the central sheath D. Inner dynein arms to outer dynein arms E. Central microtubules 5. Which of the following is not an ATP-dependent motor protein? A. Myosin I B. Ciliary dynein C. Actin D. Kinesin E. Cytoplasmic dynein 6. Why were fertilized sea urchin eggs used for reversible cold-lability studies? o A. Because they grow and divide at 0-4 C. B. Because the only kind of MTs they have are cytoplasmic MTs C. Because they have so much more MTs for intercellular transport D. Because their mitotic spindles are so big and so easily seen in vivo o E. Because they are anisotropic at 2 C. 7. Which of the following requires ATP hydrolysis? A. Actin polymerization B. Anterograde transport of cargo along axons of neurons C. Protofilament elongation D. Transport of 10nm particles through nuclear pores E. Dissociation of bound myosin from thin filaments in sarcomeres

8. SDS-PAGE can separate MAPS from tubulins primarily because: A. MAPS are positively charged and MTs are negative B. There is high salt in the gel and gel buffer C. MAPS are bigger than tubulins D. Tubulin is more hydrophobic than MAPS E. MAPS are monomeric while tubulin polymerizes into MTs 9. The process of co-translational translocation is best described as: A. Proteins are made on free polysomes as the ribosomes move down the mRNA B. Translation and transcription happening at the same time C. The way that ribosomal subunits are assembled D. Moving a protein to the nucleus (by way of an NLS) for further modifications E. Moving a nascent protein across the RER membrane as it is being translated 10. An example of an MTOC is: A. A centrosome B. F-actin C. Beta tubulin with GDP bound D. The plus end of a mature (finished) axoneme E. An unfertilized sea urchin egg 11. Dyneins, kinesins and myosins are similar in all of the following except: A. They all contain more than one subunit B. They all have cargo binding sites with the same (conserved) amino acid sequence. C. They all have ATP-dependent motors for heads D. They all can be involved in some sort of intracellular transport E. They all can bind to some sort of protein filament 12. Actin filaments are: A. Also called intermediate filaments B. Also called thick filaments C. Helical polymers D. About 7-8nm long E. Made up of two different types of actin monomers, G-actin and f-actin 13. Beta tubulin (-tubulin): A. Is always at the plus end of growing protofilaments B. Binds gamma tubulin (-tubulin) C. Is the type of tubulin that is closest to an MTOC D. Is where the tails of ciliary dyneins bind E. Is positively charged (at pH=7.0) so it can bind to the negatively charged (alpha) subunit at pH=7.0 14. If you used the Weisenburg procedure to purify microtubules (MTs) from fertilized sea urchin eggs, what would happen if you included a protein synthesis inhibitor (like puromycin) during the homogenization step? A. It would greatly decrease the amount of MTs recovered in the final pellet but some kinds of MTs would still be there B. It should not affect the amount of MTs recoved in the final pellet to any noticeable extent C. It would greatly increase the amount of MTs recovered because of less proteolysis D. It would cause more MTs to appear in the first pellet (P1) than in the second pellet (P2) E. Since MTs are made of protein, there would be no MTs to recover

15. If fluorescent-conjugated actin (not the antibody) is injected into cells it can be used to recognize in vivo: A. Growing microtubules only B. All microtubules C. All microfilaments D. All intermediate filaments E. The plus end of growing f-actin 16. Which of the following would be least likely to disrupt (cause to depolymerize) cytoplasmic microtubules? A. Triton X-100 o B. Incubating them at 1 C C. Colchicine D. 1.0mM CaCl2 E. SDS 17. Drug X specifically inhibits the ATP hydrolysis activity of axonemal dyneins. Addition of drug X to cells would be expected to: A. Stop sperm from swimming B. Stop cell division in all eukaryotic cell types C. Stop both anterograde and retrograde transport in neurons D. Stop chromosomal movements during cell division in eukaryotic cells E. Stop sarcomere contractions in muscle 18. Tubulin was added to a test tube and the extent of polymerization was assayed by light scattering. No light scattering was seen. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. The temperature was too low B. No ATP was added C. No MAPS were added D. The Ca++ concentration was too low E. The tubulin had to be made fluorescent to see light scattering 19. Of the following, which is the best way to test whether a MAP is really associated with cytoplasmic MTs in vivo? A. Homogenize cells, add fluorescent anti-MAP antibodies and fluorescent anti-tubulin antibodies (with a different color fluor) and see if the colors co-localize (are in the same place) when analyzed by fluorescence microscopy. B. Microinject anti-tubulin antibodies and fluorescent-conjugated MAPs and use electron microscopy to see if they bind to each other C. Isolate MTs by the Weisenburg method and look for the MAPS by SDS-PAGE in the final, low salt pellet D. Microinject fluorescent-conjugated tubulin into live cells, then inject a different colored anti-MAP antibody. Use fluorescence microscopy. Look to see if the colors coo localize along similar lines at the growth temperature but not at 2 C. E. Use high salt to see if the MAPS come off of the MTs during centrifugation

20. In the Griffith experiments with smooth and rough strains of bacteria, the conclusion that was
best supported by their results was: A. Removal of the encapsulation from non-virulent strains turns them into killers B. DNA viruses contain the DNA that causes pneumonia C. DNA transcription was necessary to convert a bacterial strain from virulent to nonvirulent D. The genotype of a virulent strain of bacteria cannot be changed because DNA is (and must be) permanent and unchangeable E. A heat-stable transformation factor from one strain of bacteria can change the phenotype of another strain

21. GTP is necessary for: A. Microfilament polymerization B. Sarcomere contraction C. MT sliding in a fully formed axoneme D. Dynamic instability of microtubules E. Intermediate filament assembly 22. Which of the following must be present and intact to demonstrate MT sliding in vitro? A. Radial spokes B. Inner singlets C. Dynein D. Central sheath E. Nexin bridges 23. Which of the following is true? A. Myosin is a minus-end directed motor B. Myosin always has two heads and two tails C. The S1 fragment of conventional myosin binds the Z-line to anchor it D. There is more actin in a typical sarcomere than myosin E. Thick filaments in sarcomeres are made of polymerized myosin II 24. In a sarcomere, ATP binding and hydrolysis should be highest in: A. I-band B. A-band C. H-zone D. M-line E. Z-lines 25. The best way to tell whether a sarcomere is contracted is: A. The A-band gets bigger during contraction B. The I-band moves closer to the M-line during contraction C. The Z-lines are closer together during contraction D. The H-zone expands during contraction E. The thick filaments become thinner 26. The main role of Ca++ (calcium) in the contraction of the sarcomere is: A. It causes movement of tropomyosin so that myosin and actin can come in contact B. It inhibits the activity of tropomyosin so it can no longer hydrolyze ATP C. It causes disassembly of MTs in the sarcomere to prepare for contraction D. It acts as a high salt to dissociate myosin from actin E. It activates myosin I to convert it into myosin II

27. What was one of the main points of the Avery experiments (where they tested heat-denatured
extracts of A. B. C. pneumococcus bacteria)? If you destroy the DNA in the extract, it cannot make the rough cells virulent Destroying RNA prevents transformation Proteases will break down the capsid of rough cells, making them susceptible to be killed by the mouse and the mouse will live D. The reason that the extract itself (without any live bacteria present) can kill mice is because the DNA is still virulent E. Since heat-denaturation destroys the transformation factor, it must be DNA

28. In humans, rigor mortis is seen as a stiffening of the muscles after death. It is hard to move the muscles of most dead vertebrates. From strictly a cell biology point of view, which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? A. The pH inside of the muscle cell increases after death, causing acid-precipitation of proteins and solidification of the cytoplasm B. When vertebrates die, they lose temperature control and become cold. This decrease in cell temperature causes disassembly of MTs and consequent loss of sarcomere function C. When cells die, ATP levels drop dramatically because O2 is not available and mitochondrial H+ gradients break down. Since ATP is necessary for release of myosin from actin in the actinomyosin contraction cycle, myosin remains attached to actin, causing the sarcomeres to lock up. D. IFs don't form much in live cells but when they die, neurofibrillary tangles can now form and the increased cross-bridging stiffens the cells E. Loss of control of cross-linking actin binding protein synthesis after cell death causes bundling of the actin filaments and muscle stiffening. 29. A difference between RNA and DNA is: A. RNA is negatively charged at pH=7.0 but DNA is not B. RNA contains pentose (5 carbon) sugars but DNA does not C. RNA can be reverse-translated into DNA but DNA must be transcribed to make proteins D. RNA is only found in the cytoplasm while DNA is only found in the nucleus E. If they are both the same length, a single-strand of RNA contains more oxygens than a piece of single-strand of DNA. 30. You want to use the procedures followed in the Hershey-Chase experiments to determine whether some types of viruses can pass RNA to their progeny following infection. To make sure you dont label (make radioactive) any lipids, proteins, sugars or DNA the best choice for metabolic labeling of the viruses before infection would be: A. Radioactive thymine (T) 32 B. Radioactive phosphorus ( P) C. Radioactive uracil (U) 18 D. Radioactive oxygen ( O) 35 E. Radioactive sulfur ( S) 31. Nuclear lamina are: A. Nuclear pores B. Connected to kinetochores during cell division C. Intermediate filaments D. Structural microfilaments in between the two nuclear membranes E. Microtubules 32. Which of the following is false? A. Transcription can occur in the cytoplasm of some cells B. Ribosomal proteins are not made in the nucleus C. In plant cells, mRNA is only seen in the cytoplasm D. Most of the RNA in a cell (by weight) is rRNA E. The nucleus is capable of making all three types of RNA 33. The main purpose of the nucleosome is: A. Help organize and compact eukaryotic heterochromatin and euchromatin B. To organize prokaryotic DNA to keep it together C. To pull together non-histone proteins into a core complex D. To unwind heterochromatin to make it transcriptionally active E. To provide a place for ribosomal subunit assembly

34. The amphipathic nature of histones is most important for which of the following functions of histones? A. Their transport across the nuclear membrane and association with DNA B. Their assembly into core particles in the nucleoplasm C. Their insertion into the membrane to become integral membrane proteins D. Their localization in the nucleolus E. Their contribution to the structure of ribosomes 35. Which of the following is most likely to bind to the cytoplasmic side of the nuclear pore complex? A. NLS-importin complex B. Ribosomes C. Telomeres D. Nuclear matrix proteins E. Nuclear lamina 36. If you detergent-extracted a fibroblast with SDS, you would expect to see: A. No cytoplasmic microtubules, but all other fibers still left behind B. No visible fibers left behind at all C. Only axonemes, centrioles and basal bodies D. A fibrous cytoskeleton of MTs, MFs and IFs left behind E. Only mitochondria and nuclei 37. Which of the following procedures is the best way to separate RER vesicles from SER vesicles from a microsome fraction? A. SDS-PAGE B. Differential centrifugation C. Sucrose density centrifugation D. Metabolic labeling E. Homogenization 38. Which of the following proteins is more likely to be made by co-translational translocation than on free polysomes? A. Tubulins B. Histones C. Lysosomal proteases D. Ribosomal proteins E. Actins 39. Which of the following is not a likely final destination (fate) for a protein that was made in the endomembrane system? A. Outside of the cell as a secreted protein B. In the cytoplasm as a soluble protein C. In the lumen of the RER as a soluble enzyme D. In the plasma membrane as an integral membrane receptor E. Inside the trans-Golgi 40. Which of the following would not be seen at 1 C? A. Filopodia B. Retrograde transport C. Centrioles D. Axonemes E. Sarcomeres
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1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

B C E B C D B C E A B C A B E A A A D E D C E B C A A C E C C C A B A B C C B B

Exam I, BIO201B, 2004

Form A

Name________________________________ There is only one right answer for each question. Choose the one best answer for each question. 1. An amphipathic compound is always A. Something which uses two pathways B. Part hydrophobic and part hydrophilic C. A membrane lipid D. Positively charged at one end and negatively charged on the other end E. Membrane permeable 2. If the phase transition temperature of a lipid bilayer is 19 C, then: o o A. The diffusion coefficient will be higher at 10 C than at -30 C o B. It will be solid at the freezing point of water (0 C) o o C. The viscosity will be higher at -15 C at -20 C D. It is more likely to be completely saturated than polyunsaturated o E. It will be solid at 8 C 3. The main difference between a detergent and a membrane lipid is: A. All detergents carry a charge at pH = 7.0 but membrane lipids don't B. Detergents are much more hydrophillic than membrane lipids C. Only detergents are amphipathic, membrane lipids are not D. Detergents are always synthetic and cant be made from anything in an animal cell E. Only membrane lipids are amphipathic, detergents are not
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4. The products of photolysis are first seen in:

A. The thylakoid lumen B. The intermembrane space C. The stroma D. The cytoplasm E. The outer membrane 5. Two phospholipids which both carry a full negative charge at pH = 7.0 are: A. PE and cardiolipin (CL) B. Phosphatidylserine (PS) and PI C. Phosphatidylcholine (PC) and Phosphatidylinositol (PI) D. Phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and PC E. PE and PI 6. An example of a polymer is: A. The electron transport chain of mitochondria B. Cytochrome c C. Tyrosine D. A phospholipid E. A triglyceride 7. The first electron for mitochondrial electron transport comes directly from: A. Water B. Complex I C. Glucose D. NADH E. ATP

8. In Overtons experiments with plant cells, a compound was identified as impermeable (not permeable) across the plant cell membrane if: A. It caused the calculated surface area of the intact plasma membrane to become twice as big as it was before the compound was added B. It made the membrane more hydrophilic C. It prevented hypertonic shrinkage D. It caused hypertonic swelling E. It did not stop the cell from shrinking 9. A typical chloroplast thylakoid membrane was purified and extracted with a mixture of hexane and water. About what proportion of the total weight of this membrane preparation would you expect to see in the hexane fraction and the water fraction after a phase separation formed? A. Roughly equal amounts in each B. About 30 to 40% of the total weight of the membrane material in the water layer C. About 60 to 70% of the total weight of the membrane material in the water layer D. None in the hexane, all in the water E. None in the water, all in the hexane 10. A membrane, which contains a peripheral membrane protein on the outside of the membrane, was exposed to each of the conditions below and then centrifuged at 100,000g for 1 hour (still with that condition present). That peripheral membrane protein should be seen primarily: A. In the pellet when 500mM NaCl is included in the solution used B. In the supernatant, even when no salts are added (in a low salt solution) C. In the pellet when SDS is included in the solution used D. In the supernatant when 500mM NaCl is included in the solution used E. In the supernatant if the membrane is permeabilized with a non-ionic detergent 11. In FRAP experiments, photobleaching refers to: A. A way to make the membrane more fluid so that lateral diffusion rates can be increased for accurate measurements B. A photo-chemical reaction which turns a patch of membrane white C. Removing the fluorescence from a compound with a focused laser D. The effect of a laser on the color of a membrane protein, changing it from red to blue E. Removing color from a photograph of a membrane to improve resolution 12. A compound loses one or more electrons when it becomes: A. Reduced by an oxidizing agent B. Protonated C. Oxidized by an oxidizing agent D. Oxidized by a reducing agent E. Reduced by a reducing agent 13. In epi-fluorescence, A. Emitted fluorescence does not go through the ocular B. A fluorescent compound is excited at one wavelength but observed at a shorter wavelength C. The objective filters out all unwanted light D. The light source is provided by vertical illumination E. The excitation wavelength is always in the ultraviolet (uv) range

14. If the Gorter and Grendel type of experiments were repeated with pure phospholipid vesicles (phospholipid spheres with no proteins), the most likely results would be: A. Hydrophobic compounds could not prevent vesicle shrinking B. The percent mosaics would change with temperature C. The measured monolayer surface area of the extracted lipids would be twice as big as the calculated surface area of the vesicles o D. The phase transition temperature would be 37 C E. The vesicles would have negatively charged proteins bound to them as peripheral proteins at pH=7.0 15. If a solution has a pH = 5.0 in pure water, the [H+] (hydrogen ion) concentration is: -2 A. 10 M B. 10.0 M C. 5.0M D. 5.0nM E. 0.005mM 16. The H+ gradient of mitochondria is similar to the H+ gradient of chloroplasts in that: A. Both H+ gradients are higher on the outside than on the inside of the membrane containing the electron transport chain B. In both cases, the energy for ATP synthesis comes from the difference in pH across the membrane containing the electron transport chain C. Both H+ gradients are made exclusively by using electron transport energy to pump H+ across the membrane (thats the only way) D. The H+ gradient is lost (it becomes zero) when ATP is made E. The energy needed for both comes from the passage of electrons from something with a high reduction potential to something with a lower reduction potential 17. Which of the following best describes the main point of the light reactions of photosynthesis? A. To produce carbon dioxide to use as a building block to make sugars B. To make ATP for animals to use for energy C. To store energy in carbohydrates D. To generate a H+ gradient for energy production and NADPH for the dark reactions E. To provide energy to split water into H+ and electrons for NADH synthesis 18. Which of the following is not an example of a sugar polymer? A. Polysaccharides B. Oligosaccharides C. Monomeric glucose D. Complex carbohydrates E. Glycolipids 19. The main difference between an absorption spectrum (sometimes called an absorbance spectrum) and an action spectrum for chloroplasts is: A. The absorption spectrum requires a measurement of the number of photons absorbed but the action spectrum doesnt B. The absorption spectrum must be measured in the light but the action spectrum can be measured in the dark C. The absorption spectrum measures the wavelengths that are absorbed but the action spectrum measures only emitted light D. The action spectrum shows the photochemical efficiencies at various wavelengths of light but the absorption spectrum does not E. The action spectrum deals with responses to red light while the absorption spectrum is mainly concerned with green light

20. Which of the following statements is True? A. Photolysis of 2 moles of water produces 2 moles of hydrogen ions B. Some of the light absorbing pigments of plants are lipids C. When an anion dissolves in pure water, the oxygen of water will hydrogen bond to that anion D. When hydrophobic compounds aggregate in water, they become water soluble E. 2.0mM NaCl dissociates in pure water at pH = 7.0 (25 C) into 1.0mM Na and 1.0mM Cl
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+

21. Which of the following is False? A. Plant membrane sterols can be amphipathic B. There are more glycolipids on the plasma membrane of plant cells than on the thylakoids C. Triglycerides, also called fats in our book, are normally seen in plasma membranes D. The phase transition temperature (PTT) of a membrane can be changed by changing that membranes lipid composition E. When both are observed at 25 C, an unsaturated fatty acid with a PTT = 24 C is more fluid than another unsaturated fatty acid with a PTT = 26 C 22. In the Frye-Edidin experiments, different colored fluorescently labeled human cells and mouse cells were fused together to answer which of the following questions? A. Are the plasma membranes of animal cells bilayers? B. Will a human-mouse cell hybrid grow up to be a human or a mouse? C. Why are the membranes different colors? D. Is the Singer-Nicholson fluid mosaic model correct? E. Are the mouse cell proteins permeable across human plasma membranes? 23. Which of the following are produced by the mitochondria of plants for use by their chloroplasts and what chloroplast products do they give back to be used by the plant mitochondria? A. Mitochondria produce NADP+ and CO2 and the chloroplasts give back NADPH and sugars to the mitochondria B. Mitochondria produce ATP and water and the chloroplasts give back CO2 and O2 to the mitochondria C. Mitochondria produce NADH and H+ and the chloroplasts give back NADPH and O2 D. Mitochondria produce CO2 and H2O and the chloroplasts give back O2 and carbohydrates to the mitochondria E. Mitochondria produce CO2 and carbohydrates and the chloroplasts give back O2 and water to the mitochondria 24. Which of the following best describes a comparison between mitochondria and chloroplast electron transport pathways? Initial (first) Electron Donor Mitochondria Chloroplast A. B. C. D. E. NAD+ NADH O2 NADH water light water water Complex I O2 Final Electron Acceptor Mitochondria Chloroplast water O2 ATP O2 water ATP NADP+ NADP+ NADPH NADPH
o o o

25. Fill in the blanks (in order) for the following sentence. In the chloroplast, ATP synthesis occurs in the ______________ and the energy for this synthesis comes from the movement of hydrogen ions from __________ to the ______________. A. Iumen, stroma, thylakoid B. stroma, lumen, stroma C. lumen, stroma, lumen D. stroma, cytoplasm, lumen E. cytoplasm, stroma, cytoplasm 26. In the experiment described in class, plants were grown in the presence of either radioactive CO2 or radioactive water (both with the radioactivity in the oxygen), exposed to light and then the gases produced were assayed for radioactivity. Why? A. To see if the oxygen in CO2 came from water B. To see if the carbon in CO2 goes to sugars C. To see if radioactive CO2 kills plants D. To see if atmospheric oxygen comes from CO2 or water E. To see if the H+ for making NADPH comes from water 27. Isolated chlorophylls are fluorescent but healthy, live chloroplasts arent because: A. Chloroplasts generate heat and that heat inactivates the chlorophyll fluorescence B. The outer membrane of chloroplasts prevents emitted light from escaping the chloroplast C. The light energy absorbed by chlorophylls is passed along to the electron transport chain in chloroplast membranes instead of being emitted D. Chloroplasts only absorb green light while isolated chlorophylls can absorb many other wavelengths E. Chlorophylls can only absorb uv light when they are not in the chloroplast 28. The amino acid composition of a protein can affect all of the following except: A. The charge on that protein at pH=7.0 B. The PTT of that protein C. Whether the protein is peripheral or integral D. The function of the protein E. The ability of that protein to hydrogen bond to other proteins 29. NADH and NADPH are both: A. Good electron donors because they have high Eo values B. Strong oxidizing agents because they have low Eo values C. Good electron acceptors because they have high reduction potentials D. Strong reducing agents because they have low Eo values E. Capable of being oxidized by a compound with a lower Eo value 30. Which of the following is FALSE? A. Even though some prokaryotic cells can be photosynthetic, all plants are eukaryotic B. ATP can be synthesized by inner mitochondrial membranes if they are right-side out and the pH is sufficiently higher inside than out. C. If you extracted all of the lipids from a typical animal cell (like a brain cell), most of those lipids would not have come from the plasma membrane D. All of the members of the electron transport chain in mitochondrial membranes are either proteins or protein complexes E. The protein composition of the thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast is not the same as the plasma membrane protein composition of the plant cell it came from

31. For the f1 part of the ATP synthase of mitochondria and the Cf1 part of the ATP synthase of plants, A. Both are H+ channels B. Both face the side of the membrane with the higher pH C. Only the f1 part of the ATP synthase of mitochondria is reversible, the Cf1 isnt D. Both face the cytoplasm E. Both directly couple the energy of electron transport to synthesize ATP, even in the absence of a proton gradient 32. In the mitochondria membrane, cytochrome c (cyt c) is in contact with: A. Complex I B. The matrix C. The cytoplasm D. The outer membrane E. The intermembrane space 33. In the Z-scheme of the light reactions of photosynthesis: A. Light energy decreases the reduction potential of both p680 and p700. B. Light energy increases the Eo value of p680 only C. The reduction potential of the excited state p700 is more than that of the excited state p680 D. The final step generates NADP as the product. E. Redox couples pass electrons from a compound with a high reduction potential to one with a lower reduction potential 34. To determine the phase transition temperature of a lipid bilayer, which should be on the x-axis and y-axis? A. Fluidity on the x-axis and diffusion coefficient on the y-axis B. Temperature on the x-axis and diffusion coefficient on the y-axis C. FRAP rates on the x-axis and fluidity on the y-axis D. Percent mosaics on the x-axis and fluidity on the y-axis E. Lateral diffusion rate on the x-axis and viscosity on the y-axis 35. Making the polyunsaturated fatty acid side chains on a phospholipid more saturated would most likely: A. Generate detergent molecules B. Raise the phase transition temperature (PTT) of that phospholipid C. Change the melting point but not the fluidity of that lipid D. Increase the diffusion coefficient of that lipid at room temperature E. Change it from a fat to an oil Answers: 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. E 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. D 18.ABCDE 19. D 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. B 32. E 33. A 34. B 35. B
+

Final Exam, BIO201B Spring, 2001

No calculators. Every question has one and only one correct answer. 1. A nuclear matrix preparation was obtained by the appropriate procedures. After addition of SDS, electron microscopy of this nuclear matrix would be expected to show: A. Nuclear lamin fibers B. Both cytoplasmic and centriolar microtubules C. A network of many-sized fibers D. No identifiable fibers at all E. Microfilaments only 2. Addition (by microinjection) of fluorescent-conjugated tubulin, followed by fluorescence microscopy could be used to identify: A. Existing (non-growing) axonemes B. The plus ends of growing microfilaments C. Newly replicated centrioles D. Intermediate filaments E. The minus ends of mitotic spindle microtubules 3. One difference between cytoplasmic microtubules and centriolar microtubules is: A. Centriolar microtubules dont have protofilaments B. Centriolar microtubules are necessary for nuclear division but cytoplasmic microtubules arent C. Cytoplasmic microtubules are singlets but centrioloar microtubules are triplets D. Centriloar microtubules have gamma tubulin but cytoplasmic microtubules dont E. The amount of centriolar microtubles doubles during mitotic S-phase but the amount of cytoplasmic microtubules doesnt change 4. In vivo, the core histones (not including the H1 histones) are associated with DNA primarily by: A. Covalent bonds B. Hydrophobic interactions C. Hydrogen bonds D. Van der Waals interactions E. Ionic bonds 5. If you homogenized a fertilized sea urchin egg at its growth temperature (15 C) and then o centrifuged the homogentate at 100,000g for 1 hour at 0 to 4 C, you would expect to see: A. No tubulin in the supernatant and cytoplasmic microtubules in the pellet B. Cytoplasmic microtubules in the supernatant and centriolar microtubules in the pellet C. Centriolar microtubules in the pellet but no cytoplasmic microtubules anywhere D. No tubulin in the supernatant and centriolar microtubules in the pellet E. Tubulin in the supernatant but no microtubules anywhere 6. Which of the following is false? A. Absorbance = log Transmittance 23 B. One mole of light is 6.02 X 10 photons C. The extinction coefficient can be used to accurately determine the concentration at any given absorbance, even in the non-linear portion of a standard curve D. Wavelengths of light are measured in nm/cycle E. As wavelength increases, the frequency (#cycles/sec.) decreases
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7. One difference between kinesins and dyneins is: A. Only kinesins are glycosylated, dyneins are not B. Dyneins are positively charged at pH=7.0 but kinesins are negatively charged C. Some functional antibodies can inhibit kinesin activity but those antibodies wont affect dynein activities D. Kinesin related proteins play a role in nuclear division but dyneins dont E. Dyneins only have two heads but kinesins can have as many as three 8. If 10mg of compound X (which has a molecular weight of 100g/mole) were dissolved in 100ml of water, what would the final molar concentration of compound X be? A. 10mM B. 1.0mM C. 1.0M D. 100uM E. 10M 9. How many milliliters of a 10M stock solution of compound A are needed to make 20 milliliters (final volume) of a 1:5 dilution of compound A? A. 1.0ml B. 0.2ml C. 0.1ml D. 4.0ml E. 5.0ml 10. GTP hydrolysis is necessary for: A. Transport of large molecules through nuclear pores B. Addition of tubulin subunits to growing microtubules C. Chromosomal movements during mitotic prophase D. Muscle contraction E. Retrograde transport 11. When a compound (compound B) loses one or more electrons in a redox couple, it is because that compound (compound B) was: A. Reduced by an oxidizing agent B. Oxidized by a reducing agent C. Reduced by a reducing agent D. Chastised by a travel agent E. Oxidized by an oxidizing agent 12. 10 A. B. C. D. E.
-4

micromolar equals: 4.0uM 0.1nM 4.0mM 0.1mM 4.0nM

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13. If a solution has a pH = 3.0 in pure water at 25 C, the hydrogen ion concentration is: -7 A. 10 M B. 0.003M C. 1.0mM D. 3.0uM E. 1.0nM

14. For proper proton transport during normal mitochondrial electron transport (not ATP synthesis), which best describes the necessary conditions? Note: I.S. is Intermembrane Space. Source of the First electron NAD+ water NADH NADH water Direction of H+ transport I.S. to matrix matrix to I.S. I.S. to matrix matrix to I.S. matrix to I.S. Location of Complex III inner membrane inner membrane outer membrane inner membrane inner membrane Location of the final electron acceptor I.S. matrix inner membrane matrix I.S.

A. B. C. D. E.

15. A membrane, which contains an integral membrane glycoprotein, was exposed to each of the conditions below and then centrifuged at 100,000g for 1 hour (still with that condition present). This integral membrane glycoprotein should be: A. In the supernatant when 100mM NaCl is included in the solution used B. In the supernatant, even when no salts are added (in a low salt solution) C. In the pellet when SDS is included in the solution used D. In the supernatant when SDS is included in the solution used E. In the pellet when the solution used contains sucrose at a higher density than the membranes 16. Which of the statements is false? A. Photolysis of 2 moles of water produces 4 moles of hydrogen ions B. When an anion dissolves in pure water, the oxygen of water will hydrogen bond to that anion C. Ubiquinone and dolichol are both lipids + o D. 2.0mM NaCl dissociates in pure water at pH=7.0 (25 C) into 2.0mM Na and 2.0mM Cl E. The density of hexane is less than the density of water because hexane floats on top of water. 17. The role of SDS in SDS-PAGE is to do all of the following except: A. Solubilize insoluble proteins B. Give proteins a negative charge C. Break up protein polymers to solubilize the monomeric subunits D. Ensure that the main factor determining the migration distance of a protein is its molecular weight E. Stain the proteins so they can be seen on the gel 18. Which of the following are produced by animal mitochondria for use by chloroplasts and which are given back to the mitochondria as products of photosynthesis? A. Mitochondria produce amino acids and water for the chloroplasts and they give back carbon dioxide and oxygen B. Mitochondria produce carbon dioxide and water for plants and they give back oxygen and carbohydrates C. Mitochondria give plants NADH and H+ and the chloroplasts give back NADPH and oxygen D. Mitochondria give carbon dioxide and carbohydrates to the plants and they give back oxygen and water E. Mitochondria produce NADP+ and carbon dioxide for the plants and chloroplasts give back ATP and sugars

19. Which of the following is false? A. The final electron acceptor of the light reactions of chloroplast non-cyclic electron transport is NADP+ and the initial electron donor is water B. ATP can be synthesized by isolated thylakoid membranes in the dark as long as they are right-side out, the pH is sufficiently lower inside than out and ADP + Pi are present in the outside solution. C. Not all of the members of the electron transport chain of mitochondria are proteins D. For oxygen to diffuse from where it is generated by photolysis to outside of the plant cell, it must cross a minimum of 3 membrane bilayers E. All of the DNA in an animal cell is in the nucleus 20. Isolated chlorophylls are fluorescent but chloroplasts are not because: A. The fluorescent light emitted by chloroplasts is in the u.v. range B. Light bleaches the chloroplasts but not chlorophylls C. Chlorophylls only absorb light when they are not in chloroplasts D. Chloroplasts generate heat and that inactivates fluorescence E. The light energy is passed to the electron transport chain in chloroplasts 21. If a sample of 100uM DCIP in water has a high OD600 (absorbance at 600nm), the OD600 could be decreased by all of the following except: A. Addition of reduced ascorbate B. Addition of chloroplasts (in the dark) C. Addition of an oxidizing agent with an Eo that is less than the Eo value of DCIP D. Addition of 1 ml of water to 5 ml of the DCIP solution E. Reduction of DCIP 22. Proteins enter the nucleus through nuclear pores: A. Either by active or passive diffusion, depending upon their size B. Only with the help of a membrane-bound (integral) NLS C. Without a need for GTP hydrolysis, regardless of its size D. Before they are glycosylated on the nucleoplasmic side of the inner nuclear membrane E. By co-translational import from bound polysomes 23. In a pulse-chase experiment, a pulse of H-thymidine (radioactive thymidine) was given to a synchronous culture of cells in the beginning of meiosis and then chased before meiosis ended. This would be expected to produce: A. Radioactive RNA B. Radioactive spermatids C. Only radioactivity in the metaphase chromosomes of meiosis I D. No radioactivity in any chromatids E. Radioactivity in only one chromatid of a sister chromatid pair in metaphase of meiosis II 24. To make radioactive telomeres: 32 A. Give a pulse of P to cells in G2 phase B. You cant make them radioactive by any of these procedures 32 C. Give a pulse of P during S-phase D. Add BrdU to cells in interphase 3 E. Add H thymidine to cells in meiosis
3

25. The main difference between the amino acid sequence of a secreted protein and an integral, membrane-bound protein is (both are synthesized on RER): A. The secreted protein has both a signal sequence and an NLS B. The membrane-bound protein has both a signal sequence and a stop-transfer sequence but the secreted protein only has the signal sequence C. A translocon is required for the co-translational import of the secreted protein but not for the membrane-bound protein D. A soluble SRP (signal recognition particle) is not required for the membrane-bound protein but is required for the secreted protein E. The secreted protein requires importin but the membrane-bound one does not 26. We talked about using metabolic labeling with radioactive amino acids and autoradiography to define the pathway for a secreted protein in pancreatic acinar cells. The reason that pulsechase was used for the metabolic labeling instead of continuous exposure to radioactive amino acids was: A. With continuous labeling, proteins all over the cell would become radioactive over time, making it difficult to tell when the secreted protein had left a part of the pathway B. Continuous labeling would prohibit autoradiography because there would be no exposed silver grains after 120 min. C. The radioactivity had to be given during the 3 minutes that the cells were in G1 phase. 35 D. Pulse-chase labeled both RNA and DNA so that S was not required. E. Radioactive proteins appear so fast in secretory vesicles (in less than 3 min.) that pulsechase is the only method fast enough to see it 27. Which of the following is true? A. A nascent peptide is produced by transcription of mRNA B. Polysomes contain only one kind of RNA, mRNA C. Soluble proteins are only made by free cytoplasmic polysomes, they cannot be made by co-translational import on RER. D. The ribosomes used to make free cytoplasmic polysomes are different than those seen on RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum) E. The small subunit of the mammalian ribosome is assembled in the nucleus but the fully functional ribosome (large and small subunit together) is assembled in the cytoplasm 28. A soluble, glycosylated enzyme inside of a lysosome was most likely translated: A. In the nucleus B. On RER C. On SER D. On free polysomes in the cytoplasm E. In the Golgi 29. Which of the following is false? A. If the chloroplast localization signal on a chloroplast protein was taken off and replaced with an NLS, that protein could now go into the nucleus instead of the chloroplast B. Some soluble proteins can be made by co-translational import into RER C. Dolichol is a lipid D. To make a glycoprotein, individual sugars are added one at a time to the membranebound protein by enzymes inside of the RER E. Glycoproteins can be further glycosylated by enzymes in the cis-Golgi

30. Mannose-6-phosphate receptors are: A. Receptors inside Golgi that bind proteins destined for the lysosomes B. Receptors on RER that face the cytoplasm C. Part of dolichol D. Cytoplasmic glycosyltransferases E. On the outside of mitochondria to target them for autophagy 31. A transition vesicle of the endomembrane system is targeted to fuse with the plasma membrane by: A. A v-SNARE on the vesicle and an appropriately matched t-SNARE on the plasma membrane B. An SRP-receptor acting as a chaperone to carry it to its destination C. An importin-NLS complex transporter D. A t-SNARE on the transition vesicle and a v-SNARE on the varicosity of the plasma membrane E. Lloyd Bridges 32. In semi-conservative DNA replication of eukaryotes: A. A light band and a heavy band can be seen on a cesium gradient after the second round 15 of replication in N 15 B. N cannot be incorporated by the DNA in the first round of replication in eukaryotes 3 C. H uracil will label the chromatids the same as BrdU D. No hybrids will be seen in the second round of replication by any labeling procedure E. BrdU stains one of the sister metaphase chromatids more than the other after the second round of DNA replication 33. Which of the following is true? 3 A. H uracil can be incorporated into growing nucleotide polymers only in S-phase B. The ploidy (n) of post-mitotic G1 phase cells is different than the ploidy of pre-mitotic G2 phase. C. DNA replication does not occur in pre-meiotic S-phase D. Disperse chromatin condenses into chromatids during meiotic prophase E. The goal of mitosis is reduction division 34. The Griffith experiments used pneumococcus infections of mice to prove that: A. DNAse destroys DNA but not protein B. RNA is not the genetic material passed on to progeny C. A heat-stable transformation factor could covert harmless bacteria into ones that could kill mice 35 32 D. Viruses do not incorporate S but do incorporate P E. Extracts of heat-killed strains of virulent bacteria alone (with no other additions) could still kill mice because the DNA survives heating 35. Which of the following are not made in the nucleus? A. Histones B. tRNA C. rRNA D. mRNA E. DNA

36. Pulse-chase with H uracil would label (make radioactive): A. Proteins destined for secretion B. Phage DNA C. A centromere D. A small ribosomal subunit E. Pre-mitotic cells in S-phase 37. Which of the following is true of the ploidy (n) and DNA amounts during the mitotic cell cycle: Mitotic prophase A. B. C. D. E. 2n4x4c 2n4x4c 4n4x4c 4n4x4c 2n2x2c Mitotic anaphase 2n4x4c 2n4x4c 2n2x2c 2n2x2c 1n1x1c G1 2n2x2c 2n2x2c 2n2x2c 1n1x1c 1n1x1c S 2n4x4c 4n4x4c 4n4x4c 2n2x2c 2n2x2c G2 2n4x4c 4n4x4c 4n4x4c 4n4x4c 2n2x2c

38. The process of meiosis: A. Requires 2 nuclear divisions with an S-phase in between B. Requires 2 nuclear divisions with no S-phase in between C. Involves disyntelic orientation of bivalent sister chromosomes in both meiosis I and meiosis II. D. Requires synaptonemal complexes to form between spindle microtubules during diakinesis E. Results in cells with 2n2x2c, ready for G1 phase. 39. Which of the following are all required for the entire M-phase of mitosis? Microtubules ATP dynein GTP f-actin myosin plastoquinone thymidine tetrads A. yes yes yes yes yes yes no no no B. yes yes yes no no no no no yes C. no no no no yes yes yes no no D. yes no no no yes yes no yes no E. yes yes yes no yes yes no no no 40. One of the differences between meiotic prophase and mitotic prophase is: A. Mitotic prophase has tetrads but meiotic prophase doesnt B. Mitotic prophase has leptotene and zygotene phases but meiotic prophase doesnt C. Meiotic chromosomes do not align at the center of the spindle in metaphase but mitotic metaphase chromosomes do. D. Prophase of meiosis I includes two cytokinesis steps while mitosis has only one E. Meiotic prophase is longer and has synaptonemal complexes but mitotic prophase is shorter and has no synaptonemal complexes.

Answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. D C C E C C C B D

10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

A E B C D D B E B E E ABCDE A D C B A E B D A A E D C A D A B A E

Final Exam, BIO201B, 2002

1(A) white even

Name___________________________

There is only one right answer for each question.

1. The purpose of the nucleosome is: A. Help organize and compact eukaryotic heterochromatin and eukromatin B. To organize prokaryotic DNA to keep it together C. To pull together non-histone proteins into a core complex D. To unwind heterochromatin to make it transcriptionally active E. To provide a place for ribosomal subunit assembly 2. In a redox couple where electrons are passed from compound B to compound A, this electron transfer can only happen if: A. B has a higher reduction potential than A B. The Gibbs free energy of B (GB) is lower than GA C. B has a lower Eo value than A D. A is a better reducing agent than B E. B is more oxidized than A 3. Which of the following is most likely to bind to the cytoplasmic side of the nuclear pore complex? A. NLS-importin complex B. Ribosomes C. Exportin D. SRP E. Nuclear lamina 4. Kinetochore proteins associate primarily with: A. Centromeres B. Centrosomes C. Centrioles D. Centrifuges E. Central pairs 5. If a nascent protein on a eukaryotic polysome contains a signal sequence but no stop-transfer sequence, the mature protein would most likely be: A. A soluble protein in the cytoplasm B. A membrane bound protein in the RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum) C. A soluble protein inside the RER (in the lumen of the RER) D. A soluble protein inside the nucleus E. Longer than other proteins which dont have stop-transfer sequences 6. The main goal of the pulse-chase experiments involving radioactive amino acids and autoradiography of cells at different times (as described in BIO201B) was to: A. Prove that translation occurs on polysomes B. Show that there is no protein synthesis inside of the nucleus C. Identify where the nucleolus is D. Follow the path of a newly synthesized protein through the endomembrane system E. Determine where proteins are glycosylated

7. A free polysome can be directed to bind to the RER by: A. GTP B. A signal sequence on a nascent peptide C. Importin D. A chaperone E. The mature protein 8. Complex carbohydrates for glycoproteins can be assembled in all of the following except: A. RER lumen B. Cytoplasm C. Cis-golgi lumen D. Lysosome lumen E. Trans-golgi lumen 9. Mitosis involves: A. Metaphase and cytokinesis B. Interphase and M-phase C. Cell division D. Pachytene and leptotene E. Nuclear division but not cell division 10. The main goal of the Meselson-Stahl experiments with N DNA and N DNA was: A. To determine whether newly synthesized DNA contains nitrogen 15 B. To see whether N makes DNA heavier 14 C. To see if the banding patterns of DNA from bacteria grown on N for two generations was consistent with semi-conservative replication 15 D. To determine which is better for labeling eukaryotic DNA, N or BrdU. E. To show that bacterial DNA is double stranded 11. An experiment described in BIO201B lecture involved radioactive thymidine ( H thymidine) pulse-chase labeling of cells for the purpose of determining the length of S-phase. When the data was plotted as a figure, the information on the y-axis was: A. Time (in hours) after addition of radioactive thymidine B. Percent of all cells which are radioactive C. Amount of DNA D. Percent of cells in mitosis which are radioactive E. Percent of cells in S-phase 12. Disperse (not compacted), eukaryotic DNA is seen in: A. Tetrads B. Zygotene C. Mitotic anaphase D. All of interphase E. G1 but not in G2 13. Which of the following most accurately describes the labeling of macromolecules in each of the phases listed (for human cells)? BrdU A. B. C. D. E. Mitosis Meiosis I S-phase G1 Meiosis II yes no yes yes yes
3 3 14 15

H thymidine no yes yes no yes

Radioactive amino acids no no no yes no

H uracil no no no yes no

14. Which human cell cycle phase is most likely represented in the picture below? A. B. C. D. E. Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase Prometaphase

15. A difference between human mitotic prophase and mitotic anaphase A is: A. There are no visible centrosomes in prophase but there is in anaphase A B. Chromatin is compacted in prophase but not in anaphase A C. Synaptonemal complexes are seen in mitotic prophase but not in anaphase A D. Spindle microtubules are not connected to kinetochores in prophase but they are in anaphase A E. Dynein moves mitotic chromosomes (paired chromatids) towards the middle of the spindle in prophase but only kinesin is needed to pull them apart in anaphase A 16. Which of the following is true? A. The H+ gradient across the lysosomal membrane is commonly used to make ATP in the cytoplasm B. Clathrin helps to pinch off membranes to form vesicles from both the plasma membrane and trans golgi network (TGN) C. Soluble cargo inside the endomembrane system does not bind to receptors until they reach the TGN D. Soluble proteins destined to remain inside the RER are targeted to stay there by mannose-6-phosphate receptors E. There is only one kind of v-SNARE but many kinds of t-SNAREs. 17. Which of the following best describes human mitotic metaphase? # of pieces of dispersed chromatin A. B. C. D. E. 92 92 46 0 0 # of chromatids 92 46 0 46 92 amount of DNA 1x 2x 2x 4x 4x # of centrioles 2 2 2 4 4

ploidy 1n 2n 2n 2n 2n

18. The purpose of meiosis in humans is: A. To produce cells (gametes) with the same ploidy and DNA amount as the parents B. Reduction division to prepare gametes for fertilization C. Diploidization of gametes D. To keep maternal and paternal genes together to prevent independent assortment E. To assure cell division and fertilization without genetic recombination 19. One way to tell if a human cell is in meiosis or mitosis is: A. There is always twice as much DNA in mitotic cells compared to meiotic cells B. There is no telophase in meiosis but there is in mitosis C. Cells are always diploid in mitosis but all meiotic cells are haploid D. There is a reduction in the amount of DNA during mitosis but not in meiosis E. Sister chromatids can be syntelic in meiosis but not in mitosis

20. A main difference between gamete production in male and female humans is: A. The leptotene and zygotene phases are much longer during sperm development than in egg development B. Independent assortment of genes only occurs in sperm, not in eggs C. Before fertilization, sperm go through meiosis I and meiosis II but eggs only go through meiosis I D. In female gamete development, differentiation occurs before meiosis while male gametes go through meiosis before differentiation E. There is no DNA replication during meiosis in egg production but there is during sperm production 21. Which of the following best describes the locations of each of these in the mitochondria ? On the membrane facing intermembrane space A. B. C. D. E. Glycoproteins Cytochrome c f1 of the f1/ f0 synthase Ctyochrome c ubiquinone Within the In the inner membrane Matrix complex III ubiquinone cholesterol triglycerides cholesterol On the membrane, facing the matrix

oxygen cytochrome c NADH f1 of the f1/ f0 synthase NADH cytochrome c glucose ubiquinone triglycerides f1 of the f1/ f0 synthase

22. Which of the following is the smallest? A. 1.0 micron B. 150m C. 100nm -6 D. 10 meter E. 10 angstroms 23. An amphipathic compound: A. Must have a charged end and an uncharged end (at pH=7.0) but not necessarily 50% each B. Must be polar and nonpolar C. Can be a detergent if it is more hydrophilic than hydrophobic D. Always is a membrane lipid E. Is not capable of hydrogen bonding to lipids 24. Proton (H+) movement in mitochondria is: During electron transport A. B. C. D. E. Cytoplasm to Intermembrane Space Matrix to Intermembrane Space Intermembrane Space to Matrix Intermembrane Space to Matrix Matrix to Intermembrane Space During ATP synthesis Intermembrane Space to Matrix Intermembrane Space to Matrix Matrix to Intermembrane Space Intermembrane Space to Matrix Intermembrane Space to Cytoplasm

25. The NADH for mitochondrial electron transport comes from: A. Intermembrane Space B. The cytoplasm C. The H+ gradient D. The TCA (tricarboxylic acid) cycle E. Complex I

26. Which best describes the conditions for normal mitochondrial activity? First electron donor A. B. C. D. E. glucose NADH NAD+ water NADH Final electron acceptor oxygen oxygen water oxygen water Key Products ATP and water CO2, ATP, water ATP and NADH ATP and NAD+ O2, ATP, water

27. Which of the following never contains any carbohydrate? A. Plasma membrane proteins B. RER lipids C. Secretory proteins D. Starch E. Tubulin 28. Of the following statements, the one that most accurately describes common, monomeric proteins is: A. They must contain positively charged, negatively charged and hydrophobic subunits at pH=7.0 B. They are all water soluble C. They are all polymers of covalently attached amino acids D. They are made up of many polymers, held together by hydrogen bonds E. They are never covalently attached to lipids 29. Given: Go = -nFEo Which of the following is most likely to increase the probability of a reaction to proceed spontaneously as written? A. B. C. D. Coupling a reaction with another reaction which has a higher Go value Increasing the amount of electrons passed Decreasing the difference between the reduction potentials of reactants Raising the free energy state of the products

E. Making the Eo more negative

30. Which of the following is true? A. A typical lipid-anchored membrane protein, such as those discussed in BIO201B, can be released (solubilized) from the membrane by addition of high salt (100mM NaCl) at pH=7.0. B. When a salt crystal dissociates in water, the sodium goes from having ionic bonds to chloride in the crystal to having hydrogen bonds to water in aqueous solution C. Even if a protein is hydrophilic and water soluble, it can still contain hydrophobic amino acid side chains. o D. In the Frye-Edidin experiments, mosaics could be seen at 37 C (body temperature) o and above, proving that the phase transition temperature must be about 37 C. E. In a redox couple, the compound that gets reduced loses electrons 31. The picture below shown on the right is: A. A basal body B. A bacterial flagella C. A ciliary axoneme D. A cytoplasmic microtubule E. Pericentriolar material

32. One of our main assumptions about SDS-PAGE in BIO201B is: A. The anode is the negative pole, it attracts anions. B. It is a good way to separate intact (not depolymerized) macromolecules like microtubules and microfilaments on the basis of their sizes C. Uncharged molecules will migrate at a slower (but measurable) rate than charged molecules so they can be separated in the gel D. None of the proteins could be stained and visualized as bands on the gel without SDS E. In the presence of SDS virtually all proteins carry a negative charge at the pH used 33. In The Big Picture of photosynthesis, the dark reactions give which of the following back to the light reactions to enable the process to be completed again? A. ATP and NADH B. Water and ATP C. Carbohydrates and oxygen D. ADP and NADP+ E. NADPH and ATP 34. Which of the following best describes the compartments of the chloroplast? Inside of the Inner Membrane Stroma Lumen Lumen Stroma Lumen The Inner Membrane grana thylakoid grana grana thylakoid Outside of the Inner membrane thylakoid stroma thylakoid lumen cytoplasm

A. B. C. D. E.

35. Which of the following best describes a part of the light reactions of photosynthesis? A. Light lowers the Eo values of photopigment molecules B. The electrons for the electron transport chain come from NADPH C. In the plastoquinone (PQ) shuttle, oxidized PQ gets electrons from PSI and H+ from the lumen D. NADPH is produced in the compartment which has the highest hydrogen ion concentration in the chloroplast. E. Light energy converts both P680 and P700 into stronger oxidizing agents. 36. Which of the following is true? A. Transcription can occur in the cytoplasm of some cells B. Ribosomal proteins are made in the nucleus C. In plant cells, mRNA is only seen in the cytoplasm D. Most of the RNA in a cell (by weight) is mRNA E. The nucleus is capable of making all types of RNA except transfer RNA (tRNA) 37. Using the Weisenburg method for MT purification (as described in BIO201B), brains were o homogenized at 4 C (pH=7.0). After centrifugation at that temperature for 1 hour at 100,000g, the o first supernatant (S1) was removed and warmed to 37 C (still pH=7.0). The P1 was discarded. o After centrifugation of the S1 at 100,000g for 1 hour at 37 C (pH=7.0) the final pellet (P2) would most likely contain: A. Microfilaments B. Centriolar microtubules C. No microtubules of any kind D. Just cytoplasmic microtubules but no centriolar microtubules E. Virtually no proteins at all

38. Photolysis of water occurs in: A. Stroma B. Thylakoid membranes C. Cytoplasm D. Intermembrane space E. Lumen 39. What was one of the main points of the Avery experiments (where they tested heat-denatured extracts of pneumococcus bacteria)? A. Since heat-denaturation destroys the transformation factor, it must be DNA B. Transformation of non-virulent cells into killers requires intact (not degraded) DNA from smooth cells C. Pneumonia is caused by virus-infected bacteria D. Proteases will break down the capsid of rough cells, making them susceptible to be killed by the mouse and the mouse will live E. The reason that the extract itself (without any live bacteria present) can kill mice is because the DNA is still virulent 40. Which of the following is False? A. ATP hydrolysis is necessary for myosin dissociation from actin B. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is necessary for protein synthesis C. Proteins involved in transcription and DNA replication are all made in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells D. Ribosomal subunits are assembled in the nucleolus because thats where most of the rRNA is made E. One of the main points of chloroplast electron transport is to provide NADPH and ATP for use in carbohydrate synthesis

Refer to the plots below to answer the next three questions (41-43):

Plot A

Plot B

Plot C

Plot D

Plot E

41. Which of the plots above looks most like what you would expect to see if you plotted A620 (the absorbance at 620nm) on the y-axis and methylene blue concentration (in M) on the x-axis? A. Plot A B. Plot B C. Plot C D. Plot D E. Plot E 42. Which of the plots above looks most like what youd expect to see if you plotted A600 (the absorbance at 600nm) on the y-axis and time (minutes) on the x-axis after live chloroplasts are added to 100M oxidized DCIP in the dark (for the entire time)? A. Plot A B. Plot B C. Plot C D. Plot D E. Plot E 43. Which of the plots above looks most like what youd expect to see if you plotted A600 (the absorbance at 600nm) on the y-axis and concentration of ascorbic acid added to 100M DCIP on the x-axis? A. Plot A B. Plot B C. Plot C D. Plot D E. Plot E

44. If the molecular weight of sodium chloride (NaCl) is 58.4 g/mole, how much of this salt would be required to prepare 100ml of a salt solution having a concentration of 1 millimolar? A. 5.84 grams -2 B. 5.84 x 10 grams C. 5.84 g -4 D. 5.84 x 10 grams E. 5.84 mg 45. Which of the following correctly states the estimated weight of 200l of distilled water? A. 200g B. 20g C. 200mg D. 20mg E. 0.02g 46. The pH of a solution was determined to be 6.0. Which of the entries in the table below gives the best estimate of the concentrations of H and OH in that solution? H A. B. C. D. E.
-6

OH
-8

10 M -14 6 x 10 M -6 10 M 6 10 M -6 6 x 10 M

10 M -14 8 x 10 M -14 10 M 8 10 M -8 8 x 10 M

47. Which of the following brings about a 1:100 dilution? A. B. C. D. E. 1 ml added to 999 ml 100l added to 1.9 ml 100l added to 99 ml 1l added to 99l 10 ml added to 99ml

48. An aqueous solution of methylene blue (molecular weight = 320g/mol) was prepared by dissolving 1 gram in 1 liter of water. Which entry in the table below gives the correct w/v (weight/volume) and approximate molarity of the final solution? A. B. C. D. E. w/v 10g/ml 100ng/ml 1mg/ml 10mg/ml 1g/ml molarity 30M 0.3M 3.0mM 30mM 3.0M

49. The absorbance at 620nm (A620) of a 10 g/ml solution of MB was 0.24. After dilution with water, the A620 decreased to 0.12. Which of the following is the concentration of MB in the diluted solution? A. 0.5g/ml B. 1.0g/ml C. 5.0g/ml D. 7.5g/ml E. 10.0g/ml

50. Which of the following is the correct pathway of light in the Spec 20? A. light source to photometer to specimen to diffraction grating B. light source to diffraction grating to photometer to specimen C. light source to specimen to diffraction grating to photometer D. light source to diffraction grating to specimen to photometer E. light source to specimen to photometer to diffraction grating 51. What is the definition of absorbance? (Ib=blank and Is=sample) A. A = log T B. A = Is/ Ib C. A = hv D. A = log 1/T E. A = log Is/ Ib 52. Which of the following best characterizes the properties of DCIP? A. It is a strong oxidizing agent with Eo = -0.217 B. It is a strong reducing agent with Eo = +0.217 C. It is a weak oxidizing agent with Eo = -0.217 D. It is a weak reducing agent with Eo = +0.217 I accepted either D or E E. It is a strong oxidizing agent with Eo = +0.217 on the final 53. Which line in the table below gives the correct absorbance values for the transmittance values at the top of each column? T = 100% (1) A. B. C. D. E. A=0 A=0 A = infinity A=2 A=1 T = 10% (0.1) A=2 A=1 A=1 A=1 A = 0.1 T = 1% (0.01) A = infinity A=2 A=2 A=0 A = 0.01

54. When analyzed on a Spec 20, a 5.0 ml aliquot of MB (which was 50g/ml) had an absorbance at 620nm of 0.20. Which of the following absorbance readings (at 620nm) would you expect after the aliquot was diluted by adding 5.0 ml of water to it? A. B. C. D. E. 0.40 0.05 0.20 0.10 0.50

55. Using another 5.0 ml aliquot of the 50g/ml MB solution (with an absorbance at 620nm of 0.20), 20 mg of carboxymethylcellulose beads were added, incubated for 15 minutes and then pelleted in the tube by centrifugation. The blue supernatant left in the tube had an absorbance at 620nm of 0.10. Based on the data provided, about how much MB was bound to the beads? A. 50g B. 25g C. 10g Since the question should have read 50ug instead of 50ug/ml, I accepted all choices
for this question on the final. Everyone got credit for this one.

D. 20g E. 30g

10

56. The absorbance at 600nm of a 5.0ml aliquot of 100M oxidized DCIP was 1.1. Upon addition of 25l of an aqueous ascorbic acid solution, the absorbance at 600nm dropped to 0.55. What was the concentration of oxidized (blue) DCIP in the resultant solution after ascorbate addition? A. 25 M B. 10 M C. 30 M D. 5.0 M E. 50 M 57. What is the concentration of ascorbate needed to reduce 25 g of oxidized DCIP? A. B. C. D. E. 12.5 g 50 g 10 g 2.5 g 25 g

Since this question should have had uM instead of ug everywhere. I gave everyone credit for this one too

58. In the terminology that is commonly used with reference to the fractionation of cell -13 constituents with a centrifuge, the quantity 10 sec. is a significant term. What does it define? A. B. C. D. E. The sedimentation coefficient of a cellular constituent The Svedberg unit The relative centrifugal force generated by the centrifuge The density of the medium subjected to centrifugation The unit appropriate for refractive index

59. Which of the following is the largest volume of fluid that may be delivered with a P-10 pipetman? A. B. C. D. E. 10 ml 10 liters 10 l 10 nl 10 fluid ounces

60. After transferring a drop of water with a Pasteur pipet onto a tared (zeroed) weighing boat on the pan of an analytical balance, the display read 0.022. What is the weight of the water drop? A. 22g B. 220mg C. 22mg D. 22 g E. 220 g 61. You found that the percent error of a P-100 pipetman was 2%. That means that, on the average, that particular pipetman delivers: A. 98 to 102 l B. 98 to 102 ml C. 90 to 110 l D. 9.8 to 10.2 ml E. 99.8 to 100.2 l

11

62. In the final lab in BIO201, light-driven electron transport activity in isolated chloroplasts was assayed as: A. B. C. D. E. An increase in the absorbance of oxidized DCIP A decrease in the absorbance of reduced DCIP An increase in the absorbance of reduced DCIP A decrease in absorbance of oxidized DCIP A lack of change in the absorbance of oxidized DCIP

63. You start with an A600 = 1.8 for a sample containing chloroplasts in 100M DCIP in the last BIO201 lab. Since you know that the A600 = 0.2 for the chloroplasts alone (in the same volume), what would you expect the A600 to be after a 15 minute incubation of this sample in the dark? A. B. C. D. E. 2.0 1.8 0.2 0 1.6

64. What A600 would you expect to see after a similar sample of chloroplasts and 100M DCIP (also with a starting A600 = 1.8) was left in the light long enough to reduce all of the DCIP? A. B. C. D. E. 2.0 1.8 0.2 0 1.6

12

Answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. A C A A C D B D E C D D C E D B E B E D B E C B D B E C B C A E D B A A D E B A B E A E C A D C C D D D OR E B

13

54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64.

D ALL ACCEPTED E ALL ACCEPTED B C C A D B C

14

Final Exam, BIO201B, 2003

Form 2

Each question has only one correct answer. Choose the one which answers the question best.

1. One reason why radioactive amino acid pulse-chase procedures were used to study the pathway of secreted proteins in a eukaryotic cell instead of just a pulse alone was: A. The same Dr. Chase that invented the Hershey-Chase experiments also did this work so it was really called pulse-Chase (for Dr. Chase) B. It made it easier to not only see what compartment gained radioactivity but also enabled them to see where it came from (by decreased radioactivity) C. It made it easier to recognize organelles because a continuous pulse would cause them to mutate and change their size, shape and location D. It is actually the chase that carries the radioactivity, not the pulse E. A continuous pulse would have labeled both proteins and nucleotides but the pulse-chase labeled only proteins 2. Which of the following best describes the properties of a typical membrane spanning protein in the plasma membrane? Signal sequence? on nascent protein No on mature protein on nascent protein on mature protein Stop transfer sequence? on nascent protein on mature protein on mature protein No on nascent protein only NLS? No Yes Yes No Yes Glycosylation? on mature protein on nascent protein on mature protein No on nascent protein

A. B. C. D. E.

3. The process of cotranslational translocation is best described as: A. Proteins are made as the ribosomes move down the mRNA B. Translation and transcription happening at the same time C. When the translocon is synthesized at the same time as the SRP D. Moving a protein to the nucleus for further modifications E. Moving a nascent protein across the RER membrane as it is being translated 4. Which of the following is a necessary part of normal, human meiotic prophase I? A. Diakinesis B. Metaphase plate formation C. DNA replication D. Autosomal monosomy E. Aneuploidy 5. Which of the following is true about differential centrifugation: A. SER and RER vesicles can be easily separated by this method B. The g force on a particle is only dependent upon rpm and not rotor radius C. Particles are separated predominantly on the basis of their relative sizes D. There is always only one centrifugation step needed E. Particles with different densities can be easily separated by this method

6. Which of the following eukaryotic proteins is most likely to be made on free, soluble polysomes? A. None. Eukayotes dont have free polysomes. Only prokaryotes do. B. Histones C. Low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors D. Lysosomal proteases E. Soluble, secreted proteins 7. Which of the following best describes the changes seen during meiosis in humans? A. 2n4x4c to 1n2x2c to 1n1x1c B. 2n2x2c to 2n4x4c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c C. 1n1x1c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c D. 2n4x4c to 2n4x4c to 1n2x2c E. 2n4x4c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c 8. In animal cells, soluble proteins can be made: A. On either RER or SER B. In the cytoplasm only C. On RER only D. In either the cytoplasm, nucleoplasm or lumen of RER E. Either in the cytoplasm or on RER 9. Autoradiography is: A. The way cells dispose of dead mitochondria B. The only way to visualize secretory vesicles C. A way to recognize the location of radioactive compounds in a cell by using photographic film D. The process of adding radioactive compounds to proteins or nucleic acids as they are being made E. A way to chart the types of music stations received in your car 10. The main difference between mitotic prometaphase and mitotic anaphase A is that: A. Sister chromatids are paired together in prometaphase but not in anaphase A B. Mitotic chromosomes are syntelic in anaphase A but not in prometaphase C. There is still a complete (intact) nuclear membrane throughout prometaphase but it is gone in anaphase A D. There is half as much DNA in the cell in anaphase A compared to prometaphase E. Anaphase comes before prometaphase in mitosis 11. In general, mitotic chromosomal movements during mitosis can involve all of the following except: A. Dynein and kinesin-based movements near the plus ends of microtubules connected to kinetochores B. Actin-based movements along chromosomal spindle fibers C. Cytoplasmic MT shrinking and growing D. Movements of chromosomes along MTs by kinesin-related motors E. Microtubule sliding

12. Amphitelic orientation of sister chromatids is seen: A. In both mitosis and meiosis II B. Only in mitosis, not in meiosis C. Only in meiosis, not in mitosis D. In pachytene E. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes 13. Meiosis in humans is: A. Equational division with one S-phase in between meiosis I and meiosis II B. Reduction division to decrease both ploidy and DNA amount C. Two nuclear divisions with no cytokinesis D. Sexual reproduction as a result of sperm uniting with an egg E. The only way to decrease the number of base pairs of DNA in a cell 14. A soluble protein which is found in the nucleus is most likely made: A. Within the endomembrane system B. In the cytoplasm C. By cotranslational translocation D. In the nucleoplasm E. In the nucleolus 15. Which of the following can most efficiently target a protein to be found as a soluble protein in the lysosomes instead of as an integral protein in cis-Golgi membranes? A. If it has an LLS and a stop transfer sequence B. If it does not have a stop transfer sequence but does have mannose-6phosphate on it C. The presence of COPI on the ERGIC vesicles D. The presence of an adaptor protein to prevent clathrin binding E. The lack of glycosylation on the protein 16. How are carbohydrates put on plasma membrane glycoproteins so that they end up facing the outside of the cell? A. They arent because there are no enzymes to do this on the outside of the cell B. The glycotransferase enzymes are on the outside of the cell C. Such proteins are brought into the cell by endocytosis, modified by glycosidases, and recycled back to the surface in their intended conformation D. Cytoplasmic glycosyltransferases build the original core carbohydrates and they are transferred to the proteins in the lumen of the RER. Further glycosylations can occur in the lumen of the golgi. E. Sugars are added, one at a time, to the protein as it faces the inside of the RER and the lumen of the Golgi. These proteins are packaged into vesicles and the vesicles turn inside out before they fuse with the plasma membrane 17. Dolichol is: A. A compound that carries lipids for membrane synthesis in RER B. A sugar C. A protein D. A type of glycosyltransferase enzyme E. A lipid which can bind sugars

18. Which of the following statements is true? A. All newly synthesized proteins in eukaryotes pass through Golgi for further glycosylations and modifications B. Lipids are synthesized in SER but not in RER C. Core complex carbohydrates can be seen facing the cytoplasm, the lumen of the RER, the lumen of the Golgi and the lumen of lysosomes D. The same glycosyltransferases are present in cis-Golgi, medial-Golgi and trans-Golgi E. Complex carbohydrates on glycolipids always face the outside of the cell 19. Proteins can move between cis-Golgi and medial-Golgi by: A. Vesicular-tubular cluster connections B. Transport through ERGIC C. Diffusion through the Golgi lumen D. COPI vesicles E. Clathrin-coated vesicles 20. How can soluble proteins in RER get targeted to go to another compartment? A. They dont. Only membrane proteins move out of the RER B. By clathrin-coating the budding vesicles C. By binding to special transport COP proteins called t-SNARES D. By antibody interactions between transport vesicles and destination membranes E. By binding to transmembrane cargo receptors to sort them into transport vesicles which can be targeted to the proper destination by their externallyfacing surface proteins 21. Where does the ATP come from to power the ATPase on lysosomal membranes? A. From the H+ gradient across the lysosomal membrane B. From soluble ATP in the cytoplasm C. From the lysosomal H+ pump D. From recycled mitochondria after fusion with endomembranes E. From lysosomal acid phosphatases 22. Mannose-6-phosphate receptors can be seen on all of the following except: A. Golgi membranes B. Plasma membranes C. Nuclear membranes D. Clathrin-coated vesicle membranes E. Trans-Golgi network membranes 23. A vesicle type which is least likely to be seen fused with a lysosome is: A. Phagosome B. Autophagosome C. Endosome D. Endocytitic vesicle E. Secretory vesicle

24. How can you tell if a soluble factor from an S-phase cell stimulates a G1 phase liver cell to proceed into S-phase after microinjection of S-phase cytoplasm into that G1 cell? A. There would be a large increase in the DNA content of the nucleus B. The cell would go from 1n1x1c to 2n2x2c C. The cell would start to divide the DNA it has in half D. The chromatin would be seen starting to compact E. The cell would skip G2 and go right into cell division 25. Haploidization happens in: A. Diplotene B. Pachytene C. Meiosis I (the first meiotic division) D. Meiosis II (the second meiotic division) E. Diakinesis 26. The result of cytokinesis is: A. Movement of cytoplasm into the nucleus B. Cells with 23 chromatids in each cell after meiosis I C. Two diploid daughter cells, each with 2n1x1c after meiosis I D. Nuclear division without cell division in meiosis I E. Two G1 daughter cells with 46 pieces of disperse chromatin each after mitosis in humans 27. When a dead chloroplast is encased in an endomembrane vesicle, exposed to degredative enzymes and acidified, that membrane complex is most accurately called: A. An Autosome B. An autophagosome C. A phagosome D. An autophagolysosome E. An endosome 28. Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system? A. Secretory vesicles B. Endosomes C. Phagosomes D. Lysosomes E. Nuclear membranes 29. In the experiments described in BIO201B, separation of 14N DNA from 15N DNA was done by: A. Separating chromatids B. Differential centrifugation C. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis D. Density gradient centrifugation E. Autoradiography 30. Mitosis is best described as: A. Cell division B. M-phase C. Reduction division D. Nuclear division E. Doubling the amount of DNA and splitting it into two daughter cells

31. The main point of the Meselson-Stahl experiments with 14N and 15N DNA was: A. To show that DNA can replicate in the presence of radioactivity B. To test to see if DNA replication in prokaryotes is semi-conservative or not C. To show that modified bases could still be incorporated into DNA D. To see if 14N DNA could be separated from 15N DNA E. To see how eukaryotic DNA replicates 32. The first round of semi-conservative replication in eukaryotes is best explained as: A. One piece of double-stranded DNA comes apart and each original strand makes a new copy, producing 2 double-stranded hybrids of old and new DNA B. One closed, circular piece of DNA makes a brand new copy piece of doublestranded DNA that is all new DNA C. Producing copies of the DNA that are either hybrids or all new DNA D. BrdU labeling of DNA-RNA hybrids so that they are seen as light chromatids E. Replication of only the euchromatin and not the heterochromatin, producing hybrid DNA that is part old DNA and part new DNA 33. DNA replication is: A. Seen during reduction division B. Also called transcription C. Semi-conservative in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes D. Easily detected by analyzing cesium gradients with eukaryotic DNA after BrdU labeling E. Part of mitosis 34. If a eukaryotic cell went through the first round of DNA replication in the presence of radioactive thymidine, autoradiography of the mitotic chromosomes would most likely show: A. Both chromatids are radioactive B. One chromatid is radioactive and the other is not C. No radioactivity in either chromatid D. Radioactivity in euchromatin but not in heterochromatin E. Many chromosomal defects (base pair changes) due to the radioactivity 35. M-phase is most accurately described as: A. Mitosis B. Nuclear division and cell division C. Meiosis D. The part of interphase where metaphase is seen E. The part of the cell cycle where the most transcription occurs 36. Which of the following does not happen as the cell progresses from G2 to the beginning of mitotic prometaphase? A. Disperse chromatin compacts (condenses) B. The ploidy changes C. Transcription virtually stops D. Cytoplasmic MT polymerization increases E. The level of mitotic cyclins is high in the nucleus

37. Ploidy is: A. A measurement of the mass of DNA B. The number of mitotic chromosomes in a cell C. The number of base pairs of DNA D. The number of copies of complete sets of genetic information in a cell E. Always 2 in humans 38. S-phase is: A. Necessary before meiosis to begin but there is no S-phase between meiosis I and meiosis II. B. The only time that radioactive uridine incorporation can be seen in the cell cycle C. The phase where chromatin compaction begins D. Always the longest phase of the cell cycle in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes E. About 7.5 hours in all normal (not cancerous) human cells 39. In BIO201B, I described the use of pulse-chase to estimate the length of S-phase. Which of the following best describes the way the data was displayed and obtained? Y-axis Detection Method X-axis % radioactive mitotic cells time after G2 geiger counting Time (hours) % radioactive mitotic cells autoradiography time after adding BrdU %light chromatids BrdU staining time after chase (min.) number of mitotic cells exposed silver grains %labeled cells radioactivity time after 3H thymidine

A. B. C. D. E.

40. An example of a reason why chromatin exists in both disperse and compacted (condensed) form is: A. Compaction of chromatin prevents aneuploidy B. To prevent DNA from complexing with proteins during M-phase C. Compaction of DNA is necessary to differentiate euchromatin from heterochromatin D. Separation of chromatin is easier when it is compacted and replication is easier when it is disperse E. As soon as the amount of DNA doubles, it must be immediately compacted to fit into the nucleus

41. Which of the following best describes the main point of the first lab? A. To learn safety procedures and how dispose of chemicals B. Check in, purchase a lab kit and learn how to write a detailed lab report C. To learn how to determine the accuracy and precision when dispensing volumes D. To learn how to purify chloroplasts E. To introduce all of the lab procedures for all six labs 42. If a p100 pipetman showed the setting below, what weight of water should it dispense if the accuracy is 1%?

1 0 0
A. B. C. D. E. Between 90 and 110mg Between 99 and 101 g Between 90 and 110 g Between 99 and 101mg Between 99 and 101ng

43. If the digital scale on the digital balance (used in BIO201B) read 0.13, that means the weight on it is: A. 13.0mg B. 0.13kg C. 130ng D. 130ul E. 130mg 44. If you wanted to dispense 175ul of water with just one try, which of the following would be best to use? A. P20 B. P200 C. P100 D. P10 E. P150 45. Which of the following was not used in the first BIO201B lab? A. Serological pipet B. Plastic pipet tips C. Analytical balance D. Water E. Calibration weights 46. The pH of a solution of 10.0nM HCl in pure water is: A. 10.0 B. 9.0 C. 7.0 D. 3.0 E. 8.0

47. If compound A has a molecular weight of 100g/mole, what total volume of water should be added to 10.0mg of compound A to make a 1.0mM solution? A. 100 ml B. 100 liters C. 10.0 ml D. 100ul E. 1.0 ml 48. If you want 10.0 ml of a 2.0mM solution and you have a stock solution that is 10.0mM, what volumes of that 10.0 mM stock solution and water should be mixed? Stock 2.0 ml 1.0 ml 2.0 ml 1.0 ml 0.5 ml Water 8.0 ml 10.0 ml 10.0 ml 9.0 ml 9.5 ml

A. B. C. D. E.

49. The H+ concentration of stirred, distilled water in the BIO201B labs should be about: A. Equal to the [OH-] B. 10-14 M C. 10-7 M D. Between 10-2 and 10-7 M E. Between 10-7 and 10-14 M 50. If 10.0ul of a stock solution was added to 0.99 ml of water, the dilution would be: A. 1:1000 B. 1:10 C. 1:99 D. 1:100 E. 10:100 51. As more and more HCl is added to distilled water: A. The pH should go up B. The [H+] should go down C. The log of the [H+] shouldnt change D. The hydrogen ion concentration should go up E. The chloride concentration should go down 52. The absorbance of a sample was 0.30 at 520nm and the transmittance was 50%. If the transmittance of this sample decreased to 30%, the best guess for the new A520 is: A. 0.08 B. 0.10 C. 0.05 D. 0.50 E. 0.20

53. Beers law (as defined in BIO201B) is: A. The number of beers is proportional to the hangover B. A=kcl C. Salt=KCl D. V=S(F) E. C1V1 = C2V2 54. On a standard curve (like the one we made in BIO201B) the concentration is: A. Proportional to the absorbance in the linear range B. Equal to the absorbance divided by the extinction coefficient at all absorbances, even those outside the linear range C. Equal to the slope times the absorbance D. Always plotted on the Y-axis E. Always determined based on a slope of 1.0 55. The main point of the third lab in BIO201B (Spectrophotometry) is best described as: A. You can tune a piano but you cant tuna fish B. DCIP is an inhibitor of mitochondrial electron transport C. To demonstrate the concepts of absorbance and transmittance and how they relate to a standard curve D. Spectrophotometry can be used to determine the concentration of DCMU E. The pH can also be determined by spectrophotometry 56. A solution with 20 micromoles of DCIP (in the oxidized form) can be completely reduced to DCIPH2 by: A. 40umoles DCMU B. 10umoles of ascorbic acid C. 10.0 ml of 20uM DCMU D. 20micromoles of ascorbic acid E. 100ml of 10uM ascorbic acid 59. A 10.0 ml solution of 50uM DCIP in pure water has: A. 5.0 x 10-7 moles of DCIP B. 500uM DCIP C. 0.5 umoles DCIPH2 D. 25uM DCIPH2 E. 50uM H+ 60. A solution containing 80.0micromoles of DCIP (all in the oxidized form) had an A600 = 1.20. After reduction by an unknown amount of ascorbic acid, the A600 was 0.30. What was the amount of the ascorbic acid added to cause this? A. 20 micromoles B. 10umoles The correct answer is 60umoles. Since this is C. 0.3umoles not an available choice, everyone got credit D. 5.0 ml of 80.0uM for this question E. 10.0 ml of 40.0uM

10

61. The A600 assay for DCIP can be used to estimate all of the following except: A. Ascorbic acid concentration B. Electron transport activity C. The amount of DCIP present in the oxidized form D. Changes in DCIP concentrations over time E. DCIPH2 concentrations without knowing the DCIP concentration 62. After mixing 3.5 ml of diluted chloroplasts with 0.5 ml of stock DCIP, the A600 was 1.00. Following 10 min. in the dark, another absorbance reading was made. What is the most likely A600 after 10 min. in the dark? A. 1.50 B. 1.25 C. 1.00 D. 0.30 E. 0.50 63. The g force in a centrifugation experiment was 10,000 g. What is the expected RCF? A. 1.119 x 10-5 (10,000) = 0.119 B. 10-13 (10,000) = 10-9 C. 1.0 x 104 D. 10-13 E. 1.119 x 10-5 64. Differential centrifugation can best be used to: A. Separate something with a large s value from another with a small s value B. Break open plant cells C. Determine the density of DNA D. Separate SER from RER E. Stimulate electron transport in chloroplasts 65. Live chloroplast electron transport activity was represented in the BIO201B labs by: A. No change in A600 over time with DCIP present B. Increased fluorescence at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP C. A decrease in A600 over time in the light with DCIP added D. A decrease in A600 in the dark over time with DCIP present E. Decreased transmittance at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP added 66. One of the main points of the last lab in BIO201B was: A. Clean up everything, check in everything you used and check out B. Mitochondrial electron transport is inhibited by DCMU C. Inhibition of electron transport can be measured by monitoring in A600 of chloroplasts in the light over time compared to controls D. Time flies like an arrow but fruit flies like bananas E. All experiments work all of the time if they are done with the right equipment 67. Competitive inhibition means: A. The inhibitor binds to the same site on the enzyme as the substrate B. An inhibitor can compete for the light that is usually absorbed by the enzyme C. The enzyme-substrate complex is irreversible D. The inhibitor competes with DCMU for its interactions with DCIP E. Inhibition is cancelled by the competitor

11

68. Which of the following is true? A. Chloroplasts are green because they absorb light in the green wavelengths B. The Teaching Assistants purified the chloroplasts for the students instead of having them do it themselves C. All of the chloroplasts were dead in the last lab (no electron transport) D. Spectrophotometry was not used in the last lab E. The pH of a chloroplast solution was measured in the last lab 69. The procedure used to purify the chloroplasts in the last lab of BIO201B was: A. A cell sorter B. Differential centrifugation C. Density gradient centrifugation D. Homogenization E. A Popiel chloroplast-Omatic 70. The last question on the final should be: A. Pretty easy B. Real easy C. A parting gift from me to you D. A chance to leave BIO201B on a high note E. Counted as correct no matter what answer I give

Note:
Since questions 57 and 58 were missing, there were two less questions on the exam. Therefore, the exam was really only 68 questions instead of 70. The top score was taken as 65 (one person actually got a 68) so the adjustment factor for the final was: 170/65 = 2.615384615 Your adjusted score was the total right (2.61538615)

The scoring service was unable to score the lab questions (28 questions, 70 points) separately from the section 3 part (40 questions, 100 points) so the final score has 170 points total possible. To determine your final letter grade, see page 2 of the syllabus at: http://www.biology.buffalo.edu/courses/bio201/henn_syllabus.html

Answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. B A E A C B A E C

12

10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. E 18. C 19. D 20. E 21. B 22. C 23. E 24. A 25. C 26. E 27. D 28. E 29. D 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. E 44. B 45. E 46. E 47. A 48. A 49. D 50. D 51. D 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. NO QUESTION 58. NO QUESTION 59. A 60. ABCDE

13

61. E 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. C 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. ABCDE

14

Final Exam, BIO201B, 2003

Form 1

Each question has only one correct answer. Choose the one which answers the question best.

1. Which of the following is a necessary part of normal, human meiotic prophase I? A. Diakinesis B. Metaphase plate formation C. DNA replication D. Autosomal monosomy E. Aneuploidy 2. Which of the following is true about differential centrifugation: A. SER and RER vesicles can be easily separated by this method B. The g force on a particle is only dependent upon rpm and not rotor radius C. Particles are separated predominantly on the basis of their relative sizes D. There is always only one centrifugation step needed E. Particles with different densities can be easily separated by this method 3. Which of the following eukaryotic proteins is most likely to be made on free, soluble polysomes? A. None. Eukayotes dont have free polysomes. Only prokaryotes do. B. Histones C. Low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors D. Lysosomal proteases E. Soluble, secreted proteins 4. Which of the following best describes the changes seen during meiosis in humans? A. 2n4x4c to 1n2x2c to 1n1x1c B. 2n2x2c to 2n4x4c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c C. 1n1x1c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c D. 2n4x4c to 2n4x4c to 1n2x2c E. 2n4x4c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c 5. In animal cells, soluble proteins can be made: A. On either RER or SER B. In the cytoplasm only C. On RER only D. In either the cytoplasm, nucleoplasm or lumen of RER E. Either in the cytoplasm or on RER 6. Autoradiography is: A. The way cells dispose of dead mitochondria B. The only way to visualize secretory vesicles C. A way to recognize the location of radioactive compounds in a cell by using photographic film D. The process of adding radioactive compounds to proteins or nucleic acids as they are being made E. A way to chart the types of music stations received in your car

7. One reason why radioactive amino acid pulse-chase procedures were used to study the pathway of secreted proteins in a eukaryotic cell instead of just a pulse alone was: A. The same Dr. Chase that invented the Hershey-Chase experiments also did this work so it was really called pulse-Chase (for Dr. Chase) B. It made it easier to not only see what compartment gained radioactivity but also enabled them to see where it came from (by decreased radioactivity) C. It made it easier to recognize organelles because a continuous pulse would cause them to mutate and change their size, shape and location D. It is actually the chase that carries the radioactivity, not the pulse E. A continuous pulse would have labeled both proteins and nucleotides but the pulse-chase labeled only proteins 8. Which of the following best describes the properties of a typical membrane spanning protein in the plasma membrane? Signal sequence? on nascent protein No on mature protein on nascent protein on mature protein Stop transfer sequence? on nascent protein on mature protein on mature protein No on nascent protein only NLS? No Yes Yes No Yes Glycosylation? on mature protein on nascent protein on mature protein No on nascent protein

A. B. C. D. E.

9. The process of cotranslational translocation is best described as: A. Proteins are made as the ribosomes move down the mRNA B. Translation and transcription happening at the same time C. When the translocon is synthesized at the same time as the SRP D. Moving a protein to the nucleus for further modifications E. Moving a nascent protein across the RER membrane as it is being translated 10. A soluble protein which is found in the nucleus is most likely made: A. Within the endomembrane system B. In the cytoplasm C. By cotranslational translocation D. In the nucleoplasm E. In the nucleolus 11. Which of the following can most efficiently target a protein to be found as a soluble protein in the lysosomes instead of as an integral protein in cis-Golgi membranes? A. If it has an LLS and a stop transfer sequence B. If it does not have a stop transfer sequence but does have mannose-6phosphate on it C. The presence of COPI on the ERGIC vesicles D. The presence of an adaptor protein to prevent clathrin binding E. The lack of glycosylation on the protein

12. How are carbohydrates put on plasma membrane glycoproteins so that they end up facing the outside of the cell? A. They arent because there are no enzymes to do this on the outside of the cell B. The glycotransferase enzymes are on the outside of the cell C. Such proteins are brought into the cell by endocytosis, modified by glycosidases, and recycled back to the surface in their intended conformation D. Cytoplasmic glycosyltransferases build the original core carbohydrates and they are transferred to the proteins in the lumen of the RER. Further glycosylations can occur in the lumen of the golgi. E. Sugars are added, one at a time, to the protein as it faces the inside of the RER and the lumen of the Golgi. These proteins are packaged into vesicles and the vesicles turn inside out before they fuse with the plasma membrane 13. Dolichol is: A. A compound that carries lipids for membrane synthesis in RER B. A sugar C. A protein D. A type of glycosyltransferase enzyme E. A lipid which can bind sugars 14. Which of the following statements is true? A. All newly synthesized proteins in eukaryotes pass through Golgi for further glycosylations and modifications B. Lipids are synthesized in SER but not in RER C. Core complex carbohydrates can be seen facing the cytoplasm, the lumen of the RER, the lumen of the Golgi and the lumen of lysosomes D. The same glycosyltransferases are present in cis-Golgi, medial-Golgi and trans-Golgi E. Complex carbohydrates on glycolipids always face the outside of the cell 15. Proteins can move between cis-Golgi and medial-Golgi by: A. Vesicular-tubular cluster connections B. Transport through ERGIC C. Diffusion through the Golgi lumen D. COPI vesicles E. Clathrin-coated vesicles 16. How can soluble proteins in RER get targeted to go to another compartment? A. They dont. Only membrane proteins move out of the RER B. By clathrin-coating the budding vesicles C. By binding to special transport COP proteins called t-SNARES D. By antibody interactions between transport vesicles and destination membranes E. By binding to transmembrane cargo receptors to sort them into transport vesicles which can be targeted to the proper destination by their externallyfacing surface proteins

17. Where does the ATP come from to power the ATPase on lysosomal membranes? A. From the H+ gradient across the lysosomal membrane B. From soluble ATP in the cytoplasm C. From the lysosomal H+ pump D. From recycled mitochondria after fusion with endomembranes E. From lysosomal acid phosphatases 18. Mannose-6-phosphate receptors can be seen on all of the following except: A. Golgi membranes B. Plasma membranes C. Nuclear membranes D. Clathrin-coated vesicle membranes E. Trans-Golgi network membranes 19. A vesicle type which is least likely to be seen fused with a lysosome is: A. Phagosome B. Autophagosome C. Endosome D. Endocytitic vesicle E. Secretory vesicle 20. When a dead chloroplast is encased in an endomembrane vesicle, exposed to degredative enzymes and acidified, that membrane complex is most accurately called: A. An Autosome B. An autophagosome C. A phagosome D. An autophagolysosome E. An endosome 21. Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system? A. Secretory vesicles B. Endosomes C. Phagosomes D. Lysosomes E. Nuclear membranes 22. In the experiments described in BIO201B, separation of 14N DNA from 15N DNA was done by: A. Separating chromatids B. Differential centrifugation C. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis D. Density gradient centrifugation E. Autoradiography 23. Mitosis is best described as: A. Cell division B. M-phase C. Reduction division D. Nuclear division E. Doubling the amount of DNA and splitting it into two daughter cells

24. The main point of the Meselson-Stahl experiments with 14N and 15N DNA was: A. To show that DNA can replicate in the presence of radioactivity B. To test to see if DNA replication in prokaryotes is semi-conservative or not C. To show that modified bases could still be incorporated into DNA D. To see if 14N DNA could be separated from 15N DNA E. To see how eukaryotic DNA replicates 25. The first round of semi-conservative replication in eukaryotes is best explained as: A. One piece of double-stranded DNA comes apart and each original strand makes a new copy, producing 2 double-stranded hybrids of old and new DNA B. One closed, circular piece of DNA makes a brand new copy piece of doublestranded DNA that is all new DNA C. Producing copies of the DNA that are either hybrids or all new DNA D. BrdU labeling of DNA-RNA hybrids so that they are seen as light chromatids E. Replication of only the euchromatin and not the heterochromatin, producing hybrid DNA that is part old DNA and part new DNA 26. DNA replication is: A. Seen during reduction division B. Also called transcription C. Semi-conservative in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes D. Easily detected by analyzing cesium gradients with eukaryotic DNA after BrdU labeling E. Part of mitosis 27. If a eukaryotic cell went through the first round of DNA replication in the presence of radioactive thymidine, autoradiography of the mitotic chromosomes would most likely show: A. Both chromatids are radioactive B. One chromatid is radioactive and the other is not C. No radioactivity in either chromatid D. Radioactivity in euchromatin but not in heterochromatin E. Many chromosomal defects (base pair changes) due to the radioactivity 28. M-phase is most accurately described as: A. Mitosis B. Nuclear division and cell division C. Meiosis D. The part of interphase where metaphase is seen E. The part of the cell cycle where the most transcription occurs 29. Which of the following does not happen as the cell progresses from G2 to the beginning of mitotic prometaphase? A. Disperse chromatin compacts (condenses) B. The ploidy changes C. Transcription virtually stops D. Cytoplasmic MT polymerization increases E. The level of mitotic cyclins is high in the nucleus

30. Ploidy is: A. A measurement of the mass of DNA B. The number of mitotic chromosomes in a cell C. The number of base pairs of DNA D. The number of copies of complete sets of genetic information in a cell E. Always 2 in humans 31. S-phase is: A. Necessary before meiosis to begin but there is no S-phase between meiosis I and meiosis II. B. The only time that radioactive uridine incorporation can be seen in the cell cycle C. The phase where chromatin compaction begins D. Always the longest phase of the cell cycle in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes E. About 7.5 hours in all normal (not cancerous) human cells 32. In BIO201B, I described the use of pulse-chase to estimate the length of S-phase. Which of the following best describes the way the data was displayed and obtained? Y-axis Detection Method X-axis % radioactive mitotic cells time after G2 geiger counting Time (hours) % radioactive mitotic cells autoradiography time after adding BrdU %light chromatids BrdU staining time after chase (min.) number of mitotic cells exposed silver grains %labeled cells radioactivity time after 3H thymidine

A. B. C. D. E.

33. An example of a reason why chromatin exists in both disperse and compacted (condensed) form is: A. Compaction of chromatin prevents aneuploidy B. To prevent DNA from complexing with proteins during M-phase C. Compaction of DNA is necessary to differentiate euchromatin from heterochromatin D. Separation of chromatin is easier when it is compacted and replication is easier when it is disperse E. As soon as the amount of DNA doubles, it must be immediately compacted to fit into the nucleus 34. How can you tell if a soluble factor from an S-phase cell stimulates a G1 phase liver cell to proceed into S-phase after microinjection of S-phase cytoplasm into that G1 cell? A. There would be a large increase in the DNA content of the nucleus B. The cell would go from 1n1x1c to 2n2x2c C. The cell would start to divide the DNA it has in half D. The chromatin would be seen starting to compact E. The cell would skip G2 and go right into cell division 35. Haploidization happens in: A. Diplotene B. Pachytene C. Meiosis I (the first meiotic division) D. Meiosis II (the second meiotic division) E. Diakinesis

36. The result of cytokinesis is: A. Movement of cytoplasm into the nucleus B. Cells with 23 chromatids in each cell after meiosis I C. Two diploid daughter cells, each with 2n1x1c after meiosis I D. Nuclear division without cell division in meiosis I E. Two G1 daughter cells with 46 pieces of disperse chromatin each after mitosis in humans 37. The main difference between mitotic prometaphase and mitotic anaphase A is that: A. Sister chromatids are paired together in prometaphase but not in anaphase A B. Mitotic chromosomes are syntelic in anaphase A but not in prometaphase C. There is still a complete (intact) nuclear membrane throughout prometaphase but it is gone in anaphase A D. There is half as much DNA in the cell in anaphase A compared to prometaphase E. Anaphase comes before prometaphase in mitosis 38. In general, mitotic chromosomal movements during mitosis can involve all of the following except: A. Dynein and kinesin-based movements near the plus ends of microtubules connected to kinetochores B. Actin-based movements along chromosomal spindle fibers C. Cytoplasmic MT shrinking and growing D. Movements of chromosomes along MTs by kinesin-related motors E. Microtubule sliding 39. Amphitelic orientation of sister chromatids is seen: A. In both mitosis and meiosis II B. Only in mitosis, not in meiosis C. Only in meiosis, not in mitosis D. In pachytene E. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes 40. Meiosis in humans is: A. Equational division with one S-phase in between meiosis I and meiosis II B. Reduction division to decrease both ploidy and DNA amount C. Two nuclear divisions with no cytokinesis D. Sexual reproduction as a result of sperm uniting with an egg E. The only way to decrease the number of base pairs of DNA in a cell

41. Which of the following best describes the main point of the first lab? A. To learn safety procedures and how dispose of chemicals B. Check in, purchase a lab kit and learn how to write a detailed lab report C. To learn how to determine the accuracy and precision when dispensing volumes D. To learn how to purify chloroplasts E. To introduce all of the lab procedures for all six labs 42. If a p100 pipetman showed the setting below, what weight of water should it dispense if the accuracy is 1%?

1 0 0
A. B. C. D. E. Between 90 and 110mg Between 99 and 101 g Between 90 and 110 g Between 99 and 101mg Between 99 and 101ng

43. If the digital scale on the digital balance (used in BIO201B) read 0.13, that means the weight on it is: A. 13.0mg B. 0.13kg C. 130ng D. 130ul E. 130mg 44. If you wanted to dispense 175ul of water with just one try, which of the following would be best to use? A. P20 B. P200 C. P100 D. P10 E. P150 45. Which of the following was not used in the first BIO201B lab? A. Serological pipet B. Plastic pipet tips C. Analytical balance D. Water E. Calibration weights 46. The pH of a solution of 10.0nM HCl in pure water is: A. 10.0 B. 9.0 C. 7.0 D. 3.0 E. 8.0

47. If compound A has a molecular weight of 100g/mole, what total volume of water should be added to 10.0mg of compound A to make a 1.0mM solution? A. 100 ml B. 100 liters C. 10.0 ml D. 100ul E. 1.0 ml 48. If you want 10.0 ml of a 2.0mM solution and you have a stock solution that is 10.0mM, what volumes of that 10.0 mM stock solution and water should be mixed? Stock 2.0 ml 1.0 ml 2.0 ml 1.0 ml 0.5 ml Water 8.0 ml 10.0 ml 10.0 ml 9.0 ml 9.5 ml

A. B. C. D. E.

49. The H+ concentration of stirred, distilled water in the BIO201B labs should be about: A. Equal to the [OH-] B. 10-14 M C. 10-7 M D. Between 10-2 and 10-7 M E. Between 10-7 and 10-14 M 50. If 10.0ul of a stock solution was added to 0.99 ml of water, the dilution would be: A. 1:1000 B. 1:10 C. 1:99 D. 1:100 E. 10:100 51. As more and more HCl is added to distilled water: A. The pH should go up B. The [H+] should go down C. The log of the [H+] shouldnt change D. The hydrogen ion concentration should go up E. The chloride concentration should go down 52. The absorbance of a sample was 0.30 at 520nm and the transmittance was 50%. If the transmittance of this sample decreased to 30%, the best guess for the new A520 is: A. 0.08 B. 0.10 C. 0.05 D. 0.50 E. 0.20

53. Beers law (as defined in BIO201B) is: A. The number of beers is proportional to the hangover B. A=kcl C. Salt=KCl D. V=S(F) E. C1V1 = C2V2 54. On a standard curve (like the one we made in BIO201B) the concentration is: A. Proportional to the absorbance in the linear range B. Equal to the absorbance divided by the extinction coefficient at all absorbances, even those outside the linear range C. Equal to the slope times the absorbance D. Always plotted on the Y-axis E. Always determined based on a slope of 1.0 55. The main point of the third lab in BIO201B (Spectrophotometry) is best described as: A. You can tune a piano but you cant tuna fish B. DCIP is an inhibitor of mitochondrial electron transport C. To demonstrate the concepts of absorbance and transmittance and how they relate to a standard curve D. Spectrophotometry can be used to determine the concentration of DCMU E. The pH can also be determined by spectrophotometry 56. A solution with 20 micromoles of DCIP (in the oxidized form) can be completely reduced to DCIPH2 by: A. 40umoles DCMU B. 10umoles of ascorbic acid C. 10.0 ml of 20uM DCMU D. 20micromoles of ascorbic acid E. 100ml of 10uM ascorbic acid 59. A 10.0 ml solution of 50uM DCIP in pure water has: A. 5.0 x 10-7 moles of DCIP B. 500uM DCIP C. 0.5 umoles DCIPH2 D. 25uM DCIPH2 E. 50uM H+ 60. A solution containing 80.0micromoles of DCIP (all in the oxidized form) had an A600 = 1.20. After reduction by an unknown amount of ascorbic acid, the A600 was 0.30. What was the amount of the ascorbic acid added to cause this? A. 20 micromoles B. 10umoles The correct answer is 60umoles. Since this answer C. 0.3umoles is not available, everyone got credit D. 5.0 ml of 80.0uM E. 10.0 ml of 40.0uM

10

61. The A600 assay for DCIP can be used to estimate all of the following except: A. Ascorbic acid concentration B. Electron transport activity C. The amount of DCIP present in the oxidized form D. Changes in DCIP concentrations over time E. DCIPH2 concentrations without knowing the DCIP concentration 62. After mixing 3.5 ml of diluted chloroplasts with 0.5 ml of stock DCIP, the A600 was 1.00. Following 10 min. in the dark, another absorbance reading was made. What is the most likely A600 after 10 min. in the dark? A. 1.50 B. 1.25 C. 1.00 D. 0.30 E. 0.50 63. The g force in a centrifugation experiment was 10,000 g. What is the expected RCF? A. 1.119 x 10-5 (10,000) = 0.119 B. 10-13 (10,000) = 10-9 C. 1.0 x 104 D. 10-13 E. 1.119 x 10-5 64. Differential centrifugation can best be used to: A. Separate something with a large s value from another with a small s value B. Break open plant cells C. Determine the density of DNA D. Separate SER from RER E. Stimulate electron transport in chloroplasts 65. Live chloroplast electron transport activity was represented in the BIO201B labs by: A. No change in A600 over time with DCIP present B. Increased fluorescence at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP C. A decrease in A600 over time in the light with DCIP added D. A decrease in A600 in the dark over time with DCIP present E. Decreased transmittance at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP added 66. One of the main points of the last lab in BIO201B was: A. Clean up everything, check in everything you used and check out B. Mitochondrial electron transport is inhibited by DCMU C. Inhibition of electron transport can be measured by monitoring in A600 of chloroplasts in the light over time compared to controls D. Time flies like an arrow but fruit flies like bananas E. All experiments work all of the time if they are done with the right equipment 67. Competitive inhibition means: A. The inhibitor binds to the same site on the enzyme as the substrate B. An inhibitor can compete for the light that is usually absorbed by the enzyme C. The enzyme-substrate complex is irreversible D. The inhibitor competes with DCMU for its interactions with DCIP E. Inhibition is cancelled by the competitor

11

68. Which of the following is true? A. Chloroplasts are green because they absorb light in the green wavelengths B. The Teaching Assistants purified the chloroplasts for the students instead of having them do it themselves C. All of the chloroplasts were dead in the last lab (no electron transport) D. Spectrophotometry was not used in the last lab E. The pH of a chloroplast solution was measured in the last lab 69. The procedure used to purify the chloroplasts in the last lab of BIO201B was: A. A cell sorter B. Differential centrifugation C. Density gradient centrifugation D. Homogenization E. A Popiel chloroplast-Omatic 70. The last question on the final should be: A. Pretty easy B. Real easy C. A parting gift from me to you D. A chance to leave BIO201B on a high note E. Counted as correct no matter what answer I give

Note:
Since questions 57 and 58 were missing, there were two less questions on the exam. Therefore, the exam was really only 68 questions instead of 70. The top score was taken as 65 (one person actually got a 68) so the adjustment factor for the final was: 170/65 = 2.615384615 Your adjusted score was the total right (2.61538615)

The scoring service was unable to score the lab questions (28 questions, 70 points) separately from the section 3 part (40 questions, 100 points) so the final score has 170 points total possible. To determine your final letter grade, see page 2 of the syllabus at: http://www.biology.buffalo.edu/courses/bio201/henn_syllabus.html

ANSWERS:
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. E 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. E 10. B

12

11. B 12. D 13. E 14. C 15. D 16. E 17. B 18. C 19. E 20. D 21. E 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C 36. E 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. D 43. E 44. B 45. E 46. E 47. A 48. A 49. D 50. D 51. D 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. NO QUESTION 58. NO QUESTION 59. A 60. ABCDE 61. E

13

62. C 63. C 64. A 65. C 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. ABCDE

14

Final Exam, BIO201B, 2004

Form 1

Each question has only one correct answer. Choose the one which answers the question best.

1. How can soluble proteins in RER get targeted to go to another compartment? A. They dont. Only membrane proteins move out of the RER B. By clathrin-coating the budding vesicles C. By binding to special transport COP proteins called t-SNARES D. By antibody interactions between transport vesicles and destination membranes E. By binding to transmembrane cargo receptors to sort them into transport vesicles which can be targeted to the proper destination by their externallyfacing surface proteins 2. What was the point of using a pulse-chase instead of just a pulse of radioactive amino acids to study the endosomal pathway in a eukaryotic cell? A. A long pulse would cause mutations and change the look of the cell over the time course of the experiment B. The original pulse procedure was modified by Dr. Chase (of Hershey-Chase fame) so it was originally called pulse-Chase. C. Since the pulse of radioactive amino acids was hot, the chase was necessary to cool the cell down so it didnt die D. A long pulse would make so many of the proteins radioactive that it would be difficult to follow the pathway of just the newly synthesized proteins E. A continuous pulse would have labeled both soluble and membrane bound proteins but the pulse-chase labeled only soluble proteins 3. Which of the following are most likely to be seen on a membrane spanning protein? A. A signal sequence but no stop-transfer sequence B. A stop transfer sequence and a signal sequence C. Mannose-6-phosphate D. A clathrin binding site E. No signal sequence but a long stretch of hydrophobic amino acids 4. The process of cotranslational translocation is best described as: A. Proteins are made as the ribosomes move down the mRNA B. Translation and transcription happening at the same time C. When the translocon is synthesized at the same time as the SRP D. Moving a protein to the nucleus for further modifications E. Moving a nascent protein across the RER membrane as it is being translated 5. Which of the following is a necessary part of normal, human meiotic prophase I? A. Condensation of chromatin B. Secondary non-disjunction C. DNA replication D. Independent assortment E. Aneuploidy

6. Disperse (not compacted), eukaryotic DNA is seen in: A. Tetrads B. Zygotene C. Mitotic anaphase D. All of interphase E. G1 but not in G2 7. Which of the following is true? A. The pH inside lysosomes is about 7.0. B. Clathrin helps to pinch off membranes to form vesicles from both the plasma membrane and trans golgi network (TGN) C. Soluble cargo inside the endomembrane system does not bind to receptors until they reach the TGN D. Soluble proteins destined to remain inside the RER are targeted to stay there by stop transfer sequences E. There is only one kind of v-SNARE but many kinds of t-SNAREs. 8. Which of the following best describes the changes seen during spermatogenesis (meiosis) in humans? A. 2n4x4c to 1n2x2c to 1n1x1c B. 2n4x4c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c C. 2n2x2c to 2n4x4c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c D. 1n1x1c to 2n2x2c to 1n1x1c E. 2n4x4c to 2n4x4c to 1n2x2c 9. In animal cells, soluble proteins can be made: A. On either RER or SER B. Either in the cytoplasm or on RER C. In the cytoplasm only D. On RER only E. In either the cytoplasm, nucleoplasm or lumen of RER 10. Autoradiography is: A. The process of adding radioactive compounds to proteins or nucleic acids as they are being made B. The way cells dispose of dead mitochondria C. The only way to visualize secretory vesicles D. A way to recognize the location of radioactive compounds in a cell by using photographic film E. A way to X-ray cells to identify dense structures 11. The main difference between mitotic prophase and mitotic anaphase B is that: A. Sister chromatids are held together in prophase but not in anaphase B B. Mitotic chromosomes are syntelic in anaphase B but not in prophase C. The nuclear envelope is gone in prophase but it returns completely in anaphase B D. There is half as much DNA in the cell in anaphase B compared to prophase E. Anaphase B does not involve motor proteins but prophase does

12. In general, mitotic chromosomal movements during prometaphase can involve all of the following except: A. Dynein and kinesin-based movements near the minus ends of microtubules connected to kinetochores B. Microtubule sliding C. Cytoplasmic MT dynamic instability D. Movements of chromosomes as cargo along MTs rails by kinesin-related motors E. Movement of chromosomes near the plus ends of chromosomal MTs 13. Amphitelic orientation of sister chromatids is seen: A. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes B. In both mitosis and meiosis II C. Only in mitosis, not in meiosis D. Only in meiosis, not in mitosis E. In pachytene 14. Meiosis in humans is: A. Equational division with one S-phase in between meiosis I and meiosis II B. Common in cells like liver cells and white blood cells C. Reduction division to decrease both ploidy and DNA amount D. Sexual reproduction as a result of sperm uniting with an egg E. A reduction in ploidy but not DNA amount 15. A soluble protein which is found in the nucleus is most likely made: A. Within the endomembrane system B. In the nucleolus C. In the cytoplasm D. By cotranslational translocation E. In the nucleoplasm 16. Complex carbohydrates for glycoproteins can be assembled in all of the following except: A. RER lumen B. Cytoplasm C. Cis-golgi lumen D. Lysosome lumen E. Trans-golgi lumen 17. How are carbohydrates initially put on plasma membrane glycoproteins so that these carbohydrates end up facing the outside of the cell? A. They arent because there are no enzymes to do this on the outside of the cell B. The glycotransferase enzymes are on the outside of the cell C. Such proteins are brought into the cell by endocytosis, modified by glycosidases, and recycled back to the surface in their intended conformation D. Core carbohydrates are transferred to the proteins in the lumen of the RER. E. Sugars are added, one at a time, to the protein as it faces the inside of the RER and the lumen of the Golgi. These proteins are packaged into vesicles and the vesicles turn inside out before they fuse with the plasma membrane

18. Dolichol is: A. A lipid which can bind carbohydrates B. A compound that carries lipids for membrane synthesis in RER C. A sugar D. A protein E. A type of glycosyltransferase enzyme 19. Which of the following statements is false? A. Some newly synthesized proteins in eukaryotes pass through Golgi for further glycosylations and modifications B. Lipids can be synthesized in RER C. Core complex carbohydrates can be seen facing the cytoplasm, the lumen of the RER, the lumen of the Golgi and the lumen of lysosomes D. The same glycosyltransferases are present in cis-Golgi, medial-Golgi and trans-Golgi E. Complex carbohydrates on glycolipids do not always face the cytoplasm 20. One way to tell if a human cell is in meiosis or mitosis is: A. Sister chromatids can be syntelic in meiosis but not in mitosis B. There is always twice as much DNA in mitotic cells compared to meiotic cells C. There is no telophase in meiosis but there is in mitosis D. Cells are always diploid in mitosis but all meiotic cells are haploid E. There is a reduction in the amount of DNA during mitosis but not in meiosis 21. Where does the ATP come from to power the ATPase on lysosomal membranes? A. From lysosomal acid phosphatases B. From the H+ gradient across the lysosomal membrane C. From soluble ATP in the cytoplasm D. From the lysosomal H+ pump E. From recycled mitochondria after fusion with endomembranes 22. Mannose-6-phosphate receptors can be seen on all of the following except: A. Golgi membranes B. Plasma membranes C. Nuclear membranes D. Clathrin-coated vesicle membranes E. Trans-Golgi network membranes 23. An autophagolysosome is: A. A vesicle for bringing food into the cell from the outside and digesting it B. An acidic vesicle for breaking down dead mitochondria C. An exocytotic vesicle D. A type of ERGIC vesicle E. An endocytotic vesicle 24. Haploidization happens in: A. Diplotene B. Pachytene C. Meiosis II (the second meiotic division) D. Meiosis I (the first meiotic division) E. Diakinesis

25. How can you tell if a soluble factor from an S-phase cell stimulates a G1 phase liver cell to proceed into S-phase after microinjection of S-phase cytoplasm into that G1 cell? A. The cell would go from 1n1x1c to 2n2x2c B. There would be a large increase in the DNA content of the nucleus C. The cell would start to divide the DNA it has in half D. The chromatin would be seen starting to compact E. The cell would skip G2 and go right into cell division 26. The result of cytokinesis is: A. Movement of cytoplasm into the nucleus B. Cells with 23 chromatids in each cell after meiosis I C. Two diploid daughter cells, each with 2n1x1c after meiosis II D. Mitosis E. Two G1 daughter cells with 46 pieces of disperse chromatin after each mitosis in humans 27. A main difference between gamete production in male and female humans is: A. In female gamete development, differentiation occurs before meiosis while male gametes go through meiosis before differentiation B. The leptotene and zygotene phases are much longer during sperm development than in egg development C. Independent assortment of genes only occurs in sperm, not in eggs D. Before fertilization, sperm go through meiosis I and meiosis II but eggs only go through meiosis I E. There is no DNA replication during meiosis in egg production but there is during sperm production 28. Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system? A. Nuclear envelope membranes B. Secretory vesicles C. Endosomes D. Phagosomes E. Lysosomes 29. In the experiments described in BIO201B, separation of 14N DNA from 15N DNA was done by: A. Autoradiography B. Separating chromatids C. Differential centrifugation D. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis E. Density gradient centrifugation 30. Mitosis is best described as: A. Cell division B. M-phase C. Reduction division D. Nuclear division E. Doubling the amount of DNA and splitting it into two daughter cells

31. The main point of the Meselson-Stahl experiments with 14N and 15N DNA was: A. To show that DNA can replicate in the presence of radioactivity B. To test to see if DNA replication in prokaryotes is semi-conservative or not C. To show that modified bases could still be incorporated into DNA D. To see if 14N DNA could be separated from 15N DNA E. To see how eukaryotic DNA replicates 32. DNA replication is: A. Seen during meiosis B. Also called transcription C. Semi-conservative in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes D. Stopped by the addition of BrdU E. Part of mitosis 33. If a eukaryotic cell went through the first round of DNA replication in the presence of radioactive thymidine, autoradiography of the mitotic chromosomes would most likely show: A. Both chromatids are radioactive B. One chromatid is radioactive and the other is not C. No radioactivity in either chromatid D. Radioactivity in euchromatin but not in heterochromatin E. Many chromosomal defects (base pair changes) due to the radioactivity 34. M-phase is most accurately described as: A. Mitosis B. Nuclear division and cell division C. Meiosis D. The part of interphase where metaphase is seen E. The part of the cell cycle where the most transcription occurs 35. Which of the following does not happen as the cell progresses from G2 to the beginning of mitotic prometaphase? A. Disperse chromatin compacts (condenses) B. The ploidy changes C. Transcription virtually stops D. Cytoplasmic MT polymerization increases E. The level of mitotic cyclins is high in the nucleus 36. In BIO201B, I described the use of pulse-chase to estimate the length of S-phase. Which of the following best describes the way the data was displayed and obtained? Y-axis Detection Method X-axis % radioactive mitotic cells time after G2 geiger counting Time (hours) % radioactive mitotic cells autoradiography time after adding BrdU %light chromatids BrdU staining time after chase (min.) number of mitotic cells exposed silver grains %labeled cells radioactivity time after 3H thymidine

A. B. C. D. E.

37. S-phase is: A. The phase where chromatin compaction begins B. Necessary before meiosis to begin but there is no S-phase between meiosis I and meiosis II. C. The only time that radioactive uridine incorporation (metabolic labeling) can be seen in the cell cycle D. Always the longest phase of the cell cycle in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes E. About 7.5 hours in all normal (not cancerous) human cells 38. Ploidy is: A. A measurement of the mass of DNA B. The number of mitotic chromosomes in a cell C. The number of base pairs of DNA D. The number of copies of complete sets of genetic information in a cell E. Always 2 in humans 39. An example of a reason why chromatin exists in both disperse and compacted (condensed) form is: A. Compaction of chromatin prevents aneuploidy B. To prevent DNA from complexing with proteins during M-phase C. Compaction of DNA is necessary to differentiate euchromatin from heterochromatin D. Separation of chromatin is easier when it is compacted and replication is easier when it is disperse E. As soon as the amount of DNA doubles, it must be immediately compacted to fit into the nucleus 40. The synaptonemal complex forms during A. Meiotic prophase B. Pre-meiotic S-phase C. Mitosis D. Synaptogenesis in neuronal development E. Pre-meiotic G2 phase

Lab Questions:
41. Which of the following best describes the main point of the first lab? A. To learn radioactivity safety procedures and how dispose of chemicals B. Check in, purchase a lab kit and learn how to write a detailed lab report C. To learn how to determine the accuracy and precision when dispensing volumes D. To learn how to purify chloroplasts E. To introduce all of the lab procedures for all twelve labs

42. If a p100 pipetman showed the setting below, what weight of water should it dispense if the accuracy is 1%?

1 0 0
A. B. C. D. E. Between 90 and 110mg Between 99 and 101 g Between 90 and 110 g Between 99 and 101mg Between 99 and 101ng

43. If the digital scale on the digital balance (used in BIO201B) read 0.03, that means the weight on it is: A. 3.0mg B. 0.3kg C. 30ng D. 30ul E. 30mg 44. If you wanted to dispense 195ul of water with just one try, which of the following would be best to use? A. P20 B. P200 C. P100 D. P10 E. P150 45. Which of the following was not used in the first BIO201B lab? A. Serological pipet B. Plastic pipet tips C. Analytical balance D. Water E. Calibration weights 46. If the pH of a solution is 9.0, the hydrogen ion concentration is: A. 10.0 x 10-9M B. 1.0nM C. 9.0mM D. 9.0M E. 9.0 x 10-9M 47. If compound A has a molecular weight of 100g/mole, what total volume of water should be added to 10.0g of compound A to make a 10.0mM solution? A. 100 ml B. 100 liters C. 10.0 ml D. 100ul E. 1.0 ml

48. If you want 10.0 ml of a 1.0mM solution and you have a stock solution that is 10.0mM, what volumes of that 10.0 mM stock solution and water should be mixed? Stock 2.0 ml 1.0 ml 2.0 ml 1.0 ml 0.5 ml Water 8.0 ml 10.0 ml 10.0 ml 9.0 ml 9.5 ml

A. B. C. D. E.

49. The H+ concentration of stirred, distilled water in the BIO201B labs should be about: A. Between 10-7 and 10-14 M B. Equal to the [OH-] C. 10-14 M D. 10-7 M E. Between 10-2 and 10-7 M 50. If 1.0ul of a stock solution was added to 0.099 ml of water, the dilution would be: A. 1:1000 B. 1:10 C. 1:99 D. 1:100 E. 10:100 51. As more and more NaOH is added to distilled water: A. The pH should go up B. The [Na+] should go down C. The log of the [H+] shouldnt change D. The hydrogen ion concentration should go up E. The solution should become less alkaline 52. The absorbance of a sample was 0.30 at 520nm when the concentration was 1.0mM. This was within the linear range. After this sample was diluted, the new A520 was 0.15. The concentration of the diluted sample is: A. 0.15mM B. 0.10mM C. 0.05mM D. 0.5mM E. 2.0mM 53. Beers law (as defined in BIO201B) is: A. The number of beers is proportional to the hangover B. A=kcl C. Salt=KCl D. V=S(F) E. C1V1 = C2V2

54. On a standard curve (like the one we made in BIO201B) the concentration is: A. Proportional to the absorbance only within the linear range B. Equal to the absorbance divided by the extinction coefficient at all absorbances, even those outside the linear range C. Equal to the slope times the absorbance D. Always plotted on the Y-axis E. Always determined based on a slope of 1.0 55. The main point of the third lab in BIO201B (Spectrophotometry) is best described as: A. You can tune a piano but you cant tuna fish B. DCIP is an inhibitor of mitochondrial electron transport C. To demonstrate the concepts of absorbance and transmittance and how they relate to a standard curve D. Spectrophotometry can be used to determine the concentration of DCMU E. The pH can also be determined by spectrophotometry 56. A solution with 2.0 micromoles of DCIP (in the oxidized form) can be completely reduced to DCIPH2 by: A. Tuesday at 5:00 B. 1.0micromole of ascorbic acid C. 2.0micromoles of ascorbic acid D. 2.0micromoles of DCMU E. 4.0 micromoles of ascorbic acid 57. The way to tell if an inhibitor is effective in the last chloroplast lab (lab#6) is: A. The A600 will decrease over time in the light for the sample with the inhibitor B. The A600 of the sample in the light (for 15 min.) will decrease as the concentration of the inhibitor increases C. The A600 will decrease in the control (no inhibitor) sample over time in the light but it will stay the same when the inhibitor is added D. The A600 will go up in the sample with the inhibitor as a function of time in the light E. The will go up in the sample as the concentration of the inhibitor is increased, even in the dark 58. A 10.0 ml solution of 50uM DCMU in pure water has: A. 5.0 x 10-7 moles of DCMU B. 500uM DCMU C. 0.5 umoles DCMU D. 25uM DCMU E. 50uM H+ 59. A solution containing 80.0micromoles of DCIP (all in the oxidized form) had an A600 = 1.20 (in the linear range). After reduction by an unknown amount of ascorbic acid, the A600 was 0.60. What was the amount of the ascorbic acid added to cause this? A. 20 micromoles B. 10umoles C. 0.5umoles D. 40.0 micromoles E. 8.0micromoles

10

60. How does a spectrophotometer quantitate absorbance? A. By measuring the wavelengths of light absorbed by a sample B. By digitally determining the l value in the equation A = kCl C. By rapidly comparing the amount of light emitted from a sample with a deuterium light source with that of a tungsten light source D. By measuring the amount of light transmitted through a sample and converting it to an absorbance value E. By moving a slit until the maximum amount of light is seen transmitted through the sample 61. The A600 assay for DCIP can be used to estimate all of the following except: A. Ascorbic acid concentration B. Electron transport activity in live chloroplasts C. The amount of DCIP present in the oxidized form D. Changes in the concentration of DCIP concentrations over time E. The concentration of PSI complexes in a chloroplast preparation 62. After mixing 3.5 ml of diluted chloroplasts with 0.5 ml of stock DCIP, the A600 was 1.00. Following 10 min. in the dark, another absorbance reading was made. What is the most likely A600 after 10 min. in the dark? A. 1.50 B. 1.25 C. 1.00 D. 0.30 E. 0.50 63. The cuvettes used in the BIO201B were: A. Plastic, with one flat side B. Special glass test tubes C. Quartz, capable of holding 3.0 ml total D. Disposable E. Rectangular 64. Absorbance is best defined as: A. A = log T/1 B. A = -log T C. A = kCl D. A = -log 1/T E. A = kT 65. Live chloroplast electron transport activity was represented in the BIO201B labs by: A. Decreased transmittance at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP added B. No change in A600 over time with DCIP present C. Increased fluorescence at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP D. A decrease in A600 over time in the light with DCIP added E. A decrease in A600 in the dark over time with DCIP present

11

66. One of the main points of the last lab in BIO201B was: A. Chloroplasts contain ascorbic acid B. DCMU is a competitive inhibitor for DCIP binding C. Inhibition of chloroplast electron transport can be measured by monitoring the A600 of DCIP as a function of time in the light with and without the inhibitor D. Time flies like an arrow but fruit flies like bananas E. The number of electrons passed per photon of light absorbed can be easily calculated in a lab like the last BIO201B lab 67. Competitive inhibition means: A. Inhibition is cancelled by the competitor B. The inhibitor binds to the same site on the enzyme as the substrate C. An inhibitor can compete for the light that is usually absorbed by the enzyme D. The enzyme-substrate complex is irreversible E. The inhibitor competes with DCMU for its interactions with DCIP 68. Which of the following is true? A. Chloroplasts are green because they absorb light in the green wavelengths B. The Teaching Assistants purified the chloroplasts for the students instead of having them do it themselves C. All of the chloroplasts were dead in the last lab (no electron transport) D. Spectrophotometry was not used in the last lab E. The pH of a chloroplast solution was measured in the last lab 69. The procedure used to purify the chloroplasts in the last lab of BIO201B was: A. A cell sorter B. Differential centrifugation C. Density gradient centrifugation D. Homogenization E. A Popiel chloroplast-Omatic 70. The last question on the final should be: A. Pretty easy B. Real easy C. A parting gift from me to you D. The same as the last question on last years final E. Counted as correct no matter what answer I give F. Cleveland

Answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. E D B E A D B A

12

9. B 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. E 27. A 28. A 29. E 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. A 41. C 42. D 43. E 44. B 45. E 46. B 47. ALL ANSWERS ACCEPTED 48. D 49. E 50. D 51. A 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. C 57. C 58. A or C 59. D

13

60. D 61. E 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. B 68. B 69. B 70. F

14

Final Exam. BIO201. Summer 2004

Chose the one, best answer answer for each question 1. Chromosomal microtubules in mitotic prometaphase connect (with nothing else in between): A. Centrioles to chromatids B. Pericentriolar material to kinetochores C. Pericentriolar material to DNA D. Centrioles to DNA E. Centrosomes to centromeres 2. A difference between SER and RER is: A. Detoxification happens in RER but not SER B. Gluconeogenesis is in RER but not SER C. RER contains RNA but SER doesnt D. The density of SER is greater than that of RER E. Bacteria have SER but no RER 3. In general, movements of mitotic chromosomes and chromatids during mitosis can involve all of the following except: A. Dynein-based movements along chromosomal spindle fibers B. Cytoplasmic MT shrinking and growing C. Movements of chromosomes along MTs by kinesin-related motors D. Movement of chromosomes along astral or polar microtubules E. Microtubule sliding 4. You want to separate two types of bacteria. Type A are spherical, 1um in diameter and have an overall positive charge on their outside. Type B are spherical, 3um in diameter, negatively charged and the same density as Type A. Which is the best way to separate them? A. SDS-PAGE B. Differential centrifugation C. The Weisenburg method D. Density centrifugation E. Cesium gradients like those used in the Hershey-Chase experiments 5. Amphitelic orientation of sister chromatids is seen: A. Only in meiosis, not in mitosis B. In both mitosis and meiosis II C. Only in mitosis, not in meiosis D. In pachytene phase of meiosis E. In meiosis I but not meiosis II 6. A free, eukaryotic polysome is: A. Used to transcribe nascent proteins B. Many ribosomes on a piece of mRNA C. A polymer of mature proteins D. The only way to make soluble proteins E. Comprised of many types of proteins but only one type of RNA

7. You have two test tubes without labels. One contains golgi vesicles and the other contains lysosomes. If you could only use one of the following procedures, what is the best way to tell which is which? A. Use differential centrifugation B. Density gradient centrifugation C. Electrophoresis of the vesicles D. Assay each tube for glycotransferase and phospholipase activities E. See which tube is radioactive after growing the cells on radioactive uridine 8. How are carbohydrates put on plasma membrane glycoproteins so that they end up facing the outside of the cell? A. They are transferred from glycolipids to proteins in the golgi B. By glycotransferase enzymes that are on the outside of the cell C. Cytoplasmic glycosyltransferases build the original core carbohydrates and they are transferred to the proteins in the lumen of the RER. Further glycosylations can occur in the lumen of the golgi. D. Such proteins are brought into the cell by endocytosis, modified by glycosidases, and recycled back to the surface in their intended conformation E. Sugars are first added, one at a time, to the protein as it faces the inside of the RER and the lumen of the Golgi. These proteins are packaged into vesicles and the vesicles turn inside out before they fuse with the plasma membrane 9. During cotranslational translocation, what is translocated? A. Polysomes B. The SRP C. The nascent protein D. The NLS E. mRNA 10. Which of the following is least likely to be made by cotranslational translocation? A. A lysosomal enzyme B. A translocon C. A mannose-6-phosphate receptor D. A secreted protein E. A histone 11. Which of the following is not a likely fate (final destination) of a protein in the endomembrane system? A. In chromatin B. Secreted C. Soluble in the lumen of the RER D. Membrane receptor on the plasma membrane E. Transmembrane cargo receptor in trans golgi 12. Proteins can move between cis-Golgi and medial-Golgi by: A. Vesicular-tubular cluster connections B. COPI vesicles C. Transport through ERGIC D. Diffusion through the Golgi lumen E. Clathrin-coated vesicles

13. A protein which is soluble in the lumen of lysosomes was most likely translated: A. On cytoplasmic polysomes B. Without the need for an SRP or signal sequence C. In a very low pH environment (<pH=7.0) D. Partially on cytoplasmic polysomes but mostly on RER E. Without the need for GTP hydrolysis 14. A vesicle type which is least likely to be seen fused with a lysosome is: A. Phagosome B. Autophagosome C. Endosome D. Secretory vesicle E. Endocytotic vesicle 15. Haploidization happens in: A. Pachytene B. Meiosis I (the first meiotic division) C. Diakinesis D. Meiosis II (the second meiotic division) E. Diplotene 16. The main difference between the synthesis of a soluble and membrane bound protein is: A. The membrane bound protein has both a signal sequence and a stop transfer sequence B. The membrane bound protein has a stop transfer sequence only, no signal sequence C. SRP binding is not necessary for a membrane bound protein but it is for a soluble protein D. No SRP receptor is necessary for a membrane bound protein but it is for a soluble protein E. There are more charged amino acids put on a membrane protein than on a soluble one 17. To make the 14 sugar core complex carbohydrates, the first sugars are added oneat-a-time to: A. The nascent protein on the side facing the lumen of the ER B. The mature protein on the side facing the cytoplasm C. A membrane lipid, facing the cytoplasm D. A transmembrane protein that acts as a carrier for the complex carbohydrates E. The growing sugar tree in the golgi 18. How can soluble proteins in RER get targeted to go to another compartment? A. They dont. Only membrane proteins move out of the RER B. By binding to vesicle COP proteins called t-SNARES C. By antibody interactions between transport vesicles and destination membranes D. By binding to transmembrane cargo receptors to sort them into transport vesicles which can be targeted to the proper destination by their externallyfacing surface proteins E. By clathrin-coating the budding vesicles

19. Which of the following statements is false? A. V-SNAREs on vesicles only bind to specific t-SNAREs on target membranes B. The proton concentration is higher on the inside of lysosomes than on the outside of them C. Mannose-6-phosphate can be seen on proteins in trans-golgi but not in clathrin-coated vesicles D. Receptor-mediated endocytosis is a way to re-cycle plasma membrane receptors E. An early autophagolysosome may contain some proteins that were originally made on cytoplasmic polysomes 20. Which of the following statements is true? A. Clathrin-coated vesicles are part of the ERGIC B. The core complex carbohydrates can be transferred to a protein in the lumen of the RER but not to a lipid C. The cis and trans golgi both contain the same glycotransferase enzymes D. An example of a protein that binds to the lumen side of a transmembrane cargo receptor is COPII E. In general, the complex carbohydrates on a mature glycoprotein will never face the cytoplasm 21. In BIO201, we described receptors in all of the following except: A. Plasma membranes B. Cytoplasm C. Nuclear membranes D. Transition vesicles E. Intermembrane space of nuclear membranes 22. If the Meselson-Stahl experiments with 15N and 14N DNA was done in reverse (grown first in 14N and then transferred to 15N), then: A. The newly synthesized DNA would pellet by differential centrifugation while the old DNA would remain in the supernatant B. It wouldnt work. You can only distinguish old DNA from new DNA by doing their original procedure in the original order C. The 14N would kill the cells because it is radioactive. Thats why they started with 15N originally D. You could still distinguish semi-conservative from conservative replication in the first generation if you used the rest of the procedures they used E. It would be possible to use eukaryotic DNA instead of prokaryotic DNA 23. If you grew eukaryotic cells in BrDU for one generation and stained for nucleotides the way we described in class: A. It would label all of the RNA B. It would label all of the DNA C. It would label only the newly synthesized RNA D. It would make the newly synthesized DNA stain lightly while the old DNA should stain dark E. It would produce mitotic chromosomes with one dark and one light chromatid

24. Which of the following is true? A. All eukaryotic cells go through the cell cycle at least once every 24 hours B. Cytokinesis is not a part of M-phase C. Fungi do not undergo meiosis because they are always haploid D. A human cell in G1 phase contains the same amount of DNA as a human secondary meiocyte E. At the end of mitosis, the two daughter cells are both in G1 phase 25. The first round of semi-conservative replication in eukaryotes is best explained as: A. Producing DNA that is either all old or all new DNA. No hybrids. B. One piece of double-stranded DNA comes apart and each original strand makes a new copy, producing 2 double-stranded hybrids of old and new DNA C. One closed, circular piece of DNA makes a brand new copy piece of doublestranded DNA that is all new DNA D. BrdU labeling of DNA-RNA hybrids so that they are seen as light chromatids E. Replication of only the euchromatin and not the heterochromatin, producing hybrid DNA that is part old DNA and part new DNA 26. DNA replication is: A. Part of mitosis B. Seen during reduction division C. Also called transcription D. Semi-conservative in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes E. Easily detected by analyzing cesium gradients with eukaryotic DNA after BrdU labeling 27. Chromatin condensation occurs during: A. G2 phase B. Mitotic prophase and meiotic prophase I C. Cell division D. Transcription E. Late S-phase 28. If a cell started in G1 and went through one full round of mitosis followed by one full round of meiosis, the DNA changes would be: A. 2n2x to 2n4x to 2n2x to 2n4x to 1n2x to 1n1x B. 2n4x to 2n2x to 2n4x to 1n2x to 1n1x C. 2n4x to 2n2x to 1n2x to 1n1x D. 2n2x to 2n4x to 2n2x to 1n1x E. 2n2x to 2n4x to 1n4x to 1n2x to 1n1x 29. An example of a reason why chromatin exists in both disperse and compacted (condensed) form is: A. As soon as the amount of DNA doubles, it must be immediately compacted to fit into the nucleus B. Compaction of chromatin prevents aneuploidy C. To prevent DNA from complexing with proteins during M-phase D. Compaction of DNA is necessary to differentiate euchromatin from heterochromatin E. Separation of chromatin is easier when it is compacted and replication is easier when it is disperse

30. If all of the compacted chromatin from a human primary meiocyte was released from synaptonemal complexes and sister chromatid cohesion and made into disperse chromatin: A. There would be 92 pieces of disperse chromatin B. There would be 46 pieces of disperse chromatin C. There would be 23 pieces of disperse chromatin D. There would be 184 pieces of disperse chromatin E. There would be no double stranded DNA left 31. Which of the following would not be metabolically labeled with 35S? A. Chromatin B. Chromosomes C. Chromatids D. Centromeres E. Centrosomes 32. Which of the following human cells has the least amount of DNA? A. A pre-mitotic cell in G2 B. A pre-meiotic cell in S-phase C. A pre-mitotic cell in S-phase D. A secondary meiocyte E. A cell in pachytene phase of prophase I 33. What is the purpose of mitosis? A. Cell division B. Separation of maternal and paternal DNA C. Nuclear division without a change in ploidy D. Prepare cells for sexual reproduction E. Segregation of genetic traits by independent assortment 34. Mitotic spindles contain all of the following except: A. Chromosomal microtubules B. Astral microtubules C. Polar microtubules D. Triplet microtubules E. Doublet microtubules 35. How can you tell the difference between metaphase of mitosis and metaphase of meiosis II? A. You cant. They are virtually the same B. There is twice as much DNA in metaphase of meiosis II compared to metaphase of mitosis C. There are 46 groups of chromatids in metaphase of meiosis II and 92 in metaphase of mitosis D. There are 92 pieces of chromatin in metaphase of mitosis but 46 in metaphase of meiosis II E. The chromatids are disyntelic in metaphase of meiosis II but not in metaphase of mitosis

36. The poles of the mitotic spindle move apart the most in: A. Metaphase B. Anaphase A C. Anaphase B D. Telophase E. Cytokinesis 37. The main point of mitotic prophase is best described as: A. Pairing of chromatids by synapsis B. Compaction of chromatin and nuclear membrane breakdown C. Connecting chromosomes to microtubules D. Chromosomes are positioned near the spindle poles E. Replication of centrosomes to make MTOCs for spindle formation 38. A single human tetrad (bivalent) contains enough genetic information, by itself, to make: A. Two secondary meiocytes B. Four chromatids C. Four gametes D. One primary meiocyte E. One human 39. If a pre-meiotic G2 cell went through meiosis in the presence of radioactive thymine, the final products (gametes) would all be: A. Mutagenized by the radioactivity B. Twice as radioactive as the starting G2 cell C. Four times as radioactive as the starting G2 cell D. One half as radioactive as the starting G2 cell E. Not much more radioactive than the starting G2 cell 40. Which of the following is not seen during meiotic prophase I? A. Synapsis B. Diakinesis C. Crossing-over D. Tetrads E. Non-disjunction

Lab Exam
41. Which of the following best describes the main point of the first lab? A. To introduce all of the lab procedures for all six labs B. To learn safety procedures and how dispose of chemicals C. Check in, purchase a lab kit and learn how to write a detailed lab report D. To learn how to determine the accuracy and precision when dispensing volumes E. To learn how to purify chloroplasts

42. If a p20 pipetman showed the setting below, what weight of water should it dispense if the accuracy is 10%?

1 0 0
A. B. C. D. E. Between 0.08 and 0.012mg Between 9.0 and 11mg Between 90 and 110mg Between 19 and 21mg Between 0.19 and 0.21mg

43. If the digital scale on the digital balance (used in BIO201) read 0.013, that means the weight on it is: A. 13.0mg B. 0.13kg C. 130ng D. 130ul E. 130mg 44. If you wanted to dispense 0.185ml of water with just one try, which of the following would be best to use? A. P10 B. P20 C. P200 D. P100 E. P150 45. Which of the following was not used in the first BIO201 lab? A. Serological pipet B. Plastic pipet tips C. Water D. Colored solutions E. Analytical balance 46. The pH of a solution of 10.0nM HCl in pure water is: A. 10.0 B. 9.0 C. 7.0 D. 5.0 E. 8.0 47. If compound A has a molecular weight of 100g/mole, what total volume of water should be added to 10.0mg of compound A to make a 1.0mM solution? A. 1.0 ml B. 100 ml C. 100 liters D. 10.0 ml E. 100ul

48. If you want 10.0 ml of a 2.0mM solution and you have a stock solution that is 100.0mM, what volumes of that 100.0 mM stock solution and water should be mixed? Stock 0.5 ml 0.2 ml 1.0 ml 2.0 ml 0.1 ml Water 9.5 ml 9.8 ml 9.0 ml 8.0 ml 9.9 ml

A. B. C. D. E.

49. The H+ concentration of stirred, distilled water in the BIO201B labs should be about: A. Equal to the [OH-] B. 10-14 M C. 10-7 M D. Between 10-7 and 10-14 M E. Between 10-5 and 10-7 M 50. If 100ul of a stock solution were added to 9.9 ml of water, the dilution would be: A. 1:1000 B. 1:10 C. 1:99 D. 1:100 E. 10:100 51. As more and more NaOH is added to distilled water: A. The pH should go down B. The [H+] should go up C. The log of the [H+] shouldnt change D. The hydrogen ion concentration should go down E. The chloride concentration should go up 52. The absorbance of a sample was 0.20 at 520nm. This was in the linear range. If the concentration of this sample decreased by 50%, the best guess for the new A520 is: A. 0.40 B. 0.10 C. 0.05 D. 0.50 E. 0.20 53. Beers law (as defined in BIO201B) is: A. A=kcl B. Salt=KCl C. V=S(F) D. C1V1 = C2V2 E. The number of beers is proportional to the hangover

54. On a standard curve (like the one we made in BIO201) the absorbance is: A. Equal to the concentration divided by the extinction coefficient at all concentrations, even those outside the linear range B. Equal to the slope times the concentration at all concentrations C. Always plotted on the X-axis D. Proportional to the concentration only in the linear range E. Always determined based on a slope of 1.0 55. The main point of the third lab in BIO201 (Spectrophotometry) is best described as: A. You can tune a piano but you cant tuna fish B. DCIP is an inhibitor of mitochondrial electron transport C. To demonstrate the concepts of absorbance and transmittance and how they relate to a standard curve D. Spectrophotometry can be used to determine the concentration of DCMU E. The pH can also be determined by spectrophotometry 56. A solution with 2.0 micromoles of DCIP (in the oxidized form) can be completely reduced to DCIPH2 by: A. 4.0umoles DCMU B. 1.0umole of ascorbic acid C. 10.0 ml of 20uM DCMU D. 2.0micromoles of ascorbic acid E. 10.0ml of 10uM ascorbic acid 57. How many milliliters of a 10M stock solution of compound A are needed to make 20 milliliters (final volume) of a 1:5 dilution of compound A? A. 1.0ml B. 0.2ml C. 0.1ml D. 4.0ml E. 5.0ml 58. 10 A. B. C. D. E.
-4

micromolar equals: 4.0uM 0.1nM 4.0mM 0.1mM 4.0nM

59. A 10.0 ml solution of 5.0uM DCIP in pure water has: A. 5.0 x 10-8 moles of DCIP B. 500uM DCIP C. 0.5 umoles DCIPH2 D. 25uM DCIPH2 E. 50uM H+

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60. A solution containing 80.0micromoles of DCIP (all in the oxidized form) had an A600 = 1.20. After reduction by an unknown amount of ascorbic acid, the A600 was 0.60. What was the amount of the ascorbic acid added to cause this? A. 20 micromoles B. 60umoles C. 40umoles D. 5.0 ml of 80.0uM E. 10.0 ml of 40.0uM 61. The A600 assay for DCIP can be used to estimate all of the following except: A. Ascorbic acid concentration B. DCIPH2 concentrations without knowing the DCIP concentration C. Electron transport activity D. The amount of DCIP present in the oxidized form E. Changes in DCIP concentrations over time 62. After mixing 3.5 ml of diluted chloroplasts with 0.5 ml of stock DCIP, the A600 was 1.00. Following 10 min. in the dark, another absorbance reading was made. What is the most likely A600 after 10 min. in the dark? A. 1.50 B. 1.25 C. 1.00 D. 0.30 E. 0.50 63. Of the following, which would most likely have the highest S value (Svedburg value)? A. Lysosomes B. Transition vesicles C. Tubulin D. Mitochondria E. Red blood cells 64. Differential centrifugation can best be used to: A. Separate something with a large s value from another with a small s value B. Break open plant cells C. Determine the density of DNA D. Separate SER from RER E. Stimulate electron transport in chloroplasts 65. Live chloroplast electron transport activity was represented in the BIO201 labs by: A. Decreased transmittance at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP added B. No change in A600 over time with DCIP present C. Increased fluorescence at 600nm over time in the light with DCIP D. A decrease in A600 over time in the light with DCIP added E. A decrease in A600 in the dark over time with DCIP present

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66. One of the main points of the last lab in BIO201 was: A. Clean up everything, check in everything you used and check out B. Chloroplast electron transport is inhibited by DCMU C. Inhibition of electron transport can be measured by monitoring in A600 of chloroplasts in the dark over time compared to controls D. Time flies like an arrow but fruit flies like bananas E. All experiments work all of the time if they are done with the right equipment 67. Competitive inhibition means: A. The inhibitor binds to the same site on the enzyme as the substrate B. An inhibitor can compete for the light that is usually absorbed by the enzyme C. The enzyme-substrate complex is irreversible D. The inhibitor competes with DCMU for its interactions with DCIP E. Inhibition is cancelled by the competitor 68. Which of the following is true? A. The pH of a chloroplast solution was measured in the last lab B. Chloroplasts are green because they absorb light in the green wavelengths C. The Teaching Assistants purified the chloroplasts for the students instead of having them do it themselves D. All of the chloroplasts were dead in the last lab (no electron transport) E. Spectrophotometry was not used in the last lab 69. The procedure used to purify the final chloroplast fraction in the last lab of BIO201 was: A. Homogenization B. A cell sorter C. Differential centrifugation D. Density gradient centrifugation E. Filtration through cheesecloth 70. If a sample of 100uM DCIP in water has a high OD600 (absorbance at 600nm), the OD600 could be decreased by all of the following except: A. Addition of reduced ascorbate B. Addition of chloroplasts (in the dark) C. Addition of an oxidizing agent with an Eo that is less than the Eo value of DCIP D. Addition of 1 ml of water to 5 ml of the DCIP solution E. Reduction of DCIP

Answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. B C D B B B D C

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9. C 10. E 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. E 21. E 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. E 30. A 31. D 32. D 33. C 34. E 35. D 36. CDE 37. B 38. B 39. E 40. E 41. D 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. E 47. B 48. B 49. E 50. D 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. C 56. D 57. D 58. B 59. A

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60. C 61. B 62. C 63. E 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. C 70. B

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