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Business vs. Financial Risk Optimal Capital Structure Operating Leverage Capital Structure Theory
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Uncertainty about future operating income (EBIT), i.e., how well can we predict operating income?
Probability Low risk
High risk
E(EBIT)
EBIT
Uncertainty about demand (sales) Uncertainty about output prices Uncertainty about costs Product, other types of liability Operating leverage
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What is operating leverage, and how does it affect a firms business risk?
Operating leverage is the use of fixed costs rather than variable costs. If most costs are fixed, hence do not decline when demand falls, then the firm has high operating leverage.
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More operating leverage leads to more business risk, for then a small sales decline causes a big profit decline.
$ Rev. TC
Rev.
} Profit
TC FC
FC
QBE Sales QBE
Sales
Typical situation: Can use operating leverage to get higher E(EBIT), but risk also increases.
Probability Low operating leverage High operating leverage
EBITL
EBITH
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Financial leverage is the use of debt and preferred stock. Financial risk is the additional risk concentrated on common stockholders as a result of financial leverage.
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Business risk depends on business factors such as competition, product liability, and operating leverage. Financial risk depends only on the types of securities issued.
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Two firms with the same operating leverage, business risk, and probability distribution of EBIT. Only differ with respect to their use of debt (capital structure).
Firm L $10,000 of 12% debt $20,000 in assets 40% tax rate
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Firm U: Unleveraged
Bad 0.25 $2,000 0 $2,000 800 $1,200 Economy Average 0.50 $3,000 0 $3,000 1,200 $1,800 Good 0.25 $4,000 0 $4,000 1,600 $2,400
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Firm L: Leveraged
Bad 0.25 $2,000 1,200 $ 800 320 $ 480 Economy Average 0.50 $3,000 1,200 $1,800 720 $1,080 Good 0.25 $4,000 1,200 $2,800 1,120 $1,680
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For leverage to raise expected ROE, must have BEP > rd. Why? If rd > BEP, then the interest expense will be higher than the operating income produced by debt-financed assets, so leverage will depress income. As debt increases, TIE decreases because EBIT is unaffected by debt, but interest expense increases (Int Exp = rdD).
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Conclusions
Basic earning power (BEP) is unaffected by financial leverage. L has higher expected ROE because BEP > rd.
L has much wider ROE (and EPS) swings because of fixed interest charges. Its higher expected return is accompanied by higher risk.
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The capital structure (mix of debt, preferred, and common equity) at which P0 is maximized. Trades off higher E(ROE) and EPS against higher risk. The tax-related benefits of leverage are exactly offset by the debts riskrelated costs.
The target capital structure is the mix of debt, preferred stock, and common equity with which the firm intends to raise capital.
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Firm announces the recapitalization. New debt is issued. Proceeds are used to repurchase stock.
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Why do the bond rating and cost of debt depend upon the amount of debt borrowed?
As the firm borrows more money, the firm increases its financial risk causing the firms bond rating to decrease, and its cost of debt to increase.
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Analyze the recapitalization at various debt levels and determine the EPS and TIE at each level. (D=$0, EBIT = $400,000, Tax rate = 40%, outstanding shares = 80,000)
D $0 EPS (EBIT rdD)(1 T) Shares outstanding
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Determining EPS and TIE at Different Levels of Debt (D = $250,000 and rd = 8% Price per share = $25, EBIT = $400,000, Tax rate = 40%, outstanding shares = 80,000)
$250,000 Shares repurchased 10,000 $25 (EBIT rdD)(1 T) EPS Shares outstanding ($400,000 0.08($250, 000))(0.6) 80,000 10,000 $3.26 EBIT $400,000 TIE 20x Int Exp $20,000
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Determining EPS and TIE at Different Levels of Debt (D = $500,000 and rd = 9%, Price per share = $25 EBIT = $400,000, Tax rate = 40%, outstanding shares = 80,000)
Shares repurchased $500,000 20,000 $25
(EBIT rdD)(1 T) EPS Shares outstanding ($400,000 0.09($500, 000))(0.6) 80,000 20,000 $3.55 EBIT $400,000 TIE 8.9x Int Exp $45,000
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Determining EPS and TIE at Different Levels of Debt (D = $750,000 and rd = 11.5%, Price per share = $25, EBIT = $400,000, Tax rate = 40%, outstanding shares = 80,000)
Shares repurchased $750,000 30,000 $25
EPS
(EBIT rdD)(1 T) Shares outstanding ($400,000 0.115($750 ,000))(0.6) 80,000 30,000 $3.77 EBIT $400,000 4.6x Int Exp $86,250
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TIE
Determining EPS and TIE at Different Levels of Debt (D = $1,000,000 and rd = 14%, Price per share = $25, EBIT = $400,000, Tax rate = 40%, outstanding shares = 80,000))
$1,000,000 Shares repurchased 40,000 $25 (EBIT rdD)(1 T) EPS Shares outstanding ($400,000 0.14($1,00 0,000))(0.6) 80,000 40,000 $3.90 EBIT $400,000 TIE 2.9x Int Exp $140,000
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If the level of debt increases, the firms risk increases. We have already observed the increase in the cost of debt.
However, the risk of the firms equity also increases, resulting in a higher rs.
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Because the increased use of debt causes both the costs of debt and equity to increase, we need to estimate the new cost of equity. The Hamada equation attempts to quantify the increased cost of equity due to financial leverage. Uses the firms unlevered beta, which represents the firms business risk as if it had no debt.
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Suppose, the risk-free rate is 6%, as is the market risk premium. The unlevered beta of the firm is 1.0. We were previously told that total assets were $2,000,000.
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rs 12.00%
12.51 13.20 14.16 15.60
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DPS $3.00
3.26 3.55 3.77 3.90
rs 12.00%
12.51 13.20 14.16 15.60
P0 $25.00
26.03 26.89 26.59 25.00
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Maximum EPS = $3.90 at D = $1,000,000, and D/A = 50%. (Remember DPS = EPS because payout = 100%.) Risk is too high at D/A = 50%.
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P0 is maximized ($26.89) at D/A = $500,000/$2,000,000 = 25%, so optimal D/A = 25%. EPS is maximized at 50%, but primary interest is stock price, not E(EPS). The example shows that we can push up E(EPS) by using more debt, but the risk resulting from increased leverage more than offsets the benefit of higher E(EPS).
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What if there were more/less business risk than originally estimated, how would the analysis be affected?
If there were higher business risk, then the probability of financial distress would be greater at any debt level, and the optimal capital structure would be one that had less debt. However, lower business risk would lead to an optimal capital structure with more debt.
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The graph shows MMs tax benefit vs. bankruptcy cost theory. Logical, but doesnt tell whole capital structure story. Main problem--assumes investors have same information as managers.
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Signaling theory suggests firms should use less debt than MM suggest. This unused debt capacity helps avoid stock sales, which depress stock price because of signaling effects.
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Assumptions:
Managers have better information about a firms Managers act in the best interests of current
long-run value than outside investors.
stockholders.
Issue stock if they think stock is overvalued. Issue debt if they think stock is undervalued. As a result, investors view a stock offering
Issue stock if they think stock is overvalued. Issue debt if they think stock is undervalued. As a result, investors view a common stock offering as a negative signalmanagers think stock is overvalued.
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Need to make calculations as we did, but should also recognize inputs are guesstimates. As a result of imprecise numbers, capital structure decisions have a large judgmental content. We end up with capital structures varying widely among firms, even similar ones in same industry.
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