Q.

1: Which of the following antimalarial is used as radical

curative agent for Plasmodium
vivax /ovale Malarial infections?
a) Quinine
b) Primaquine
c) Proguanil
d) Amodiaquine
e) Artemether

Q.1: Which of the following antimalarial is used as radical

curative agent for Plasmodium
vivax /ovale Malarial infections?
a) Quinine
b) Primaquine
c) Proguanil
d) Amodiaquine
e) Artemether

Q.2: Chloramphenicol:a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in

sensitive
Organisms
b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in
common
infection
c) Has a wide distribution but less
concentration in brain
d) Recommended for serious
rickettsial infection

Q.2: Chloramphenicol:a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive

Organisms
b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in
common
infection
c) Has a wide distribution but less
concentration in brain
d) Recommended for serious rickettsial
infection
e) Causes dose related, aplastic anemia

Q.3: Which one of the following

antibiotics can be safely
administered in the presence of
hepatic disease?
a) Erythromycin
b) Doxycycline
c) Streptomycin
d)
Chloramphenicol
e) Azithromycin

Q.3: Which one of the following

antibiotics can be safely
administered in the presence of
hepatic disease?
a) Erythromycin
b) Doxycycline
c) Streptomycin
d)
Chloramphenicol
e) Azithromycin

Q.4: Which one of the following

cephalosporins can be used to treat
H. influenzae meningitis?
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Cefoxitin
c) Cefaclor
d) Cefamandole
e) Cephalexin

Q.4: Which one of the following

cephalosporins can be used to treat
H. influenzae meningitis?
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Cefoxitin
c) Cefaclor
d) Cefamandole
e) Cephalexin

Q.5: Which one of the following penicillins

is resistant to Staphylococcus aureus
eta lactamases?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Piperacillin
c)
Methicillin
d) Benzathine penicillin
e) Ticarcillin disodium

Q.5: Which one of the following penicillins

is resistant to Staphylococcus aureus
eta lactamases?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Piperacillin
c) Methicillin
d) Benzathine penicillin
e) Ticarcillin disodium

Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against

Shigellosis because:
a) Complete absorption from upper GIT
b) Natural resistance of the organism to drug
c) Induction of beta lactamase in the
organism
d) Modification of penicillin binding proteins
on the bacteria
e) Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it
inactive

Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against

Shigellosis because:
a) Complete absorption from upper GIT
b) Natural resistance of the organism to drug
c) Induction of beta lactamase in the
organism
d) Modification of penicillin binding proteins
on the bacteria
e) Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it
inactive

Q.7: Urine culture of a patient has

shown growth of Pseudomonas
aeruginosa. Which one of the
following cephalosporins should be
used in treatment of this case?
a) Ceftazidime
b) Ceftizoxime
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Cefuroxime
e) Cefotetan

Q.8: Which one of the following

sulphonamides is used in the treatment
of ulcerative colitis?
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphasalazine
c) Sulphadimidine
d) Sulphadoxine
e) Sulphacetamide

Q.8: Which one of the following

sulphonamides is used in the treatment
of ulcerative colitis?
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphasalazine
c) Sulphadimidine
d) Sulphadoxine
e) Sulphacetamide

Q.9: Bacteroides fragilis infection

is preferably treated with:
a) Tetracyclines
b) Metronidazole
c) c)Tobramycin
d) Carbenicillin
e) Azithromycin

Q.9: Bacteroides fragilis infection

is preferably treated with:
a) Tetracyclines
b) Metronidazole
c) c)Tobramycin
d) Carbenicillin
e) Azithromycin

Q.10: The following drugs may be

used in typhoid fever caused by
Salmonella typhi except:
a) Ticarcillin disodium
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Co-trimoxazole
d) Chloramphenicol
e) Ceftriaxone

Q.10: The following drugs may be

used in typhoid fever caused by
Salmonella typhi except:
a) Ticarcillin disodium
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Co-trimoxazole
d) Chloramphenicol
e) Ceftriaxone

Q.11: Which one of the following

penicillins is not stable in the
presence of gastric HCI?
a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin
b) Nafcillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Carbenecillin indanyl sodium
e) Piperacillin

Q.11: Which one of the following

penicillins is not stable in the
presence of gastric HCI?
a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin
b) Nafcillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Carbenecillin indanyl sodium
e) Piperacillin

Q.12:The most important toxicity of

amphoterecin B is:
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Hepatoxicity
c) Bone marrow depression
d) Ocular toxicity
e) Alopecia (hair loss)

Q.12:The most important toxicity of

amphoterecin B is:
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Hepatoxicity
c) Bone marrow depression
d) Ocular toxicity
e) Alopecia (hair loss)

Q.13:Which one of the following anti

T.B. drugs has particular ability to
kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampicin
c) Pyrazinamide
d) Ethambutol
e) Streptomycin

Q.13:Which one of the following anti

T.B. drugs has particular ability to
kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampicin
c) Pyrazinamide
d) Ethambutol
e) Streptomycin

Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B

chemotherapy complains of decreased
visual acuity and disturbance of color
vision. The drug likely to be
responsible for this effect is:
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Thiacetazone
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin

Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B

chemotherapy complains of decreased
visual acuity and disturbance of color
vision. The drug likely to be
responsible for this effect is:
a) Ethambutol
b) Isoniazid
c) Thiacetazone
d) Pyrazinamide
e) Streptomycin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in

bile is:a) Streptomycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Benzylpenicillin
d) Tetracycline
e) Netilmicin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in

bile is:a) Streptomycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Benzylpenicillin
d) Tetracycline
e) Netilmicin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in

bile is:a) Streptomycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Benzylpenicillin
d) Tetracycline
e) Netilmicin

Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials

sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal
inflammation called pseudomembranous colitis by the growth of
one of the following organism.
a) E.coli
b) Bacteroides fragilis
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Clostridium welchii
e) Bacillus anthracis

Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials

sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal
inflammation called pseudomembranous colitis by the growth of
one of the following organism.
a) E.coli
b) Bacteroides fragilis
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Clostridium welchii
e) Bacillus anthracis

Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug

is very safe. The following adverse
effects are very common on prolonged
use. Except:
a) Orange colour urine, sweat & tears
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Flu-like syndrome
d) Light chain proteinurea
e) Inhibition of Cytochrome P450

Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug

is very safe. The following adverse
effects are very common on prolonged
use. Except:
a) Orange colour urine, sweat & tears
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Flu-like syndrome
d) Light chain proteinurea
e) Inhibition of Cytochrome P450

Q.18:The drug of first choice

against all superficial ringworm
infections (dermatophyte) is:
a) Nystatin
b) Amphotericin B
c) Flucytosine
d) Griseofulvin
e) Econazolc

Q.18:The drug of first choice

against all superficial ringworm
infections (dermatophyte) is:
a) Nystatin
b) Amphotericin B
c) Flucytosine
d) Griseofulvin
e) Econazolc

Q.18:The drug of first choice

against all superficial ringworm
infections (dermatophyte) is:
a) Nystatin
b) Amphotericin B
c) Flucytosine
d) Griseofulvin
e) Econazolc

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine

is required because it is:a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneys
b) Rapidly metabolized by
biotransformation
c) High lipid solubility
d) More entry into infected RBCs
e) High tissue binding

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine

is required because it is:a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneys
b) Rapidly metabolized by
biotransformation
c) High lipid solubility
d) More entry into infected RBCs
e) High tissue binding

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine

is required because it is:a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneys
b) Rapidly metabolized by
biotransformation
c) High lipid solubility
d) More entry into infected RBCs
e) High tissue binding

Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have

bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by
binding with :
a) 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA
b) 50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA
c) 70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA
d) 50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA
e) 23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have

bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by
binding with :
a) 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA
b) 50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA
c) 70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA
d) 50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA
e) 23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can

be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis
caused by Salmonella typhii infection.
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Ciprofloxacin
c)
Neomycin
d) Ampicillin
e) Co-trimoxazole

Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can

be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis
caused by Salmonella typhii infection.
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Ciprofloxacin
c)
Neomycin
d) Ampicillin
e) Co-trimoxazole

Q.22:The drug of first choice in

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in
renal infections is:
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Co-trimoxazole
c) Vancomycin
d) Linezolide
e) Erythromycin stearate

Q.22:The drug of first choice in

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in
renal infections is:
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Co-trimoxazole
c) Vancomycin
d) Linezolide
e) Erythromycin stearate

Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese

herbal medicine: all are true Except:
a)
Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active
metabolite
b) Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all
human plasmodia
c)
Acts through a free radical by inhibiting
Calcium ATPase pump
d) Least toxic among all antimalarial drugs
e)
An alternative to primaquine as gametocidal

Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese

herbal medicine: all are true Except:
a)
Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active
metabolite
b) Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all
human plasmodia
c)
Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium
ATPase pump
d) Least toxic among all antimalarial drugs
e) An alternative to primaquine as gametocidal

Q.24: WHO has approved the following

regimens for multidrug resistant P.
falciparum?
a) Artemether plus lumefantrine
b) Artemether plus amodiaquine
c) Artemether plus mefloquine
d) Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine
e) Artemether plus halofantrine

Q.24: WHO has approved the following

regimens for multidrug resistant P.
falciparum?
a) Artemether plus lumefantrine
b) Artemether plus amodiaquine
c) Artemether plus mefloquine
d) Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine
e) Artemether plus halofantrine

Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas

endemic for chloroquine resistant
malaria are recommended to have
prophylactic treatment. A cost effective,
safe and showing excellent result is:
a) Mefloquine
b) Quinine
c) Artesunate
d) Pyrimethamine
e) Halofantrine

Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas

endemic for chloroquine resistant
malaria are recommended to have
prophylactic treatment. A cost effective,
safe and showing excellent result is:
a) Mefloquine
b) Quinine
c) Artesunate
d) Pyrimethamine
e) Halofantrine

Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of

ancient times caused by Treponema
pallidum.All of the following drugs can
be prescribed to have complete recovery
except:
a) Tetracycline
b) Erythromycin
c) Benzyl-penicillin
d) Ceftriaxone
e) Sulphadiazine

Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of

ancient times caused by Treponema
pallidum.All of the following drugs can
be prescribed to have complete recovery
except:
a) Tetracycline
b) Erythromycin
c) Benzyl-penicillin
d) Ceftriaxone
e) Sulphadiazine

Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by

Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with
any one of the following drugs except:
a) Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourly
b) Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourly
c) Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourly
d) Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ day
e) Cap Azithromycin 500 mg daily

Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by

Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with
any one of the following drugs except:
a) Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourly
b) Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourly
c) Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourly
d) Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ day
e) Cap Azithromycin 500 mg daily

Q.28: The following statement is least

likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:
a) Negligible plasma protein binding
b) Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eq
c) Inhibition of renal excretion by sodium
d) Half life 18-23 hours
e) Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression

Q.28: The following statement is least

likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:
a) Negligible plasma protein binding
b) Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eq
c) Inhibition of renal excretion by sodium
d) Half life 18-23 hours
e) Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression

Q.29: Which one of the following is not

an opium alkaloid:a) Noscapine
b) Codeine
c) Nalorphine
d) Morphine
e) Papaverine

Q.29: Which one of the following is not

an opium alkaloid:a) Noscapine
b) Codeine
c) Nalorphine
d) Morphine
e) Papaverine

Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism

presents with red, tender, painful
swollen feet. Which of the following
drugs may be responsible?
a) Amantadine
b) Bromocriptine
c) Levodopa
d) Selegeline
e) Carbidopa

Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism

presents with red, tender, painful
swollen feet. Which of the following
drugs may be responsible?
a) Amantadine
b) Bromocriptine
c) Levodopa
d) Selegeline
e) Carbidopa

Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic

that should be avoided in patients of
porphyria.
a) Ketamine
b) Propofol
c) Etomidate
d) Thiopentone
e) Oxazepam

Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic

that should be avoided in patients of
porphyria.
a) Ketamine
b) Propofol
c) Etomidate
d) Thiopentone
e) Oxazepam

Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist

includes one of the following:
a) Zolpidem
b) Alprazolam
c) Flumazenil
d) Cholrazepate
e) Sufentanil

Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist

includes one of the following:
a) Zolpidem
b) Alprazolam
c) Flumazenil
d) Cholrazepate
e) Sufentanil

Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is

preferred for outdoor procedures and
the patient is ambulatory on the same
day.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Thiopentone
Midazolam
Propofol
Halothane
Etomidate

Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is

preferred for outdoor procedures and
the patient is ambulatory on the same
day.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Thiopentone
Midazolam
Propofol
Halothane
Etomidate

Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

includes all of the following except:
a) Hypertension
b) Muscle flaccidity
c)
Acidosis
d) Hyperkalemia
e) Body temperature> 104 C

Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

includes all of the following except:
a) Hypertension
b) Muscle flaccidity
c)
Acidosis
d) Hyperkalemia
e) Body temperature> 104 C

Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic

agent causes megaloblastic
anemia on prolonged use.
a) Halothane
b) Enflurane
c) Ketamine
d) Nitrous oxide
e) Desflurane

Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic

agent causes megaloblastic
anemia on prolonged use.
a) Halothane
b) Enflurane
c) Ketamine
d) Nitrous oxide
e) Desflurane

Q.36: Parkinsonism is
characterized by the following
except:
a) Flaccidity
b) Rigidity
c) Resting tremors
d) Excessive salivation
e) Micrographia

Q.36: Parkinsonism is
characterized by the following
except:
a) Flaccidity
b) Rigidity
c) Resting tremors
d) Excessive salivation
e) Micrographia

Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine

hypnotic agent has the following
characteristics.
a) Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptors
b) It has no anticonvulsant properties.
c) It possesses little muscle relaxing property
d) It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound
insomnia
e) Development of tolerance is common on
prolonged use.

Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine

hypnotic agent has the following
characteristics.
a) Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptors
b) It has no anticonvulsant properties.
c) It possesses little muscle relaxing property
d) It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound
insomnia
e) Development of tolerance is common on
prolonged use.

Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than

tricyclie anti-depressant in the
management of:
a) Bulimia nervosa
b) Chronic pain of neuropathic origin
c) Generalized anxiety disorder
d) Obsessive compulsive disorder
e) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than

tricyclie anti-depressant in the
management of:
a) Bulimia nervosa
b) Chronic pain of neuropathic origin
c) Generalized anxiety disorder
d) Obsessive compulsive disorder
e) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Q.39: Overdosage of
benzodiazepines can be
reversed with:
a) Naloxone
b) Naltrexone
c) Nalmefene
d) Flumazenil
e) Glutamate

Q.39: Overdosage of
benzodiazepines can be
reversed with:
a) Naloxone
b) Naltrexone
c) Nalmefene
d) Flumazenil
e) Glutamate

Q.40: Which one of the following is

not a side effect of phenytoin:
a) Nystagmus
b) Gingival hyperplasia
c) Hirsutisim
d) Osteomalacia
e) Alopecia (Hair loss)

Q.40: Which one of the following is

not a side effect of phenytoin:
a) Nystagmus
b) Gingival hyperplasia
c) Hirsutisim
d) Osteomalacia
e) Alopecia (Hair loss)

Q.41: Following statements about

carbamazepine are true, except:
a) Acts through blockade of Na-ion channels
b) Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic
seizures
c) Increases hepatic metabolism of other drugs
d) Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal
neuralgia
e) Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence.

Q.41: Following statements about

carbamazepine are true, except:
a) Acts through blockade of Na-ion channels
b) Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic
seizures
c) Increases hepatic metabolism of other
drugs
d) Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal
neuralgia
e) Ch. Use is associated with drug
dependence.

Q.42: All of the following drugs can be

used for chronic ethanol intoxication.
a) Acamprossate
b) Naltrexone
c) Disulfiram
d) Methanol
e) Topiramate

Q.42: All of the following drugs can be

used for chronic ethanol intoxication.
a) Acamprossate
b) Naltrexone
c) Disulfiram
d) Methanol
e) Topiramate

Q.43: All of the following are

excitatory neurotransmitters
except:
a) Nor epinephrine
b) Serotonin
c) GABA
d) Glutamate
e) Acetylcholine

Q.43: All of the following are

excitatory neurotransmitters
except:
a) Nor epinephrine
b) Serotonin
c) GABA
d) Glutamate
e) Acetylcholine

Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with

lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change
in patient status may result in accumulation of
lithium as we see in most of the following
conditions except.
a) Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.
b) Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.
c) If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more
severe.
d) Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.
e) Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective in
toxicity because lithium is a small ion.

Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with

lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change
in patient status may result in accumulation of
lithium as we see in most of the following
conditions except.
a) Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.
b) Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.
c) If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more
severe.
d) Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.
e) Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less
effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.

Q.45: Which of the following opioid

analgesics is generally used in
combination with droperidol to
produce neuroleptanalgesia?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Pentazocine.
c) Fentanyl
d) Levallorphan
e) Meperidine

Q.45: Which of the following opioid

analgesics is generally used in
combination with droperidol to
produce neuroleptanalgesia?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Pentazocine.
c) Fentanyl
d) Levallorphan
e) Meperidine

Q.46: Which of the following is

more potent analgesic as
compared to morphine.
a) Pethidine
b) Pentazocine
c) Fentanyl
d) Tramadol
e) Nalaxone

Q.46: Which of the following is

more potent analgesic as
compared to morphine.
a) Pethidine
b) Pentazocine
c) Fentanyl
d) Tramadol
e) Nalaxone

Q.47: All of the following are the

partial opioid agonists except
a) Buprenorphine
b) Butorphanol
c) Pentazocine
d) Nalbuphine
e) Codeine

Q.47: All of the following are the

partial opioid agonists except
a) Buprenorphine
b) Butorphanol
c) Pentazocine
d) Nalbuphine
e) Codeine

Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is

true?
a) Gets ionized at pH of body fluids
b) Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as
compared to procaine
c)
Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.
d) Is poorly water soluble
e) Is incompatible with catecholamines

Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is

true?
a) Gets ionized at pH of body fluids
b) Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as
compared to procaine
c)
Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.
d) Is poorly water soluble
e) Is incompatible with catecholamines

Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol

intolerance by inhibiting.
a) Alochol dehydrogenase
b) Acetylcholine estrase
c) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
d) Xanthine oxidase
e) Carbonic anhydrase

Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol

intolerance by inhibiting.
a) Alochol dehydrogenase
b) Acetylcholine estrase
c) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
d) Xanthine oxidase
e) Carbonic anhydrase

Q.50: Which of the following

barbiturates is used in the
treatment of kernicterus
a) Thiopentone
b) Amylobarbitone
c) Secobarbitone
d) Phenobarbitone
e) Oxybarbitone

Q.50: Which of the following

barbiturates is used in the
treatment of kernicterus
a) Thiopentone
b) Amylobarbitone
c) Secobarbitone
d) Phenobarbitone
e) Oxybarbitone

Q.51: Hypotension resulting from

spinal anaesthesia can be
treated with
a) Ephedrine
b) Atropine
c) Dobutamine
d) Phentolamine
e) Epinephrine

Q.51: Hypotension resulting from

spinal anaesthesia can be
treated with
a) Ephedrine
b) Atropine
c) Dobutamine
d) Phentolamine
e) Epinephrine

Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is

converted into active form by
gastric juice is
a) Alprazolam
b) Clorazepate
c) Midazolam
d) Chlordiazepoxide
e) Desmethyldiazepam

Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is

converted into active form by
gastric juice is
a) Alprazolam
b) Clorazepate
c) Midazolam
d) Chlordiazepoxide
e) Desmethyldiazepam

Q.53: In local anaesthesia,

a) Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pH
b) The drug binds with sodium channels on outer
side of membrane
c) Drugs having low water solubility are suitable
for infiltration anaesthesia
d) Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity
reactions than the amides
e) Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the
proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs

Q.53: In local anaesthesia,

a) Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pH
b) The drug binds with sodium channels on outer
side of membrane
c) Drugs having low water solubility are suitable
for infiltration anaesthesia
d) Ester type drugs produce more
hypersensitivity reactions than the amides
e) Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the
proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs

Q.54: Which of the following

antipsychotic acts on wider
variety of receptors
a) Risperidone
b) Amisulpride
c) Olanzapine
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Lithium carbonate

Q.54: Which of the following

antipsychotic acts on wider
variety of receptors
a) Risperidone
b) Amisulpride
c) Olanzapine
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Lithium carbonate

Q.55: Is the only drug among older

antipsychotic not effective as
antiemetic
a) Thioridazone
b) Haloperidol
c) Fluphenazine
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Thiothixine

Q.55: Is the only drug among older

antipsychotic not effective as
antiemetic
a) Thioridazone
b) Haloperidol
c) Fluphenazine
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Thiothixine

Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants

may cause all of the following
adverse effects except
a) Dryness of mouth
b) Constipation
c) Extrapyramidal syndrome
d) Retention of urine
e) Insomnia

Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants

may cause all of the following
adverse effects except
a) Dryness of mouth
b) Constipation
c) Extrapyramidal syndrome
d) Retention of urine
e) Insomnia

Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.

a) They can cause dose related anterograde
amnesia
b) They can cause retrograde amnesia
c) Most of the benzodiazepines do not have
muscle relaxant properties
d) They can cause irreversible confusional
state in elderly
e) Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines
does not leads to withdrawal symptoms

Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.

a) They can cause dose related anterograde
amnesia
b) They can cause retrograde amnesia
c) Most of the benzodiazepines do not have
muscle relaxant properties
d) They can cause irreversible confusional
state in elderly
e) Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines
does not leads to withdrawal symptoms

Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the

following conditions except
a) Chronic pain
b) Nocturnal enuresis
c) Malignant hyperthermia
d) Endogenous depression
e) Hyperkinetic syndrome

Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the

following conditions except
a) Chronic pain
b) Nocturnal enuresis
c) Malignant hyperthermia
d) Endogenous depression
e) Hyperkinetic syndrome

Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the

following characteristics except
a) It is component of anesthesia
b) It has a high blood gas partition
coefficient
c) It is potent analgesic
d) It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of
Byles,Machine
e) It is used in combination with other
inhalational agents due to high MAC value

Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the

following characteristics except
a) It is component of anesthesia
b) It has a high blood gas partition
coefficient
c) It is potent analgesic
d) It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of
Byles,Machine
e) It is used in combination with other
inhalational agents due to high MAC value

Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be

used in pre anaesthetic medication to
a) Slow down the gastric emptying
b) Dilate the pupils
c) Prevent bradycardia
d) Causes bronchodilatation
e) Prevent colic during visceral surgery

Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be

used in pre anaesthetic medication to
a) Slow down the gastric emptying
b) Dilate the pupils
c) Prevent bradycardia
d) Causes bronchodilatation
e) Prevent colic during visceral surgery

Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic

ulcer drugs cause salt and water
retention.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sucralfate
Ranitidine
Carbenoxolone
Cimetidine
Omeprazole

Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic

ulcer drugs cause salt and water
retention.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sucralfate
Ranitidine
Carbenoxolone
Cimetidine
Omeprazole

Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be

treated by the following drugs except:
a) Metronidazole
b) Vancomycin
c) Bacitracin
d) Clindamycin
e) Cycloserine

Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be

treated by the following drugs except:
a) Metronidazole
b) Vancomycin
c) Bacitracin
d) Clindamycin
e) Cycloserine

Q.63: Drug of first choice for

Becteroides fragilis induced
peritonitis is:
a) Ampicillin + lactamase inhibitor
b) Metronidazole
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Clindamycin
e) Rifampicin

Q.63: Drug of first choice for

Becteroides fragilis induced
peritonitis is:
a) Ampicillin + lactamase inhibitor
b) Metronidazole
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Clindamycin
e) Rifampicin

Q.64: Which of the following anti

T. B drugs is structural
analogue of PABA: a) Thiacetazone
b) Para-amino salicylic acid
c) Rifampicin
d) INH
e) Ethambutol

Q.64: Which of the following anti

T. B drugs is structural
analogue of PABA: a) Thiacetazone
b) Para-amino salicylic acid
c) Rifampicin
d) INH
e) Ethambutol

Q.65: Which of the following drugs is

most cost effective in the
treatment of uncomplicated UTIs
caused by E. Coli: a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Nalidixic acid
Methenamine
Nitrofurantoin
Pipemedic acid
Ciprofloxacin

Q.65: Which of the following drugs is

most cost effective in the
treatment of uncomplicated UTIs
caused by E. Coli: a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Nalidixic acid
Methenamine
Nitrofurantoin
Pipemedic acid
Ciprofloxacin