ARIEL C.

MANLUSOC
INTRODUCTION
TO
CRIMINOLOGY
1. The term criminology was originally derived from Italian word:
a. crimen c. criminologia-- Raffaelle Garofalo (1885)
b. criminologo d. criminologie- Paul Topinard (1887)
2. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society to
prevent and repressed them?
a. Penology c. Criminology
b. Victimology d. Sociology of law
Victimology = study of the role of victim in relation to the
commission of crime.
Sociology of law = attempt at scientific analysis of the condition
which the penal/criminal laws has developed as a process of
formal or social control.
Penology = branch of criminology which deals with management of
jails and inmates.
3. The study of Criminology involves the use of
knowledge and concept of other sciences and field
of study which makes the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic b. Nationalistic
c. Social science d. An applied science
Nationalistics = it varies with the nature, culture,
laws of the country.
Social Science = it study crimes as part of society
(social phenomenon)
Dynamic = it states that the study of criminology is
not absolute and constant it changes as
civilization or social condition changed.
4. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the
relationship between criminality and the milieu :
a.Ecology b) Demography
c) Epidiomology d) Physical anthropology
a) criminal epidiomology – the study of the
relationship between environment and
criminality
b) criminal ecology – the study of criminality in
relation to the spatial distribution in a
community
 c) criminal physical anthropology – the study of
criminality in relation to physical constitution
of men
 d) criminal psychology – the study of human
behavior in relation to criminality
 e) criminal psychiatry – the study of human
mind in relation to criminality
 f) victimology – the study of the role of the
victim in the commission of a crime. It focus on
the aspects of the victim.
5. It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure,
functions and direction.
a. Sociology c. Psychology
b. Criminology d. Anthropology
6. It deals primarily with the study of crime commission.
a. Criminology c. Criminological research
b. Criminal Etiology d. Criminal Sociology
Criminal Etiology = is the study of the cause or origin of
crime . It study the primary reasons for crime
commission.
Criminological research = study of the crime correlated to
with antecedent variables, state of crime trend.
7. An act or omission in violation of the public law
commanding or forbidding it.
a. Crimec. Offense
b. Felony d. Infraction of law
Felony = act or omission punishable under the RPC.
Offense = Acts or omission punishable under the
Special laws
Infraction of Law = a violation of city, municipal
ordinances.
Delinquency = an act not inconformity with the
norms of the society.
8. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by
_____________.
a. Culpa c. intent
b. Fault d. both a and b
9. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit,
EXCEPT:
a. Intelligence c. Freedom
b. Intent d. Negligence
Dolo or Deceit Culpa or Fault
Intelligence Intelligence
Freedom Freedom
Intent Negligence/Imprudence
Lack of skills/Lack of foresight
10. Peter Pan, a victim of robbery, was able to identify
his assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on the way
to the hospital where he was declared dead on
arrival, This crime is called,
a. complex crime c) instant crime
b. simple crime d) situational crime

Simple crime = one act, one felony

Compound crime = a single act constitutes two or more
grave or less grave felonies.
Complex Crime = one felony is a means to commit the
other.
11. Ms. Maita T. Tama is a skilled woman in making
deception through verbal communication. She had
committed estafa to several persons through illegal
recruitment. What crime according to result did she
committed?
a. acquisitive crime c) instant crime
b. extinctive crime d) situational crime
Acquisitive = the criminal gains/benefited.
Extinctive = the crime resulted to destruction.
Instant = the crime is accomplish immediately.
Situational = circumstances surrounding the commission
is conducive for their accomplishment.
12. A crime can be classified according to its stages of
commission. What crime is committed when the
offender merely commences the execution of an
offense by overt act but which nevertheless did not
perform all acts of execution which would produce
the felony by reason of some cause other than his own
spontaneous desistance?
a. Attempted crime c. Consummated crime
b. Frustrated crime d. Complex crime
Consummated Felony = When all the elements
necessary for its execution and accomplishment
are present.
Frustrated Felony = when the offender performs
all the acts of execution which would produce
the felony as a consequence but which
nevertheless do not produce it by reason of
causes independent of the will of the
perpetrator.
Crimes without frustrated: Rape, Bribery,
Corruption of Public officers, Adultery, Physical
Injury.
13. It is the process by which individual reduces the frequency
of their offending behavior as the age increases.
a. doing gender c. aging out
b. criminal of reduction d. active precipitation
Crime of reduction = crimes that are committed when the
offended party experiences a loss of some quality relative
to his or her present standing.
Doing gender = Men’s struggle to dominate women to prove
their manliness. Violence directed toward women is an
especially economical way to demonstrate manhood.
Active precipitation = views that the source of many criminal
incident is the aggressive or provocative behavior of
victims.
14. Crimes are classified under the RPC according to
gravity. What crime to which the law attaches the
capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
a. grave felonies c. less grave felonies
b. light felonies d. complex felonies
Grave felonies= punishable by Capital or in any of its
period is afflictive.

Less grave = punishable by correctional penalty

Light felonies = punishable by light penalty (fine of

not more than 200 or by arresto menor.
15. What crimes according to the time or period of the
commission are those which are committed only
when the circumstances or situation is conducive to
its commission like for instance, committing theft in
a crowded place.
a. seasonal crimes c. situational crimes
b. instant crimes d. continuing crimes

16. There are crimes that are committed within a certain

length of time. What crime is committed by a series
of acts in a lengthy space of time?
a. static crime c. situational crime
b. instant crime d. episoidal crime.
17. Acts that are outlawed because they violate basic
moral values such as rape, murder, assault and
robbery?
a. Mala in se crime c. Mala prohibitum crimes
b. Enterprise crime d. Expressive crime
Mala prohibitum crime = acts that are outlawed
because they clash with current norms and
public opinion, such as tax, traffic and drug laws.
Enterprise crime = The use of illegal tactics by a
business to make profit in the market.
Expressive crime = crime without purpose except to
accomplish the behavior at hand, such as shooting
someone.
18. Crimes that violates the moral order but in
which there has no actual victim. It is society as a
whole and not any person/individual which is the
victim.
a. victimless crime c. public order crime
b. reactive hate crime d. retaliatory crime
Reactive hate crime = perpetrators believe that
they are taking a defense stand against outsides
who they believe threaten their community or
way of life.
Retaliatory hate crime = offense committed in
response to a hate crime, real or perceived.
19. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are
committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means
for living are what crimes?
a. Rational crimes c. Blue-collar crimes
b. Irrational crimes d. White collar crimes
Corporate crime = white color crime involving a legal
violation by a corporate entity.
20. It is that element of intentional felony which means that
the person who committed the felony has the capacity to
distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully
understands the consequences of his actions:
a. intelligence c. imprudence
b. intent d. freedom
21. A psychological disorder in which a child shows
developmentally inappropriate impulsivity,
hyperactivity and lack of attention.
a. psychotism
b. neuroticism
c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
d. KSP disorder
22. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of
etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action
arises from the intra-psychic conflict between the
social and anti-social components of his personality?
a. Acute b. neurotic c. Chronic d. normal
23. Criminals can also be classified according to this
behavioral system. What are those criminals who
have high degree of organization that enables
them to commit crime without being detected and
usually operates in a large scale?
a. occasional c. professional
b. Career d. organized e. reasoning
Occasional = offenders who do define themselves
by a criminal role or view themselves as committed
career criminals.
Career criminal = a person who repeatedly violates
law and his/her lifestyle around criminality.
24. A forcible sex in which the offender and the
victim are acquainted with each other.
a. aggravated rape c. statutory rape
b. marital rape d. acquaintance rape

Aggravated rape – rape involving multiple

offenders, weapons and victim injuries.
Marital rape =forcible sex between legally
married partners.
Statutory rape = sexual relations between an
underage (minor) female and an adult
male.
25. The concept that conduct norms are passed
down from one generation to the next so
that they become stable within the
boundaries of a culture.
a. heredity c. inheritance
b. cultural transmission d. DNA
26. The Revised Penal Code is the primary source
of our criminal law. It is otherwise known as:
a. Act 3815 c. P.D. 603
b. R.A. 3815 d. R.A. 9344
27. According to this principle, the punishment
should be the same as the harm inflicted on the
victim. Therefore, a man who broke the hipbone
of another during the fight will be punished by
also breaking his hipbone:
a. law of talion c. utiliarianism
b. classical d. neo-classical
28. During the prehistoric times, there was no
formal criminal justice system, and crimes where
punished based on:
a. formal laws c. conscience
b. customs d. the Bible
29. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws:
a. Drakon c. the Hittites
b. Solon d. Hammurabi (Babylon)
Greek Codes
Solon and Drakon Code (known for severity)
Sumerian Code = (King Dungi) hundred years
earlier than Code of Hammurabi made from clay
tablets.
Hittites Law = known for its concerns for
morality.
Twelve Tables = made from bronze tablets
(Decemviri Consulari Imperio Legibus Scribundis
30. His theory was that God did not make all the
various species of animals in two days, as what
the bible says but rather that the species had evolved
through a process of adoptive mutation and natural
selection which led to his conclusion that man was
traced to have originated from the apes. “Origin of
Species”
a. Jeremy Bentham c) Charles Darwin
b. Prince Charles d)Charles de Gaulle
31. This school of thought in criminology states that
although individuals have self-rule, there are other
factors that affect the exercise of their autonomy,
which cause them commit crimes:
a) neo-classical c) utilitarianism
b) classical d) positivist
32. This school of thought in criminology states that
although individuals have free will, there are other
factors that affect the exercise of their free will,
which cause them commit crimes:
a. neo-classical c. utilitarianism
b. classical d. positivist
Classical =based on the assumption that individuals
choose to commit crimes after weighing the
consequences of their actions. “individuals have free
will.”
33. T he view that people’s behavior is motivated by
the pursuit of pleasure and the avoidance of pain.
a. Utilitarianism c. Common law
b. Mosaic coded. Doctrine of stare decisis
Common law = (Henry II) future cases finds it
resolution by applying decisions in previous case
(Doctrine of Stare Decisis).
34. He said that individuals are like human calculators.
Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes
whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater
than the possible negative effect he would have to
suffer if the gets caught doing the crime:
a. Cesare Beccaria c. Edwin Sutherland
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Jeremy Bentham
35. In the book (1764) “On Crimes and Punishment”,
what was said to be the most effective means of
controlling crime?
a. death penalty c. certainty of punishment
b. monetary fine d .life imprisonment
36. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes
of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime
works, upon his death he willed his brain and body to
the Institute of Anatomy at the University of Turin in
Italy to be further studied. To this, he was named the
“Father of Modern and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
 Choice Theory
I. Rational Choice Theory
Free will theory = (Cesare Becarria)
Pain and pleasure Principle/ Greatest Hapiness
theory / human are like “felicific calculus”
(Jeremy Bentham)
Utilitarianism (Pain and pleasure)
= law violating behavior occurs when an offender
decides to risk breaking the law after considering
both personal factors (needs) and situational
factors (how well target is protect and how
efficient the police force are)
II. Trait Theory
Positivist = The school of thoughts that criminal
behavior is based on biological, psychological
and social factors. The shift from the
Philosophical to scientific approach in explaining
the causes of crime.
37. According to Lombroso, these are physical
characteristics that distinguish born criminals from
the general population and are throwbacks to
animals or primitive people.
a. physical deviations c. stigmata
b. atavistic anomalies d. ape-like appearance
Atavistic Stigmata = the physical features of
creatures at an earlier stage of development
There are three (3) classes of criminals according to
Lombroso:
a. born criminals – individuals with at least five
(5) atavistic stigmata
b. insane criminals – those who are not criminals
by birth; they become criminals as a result of some
changes in their brains which interfere with their
ability to distinguish between right and wrong
c. criminaloids - those with make up of an
ambiguous group that includes habitual criminals,
criminals by passion and other diverse types
38. It is the study that deals with the relationship between the
skull and human behavior.
a. physiognomy c. phrenology
b. physiology d. craniology
Biological Determinism = This explanation for the existence
of criminal traits associates an individual’s evil disposition
to physical disfigurement or impairment
Human physiognomy= the study of facial features and their
relation to human behavior. (founded by Giambatista dela
Porta (1535-1615) )
JOHANN KASPAR LAVATER (1741-1801) = Swiss
theologian who state– “people’s true characters and
inclinations could be read from their facial features “
39. A type of physique characterized by strong ,
muscular and coarse bone. (violence)
a. Pyknic b. athletic c. asthenic d. aesthetic
Pyknic= massive neck, broad face, rounded
face and medium height. (deception/fraud
and violence)
Asthenic = lean, slightly built, narrow
shoulder. ( petty thievery and fraud)
Ernst Kretschmer = founded the school of
somatotype or Physiology
40. Among the different body types William Sheldon
presented in his study, he considered this ONE to be
the most likely to become criminal
a. endomorph c) mesomorph
b. ectomorph d) dysplastic

Asthenic Ectomorphic Cerebrotonic

Athletic Mesomorph Romotonic

Pyknic Endomorph Viscerotonic

Cranioscopy = (Franz Joseph Gall) study the personality
and development of mental and moral faculties based
on the external shape of the skull.
Cranioscopy was later renamed as phrenology, the
study that deals with the relationship between the skull
and human behavior
Franz Kaspar Spuzhelm = developed the science of
Phrenology
41. It refers to an study showing the relationship
between the physical built of a person to his
personality structure and the type of offense he is
most prone to commit
a. physiognomy (face) c) somatotype
b. phrenology d) psychology
42. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
a. Margaret Juke c. Ada Kallikak
b. Ada Juke d. Ada Edwards
Hereditary as a factor
1) RICHARD DUGDALE (Juke Family)
2)HENRY GODDARD (Kalikak Family)
43. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree
and he concluded that feeblemindedness is
inherited and related to deviant behavior and
poverty. He was the first person to use the term
“moron”.
a. Robert Dugdale c. Henry Goddard
b. Eaenest Hooton d. Charles Goring
44. This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined
genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low
intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to
behavior including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory c) Psychological theory
b. Strain Theory d) Labeling theory
45. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in
the study of society, which to him passes through stages
divided on the basis of how people try to understand it,
leading them to adopt a rational scientific understanding of
the world.
a. August Comte c. Adolphe Quetelet
b. Positivists d. Sociologists
46. According to the psychoanalytic theory of
personality, this component of an individual’s
personality operates under the “reality
principle”:
a. superego c) ego
b) conscience d) id
Ego ideal = part of the super ego; directs individual
into morally acceptable and responsible
behavior, which may not be peasurable.
Charles Goring = relationship between criminality and
defective intelligence and defective social instinct.
That criminal behavior was inherited.
Sigmund Freud = Psychodynamic/psychoanalytic theory.
Id = present at birth/unconscious biological drives/
“pleasure principle”.
Ego = compensates for the demand of the Id/guides
man’s actions to remain within the boundaries of social
convention/ “reality principle”
Superego = resulted from incorporating within the
personality the moral standards and values of parents,
community, and significant others/ tells what is right
from wrong.
Neurotics = people who experience feelings of
mental anguish and are afraid that they are
losing control of their personalities.
Psychotics = those who had lost total control and
were dominated by their primitive id.
Schizophrenia = marked by hearing non-existence
voices, hallucinations and inappropriate
responses.
Paranoid schizophrenic = suffers complex behavior
delusions involving wrongdoing or persecution.
Alfred Adler =“inferiority complex”
Erik Erikson = “identity crisis” a period of serious
personal questioning
Psycho sexual stages of human development
Eros = most basic drive present at birth (instinct to
preserve & create life).
(1st yr.) - Oral stage = pleasure attained by
sucking and biting.
(2nd & 3rd) Anal Stage = sexual attention is on
elimination of bodily wastes.
(3rd) Phallic stage = children focus on their
genitals. (Oedipus complex)/ (Electra Complex)
(6 yrs.) Latency = feeling of sexuality are
repressed until the genital stage begins at
puberty; this mark the beginning of adult
sexuality.
Class A(distrust,suspicious to social detachment)
1. Paranoid P.D.= recurrent suspicions without
justification , preoccupied by unjustified
doubts, hostility, oversensitivity, tends to see
oneself as blameless.
2. Schizoid P.D. = pervasive detachment from
social relationship, restricts expression of
emotion, neither enjoy nor desire close
relationship, inability to form social
relationship and lack of interest to do so.
3. Schizotypal P.D. = reduced capacity for close
relationship, have old beliefs and magical
thinking such as superstitions, telepathy etc.
 Class B (dramatic, emotional erratic)
1. Antisocial P.D. = fail to conform to social norms
with respect to lawful behaviors as indicated by
repeated acts that are grounds fro arrest. Unable
to control their impulse, perform violent and
harmful acts without experiencing a bit of guilt.
2. Borderline P.D.= instability of interpersonal
relationships, instability of mood, self-image and
affects and marked impulsivity, may have
recurrent suicidal behaviors. Their mood may shift
rapidly and inexplicably from depression to
anxiety to anger over a pattern of several hours.
3. Histrionic P.D. = pervasive pattern of excessive
emotionality and attention seeking. Overly
concerned with their appearance and exaggerated
impression of emotion.
4. Narcissistic P.D. = exaggerated sense of self
importance, a preoccupation with being admired
and lack of empathy for the feeling of others.

Hypochondriasis = chronic anxiety about health.

Class C (anxiety and fearfulness)
1. Avoidant P.D. =feeling of inadequacy, hypersensitive
to negative evaluation, timid and shy but do wish to
have friends, uncomfortable and afraid of rejection or
criticism. Unlike schizoid, they don’t enjoy being
alone.
2. Dependent P.D. = difficulty in making everyday
decision without an excessive amount of advice and
reassurance from others, lack self confidence in
judgment, uncomfortable and helpless when alone.
3. Obsessive –Compulsive P.D. = pervasive pattern of
preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism and
mental and interpersonal control. Preoccupied with
trivial details and rules and do not appreciate changes
and routine.
47. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which
states that individuals copy behavior patterns of
other individuals, and that those with weaker
personalities tend to get influenced easier by those
with stronger personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim c) Adolphe Quetelet
b. Gabriel Tarde d) Enrico Ferri
 The Theory of Imitation is explained by the following
patterns:
 a) Pattern 1: individuals imitate others in proportion
to the intensity and frequency of their contact
 b) Pattern 2: inferiors imitate superiors
 c) Pattern 3: when two behavior patterns clash, one
may take the place of the other
48. Refers to the standard of behavior or conduct
accepted in a given society which expected of an
individual living in that society.
a) Culture c) Norms
b) Principles d) Laws
49. Who stated that crime is normal in a society?
a. Gabriel Tarde c. Emile Durkheim
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Enrico Ferri
Anomie (Greek “nomos” = wthout norms) is one in
which norms have broken down or become
inoperative during the period of rapid social change
or social crisis such as war and famine.
Transition from Mechanical solidarity (pre-industrial
society) to Organic solidarity (post industrial system)
Robert Merton = applied the theory of
anomie of Durkheim to criminology. Utilized
a modified version of it and identify two
elements of culture interaction to produce
potentially anomie conditions: (culturally
defined goals and social approved means of
obtaining them.
Conformity = when individual both embrace
conventional social goals and also the means at
their disposal to attain.
Innovation = individual accepts the goals of the
society but reject or is incapable of attaining
them through legitimate means.
Ritualism = gain pleasure from practicing
traditional ceremonies regardless of whether
they have real purpose or goal.
Retreatism = rejects both the goals and the means
of society.
Rebellion = substituting an alternative set of goals
and means for conventional ones.
August Aichorn= “latent delinquency” =
youngsters who seek immediate gratification
without considering right and wrong (they lack
guilt)
Behavior Theory = human actions are developed
through learning experiences. Focus on actual
behavior.
Social Learning theory = (branch of behavior
theory) Man are not born with ability to act
violently but they learn to be aggressive through
their life experiences.
Behavior modeling = is the process by which
violence is learned by experience.
50. He was the one who introduced the following
definition of criminology: “It is the entire body
of knowledge regarding crime as a social
phenomenon. It includes within its scope the
process of making laws, of breaking laws and of
reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
a) Raffaelle Garofalo c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Cesare Beccaria d) Paul Topinard
51. It is the most essential part of the definition of
the criminal law:
a. elements c. degree of evidence
b. penalty d. motive
52. In Biological Theory, the following can lead to
criminal behavior, except:
a) Physical Defects
b) Chromosome Irregularity
c) Abnormal Brain Function
d) Inferior body construction

53. It contends that the exploitation of the working

class would eventually lead to class conflict at the
end of the capitalist system.
a. Chicago School c. Positive Theory
b. Conflict Theory d. Class School
54. Group of urban sociologists who studies the
relationship between environmental conditions and
crime.
a. classical school c. chicago school
b. neo-classical school d. positive school
55. An act in violation of the criminal law that is
designed to bring financial gain to the offender.
a. organized crime c. economic crime
b. bias crime d. profit crime
Bias crime = directed toward a particular persons or
members of a group who share discernible racial,
ethic, religious or gender characteristics. Also called
hate crime
56. Which of the following statement best
describes the Latin maxim "There is no crime
where no law punishing it".
a. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege.
b. dura lex sed lex
c. ignorantia legis neminem excusat
d. actus me invitus factus non est meus actus.
Enrico Ferri = “people were driven to commit
them by conditions of their lives”. Crime
problem could be traced not to bad people
but to bad laws. “Theory of Imputable and
Denial of Free Will”
A. Social Structure theory = view that
disadvantaged economic class position is a primary
cause of crime
1. Social Disorganizational theory = branch of social
structure that focus on the breakdown of institution
such as family, school, and employment in inner city
neighborhood. Focuses on the conditions within
the urban environment that affect crime
rates . Links crime rate to neighborhood ecological
characteristics .
(Shaw and Mckay=contended that criminals are not
biologically inferior, intellectually impaired or
psychologically damaged and criminal behavior is
cause by neighborhood denigration and slum
conditions )
2. Strain theory = views that crime is a direct
result of lower-class frustration and anger (due
to unattained goals).
3. Cultural deviance theory = branch of social
structure theory that sees strain and social
disorganization together resulting in a unique
lower-class culture that conflicts with
conventional social norms.
B. Social Process Theory = Views that criminality is a
function of people’s interaction with various
organization, institutions and process in society
1. Social Learning = The view that human behavior is
modeled through observation of human
social interactions, either directly from observing
those who are close from intimate contact, or
indirectly through the media. Interaction that are
rewarded are copied, while those that are punished
are avoided. (Albert Bandura)
It views that violence as something learned
through the process called behavior modelling.
(It includes Differential Association theory (Edwin
Sutherland) and Differential reinforcement theory)
2. Social Control theory = maintains that all people
have the potential to violate the law and that modern
society presents many opportunities for illegal
activities
Social Bond Theory =(Travis Hirschi) the dominant
version of the social control theory which views that
people commit crime when the forces that bond
(weakening ties that bind people to society) them to
society are weakened or broken.
3. Social reaction theory = (commonly called
labeling theory) view s that people become
criminals when significant members of society
label them as such as they accept those labels as
a personal identity.
57. This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term is
used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
a. violence c. revolution
b. guerilla d. rebel
58. The commission of criminal acts using the
instruments of modern technology such as
computers or the internet.
a. cyber sex c. computer crimes
b. cyber crime d. computer hacking
59. Frustration can be manifested by the presence of
anxiety, irritability and
a) state of fear c) self fulfillment
b) satisfaction d) peace
60. A term that used to describe motorists who assault
each other.
a. road rage c. predation
b. hate crime d. serial murder
61. This theory reflects the way people react to a given
situation based on the social influences they acquired
from other people that practically determine their
behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning
process of delinquent behaviors and considered as
one of the most important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
62. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a
criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to
different sets of conduct norms.
a) Emile Durkheim c) Andre Michael Guerry
b) Thorsten Sellin d) Abraham Maslow
63. He explained that individuals learn criminal
behavior by means of communication with persons
who dwell in criminality:
a) Cesare Lombroso c) Edwin Sutherland
b) Charles B. Goring d) Emile Durkheim
64. The theory which states that attachment,
connection and link to society will determine
whether a person shall commit a crime or not:
a. social control c) social disorganization
b. social bond d) social learning
65. The killing of a large number of people over
time by an offender who seeks to escape
detection.
a. road rage c. hate crime
b. mass murder d. serial murder
66. The philosophy of justice that asserts that
those who violate the rights of others deserve
to be punished. The severity of the
punishment should be commensurate with
the seriousness of the crime.
a. restorative justice c. utilitarianism
b. jus desert d. equality of punishment
67. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls
below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain
functioning.
a. hyperglycemia c. hyperglycomia
b. hypoglycemia d. hypoglycomia
68. It is a proposal of a double male or super male
syndrome. This theory held that the possession of
an extra Y-chromosome causes males to be violent
and aggressive.
a. XYY syndrome c. XXY syndrome
b. YYX syndrome d. YXX syndrome
69. This school on crime causation emphasized
economic determinism and concentrated on
the need for the quality among all citizen.
They provided statistical data which claimed
to show that variations in crime rates are
associated with variations in economic
conditions.
a. Cartographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School
70. “Manie sans delire” (madness without
confusion) . This was the term used by
Philippe Pinel describing the personality that
is characterized by an inability to learn from
experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of
guilt better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox
71. A tracing made by an instrument that measures
cerebral functioning by recording brain wave
activity with electrodes that are placed on the scalp.
a. electroencephalogram
b. electroencephalograph
c. electrocraniogram
d. electo-brain activity
72. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the
law, and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of
crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
c. Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory
73. It refers to the condition bought by normlessness.
a. criminality c. anomie
b. logomacy d. frustration
Logomacy = a statement that we would have no crime if
we don’t have law and that we can eliminate crime if
we merely abolish criminal law.
74. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down
of delinquent behaviors as socially learned and
transferred from one generation to the next taking
place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
a. Cultural Transmission c) Social Phenomenon
b. Crime d) Delinquent behavior

75. This part of man’s personality is present at birth

representing unconscious biological drives for sex,
food and other life-sustaining necessities and
follows the “pleasure principle” which requires
instant gratification and has no concern for the
rights of others.
a. Id c) Superego
b. Ego d) Alter ego
76. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per
month. It is the theoretical basis which determines
the peace and order situation.
a. index crimes c. crime rate
b. non-index crimes d. crime statistics

77. The idea that low female crime and delinquency

rates are a reflection of the leniency with which
police treat female offenders.
a. doing gender
b. chivalry hypothesis
c. masculinity hypothesis
d. pre-menstrual syndrome
78. A stage of development when girls begin to
have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus complex c. doing gender
b. Electra complex d. chivalry hypothsis

79. It is the percentage of solved cases out of the

total number of reported crime incidents
handled by the police for a given period of time.
a. crime rate c. crime analysis
b. crime solution efficiency d. crime variance
80. The legal principle by which the decision or
holding in an earlier case becomes the
standard by which subsequent similar cases
are judged. It literally means “to stand by
decided cases”.
a. jus desert c. stare decisis
b. story decisis d. just stare
81. This theory focuses on the development of
high-crime areas associated with the
disintegration of conventional values caused
by rapid industrialization, increased
migration, and urbanization.

a. social disorganization theory

b. differential association theory
c. culture conflict theory
d. maternal deprivation and attachment
theory
82. This is a theory by Robert Merton which
assumes that people are law abiding but
under great pressure, they will resort to
crime.
a. strain theory c. social learning
b. cultural deviance d. anomie
83. The first IQ test was developed by a
French psychologist named:
a. Rafael Garofalo c. Albert Bandura
b. Walter Reckless d. Alfred Binet
84. According to the Social Bond theory of
Travis Hirschi, the four (4) social bonds that
promote socialization and conformity are
the following:
a. attachment c. involvement
b. commitment d. belief
e. all of the above
85. The following, except one, are biochemical
factors to criminality:
a. brain lesions c. food allergies
b. hypoglycemia d. diet
86. This theory viewed that people become
criminals when significant members of the
society label them as such and they accept
those labels as a personal identity.
a. social bond c. social disorganization
b. social reaction d. strain theory
87. It refers to the strength of emotional bond
between the infant and the mother.
a. maternal bond c. emotional bond
b. attachment d. closeness
88. This theory points out that an individual
commits crimes after he has made a rational
decision to do so and has weighed the risks
and benefits of the act and selected a
particular offense according to various
criteria.
a. risk analysis theory
b. utilitarianism
c. rational choice theory
d. irrational choice theory
89. This social control theory, according to Walter
Reckless, views that strong self-image insulates
the youth from the pressures and influences in
the environment.
a. Containment theory c. Social reaction
b. Social bond thoery d. Social learning
90. According to Maslow, this need explains the
individuals desire to respect s an honorable
human being.
a. self –actualization c. Esteem
b. safety need d. survival need
 91. Typology of crime means ________:
 a. categorization or types of crime
 b. extent of crime
 c. crime trend
 d. crime situation
 92. If the population in municipality A is 195,
000 and the crime volume is 2, 540, what is the
crime rate?
a. 1230.6 b. 1302.6 c. 1465.2 d. 1203.5
 Formula : CR = CV x 100,000
Population
 Given : CV (Crime volume) = 2,540
 Population = 195,000
 CR = 2,540 x 100,000 / 195,000
 CR = 254,0OO,OOO / 195,000
 CR = 1,302.56 OR 1,302.6
 93. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the
national total crime volume of 84, 875, how
many crimes were reported to the police?
 a. 20, 250 b. 22, 068 c. 32, 644 d. 22, 858
Formula: Number of Crime = Total Volume X26%
 Number of reported crime = 84,875 X .26
 = 22,067.5 or 22,068
 94. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220
in 2011. What was the percent increase?
a. + 22.2% b. + 22.0%c. + 20.2% d. + 20.1%
 Given : 2010 = 180
 2011 = 220
First:
2011 crime minus (-) 2010 crime = 220 – 180
= 40 crimes
Second:Get the percentage increased using the
formula:180/100% = 40/X or X = 40 X 100 / 180
 X = 4,000/180
 X = 22.22
 95. The following, except one, are biochemical
factors to criminality:
a. brain lesions b. hypoglycemia
c. food allergies d. diet
 CRIMINAL
JUSTICE SYSTEM
1. Which of the following is NOT included in the components of
criminal justice system of the United States?
a. Law enforcement c. Corrections
b. Prosecution d. Courts
 U.S. CJS Pillars = LCC (Law Enforcement, Court &
Correction)
 R.P. CJS Pillars = LPCCC (Law Enforcement, Prosecution,
Court, Correction & Community)
2. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most
important function of the CJS is the protection of the public
and the repression of criminal conduct.
a. Crime prevention c. Crime control
b. Law and order d. Due process
Two Models of Criminal Justice System:
A. Due Process Model = (the accused is
presumed innocent) the rights of an individual
must be co-equal with the concern for public
safety.
B. Crime Control Model = ( the accused is
presumed guilty) gives greater importance to the
protection of society against oppression.
3. This concerns to the obligations of the
community to individuals, and requires fair
disbursement of common advantages and
sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution c. justice
b. equality d. trial
4. This function of the law enforcement is being done
through elimination of factors influencing the
occurrence of crimes, good community relations,
educating the citizens about their role, introduction
of delinquency prevention programs, good parenting
and others.
a. Maintenance of law and order
b. Reduction of crime
c. crime prevention
d. crime control
5. This principal character of the criminal justice
process links all components of the CJS.
a. Offender c. Victim
b. witness d. Crime
 Law violators
 Offender = the principal character to the CJS.
 Felon = one who committed a felony.
 Suspect = one who is implicated to the
commission of a crime (subject of
investigation).
 Respondent = person who is a subject of
preliminary investigation or inquest
proceeding.
 Accused = person charged of an offense in
court and facing trial.
 Criminal = one who is found guilty by final
judgment b a competent court.
6. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution b. Correction
c. Police d. Court
Police = initiator or prime mover of the CJS.
Prosecution = represents the People of the Phils.
Court = the centerpiece of the CJS. It ensures the
administration of justice.
Correction = responsible for the rehabilitation or
reformation of convicted offenders.
Community = responsible for accepting for
reintegration those sentence prisoners who have
served their sentence.
7. He is responsible in evaluating the
evidence the police have gathered and
deciding whether it is sufficient to
warrant the filing of charge(s) against
the alleged violator.
a. Investigator c. judge
b. prosecutor d. solicitor general
8. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that
the defense and the prosecution adhere
to the legal requirements of introducing
evidences.
a. Clerk of court c. judge
b. sheriff d. jury
9. The pillar of the CJS which is not under
the executive branch of the government.
a. law enforcement c. court
b. prosecution d. correction
10. This is a governmental body that is charged
with the responsibility of administering justice.
a. Law enforcement c. correction
b. Prosecution d. court
11. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction,
whether as an individual or as a member of some
court, Government Corporation, board or
commission.
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Government employee
c. Government officer
d. person in authority
 Public officers = refers to any
government officers or employee in general.
 Person in Authority = one vested with
jurisdiction (power/authority).
 Agent of a person in authority = one
who is in-charge of ensuring peace and
order and enforcement of law and
protection of life and property.
12. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in
the Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as
the lawyer of the State or government in criminal
cases.
a. law enforcement c. court
b. prosecution d. correction
13. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s
Office before it can entertain a complaint on a case
covered by the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit
14. It refers to the study of the various agency of our
government in charged of processing law violators
to ensure the protection of the society and
maintenance of peace and order.
a. Criminology c. Criminal Justice
b. Victimlogy d. Sociology
15. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the
rules of conduct necessary to protect life and
property and to maintain peace and order?
a. Criminal Justice System c. Criminology
b. Criminal law d. Criminal jurisprudence
16. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case
which would convince a reasonable mind based on
moral certainty but which nevertheless does not
preclude the possibility of error.
a. preponderance of evidence
b. clear and convincing evidence
c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
 Hierarchy of Proof (quantum of Proof/
Degree of Proof required in a case)
 Proof Beyond Reasonable doubt (Criminal
case) = requires moral certainty.
 Clear and Convincing Evidence (a little
higher than preponderance of evidence but
lower than proof beyond reasonable doubt) =
used to prove self-defense and in extradition
hearing.
 Preponderance of Evidence (Civil Case) =
evidence of greater weight.
 Substantial Evidence (Administrative Case)
= evidence sufficient to support a conclusion.
17. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the
prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby
the prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge
a lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s
entering a guilty plea.
a. arraignment c. preliminary investigation
b. pre-trial d. plea bargaining

18. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country

which is under the ________?
a. DOJ c. DILG
b. NAPOLCOM d. DSWD
Arraignment = formal reading of charges in an open
court in a language understandable by the accused and
thereby asking him whether he pleads guilty or not.
Pre-trial = a mandatory proceeding conducted to
expedite the trial of the case.
Inquest Proceeding Preliminary Investigation

1. Conducted to a subject who has been 1. Conducted to cases

arrested without a warrant.
2. The purpose is to determine the validity
of arrest and the existence of a probable
cause for the filing of criminal
information.
3. Must be conducted following the
Provisions of Art 125. (Grave Felony = 36
hrs, Less Grave felony = 18 hrs & Light
felony = 12 hrs.)
punishable by at least 4years
2 months and one day and
above. (Rule 112)
2. Inquiry or proceeding for
the purpose of determining
the existence of probable
cause for the filing of criminal
information to court
19. A person who is under custodial investigation is
basically protected by a number of rights mandated
under the constitution and this was even expounded
in the legislative act known as _______?
a. Miranda Doctrine c. R.A. 7438
b. Bill of Rights d. R.A. 6975
 Bill of Right = fundamental rights of a person
under the constitution.
 Miranda Warning = the doctrine involving arrest
of a person and placing the person under custody of
the law.
 R.A. 9745 = Anti-torture Act
20. A body officially assembled under authority
of law in which judicial power is vested or the
administration of justice is delegated.
a. court c. corrections
b. prosecution d. law enforcement
21. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain
peace and order, enforce the law, protect life,
liberty and property and ensure public safety.
a. police c. prosecution
b. court d. corrections
22. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation
and treatment of persons convicted of committing
crime.
a. police b. court c. prosecution d. corrections
23. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 8294 c. R.A. 7080
b. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 3019
 R.A. 6713 = (February 20, 1989) Code of Conduct
and Ethical Standard for Public officials and
employees.
 R.A. 1379 = An act declaring forfeiture of ill gotten
wealth of public officers and employee.
 R.A. 7080 = Anti Plunder Act.
24. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses
punishable with imprisonment not exceeding
six years.
a. Supreme Court c. RTC
b. Court of Appeals d. MTC
 Courts in the Philippines
 Supreme Court = highest court with one (1)
Chief Justice and 14 Associate Justices.
 Court of Appeals (69 Justices); Court of Tax
Appeals; and Sandiganbayan (1 –presiding
justice and 14 associate justices).
 Regional Trial Court = court of general
jurisdiction. (cases punishable by more than 6
years).
 MTC, METC, MCTC & MTCC = first level
court. (cases punishable by not more than 6
years)
25. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and
Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on December 13,
1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975 b. R.A. 8551 c. P.D. 1184 d. R.A. 6040

 R.A. 8551 = PNP reform and Reorganization Act of 1998.

(PNP Modernization Act).
 P.D. 1184 = INP personnel Professionalization Law of
1977.
 R.A. 6040 = The law which authorized the NAPOLCOM to
administer the Entrance Examination for Philippine National
Police Applicant.
 26. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the
regulations of the Department of State. This was armed and
considered as the mounted police who later discharged the
duties of a port, harbor and river police.
A. Carabineros de Seguridad Publica C. Guardia Civil
B. Guardrilleros D. Barangay Chieftains
 27. On January 9, 1901, the Metropolitan Police Force of
Manila was organized pursuant to :
A. Act No 70 B. Act 175 C. Act 255
D. E.O. 389 E.O. 94
 Act No. 175 = Creates the Insular Constabulary.
 Act. No. 255 = renamed the Insular Constabulary to
Philippine Constabulary.
 R.A. 157 = Bureau of Investigation (later named National
Bureau of Investigation by virtue of E.O. 94).
 28. It created the POLCOM (Police
Commission) as a supervisory agency to oversee
the training and professionalization of the local
police under the Officer of the President.
Otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization act of 1966, dated
September 8, 1966. It was later renamed as the
National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM).
A. R.A. 4864 B. P.D. 765
C. E.O. 1012 D. E.O. 1040
 P.D. 765 = creates the Integrated National
Police (INP).
29. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the
existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus,
lessen the police work as suppressing the spread of
criminality.
a. Crime Prevention c. Crime control
b. Criminal apprehension d. law enforcement
30. Directly under the supervision of the Department of
Justice, its most important function in the Criminal
Justice System is to maintain and recognize the rule of
law through the speedy delivery of services particularly
in the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service c. PNP
b. Ombudsman d. Solicitor General
 Ombudsman = prosecutor arm of the government
concerning cases committed by public officer with
salary grade 27 and above or with the rank equivalent
to regional head.
 Solicitor General = the lawyer of the State. He
represents the State in Appeal Cases to higher courts.
31. What do you call a court covering two (2) or
more municipalities?
a. MTC b. MCTC c. MeTC d. MTC’s
32. What is that term which refers to the wise use
of one’s own judgment in a given situation
without referring to your superior due to the
eminence of the situation?
a. Police resourcefulness c. Police discretion
b. Police integrity d. police prudence
33. It refers to the art or science of identifying law
violators, locating and tracing them in order to
affect their arrest and gather evidence to prove their
guilt in court.
b. Crime prevention c. criminal investigation
a. Crime control d. Intelligence work
34. An attached agency of the Office of the President
tasked to implement and undertake drug law
enforcement.
a. Narcotics Command c. AID-SOTF
b. PDEA d. NBI
35. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace
officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of the law
violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
prosecutor.
a. Complaint b. Pleadings c. Information d. affidavit
Pleadings = written statements of the respective claims
and defenses of the parties submitted to the court for
appropriate judgment. (Rule 6, Sec. 1,Rules of Court)
Complaint Information
1. Sworn Statement 1. Need not be sworn
2. Subscribed by Offended party, peace officer or 2. Subscribed by the
any public officer entrusted of the enforcement of Fiscal (Prosecutor)
the law violated. 3. Filed with the
3. Filed with the prosecutor’s office/ court. Court.
36. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-
founded belief that a crime has been committed and
the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and
should be held for trial.
a. preliminary investigation c. Prejudicial question
b. inquest proceeding d. custodial investigation

37. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases

punishable by:
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one
(1) day.
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
38. Is the actual restraint of a person into custody in
order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. Arrest c. investigation
b. invitation d. seizure

39. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and

capturing the law breakers in the execution of their
criminal plan.
a. Instigation c. Entrapment
b. Investigation d. Raid
40. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or
interdependent from any branch of government.
a. prosecution c. correction
b. court d. community
41. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor
who directs the prosecution of the offense and
he/she did it on the behalf of the state. Once a case
is elevated to the higher court such as Court of
Appeals, who represents the State in the prosecution
of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor c. Solicitor General
b. National or provincial prosecutor d. Judge
42. It refers to the questioning initiated by law
enforcement officer after a person has been taken
into custody.
a. custodial investigation c. interview
b. inquest d. interrogation
43. In cases committed by Public officer with salary
grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a
complaint should first be filed to the office of
_______ for the conduct of the required
preliminary investigation.
a. Ombudsman c. Solicitor General
b. Judge of MTC d. the President
44. In flagrante delicto means ______?
a. caught in the act c. caught after commission
b. instigation d. entrapment

 45. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power

or try cases submitted to for adjudication. What
term is use in referring to the authority or power to
hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction c. Venue
b. Jurisprudence d. Territory
46. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for
the first time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction c. exclusive jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction d. concurrent jurisdiction
Exclusive = sole authority; Appellate = to review or retry
47. It is the formal reading of the charges against a
person accused of a crime and latter asking him
whether he pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
a. arraignmentb. preliminary investigation
c. plea d. promulgation of judgment
Rendition of judgment = the writing of the decision.
Promulgation of judgment = reading of the judgment.
48. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within
Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod c. pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. barangay council d. lupon tagapamayapa

49. It is the most common way by which the police

discovers or it informed that a crime has been
committed:
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
50. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the
Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the
Brgy. Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and
other members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
c. more than 10
d. less than 10
51. When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
52. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
without a warrant?
a. All of these
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of
the arresting officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and
there is personal knowledge based on probable
cause that the person to be arrest has committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
53. Refers to the counsel provided by the government
to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio c. counsel de parte
b. Public Attorney’s Office d. volunteer counsel

54. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to

attend and to testify or to bring with him any books
or documents under his control at the trial of an
action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum
d. warrant of arrest
55. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
a. R.A. 7080 c. R.A. 3019
b. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 6713

56. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to

provide free legal assistance to poor members of
society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office
57. This is the power to apply the law to contests or
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or
duties between the state and private persons, or
between individual litigants in cases properly
brought before the judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power c. Judicial Review
b. Court d. Court of Justice
58. This is the process or method whereby accusations
are brought before the court of justice to determine
the innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor c. Prosecution
b. Trial d. Preliminary Investigation
59. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to
hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation c. Settlement
b. Arbitration d. Agreement
60. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the
name of the government?
a. Public Prosecutor c. Private Prosecutor
b. Prosecution d. Ombudsman
61. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC c. Sandiganbayan
b. Supreme Court d. MTC
62. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended,
which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review
on appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the
Internal Revenue involving internal revenue taxes
and decisions of the Commissioner of Customs
involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice c. Court of Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
63. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed
by high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of
27 above), which can only be committed because of
their position.
a. Court of Justice c. Court of Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
64. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison
authorities to receive the convicted offender for
service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order c. Mittimus
b. warrant of arrest d. habeas corpus
Commitment order = written order of an authority
ordering the receive of a person for temporary
confinement.
65. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
a. Penology c. Probation
b. Correction d. Criminology
66. A Jail is a place for the temporary confinement for
persons awaiting court action as well as convicted
persons serving short sentence. It was derived from
what Spanish word?
a. jaula c. caula
b. gaol d. hawla
e. a and c
67. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by
the president. Which of the following is not one of
them?
a. Pardon c. Amnesty
b. Commutation of Sentence d. Parole
68. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
prisoners. What classification of prisoners is
sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to
three (3) years or whose fine is less than 6,000
but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner d. municipal prisoner
Municipal jail = 1 day to 6 months
Provincial = 6 months & 1 day to 3 years.
City = 1 day to 3 years.
National = 3 years & a day and above
69. Prisons are institution for confinement of
convicted offenders sentenced to more than
three (3) years of imprisonment. It is derived
from the Greco-Roman word _____?
a. Presinto c. Precindio
b. presidio d. precinto
70. It is granted to convicted offenders who
have served a portion of their service granted
by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
a. Pardon c. Probation
b. Amnesty d. Parole
71. They serve as the conciliation panel consisting of
three (3) members.
a. Lupon tagapagkasundo
b. Lupon Tagapamayapa
c. Pangkat tagapagkasundo
d. Pangkat tagapamayapa

P.D. 1508 = law which creates the Katarungang

Pambarangay.
R.A. 7160 = Local Government Code of 1991
Lupon Tagapamayapa = consisting of 10 to 20 members
72. It is a security facility, usually operated by the
police stations, for the temporary detention of
persons held for investigation or awaiting
preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail c. Ordinary jail
b. workhouses d. prison
73. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of
Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted
from the length of years that a prisoner have been
sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence c. Parole
b. GCTA d. reprieve
74. Correctional institutions in the country is divided
into National and Local institution. What
Department of the Executive Branch is the one in
charge of the National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Bureau of Correction
75. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for
the transgression of the law.
a. penalty c. self-defense
b. exemplarity d. punishment
76. City and Municipal is the division of our
correctional institution which primarily in charge of
those detention prisoner, awaiting for final
judgment of their trial and serving short sentences
and under the Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials
Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under the
DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of
the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. Provincial government
77. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the
community.
a. Reintegration c. reincarnation
b. Realization d. Rehabilitation

78. It refers to the examination of an individual’s

person, house, papers or effects, or other buildings
and premises to discover contraband or some
evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a
criminal action:
a. Search c. Search and seizure
b. Raid d. entrapment
79. This court was established by virtue of
PD1083, otherwise known as “Code of
Muslim Personal Laws of the Philippines”.
a. Court of Tax Appeals c. Shari’a Court
b. Sandiganbayan d. Family Court
ETHICS AND
VALUES
1. A division of ethics which deals with the general
principles of morality.
a. general ethics b. special ethics
c. code of ethics d. all of the above
Special ethics = a division of ethics which deals
with specific field or career.
2. It means courage to endure without yielding.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
 Four Moral Virtues
a. Prudence = Ability to govern and discipline oneself by
means of reason and sound judgment. Characterized by
being careful about one’s choice or decision, not taking
undue risk and not saying or doing things that might later
be regretted.
b. Justice = the concept of giving what is due to others. The
moral rightness based on ethics, rationality, law etc.
c. Fortitude = firmness of the mind that enables a person to
face danger, pain or despondency with stoic resolve.
d. Temperance = moderation in action, thought or feeling;
restraint.
3. It is the virtue that inclines the will to give to
each one his rights.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
4. It is the ability to last.
a. endurance b. patience
c. perseverance d. fortitude
Perseverance = once a decision was made, one
shall take legitimate means to achieve the
goal even on the face of internal or external
difficulties and despite anything which might
weaken their resolve in the course of time.
5. It is the ability to govern and discipline
oneself by means of reason and sound
judgment.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
6. It the ability to moderate or to avoid
something.
a. prudence b. fortitude
c. temperance d. justice
7. It is the ability to be calm in enduring
situations.
a. patience b. perseverance
c. endurance d. prudence

8. The ability to go on despite obstacles or

oppositions.
a. patience b. perseverance
c. endurance d. prudence
9. It is anything that is owed or due. The power to own,
exact or use something.
a. right b. duty c. law d. value
Value = (Latin “valere” which means “to be strong or to
be worth). It describes the beliefs of an individual or
culture. It is the concept that described the beliefs of
an individual or culture.
 Duty = anything we are obliged to do or to omit. It is
a moral obligation incumbent upon a person of
doing, omitting or avoiding something.
 Moral values = are those that directly pertain to
the function of intellect and will:
10. It includes all rights enjoyed by individuals as
provided by the Constitution and other international
instruments.
a. Rights b. human rights
c. privileges d. political rights
11. All PNP members must have the moral
courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping
with the time-honored principle of ____.
a. Delicadeza c. Amor propio
b. Pride d. Pakikisama

12. It is the state of affairs requiring tact to

protect the integrity of a person.
a. Virtue c. Delicadeza
b. Courage d. prudence
13. What is the complete title of the PNP
Code of Conduct?
a. PNP Code of Ethical Standards and
Professional Conduct
b. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and
Ethical Standards
c. PNP Code of Conduct and Standards
d. PNP Ethical Standards
14. An example of Police immorality is _________.
a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Going to the office not in uniform
c. Smoking while patrolling
d. Always absent from his post

15. It is a list of rights pertaining to persons; a list of

individual liberties, freedom and rights which are
guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.
a. people’s rights b. bill of rights
c. personal rights d. rights
16. It is the absence of knowledge which a person
ought to possess.
a. ignorance b. amnesia
c. intelligence d. dumb

17. An old Roman philosophy which means “the

safety of the people is the supreme law”.
a. ignorancia leges neminem excusat
b. salus populi est suprema lex
c. ignorancia facti excusat
d. dura lex sed lex
18. It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient
excuse, to perform an act or duty which is the police
officer’s legal obligation to perform.
a. nonfeasance b. misfeasance
c. malfeasance d. corruption
 Malfeasance = performing an act that is prohibited by law.
 Misfeasance = there is irregularity in the performance of duty.
 Non-feasance = failure or non-performance one’s duty.

19. Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful

execution, domination or excessive use of authority.
a. dishonesty b. disloyalty
c. incompetency d. oppression
20. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Graft and
Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 1379 b. R.A. 3019
c. R.A. 7080 d. R.A. 6713

21. It is the misuse of authority for personal

gain committed by a person who enforces
the law.
a. corruption c. immorality
b. police corruption d. police immorality
22. It is the unreasonable, unnecessary and
excessive use of force in the conduct of police
operations which does not support a
legitimate police function.
a. brutality c. torture
b. police brutality d. police torture
23. No PNP member shall engage in any activity
which shall be in conflict with their duties as
public servant.
a. malingering b. moonlighting
c. loyalty to the service d. delicadeza
24. During labor disputes, strikes or rallies,
members of peace keeping detail shall
maintain themselves outside the ____ radius
from the picket line.
a. 50m b. 40m
c. 30m d. 20m

25. Giving unfair breaks to friends and relatives.

a. deviance c. misconduct
b. nepotism d. corruption
26. Police Community relation is:
a. The honest effort of both the police and the
public to understand one another.
b. A pet project of the DILG
c. Building confidence
d. On its way out
27. Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law
enforcers in the performance of their duties.
a. Command responsibility
b. maximum tolerance
c. Parens patriae
d. Rules of engagement
28. Worst form of graft and corruption in the
government.
a. bribery c. malingering
b. abuse of authority d. moonlighting

29. Reason why a police officer must always wear his

uniform securely buttoned.
a. loose clothing is shabby
b. a complete uniform gets women’s attention
c. it is a minor offense
d. a neat appearance will command respect
30. What is the primary purpose of a public relation
program?
a. to develop mutual understanding between the
police and public;
b. To plan for a community relation program;
c. To recruit new members for community
relations;
d. To train police officers in community relations.

31. What program is concerned with creating a

favorable public image of the police?
a. Human relations c. Press relations
b. Community relations d. Public relations
32. What changes must occur given an effective police
community relations program?
A. Attitudinal and behavioral changes in policemen;
B. Political and social changes in policemen.
C. Attitudinal and mental changes in policemen.
D. Social and economic Changes in policemen
33. The key to professionalism is the implementation
of a _____ program which includes the equitable
distribution of recruitment, fair promotion, and
rationalized approach in assignment, skills
development, grant of awards and reward and decent
living upon retirement.
a. Human resource dev’t c. System and Procedure
b. Organizational dev’t d. compensation
34. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork
and cooperation in the police organization.
a. loyalty c. patriotism
b. camaraderie d. valor

35. The authority to make decisions without

reference to the specific rules or facts, using
instead one’s own judgment.
a. Discretion c. Negotiation
b. prudence d. conviction
36. What is the most important supervisory principle in
order to improve the morale of staff?
a. Be fair and just c. BE strict on attendance
b. Be Kind and respectful d. Be forgiving
37. It refers to the planned use of mass communication
for public purpose:
a. Press release c. advertisement
b. Publication d. Propaganda
38. The best measure for the competence of police
officer is ______.
a. High morale of his men
b. Ability of his men to prepare reports.
c. Good command of words
d. High level of education among his men
39. This particular program makes the
policemen a friend and partner of the
people as well as their defender. In short,
this program makes the police a part of, and
not apart from society.

a. Civic Action Program

b. Public information Program
c. Public relation Program
d. Mass Communication Program
40. It is the sum total of all the dealings
of the police with the people it serves
and whose goodwill and cooperation
the police needs for the greatest
possible efficiency in public service.

a. Police Community Relations

b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
d. Public relations
41. A police-community relations programs
must have the following objectives,
EXCEPT:
a. to enforce the law and arrest violators
b. to obtain public cooperation and
assistance
c. to create broader understanding and
sympathy with the problems and needs of
the police
d. to maintain and develop the goodwill and
confidence of the community .
42. The best relation a law enforcement organization
can give to the community is:
a. good and credible performance
b. frequent media coverage of police work
c. good public press relations
d. community visitations
43. In launching a police community program, to attain
a sound degree of success, link or “ugnayan” should
be made first with:
a. Community Civic organization
b. Local prominent residents
c. local ladies club
d. Barangay officials
44. To develop public good will, a policemen on duty
must do the following, EXCEPT:

a. be selective of people to serve

b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
45. The usual greetings rendered by the members of
the PNP:
a. shake hands c. gun salute
b. hand salute d. thumbs-up
46. This program is designed to influence the
opinions, emotions, attitudes, and
behavior of the public so that they will
behave in a manner beneficial to the unit
in particular and the whole PNP in
general.

a. Mass Communication Program

b. Public Information Program
c. Civic Action Program
d. Public Information Program
47. It consists with the peace officers’ relations with
the officers and men of his own department.
a. inter-departmental relations
b. intra-departmental relations
c. citizen’s relations
d. teamwork
48. To develop good will, a policeman on duty should
do the following, EXCEPT:
a. annoy or inconvenience any law abiding citizen
b. perform his job with dedication
c. project an honest image
d. be courteous
49. Considered as the highest form of love in the
PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. love of women c. love of God
c. selfless love of people d. love of power
50. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge
of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
Constitution.
a. nationalism c. heroism
b. patriotism d. valor
Nationalism & Patriotism = loyalty to the republic and
to the people, promote the use of locally produced
goods, resources and technology and encourage
appreciation and pride of country and people.
Commitment to public interest = public officials and
employees (POE) shall always uphold the public
interest over and above personal interest.
Commitment to democracy = POE shall commit
themselves to the democratic way of life and
values, maintain the principle of public
accountability, and manifest by deeds the
supremacy of civilian authority over the military.
Simple living = POE and their families shall lead
modest lives appropriate to their positions and
income. They shall not indulge extravagant or
ostentatious display of wealth in any form.
 PNP image = the image of any organization affects
the spirit de’ corps morale and welfare of
members and sense of pride to the organization.
(PNP should conduct themselves in a manner that
would not place the PNP in bad light. Instead, live
in accordance with the PNP core values and
possess the following virtues: honor, integroty,
valor, justice, honesty, humility, charity and
loyalty to the service.)
 Police lifestyle = PNP shall endeavor to promte a
lifestyle for every member of the organization that
is acceptable and respectable in the eyes of the
public.
Political patronage = ALL PNP members must
inhibit himself from soliciting political patronage
in matters pertaining to assignment, awards,
training and promotion.
Delicadeza = in consonance with the requirements
of honor and integrity in the PNP, all members
must have the moral courage to sacrifice self-
interest in keeping with the time-honored
principle of delicadeza.
Equality in the Service = there shall be judicious and
equitable distribution of opportunity to prove
one’s worth in the police service.
 51. Public officials & employees shall always uphold the
public interest over and above personal interest. All
government resources and powers of their respective offices
must be employed and used efficiently, effectively, honestly
& economically to avoid wastage in public fund and revenue.
 a. Commitment to democracy c. Commitment to
Public interest
 b. Commitment to service d. Conservation of
Natural Resources
 52. All PNP members must inhibit himself from soliciting
political influence “padrino system”, help or support in
matters pertaining to assignment, awards, training and
promotion.
 a. Non partisanship b. Political Patronage
c. Police Lifestyle d. Delicadeza
 Non-partisanship = PNP members shall provide services to
everyone without discrimination regardless of party affiliation
in accordance with existing laws and regulations.
 Police Lifestyle = the public expects a police officer to live a
simple, yet credible and dignified life.
 53. It is characterized by being upright in character, in
manner, dignified in appearance, and sincere in their concern
to their fellowmen.
a. Gentlemanliness b. Valor c. Discipline d. Patriotism
 54. PNP personnel shall follow logical procedures in
accomplishing task assigned to them to minimize waste in the
use of time, money and effort.
a. Orderliness b. Discipline c. Humility d. Justice
 55. The concept that the manner in which the police were
viewed was likely to influence the degree of cooperation they
were to receive was espoused by:
a. Sir Robert Peel b. Friedrich Taylor
c. Max Weber d. Edwin Sutherland
 56. Excessive use of force or police brutality is a violation
of the ethical standards. The PNP member shall exercise
proper and _____ use of authority in the performance of
duty.
a. effective b. legitimate c. proportionate d. responsible
 57. In cases of eviction or demolition of squatter’s
dwellings, which of the following should the police do?
a. exercise maximum tolerance while giving security
assistance.
b. exercise limited force
c. participate in actual demolition
d. exercise maximum force in dealing with squatter
58. Under this ethical standard, the PNP member shall take
legitimate means to achieve goals inspite of internal or
external difficulties.
a. integrity b. humility c. orderliness d. perseverance

59. A police community relations program must provide

opportunities for the police and the citizens to____.
a. talk with each other b. talk for each other
c. talk through each other d. talk to each other.
 60. Assume that you are a police officer and you found out
that you have unjustly reprimanded PO Cruz. The best
procedure to follow is:
a. justify the reprimand
b. talk to him and admit your mistake
c. make an apology but tolerate his misbehaviour
d. ignore the matter
 JUVENILE
DELINQUENCY
1. Refers to any person below 18 years
of age or those over but unable to fully
take care of themselves from neglect,
abuse, cruelty, exploitation or
discrimination due to some physical
defect or mental disability or condition.

a. child c. wards
b. physically disabled d. youth
2. Act or omission which may not be
punishable if committed by an adult, but
becomes unlawful when they are
committed by a child or a person of tender
year or one who is in need of supervision
or assistance.
a. crime c. status offense
b. delinquency d. felonies
3. The power of the state to give any form of
charity of public nature. It is the philosophy
behind the view that youthful offender/child in
conflict with the law is the victim of improper
care and that the state is duty bound to
provide protection.
A. positivism c. loco parentis
B. patria potestas d. parens patriae
4. The age of majority under Philippine Law:
a. 21 c. 15
b. 18 d. 22
5. An act providing for stronger deterrence and
special protection against child abuse,
exploitation and discrimination.
a. P.D. 603 c. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9344 d. R.A. 9262
6. The PD. 603 is otherwise known as:
a. The Child Welfare Code
b. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
c. Youth Offender’s Code
d. Children Welfare Code
7. Under the law, they are the one
responsible for preventing the child from
becoming addicted to intoxicating
drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking,
gambling or any harmful practices.

a. DSWD
b. state
c. Parents
d. police
8. The civil personality of the child is
deemed to have been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child
b. when the child celebrates his first
birthday
c. from the time of his conception
d. upon reaching the age of majority
9. PD 603 was signed by the late
president Marcos when?
a. December 10, 1974 c. June 10, 1975
b. June 10, 1974 d. July 6, 1987
10. Truancy means absence from school
without cause for more than _____ days
not necessarily consecutive.
a. 30 days c. 5 days
b. 20 days d. 15 days
11. Refers to a person appointed by the
court to act as the legal guardian of the
child even though the parents of the
child are still alive when the best interest
of the said child so require.

a. adopter
b. loco parentis
c. guardian ad litem
d. temporary guardian
12. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under
18 is exempt from criminal liability
unless:

a. he is committed a henious crime

b. he is the principal accused
c. he acted without discernment
d. he acted with discernment
13. The Child in Conflict with the law
cannot be prosecuted for the
commission of the following, EXCEPT:
a. status offense
b. vagrancy
c. prostitution
d. theft
14. A child left by himself without provisions
for his needs/or without proper supervision
falls under what special category of a child?

a. abandoned child c. abused child

b. neglected child d. dependent child
15. In the absence of death of both parents of the
child who shall continue to exercise authority
over the child?
I. Surviving grand parents
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
III. Surviving parents of child
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of
age.
a. I, II and IV only c. I and II only
b. I, II, III only d. all of the above
16. The following are example of status
offense except:

a. truancy from school

b. malicious mischief
c. use of profanity
d. running away from home
17. Is a self association of peers, bound
together by mental interest, who acted in
concert in order to achieve a specific
purpose which includes the conduct of
illegal activities and control over a
particular territory, facility or type of
enterprises.
a. Juvenile gang
b. Organized criminal
c. a bond
d. street corner gang
18. A child that was conceived outside of a
marriage, born during the marriage of the
parents.

a. Illegitimate c. legitimated
b. legitimate d. adopted
19. The court can suspend parental authority if it
finds that the parent is:
I. Treats the child with excessive harshness of
cruelty.
II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or
example
III. Compel the child to beg
IV. Imposed to a child disciplinary actions.

a. I and II only c. I and III only

b. I, II, III and IV d. I, II and III only
20. Who among the following is considered as
“Child in Conflict with the Law”?
a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
b. Pedro who is 10 years old.
c. Paul who is 17 years old
d. anyone of them
21. Refers to the totality of the circumstances
which are most beneficial for the child.
a. child as zone of peace c. nation building
b. best interest of the child d. presumption of
minority
22. It implies the keeping of the unlawful
behavior from occurring originally and
thus avoiding police intervention.

a. prevention c. monitoring
b. control d. safekeeping
23. Is the mass obligation which the parents
have in relation to the persons and
property of their an unemancipated child.

a. Paretal authority
b. Patria Potestas
c. Parens’ Patriae
d. Parental Responsibility
24. Which of the following best describe the
philosophy behind the adoption.

a. for the childless home to be filled-in

b. to established paternity and filiation
c. to raise a child from illegtimacy to legitimacy
d. to promote the welfare of the child
25. Means freedom from parental
authority both over the persons and
property of the child.

a. adoption c. emancipation
b. legitimation d. recognition
26. A person of such age is automatically
exempt from criminal liability but should be
taken to the custody and care of his parents,
DSWD representative or any institution
engage in child caring.
a.15 years and below
b. under 18 years of age
c. under 15 years of age
d. under 21 years of age
27. Refers to a child raise to the status of
legitimate child by subsequent marriage
of his/her parents.

a. illegitimate c. legitimated
b. legitimate d. adopted
28. It is the expulsion of the fetus from the
mother’s womb:

a. intentional abortion
b. unintentional abortion
c. therapeutic abortion
d. abortion
29. In case of separation between parents of the
child, a child of such age is given by the court
the preference to choose between either
parents.

a. under 9 years of age

b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age
30. No descendants shall be compelled to
testify his ascendants both in criminal and
civil cases.

a. false c. doubtful
b. true d. misleading
31. Is a juridical act which creates a
relationship between two persons similar
to that resulting from legitimate
paternity and filiation.

a. marriage c. adoption
b. legitimation d. annulment
32. Refers to aggregate of persons working in
commercial, industrial and agricultural
establishments or enterprises whether
belonging to the labor or management whose
primary duty is to care for the welfare of the
working children.

a. civic association of adult

b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
33. Parental authority is deemed terminated
upon:

a. death of the parents

b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the above
34. The primary duty of the law enforcer is
apprehending a youthful offender is:

a. subject him to psychological test

b. interview / interrogate him
c. take him to the nearest health center for
the necessary medical, physical and mental
examination
d. take him to the DSWD
35. Which of the following is the best way for
the police to win youth’s trust and
confidence.

a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good
and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a
person in authority
36. A child born inside a marriage where either
party is suffering from an impediments.

a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
37. The act of engaging in the trading, dealing
with children like buying and selling of a
child or minor for money or consideration.

a. child abuse
b. exploitation
c. child trafficking
d. abduction
38. Is a special classification of a child
characterized by his behavioral disorder,
either functional or organic which is in need
of professional help or hospitalization.

a. emotionally disturbed child

b. physically handicapped
c. mentally ill child
d. neglected child
39. Any person who shall engage in trading and
dealing with children, such as buying or selling
of a child for money shall suffer the penalty of:

a. reclusion temporal
b. prison correctional
c. reclusion temp to reclusion perpetua
d. prison mayor to reclusion temporal
40. Refers to the person who is subject for
adoption:

a. adopter c. adoptive
b. adoptee d. adoptor
41. Before any petition for adoption may be
approved, the adopter and the adoptee must
first undergo a supervised trial custody for a
period of:

a. at least one year

b. at least six months
c. more than six months
d. more than one year
42. Who may file a complaint concerning abuse of
child ( in order )

a. parents, offended party, grand parents, the

state
b. the offended party, parents, grandparents,
any peace officer or public officer in charge
with the law violated the state.
c. the parents, any peace officer, grandparents,
that state and any other public officer in charge
of the law violated.
d. Peace officer, any public officer, the parents,
grand parents, the state.
43. They are unable to acquire a higher academic
skill but usually acquire basic skill for learning
their I.Q. range from 25 to 50.

a. educable c. trainable
b. borderline d. custodial group
44. Refers to any maltreatment made either
habitual or not be it psychological,
physical, or emotional maltreatment.

a. child trafficking
b. child abuse
c. exploitation
d. child prostitution
45. R.A. 6809 is an act which amends for such
purpose the provision of the E.O. 209
lowering the age of majority from:

a. 20 to 17 years old
b. 18 to 21 years old
c. 17 to 20 years old
d. 21 to 18 years old
46. Is a process in which a child is given the
same status and rights as legitimate child,
both in relation to the parents and to the
relatives of the later.

a. adoption c. legitimation
b. marriage d. emancipation
47. A family type homes which provides
temporary shelter from ten to twenty days
for children who shall during this period be
under observation and study for eventually
placement by the Dept. of Social Welfare.

a. shelter care
b. receiving homes
c. detention home
d. child caring inst.
48. In relation to the preceeding question, children
should not anytime exceed:
a. Nine children c. seven children
b. eight children d. ten children

49. An illegitimate child shall inherit from his

father ________.
a. one half of the legitime of the spouse
b. one half of the legitime of one legitimate child
c. one fourth of the legitime of legitimate child
d. one forth of the legitime of an adopted child
50. It is always the duty of a teacher to report to
the parents the child’s absence if these
exceed:
a. 6 days c. 5 days
b. 10 days d. 20 days
51. When during suspension of the sentence the
youthful offender is found incorrigible or his
willfully failed to comply with the condition of
his rehabilitation program he shall be:

a. returned to the committing court for the

pronouncement of judgment
b. placed him under solitary confinement
c. be subjected to religious counseling
d. placed in a foster home
52. Which of the following is not a qualification
of an adopter?

a. he must be accused of a crime involving

moral turpitude
b. he must be at least 18 years of age
c. he must be in possession of full civil
capacity
d. in a position to support and care not only
his children but also the adopted
53. Shall mean the local government, together
with the society of individuals or institution,
both public and private in which a child lives.

a. family c. barangay
b. community d. home
54. The following are some grounds for
suspension or revocation of the license of a
child welfare agency, except:

a. the agency is being used for immoral

practices
b. there are few numbers of children under
its care
c. Lacks of financial capability to continue its
activities
d. Unsanitary place which is unfit for children
55. It is an institution or place established for
the purpose of curing or correcting youthful
offender or other disturbed children.

a. detention home
b. reception and study center
c. rehabilitation
d. child caring institution
56. Is a law which provides for the protection of
youth from any form of abuses or
maltreatment.

a. R.A. 6909 c. R.A. 7610

b. P.D. 603 d. R.A. 7658
57. An act of engaging children, whether male
or female, in sexual intercourse or lascivious
conduct for money, profit or other
consideration:

a. child exploitation c. child labor

b. child prostitution d. child abuse
58. It is the Juvenile Justice and Welfare act of
2006:
a. RA 9262 c. RA 9344
b. RA 9346 d. PD 603

59. He is a child who has a greater tendency to

commit crimes
a. child in conflict with the law
b. child offender
c. child at risk
d. child
60. This refers to the apprehension or taking
into custody of a child who committed an
offense by the law enforcement officer:

a. initial contact with the child

b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
61. A child whose age does not exceed fifteen
years is totally exempt from criminal
liability, pursuant to:

a. Criminal justice and Welfare Act of 2006

b. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006
c. law against child abuse
d. Revised Penal Code
62. This government office is created pursuant
to RA 9344 and it shall be and attached
agency to the Department of Justice:

a. Local council for the Protection of

Children
b. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
c. Sangguniang Kabataan
d. Samahan
63. A child in conflict with the law who is under
fifteen years of age shall be turned over to
the ______ by the police for the
determination of appropriate program.

a. nearest police station

b. local DSWD
c. family
d. court
64. This common procedure applied when
arresting an offender shall NOT be employed
when the person who is the subject of
apprehension is a child.

a. informing the suspect is a child

b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
65. A _____________ is one who has
committed a crime and is undergoing either
intervention or diversion program under the
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006:

a. Child in conflict with the law

b. Child offender
c. child at risk
d. child
66. It is the Anti-Violence Against Women and
their Children Act of 2006
a. RA 9346 c. RA 9262
b. RA 9344 d. RA 9263

67. According to R.A. 7610, children in situation of

armed conflicts are considered:
a. hostages c. zone of danger
b. zone of peace d. subject of protection
68. The diversion proceedings must be completed
within ________ days
a. 30 c. 45
b. 60 d. 20

69. If the court finds that the child in conflict with

the law is guilty of the crime he is accused of
doing, the __________ of the sentence shall
automatically suspended:
a. imposition c. determination
b. execution d. discharge
70. The child in conflict with the law whose
sentence has been suspended shall be
brought back to the court when he reaches
the age of _________ for final disposition
of his case.
a. 21 c. 18
b. 19 d. 20
71. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
conditions which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feelings of security of the child and
most encouraging to the child's physical,
psychological and emotional development. It also
means the least detrimental available alternative for
safeguarding the growth and development of the
child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
72. It refers to a child who is vulnerable to and
at the risk of committing criminal offenses
because of personal, family and social
circumstances?

a. Juvenile
b. Childe at risk
c. Child in conflict with the law
d. Youthful offender
73. It refers to a series of activities which are
designed to address issues that caused the child
to commit an offense. It may take the form of an
individualized treatment program which may
include counseling, skills training, education,
and other activities that will enhance his/her
psychological, emotional and psycho-social
well-being.

a. Intervention c. diversion
b. Diversion program d. rehabilitation
74. It refers to the program that the child in
conflict with the law is required to undergo
after he/she is found responsible for an offense
without resorting to formal court proceedings.

a. Intervention c. diversion
b. Diversion program d. rehabilitation
75. It refers to a principle which requires a process
of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the
community .

a. Commulative justice
b. Restorative justice
c. Social Vengence
d. Retribution
76. Refers to offenses where there is no private
offended party.

a. private crime c. public crime

b. victimless crime d. formal crime
77. In case of a child in conflict with the law his
age shall be determine in the absence of proof
what principle shall be observed?

a. He is presumed be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced
pending such issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough
to prove his age.
78. Contest as to the age of a child in conflict with the
law shall be filed:

a. RTC c. MTC
b. Family Court d. Court of Appeals
79. Any peace officer after initial contact with the
child in conflict with the law whose age is 15
below shall_____?

a. bring him to the DSWD.

b. release the child to the custody of his /her
parents.
c. shall give notice to the local social welfare
and development officer who will determine
the appropriate programs .
d. released to duly registered nongovernmental
or religious organization.
80. In the absence of the parents, guardian/relative
or when such child custody is not accepted, child
in conflict with the law shall be release to:

A. duly registered nongovernmental or religious

organization
B. a barangay official or a member of the Barangay
Council for the Protection of Children (BCPC)
C. a local social welfare and development officer or
DSWD.
D. all of these
81. It is the psychological, emotional and
behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims
and their inability to respond to repeated physical
and psychological violence?

A. Battered Woman Syndrome

B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape syndrome
 82. During the conduct of the initial investigation
of the child in conflict with the law or in the
taking of the child’s statements, the following
persons should be present EXCEPT:

a. child's counsel of choice or in the absence thereof, a

lawyer from the Public Attorney's Office;
b. the child's parents, guardian, or nearest relative, as
the case may be;
c. the local social welfare and development officer ;
d. the judge of the court where the case was filed
83. Child in conflict with the law may undergo
diversion program without necessity of court
intervention on the following:

a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committee

is not more than six (6) years imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed
exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed
exceeds six (6) years but not more than 12 years
imprisonment;
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed
does not exceeds 12 years imprisonment.
84. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in
conflict with the law is guilty of the crime charged,
the court shall:

A. Pronounce its judgment;

B. Wait for the application for suspension of sentence of
the child and order his turn over to DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict with law
under suspension of sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the final
discharge of the child in conflict with the law.
85. Once the child in conflict with the law reached
the age of 18 while under suspended sentence the
court may:

A. Order the execution of sentence;

B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the law;
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or to
its maximum age of 21.
D. Any of the above.
86. All records and proceedings involving children
in conflict with the law from initial contact until
final disposition of the case shall be:

a. place in the dockets of court forms part of the

public record;
b. should be open to the public;
c. should be considered restricted;
d. should be considered privileged and
confidential
87. They serve as the juvenile’s first contact with the
justice system:
a. barangay chairman c. prosecutor
b. police d. judge

88. Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18th

birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls
with greeting to herself. How will you classify
Mona as an offender?
a. juvenile offender c. habitual offender
b. adult offender d. both a and b
89. The civil status of a child in relation to his
parents:
a. paternity c. filiation
b. maternity d. foundling
90. An act committed by a minor that violates the
penal code of the government with authority over
the place in which the act occurred.
a. crime
b. juvenile delinquency
c. delinquency
d. felony
91. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile
delinquency when parents find it hard to
balance their jobs with their parental
responsibilities
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile
delinquency
c. parental rejection causes juvenile
delinquency
d. it is only within the family that a child
must learn his life values
92. The publication of photographs of persons or
children in various lewd or indecent poses meant
to cause sexual excitement is a form of:
a. illegal publication
b. child pornography
c. adult entertainment
d. obscene publication
93. What is the age of full criminal responsibility?
a. over 15 but under 18 years old
b. below 18 years of age
c. 18 to 70 years of age
d. 18 to 50 years of age
94. Mr. and Mrs. Mahilig, a poor couple with
10 children planned to sell their youngest
child to a rich childless relative in order to
give him a good future. What crime will you
charge the couple?

a. child trafficking c. child abuse

b. parental neglect d. no crime is
committed
95. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero,
roams the street 24 hours a day with no
place to go, surviving on foods given by
kind-hearted people with no one to
supervise him at his young age of six. How
do you categorize Pedro?
a. neglected child
b. independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
96. It refers to the taking into custody of a
child who has committed an offense.

a. arrest
b. juvenile arrest
c. initial contact with the child
d. apprehension
97. This common procedure applied when
arresting an offender shall NOT be
employed when the person who is the
subject of apprehension is a child:

a. informing the subject of his rights

b. stating the reasons of arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
98. A child in conflict with the law must be
searched by:
a. the law enforcement officer who
apprehended him
b. the law enforcement officer of the
same gender
c. the law enforcement officer on duty
d. any law enforcement officer
 99. Ms. Wang Bu, a 25-year old mongoloid was
raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Sha Bu. How
do you classify her as a victim?
a. an adult c. an insane
b. a child d. an adolescent
100. One of the rights of children in conflict with
the law is the right not to be imposed a sentence
of:
a. reclusion perpetua
b. death penalty
c. life imprisonment
d. reclusion temporal
 HUMAN BEHAVIOR
AND
CRISIS MANAGEMENT
1. It is individual does that involves self-initiated
action and/or reaction to a given situation.
a. human behavior c. response
b. stimulus d. will

2. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder

that is a manifestation of withdrawal from
reality.
a. Psychosomatic illness c. Psychoticism
b. Psychoneurosis d. Psychosis
3.This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed
to the principles upon which society is based.
a. Anti-social c. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath
4. The defense mechanism that enables individuals to
justify their behavior to themselves and others by
making excuses or formulating fictitious, socially
approved arguments to convince themselves and
others that their behavior is logical and acceptable.
a. sublimation c. projection
b. fantasy d. rationalization
5. This occurs when goal achievement is
blocked.
a. frustration c. conflict
b. anxiety d. apathy
6. This type of conflict occurs when there is an
attraction to an object or state of affairs at
the same time repulsion towards something
associated with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
7. This is the process of excluding from the
consciousness a thought or feeling that
cause pain, shame or guilt.
a. identification c. regression
b. repression d. fixation
8. This an attempt to disguise or cover-up
felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by
emphasizing a desirable type of
behavior.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
9. The aggregate observable responses of an
organism to internal and external stimuli.
a. human behavior c. behavior
b. personality d. attribute

10. The process by which behavior changes as

a result of experience or practice.
a. actualization c. learning
b. thinking d. feeling
11. A field of medicine that specializes in the
understanding, diagnosis, treatment, and
prevention of mental problems.
a. psychology c. psychiatry
b. philosophy d. sociology
12. This type of conflict occurs when there are
two desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
13. This type of conflict when there are two
courses of action, each of which has both
pleasant and unpleasant consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
14. This is the process of excluding into the
consciousness a thought or feeling that causes
pain, shame, or guilt.
a. identification c. repression
b. suppression d. fixation
15. This is an attempt to disguise or cover up felt
deficiencies or undesirable traits by
emphasizing a desirable type.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
16. This is the process of interpreting our behavior
in ways more acceptable to the self by using
reasoning and alibis to substitute causes.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
17. This is the region of the mind in which the
perception of the individual whether within
or outside is brought into awareness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
18. This is the region of the mind the
materials of which one is not aware of but
with the effort maybe brought to the
consciousness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
19. This is the region of the mind the individual is
not ware of.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
20. This part of the psychic structure is the source
of instinct, instinctive energy, occupies the
unconscious region, reservoir of percept, libido,
habit tendencies, pleasure principle region,
immoral, illogical, no unity of purpose and the
repressed materials join or pleasure it.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
21. This part of the psychic structures
merges with the id. It is mostly conscious
and partly unconscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
22. This part of the outgrowth modification
of the ego. It is generally unconscious
and partly conscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
23. This is a false interpretation of an external
stimulus.
a. hallucination c. delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
24. This is a form of mental disorder resulting
from the degeneration or disorder of the
brain characterized by general mental
weakness, forgetfulness, and loss of
coherence and total inability to reason.
a. melancholia c. amnesia
b. dementia d. apathy
25. A false or erroneous belief in something,
which is not a fact.
a. hallucination c. delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion

26. This is an excessive, irrational and

uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural
situation or object.
a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania
27. It is characterized by anxiety, depression
and phobia.
a. psychoses c. neuroses
b. abnormality d. psychopathy

28. A distortion in reality such as delusion,

hallucination and regression.
a. psychoses c. neuroses
b. abnormality d. psychopathy
29. An abnormal mental condition whereby a
person perform an act while sleeping.
a. delirium c. somnambulism
b. dreaming d. somnolencia

30. A state whereby a person is half asleep or in

condition between sleep and being awake.
a. delirium c. somnambulism
b. dreaming d. somnolencia
31. A transmission of physical characteristics,
mental traits, tendency to disease, etc. from
parents to offspring.
a. heredity c. DNA
b. transmission d. genes

32. An uncontrollable morbid propensity to

steal or pathological stealing.
a. kleptomania c. legal insanity
b. phobia d. introvert
33. A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and
morbid sense of religious feeling.
a. mania c. mania fanatica
b. delusion d. legal insanity

34. Morbid craving, usually an erotic nature for

dead bodies.
a. sex maniac c. masochism
b. necrophilism d. bestialism
35. A sexual perversion in which a person derives
pleasure from being demented or cruelly treated.
a. sadism c. bestiality
b. masochism d. megalomania
Megalomania = a mental disorder in which the subject
thinks himself as great or exalted.
36. An amnesia state where one wonders away from
home or usual surroundings and when awareness set
in, there is no recollection as to how he or she came to
be there.
a. insanity c. multiple personality
b. somnambulism d. fugue
37. The most tolerated way of handling frustration. It
is a man’s last result when a person attempts to
overcome fear from an anticipated situation or
event.
a. coping mechanism c.  aggression
b. defense mechanism d. fight-flight
38. This is an excessive, irrational and
uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation
or object.
a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania
Melancholia = a mental disorder characterized
by excessive brooding and depression of spirit.
39. This is a sudden and irresistible force
compelling a person to the conscious
performance of some action without motive
or forethought.
a. compulsion c. impulsion
b. obsession d. delusion
40. This is impairment in desire for sexual
gratification in the male or an inability to
achieve it.
a. masturbation c. prostitution
b. exhibitionism d. frigidity
41. This is any pattern of behavior including a
habitual, preferred, and compelling need for
sexual gratification by any technique, other
than willing coitus between man and woman
and involving actions that are directly results
in genital excite.
a. crime against chastity
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation
d. sexual offenses
 
43. Animals are used for the achievement of
sexual excitation and gratification.
a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality

44. The achievement of sexual pleasure

through clandestine peeping.
a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
45. Nick, a chemist, after tasting an unripe
mango grimaced. This sensation is said to
be:
a. olfactory c. auditory
b. cutaneous d. gustatory

46. Bong, who usually gets sexual stimulation

and gratification with another man
manifests what deviant sexual behavior?
a. lesbianism c. homosexuality
b. pedophilia d. incest
47. Mr. La Paz, a person working in a funeral
parlor, dreams of having sexual intercourse
with a corpse. What type of sexual deviation
did he commit?
a. necrophilia c. bestiality
b. pedophilia d. none
48. It is crime inspired by another crime that has
been publicized in the news media or fictionally
or artistically represented in which the offender
incorporates aspects of the original offense.
a. crime of imitation c. publicized crime
b. inspirational crime d. copycat crime
49. A personality disorder characterized by
suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, rigidity,
envy, excessive self-importance, and
argumentativeness plus a tendency to blame
others for one's own mistakes and failures
and to ascribe evil motives to others.
a. anti-social personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. paranoid personality
d. schizotypal personality
50. A personality disorder which is
characterized by a lifelong history of
inability to conform to social norms.
a. anti-social personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. paranoid personality
d. schizotypal personality
51. The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
a. crowd control c. negotiation
b. assault d. traffic control
52. One of the following is not a terrorist act:
a. Hostage taking c. robbery
b. bombing d. assassination

53. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a

nearby tree manifests what particular
defense mechanism?
a. repression c. sublimation
b. displacement d. projection
54. A group of bank robbers barricaded
themselves inside the bank together with
their hostages; their demand is geared
towards:
a. revenge c. economic gain
b. escape d. vindication
55. The most important person in a hostage
situation:
a. negotiator c. hostage taker
b. commander d. hostage
56. You are the first to respond to a call
wherein a dead body is found at the scene of
the crime with several onlookers. As a rule,
you are not allowed to express opinion. Why?
a. no useful purpose will be served
b. you do not know the cause of death
c. the killer may be around
d. your opinion may influence the negotiator
57. When both hostage and hotage taker
develop a mutual feeling of sympathy,
understanding, and other shared stand on
issues, leading them to become enemies
of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. Negotiation
c. Confrontation
d. familiarization
58. A dissociative disorder in which the
individual shifts abruptly and repeatedly
from one personality to another as if more
than one person were inhabiting the same
body. This is commonly known as "split
personality disorder.“
a. amnesia
b. multiple personality disorder
c. Psychogenic Fugue State
d. Depersonalization
59. Containment in a hostage taking situation
refers to:
a. police handling of the situation
b. negotiation
c. contact
d. control of area and people

60. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking

situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate,
negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
61. In hostage situation, non-verbal
communication which indicates openness
and willingness to listen can be shown by:

a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant

position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture
that you are willing to negotiate
61. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation
EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
62. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these,
EXCEPT
a. mental derange
b. suffers servere depression and mental aberration
c. sociopath personality d. mental balance
63. These are not negotiable in a hostage
taking situation:
a. guns and ammunition c. drinks
b. foods d. all of these

64. One of the following is not a terrorist

tactics:
a. bombing c. assassination
c. hostage-taking d. media
exposure
65. In general, hostage takers are emotionally
tense, when trapped expand a great deal of
emotional physical and psychic energy,
hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one
advantage for the authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to
surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear
them down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to
surrender.
66. When a highly trained and motivated group of
hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands,
they were left with three options: (1) choose
martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide;
(2) lessen demands to a more realistic
proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose
martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
67. The best approach in negotiating with a
Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:

a. to accept their beliefs as being

true
b. to try to commence them that their
beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
68. The following are reasons, why common criminals
are easy to negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
69. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage
situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage
taker
70. P/SSupt. Coronel is the highest ranking PNP
officer who first arrive in a hostage taking incident.
As a rule he serves now as a groun commander on
the said crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage
rescue operations, the objectives are as follows,
except one:
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or
unharmed, and set free.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by
yielding to the demands of the hostage
takers.
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
71. In a hostage negotiation and crisis
management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-
taker face-to-face
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated
agreement
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the
hostage taker
72. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose
but “SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
a. the truth will prevail c. kill the hostage-taker
b. to save lives d. save the hostages

73. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage

negotiation.
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the
hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the
hostage-taker
74. Last option in hostage crisis:
a. a. crowd control c. negotiation
b. traffic control d. assault

75. It is any incident in which people are being held by

another person or persons against their will, usually
by force or coercion, and demands are being made
by the perpetrator.
a. kidnapping c. crisis management
b. hostage incident d. abduction
76. The following are the priorities in hostage taking
situation, except:
a. preservation of life
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
c. inclusion of the media
d. successfully negotiate
77. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who
take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b. by reason of prolonged frustration,
despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
78. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out
assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. medical team c. negotiation team
b. tactical team d. snipers
79. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic
used is_____?
A. Kidnapping C. Bombing
B. Assassination D. Extortion
80. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for
death is called;
A. eros C. animus
B. thanatos D. lupus
END